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Queensland regulation
What this regulation does (mechanics first)
Establishes a detailed licensing, approval and compliance framework for explosives in Queensland. It sets who may manufacture, import, export, store, sell, transport and use different types of explosives and under what conditions (see Parts 2–11). Key authorisations include licences and permits for manufacturing, selling, storing, transporting, using explosives and specific occupational licences (shotfirer, fireworks contractor/operator, explosives driver) (s19, s24–s36A).
Creates security-sensitive classifications and requires security clearances for certain explosives and authorities; it also prescribes who may be exempted from clearance requirements (s8A, s8AA, s8AB). It requires holders and holders’ employees to notify the chief inspector of events that may affect suitability (s18B, s43, s43A).
Requires holders of many authorities that employ people to have, document and operate a safety and security management system (SSMS) and security plan. The SSMS must include system and operational procedures listed in schedule 3 and a security plan identifying risks and record-keeping to establish chain of custody (s46A, s46C, schedule 3).
Prescribes detailed operational rules for specific activities: manufacture (Part 6), storage (Part 8), transport (Part 9), use (Part 10), sale (Part 7), fireworks displays (Part 10, div.3), and ammunition collection (Part 11). Those rules reference Australian Standards, the Australian explosives code, the Australian dangerous goods code and UN model regulations, and allow approved alternative measures where they achieve equivalent risk (s9, s10, s73, s105, s136, etc.).
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Direct links to the current provisions in Explosives Regulation 2017.
This regulation may be cited as the Explosives Regulation 2017 .
This regulation commences on 1 September 2017.
The dictionary in schedule 7 defines particular words used in this regulation.
In this regulation, a reference to classifying an explosive is a reference to— for an explosive to which the UN model regulations apply— assigning the explosive to a class, division and compatibility group under the UN model regulations; or assigning the explosive to a class, division and packing group under the UN model regulations; or for an explosive to which the UN model regulations do not apply— classifying the explosive as an explosive too dangerous to transport; or classifying the explosive as non-dangerous goods.
In this regulation, a reference to the mass of an explosive is, unless stated to be a reference to the gross weight of the explosive, a reference to the mass of explosive material contained in the explosive. The gross weight of a box of distress signals might be 25kg, but the distress signals in the box might contain 2kg of explosive material. If this regulation stated a maximum amount for distress signals of 5kg, the box of distress signals would be less than the maximum amount.
For schedule 2 , definition explosive , paragraph (b) of the Act , each of the following is declared to be an explosive— a precursor; ammunition that does not contain explosives; security sensitive ammonium nitrate. However, subsection (1) (b) does not apply for section 38 of the Act . For subsection (1) (b) , ammunition does not include inert components of small arms ammunition. cartridge cases, projectiles (sec.6-ssec.1) For schedule 2 , definition explosive , paragraph (b) of the Act , each of the following is declared to be an explosive— a precursor; ammunition that does not contain explosives; security sensitive ammonium nitrate. (sec.6-ssec.2) However, subsection (1) (b) does not apply for section 38 of the Act . (sec.6-ssec.3) For subsection (1) (b) , ammunition does not include inert components of small arms ammunition. cartridge cases, projectiles
An explosive is exempt from the Act if— the explosive is an ingredient in a mixture prepared for a use that does not include initiating the mixture; and nitroglycerine contained in a tablet nitrocellulose contained in paint or nail polish the mixture is not— a class 1 explosive; or an authorised explosive. A person who possesses an explosive mentioned in subsection (1) must not use or modify the explosive to produce an explosive effect. Maximum penalty—200 penalty units. (sec.7-ssec.1) An explosive is exempt from the Act if— the explosive is an ingredient in a mixture prepared for a use that does not include initiating the mixture; and nitroglycerine contained in a tablet nitrocellulose contained in paint or nail polish the mixture is not— a class 1 explosive; or an authorised explosive. (sec.7-ssec.2) A person who possesses an explosive mentioned in subsection (1) must not use or modify the explosive to produce an explosive effect. Maximum penalty—200 penalty units.
s 7A ins 2025 SL No. 43 s 3 exp 1 July 2025 (see s 7(4))
The following entities are exempt from part 4 , divisions 2 , 7 and 8 of the Act — a police officer, special constable or police recruit of the Queensland Police Service who is acting in the course of the person’s official duties; a person mentioned in paragraph (a) who is not on duty as a member of the Queensland Police Service, in relation to the possession of— small arms ammunition; or an explosive that is an exhibit in a court proceeding; an officer of another State’s police service who is acting in the course of the officer’s official duties in Queensland for the Queensland Police Service; a corrective services officer who is acting in the course of the officer’s official duties. However, subsection (1) (b) applies only if the person is acting in accordance with any directions of the commissioner of the police service given in relation to the off-duty possession of ammunition or an explosive that is an exhibit. An inspector who is acting in the course of the inspector’s official duties is exempt from part 4 , divisions 2 and 6 to 8 of the Act . In this section— police recruit see the Police Service Administration Act 1990 , schedule 2 . special constable see the Police Service Administration Act 1990 , schedule 2 . s 8 amd 2023 Act No. 7 s 68 s ch 1 pt 2 ; 2024 SL No. 167 s 45 (sec.8-ssec.1) The following entities are exempt from part 4 , divisions 2 , 7 and 8 of the Act — a police officer, special constable or police recruit of the Queensland Police Service who is acting in the course of the person’s official duties; a person mentioned in paragraph (a) who is not on duty as a member of the Queensland Police Service, in relation to the possession of— small arms ammunition; or an explosive that is an exhibit in a court proceeding; an officer of another State’s police service who is acting in the course of the officer’s official duties in Queensland for the Queensland Police Service; a corrective services officer who is acting in the course of the officer’s official duties. (sec.8-ssec.2) However, subsection (1) (b) applies only if the person is acting in accordance with any directions of the commissioner of the police service given in relation to the off-duty possession of ammunition or an explosive that is an exhibit. (sec.8-ssec.3) An inspector who is acting in the course of the inspector’s official duties is exempt from part 4 , divisions 2 and 6 to 8 of the Act . (sec.8-ssec.4) In this section— police recruit see the Police Service Administration Act 1990 , schedule 2 . special constable see the Police Service Administration Act 1990 , schedule 2 . s 8 amd 2023 Act No. 7 s 68 s ch 1 pt 2 ; 2024 SL No. 167 s 45
This section prescribes exemptions for section 7 of the Act . Despite section 15A (2) of the Act , the Queensland Police Service is an appropriate person to hold, or to continue to hold, a security sensitive authority even if an employee of the Queensland Police Service— has or will have unsupervised access to an explosive in the course of the employee’s employment; and does not hold a security clearance. Despite section 33 (1) (b) of the Act , the Queensland Police Service may allow an employee of the Queensland Police Service to have access to an explosive— even if the employee does not hold a security clearance; and even if the access is not in the presence, and under the direct supervision, of a person who holds a security clearance. To remove any doubt, it is declared that Queensland Police Service must not allow an employee of the Queensland Police Service to have access to an explosive unless— the employee is the age prescribed by section 18A ; and the access is within the course of the employee’s employment. s 8AA ins 2024 SL No. 167 s 47 (sec.8AA-ssec.1) This section prescribes exemptions for section 7 of the Act . (sec.8AA-ssec.2) Despite section 15A (2) of the Act , the Queensland Police Service is an appropriate person to hold, or to continue to hold, a security sensitive authority even if an employee of the Queensland Police Service— has or will have unsupervised access to an explosive in the course of the employee’s employment; and does not hold a security clearance. (sec.8AA-ssec.3) Despite section 33 (1) (b) of the Act , the Queensland Police Service may allow an employee of the Queensland Police Service to have access to an explosive— even if the employee does not hold a security clearance; and even if the access is not in the presence, and under the direct supervision, of a person who holds a security clearance. (sec.8AA-ssec.4) To remove any doubt, it is declared that Queensland Police Service must not allow an employee of the Queensland Police Service to have access to an explosive unless— the employee is the age prescribed by section 18A ; and the access is within the course of the employee’s employment.
This section prescribes exemptions for section 7 of the Act . Despite section 15 (4) (b) (iii) of the Act , the chief inspector, in deciding whether a government entity or a Commonwealth entity is an appropriate person, is not required to consider whether an executive officer of the government entity or the Commonwealth entity would be considered to be an appropriate person under section 15 of the Act . Despite section 17 (2) (c) of the Act , the chief inspector may issue a security sensitive authority to a government entity or a Commonwealth entity even if each executive officer of the government entity or the Commonwealth entity does not hold a security clearance. Despite section 23 (1) (k) of the Act , the expiry, cancellation, suspension or surrender of a security clearance held by an executive officer of a government entity or a Commonwealth entity is not a ground for suspending or cancelling an authority held by the government entity or the Commonwealth entity. s 8AB ins 2024 SL No. 167 s 47 (sec.8AB-ssec.1) This section prescribes exemptions for section 7 of the Act . (sec.8AB-ssec.2) Despite section 15 (4) (b) (iii) of the Act , the chief inspector, in deciding whether a government entity or a Commonwealth entity is an appropriate person, is not required to consider whether an executive officer of the government entity or the Commonwealth entity would be considered to be an appropriate person under section 15 of the Act . (sec.8AB-ssec.3) Despite section 17 (2) (c) of the Act , the chief inspector may issue a security sensitive authority to a government entity or a Commonwealth entity even if each executive officer of the government entity or the Commonwealth entity does not hold a security clearance. (sec.8AB-ssec.4) Despite section 23 (1) (k) of the Act , the expiry, cancellation, suspension or surrender of a security clearance held by an executive officer of a government entity or a Commonwealth entity is not a ground for suspending or cancelling an authority held by the government entity or the Commonwealth entity.
For schedule 2 of the Act , definition security sensitive explosive , paragraph (c) , an unrestricted firework is prescribed. For schedule 2 of the Act , definition security sensitive explosive , paragraph (f) , the following explosives are prescribed— security sensitive ammonium nitrate; small arms ammunition with a bullet or projectile containing an incendiary, tracer, explosive, lachrymatory or noxious composition that is permitted to be used by the holder of a licence to use explosives mentioned in schedule 1 , part 1 , item 1, paragraph (c) . The effect of paragraph (b) is that a licence to use explosives mentioned in paragraph (b) is a security sensitive authority in relation to which the holder is required to hold a security clearance. See section 2A , and schedule 2 , definition security sensitive authority , of the Act . s 8A ins 2019 Act No. 7 s 94 amd 2024 SL No. 167 s 46 (sec.8A-ssec.1) For schedule 2 of the Act , definition security sensitive explosive , paragraph (c) , an unrestricted firework is prescribed. (sec.8A-ssec.2) For schedule 2 of the Act , definition security sensitive explosive , paragraph (f) , the following explosives are prescribed— security sensitive ammonium nitrate; small arms ammunition with a bullet or projectile containing an incendiary, tracer, explosive, lachrymatory or noxious composition that is permitted to be used by the holder of a licence to use explosives mentioned in schedule 1 , part 1 , item 1, paragraph (c) . The effect of paragraph (b) is that a licence to use explosives mentioned in paragraph (b) is a security sensitive authority in relation to which the holder is required to hold a security clearance. See section 2A , and schedule 2 , definition security sensitive authority , of the Act .
This section applies if this regulation states that a person may use alternative safety and security measures for any of the following (each a stated provision )— an Australian Standard; a code of practice; a provision of this regulation. The person may use systems, methods or procedures ( alternative safety and security measures ) that do not comply with the stated provision if— the alternative safety and security measures achieve a level of risk (the required level of risk ) that is equal to or less than the level of risk achieved by the systems, methods or procedures provided for under the stated provision; and the person records the alternative safety and security measures in writing. The person must, on the request of an inspector, give the inspector a copy of the document recording the alternative safety and security measures. The inspector may, if the inspector reasonably suspects the alternative safety and security measures do not achieve the required level of risk, give the person a remedial action notice under section 102 of the Act . The notice must state, in addition to the matters mentioned in section 102 (3) of the Act , that the alternative safety and security measures do not achieve the required level of risk. s 9 amd 2019 Act No. 7 s 95 (sec.9-ssec.1) This section applies if this regulation states that a person may use alternative safety and security measures for any of the following (each a stated provision )— an Australian Standard; a code of practice; a provision of this regulation. (sec.9-ssec.2) The person may use systems, methods or procedures ( alternative safety and security measures ) that do not comply with the stated provision if— the alternative safety and security measures achieve a level of risk (the required level of risk ) that is equal to or less than the level of risk achieved by the systems, methods or procedures provided for under the stated provision; and the person records the alternative safety and security measures in writing. (sec.9-ssec.3) The person must, on the request of an inspector, give the inspector a copy of the document recording the alternative safety and security measures. (sec.9-ssec.4) The inspector may, if the inspector reasonably suspects the alternative safety and security measures do not achieve the required level of risk, give the person a remedial action notice under section 102 of the Act . (sec.9-ssec.5) The notice must state, in addition to the matters mentioned in section 102 (3) of the Act , that the alternative safety and security measures do not achieve the required level of risk.
This section applies if there is an inconsistency between this regulation and any of the following documents— an Australian Standard mentioned in this regulation; a code of practice mentioned in this regulation; the UN model regulations; the UN tests and criteria. This regulation prevails to the extent of the inconsistency. (sec.10-ssec.1) This section applies if there is an inconsistency between this regulation and any of the following documents— an Australian Standard mentioned in this regulation; a code of practice mentioned in this regulation; the UN model regulations; the UN tests and criteria. (sec.10-ssec.2) This regulation prevails to the extent of the inconsistency.
In this part— prescribed information , for a request that an explosive be declared to be an authorised explosive or an application for an explosives trial approval, means each of the following— a description of the explosive, including— the name of the explosive; and the design, composition and formulation of the explosive, including the mass of the explosive; and the intended use of the explosive and how it functions; and the classification code and the United Nations number, within the meaning of the UN model regulations, for the explosive; and the shelf life recommended for the explosive by its manufacturer; details of all possible uses of the explosive and the purpose of the applicant’s intended use or uses of the explosive; for an explosive suitable for use in an underground coal mine—details of the explosive’s suitability for the use, including the results of any tests carried out to decide the explosive’s suitability; information relevant to classifying the explosive, including— the results of any tests carried out, under the UN tests and criteria, to classify the explosive; and any classification code for the explosive decided by the Commonwealth, another State or a foreign country; details of the manufacture of the explosive, including— the name of the explosive’s manufacturer; and the country in which the explosive has been manufactured by the manufacturer; and the period for which the explosive has been manufactured by the manufacturer; and any information in the applicant’s possession about the safety history of the explosive’s use, whether in Australia or elsewhere; if the explosive is packaged, details of the packaging, including— markings on the package; and the number of explosives contained in the package; and if the packaging has been tested under the Australian explosives code or the Australian dangerous goods code—the results of the testing and the approval number assigned to the packaging; a safety data sheet for the explosive; a written statement, prepared by the supplier of the explosive, of the supplier’s directions for the safe use and disposal of the explosive. trial , for an explosives trial approval, means the trial, experiment or examination for which an unauthorised explosive or prohibited explosive will be manufactured, possessed, sold, stored, transported or used.
For section 8 (2) (b) of the Act , an explosive must be classified— for an explosive to which the UN model regulations apply— according to the explosive’s class, division and compatibility group under the UN model regulations; or according to the explosive’s class, division and packing group under the UN model regulations; or for an explosive to which the UN model regulations do not apply— if the explosive is mentioned in the Australian explosives code, appendix 9—as an explosive too dangerous to transport; or if the explosive is a substance declared to be an explosive under section 6 —as non-dangerous goods.
A person may ask the chief inspector to declare an explosive to be an authorised explosive. The request must— be in the approved form; and include or be accompanied by the prescribed information; and be accompanied by the fee stated in schedule 2 , part 1 for the request. The chief inspector may ask the person to give, within the period stated by the chief inspector but at least 28 days after the date of the request, any further relevant information or evidence the chief inspector requires to decide whether to make the declaration. Without limiting subsection (3) , the chief inspector may ask the person to give a sample of the explosive. The person must give the chief inspector the further information or evidence requested. The person is taken to have withdrawn the request if the person fails to provide the further information or evidence requested within the period stated by the chief inspector. (sec.13-ssec.1) A person may ask the chief inspector to declare an explosive to be an authorised explosive. (sec.13-ssec.2) The request must— be in the approved form; and include or be accompanied by the prescribed information; and be accompanied by the fee stated in schedule 2 , part 1 for the request. (sec.13-ssec.3) The chief inspector may ask the person to give, within the period stated by the chief inspector but at least 28 days after the date of the request, any further relevant information or evidence the chief inspector requires to decide whether to make the declaration. (sec.13-ssec.4) Without limiting subsection (3) , the chief inspector may ask the person to give a sample of the explosive. (sec.13-ssec.5) The person must give the chief inspector the further information or evidence requested. (sec.13-ssec.6) The person is taken to have withdrawn the request if the person fails to provide the further information or evidence requested within the period stated by the chief inspector.
This section applies if the chief inspector receives a request under section 13 that the chief inspector declare an explosive to be an authorised explosive. The chief inspector must, as soon as practicable after deciding whether to make the declaration, give the person— if the chief inspector decides to make the declaration—notice of the declaration; or if the chief inspector decides not to make the declaration—an information notice for the decision. (sec.14-ssec.1) This section applies if the chief inspector receives a request under section 13 that the chief inspector declare an explosive to be an authorised explosive. (sec.14-ssec.2) The chief inspector must, as soon as practicable after deciding whether to make the declaration, give the person— if the chief inspector decides to make the declaration—notice of the declaration; or if the chief inspector decides not to make the declaration—an information notice for the decision.
For section 10 of the Act , an explosive mentioned in schedule 1 , part 1 is a prohibited explosive.
A person may apply to the chief inspector for an explosives trial approval. The application must— be in the approved form; and include or be accompanied by as much of the prescribed information for the application as the applicant can reasonably obtain; and be accompanied by the fee stated in schedule 2 , part 1 for the application. The approved form must provide for the inclusion of the following information— the reason for, or purpose of, the trial; the date the trial will start and the estimated completion date; where the trial will be carried out; the estimated amount of explosive that will be used for the trial; the name of the person who will supervise the trial. The chief inspector may ask the person to give, within the period stated by the chief inspector but at least 28 days after the date of the request, any further relevant information or evidence the chief inspector requires to decide whether to issue the approval. Without limiting subsection (4) , the chief inspector may ask the person to give a sample of an explosive that will be used for the trial. The person must give the chief inspector the further information or evidence requested. The person is taken to have withdrawn the application if the person fails to provide the further information or evidence requested within the period stated by the chief inspector. s 16 amd 2020 SL No. 107 s 13 (sec.16-ssec.1) A person may apply to the chief inspector for an explosives trial approval. (sec.16-ssec.2) The application must— be in the approved form; and include or be accompanied by as much of the prescribed information for the application as the applicant can reasonably obtain; and be accompanied by the fee stated in schedule 2 , part 1 for the application. (sec.16-ssec.3) The approved form must provide for the inclusion of the following information— the reason for, or purpose of, the trial; the date the trial will start and the estimated completion date; where the trial will be carried out; the estimated amount of explosive that will be used for the trial; the name of the person who will supervise the trial. (sec.16-ssec.4) The chief inspector may ask the person to give, within the period stated by the chief inspector but at least 28 days after the date of the request, any further relevant information or evidence the chief inspector requires to decide whether to issue the approval. (sec.16-ssec.5) Without limiting subsection (4) , the chief inspector may ask the person to give a sample of an explosive that will be used for the trial. (sec.16-ssec.6) The person must give the chief inspector the further information or evidence requested. (sec.16-ssec.7) The person is taken to have withdrawn the application if the person fails to provide the further information or evidence requested within the period stated by the chief inspector.
The chief inspector must consider an application for an explosives trial approval and decide to— issue the approval with— the conditions stated in section 18 ; and any other conditions imposed by the chief inspector that are consistent with the conditions stated in section 18 ; or refuse to issue the approval. If the chief inspector decides to issue the explosives trial approval, the chief inspector must, as soon as practicable, give the applicant— the approval; and if the chief inspector decides to impose conditions on the approval under subsection (1) (a) (ii) —an information notice for the decision. If the chief inspector decides not to issue the explosives trial approval, the chief inspector must, as soon as practicable, give the applicant an information notice for the decision. (sec.17-ssec.1) The chief inspector must consider an application for an explosives trial approval and decide to— issue the approval with— the conditions stated in section 18 ; and any other conditions imposed by the chief inspector that are consistent with the conditions stated in section 18 ; or refuse to issue the approval. (sec.17-ssec.2) If the chief inspector decides to issue the explosives trial approval, the chief inspector must, as soon as practicable, give the applicant— the approval; and if the chief inspector decides to impose conditions on the approval under subsection (1) (a) (ii) —an information notice for the decision. (sec.17-ssec.3) If the chief inspector decides not to issue the explosives trial approval, the chief inspector must, as soon as practicable, give the applicant an information notice for the decision.
An explosives trial approval is subject to the following conditions— the trial must not take place without the written consent of the owner or occupier of the place where the trial is carried out; the holder of the approval must ensure the trial is carried out in accordance in all material respects with the information given to the chief inspector with the application for the approval; the holder of the approval must give the chief inspector a written report about the trial as soon as practicable after the trial is completed. For subsection (1) (c) , the report must state— the results of the trial; and any action the holder of the approval proposes to take in relation to the explosive. (sec.18-ssec.1) An explosives trial approval is subject to the following conditions— the trial must not take place without the written consent of the owner or occupier of the place where the trial is carried out; the holder of the approval must ensure the trial is carried out in accordance in all material respects with the information given to the chief inspector with the application for the approval; the holder of the approval must give the chief inspector a written report about the trial as soon as practicable after the trial is completed. (sec.18-ssec.2) For subsection (1) (c) , the report must state— the results of the trial; and any action the holder of the approval proposes to take in relation to the explosive.
For section 33 (1) (a) of the Act , the following ages are prescribed— for an employee who is employed to drive a vehicle that is transporting explosives—21 years or more; otherwise—18 years or more. This section does not apply in relation to an employee who is employed to work at a mine. s 18A ins 2019 Act No. 7 s 96 (sec.18A-ssec.1) For section 33 (1) (a) of the Act , the following ages are prescribed— for an employee who is employed to drive a vehicle that is transporting explosives—21 years or more; otherwise—18 years or more. (sec.18A-ssec.2) This section does not apply in relation to an employee who is employed to work at a mine.
This section applies if any of the following events (each a notifiable event ) happens during the term of a security clearance— the holder of the security clearance is, in Queensland or elsewhere, convicted of or charged with a relevant offence; the holder of the security clearance is named as the respondent in a domestic violence order, police protection direction or police protection notice; release conditions are imposed on the holder of the security clearance under the Domestic and Family Violence Protection Act 2012 , section 125 ; the holder of the security clearance becomes aware of another change in circumstances that affects the holder’s suitability to continue to hold the security clearance; a change in the holder’s mental health the name or address of the holder of the security clearance changes. The holder of the security clearance must, as soon as practicable after the holder becomes aware the notifiable event has happened, give the chief inspector a notice about the event, unless the holder has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty— for a notifiable event mentioned in subsection (1) (d) —50 penalty units; or for a notifiable event mentioned in subsection (1) (e) —20 penalty units; or otherwise—200 penalty units. s 18B ins 2019 Act No. 7 s 96 reloc 2020 SL No. 170 s 6 amd 2025 SL No. 129 s 19 (sec.18B-ssec.1) This section applies if any of the following events (each a notifiable event ) happens during the term of a security clearance— the holder of the security clearance is, in Queensland or elsewhere, convicted of or charged with a relevant offence; the holder of the security clearance is named as the respondent in a domestic violence order, police protection direction or police protection notice; release conditions are imposed on the holder of the security clearance under the Domestic and Family Violence Protection Act 2012 , section 125 ; the holder of the security clearance becomes aware of another change in circumstances that affects the holder’s suitability to continue to hold the security clearance; a change in the holder’s mental health the name or address of the holder of the security clearance changes. (sec.18B-ssec.2) The holder of the security clearance must, as soon as practicable after the holder becomes aware the notifiable event has happened, give the chief inspector a notice about the event, unless the holder has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty— for a notifiable event mentioned in subsection (1) (d) —50 penalty units; or for a notifiable event mentioned in subsection (1) (e) —20 penalty units; or otherwise—200 penalty units.
If a security clearance is suspended, the holder of the security clearance must, as soon as practicable after becoming aware of the suspension, take all reasonable steps to give notice of the suspension to each notifiable person for the holder, unless the holder has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—200 penalty units. If a security clearance is cancelled, the former holder of the security clearance must, as soon as practicable after becoming aware of the cancellation, take all reasonable steps to give notice of the cancellation to each notifiable person for the former holder, unless the former holder has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—200 penalty units. If a security clearance is surrendered, the former holder of the security clearance must, as soon as practicable after the surrender takes effect, take all reasonable steps to give notice of the surrender to each notifiable person for the former holder, unless the former holder has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—200 penalty units. In this section— notifiable person , for the holder or former holder of a security clearance, means— if the holder or former holder is an employee of an employer who holds a security sensitive authority—the employer; or if the holder or former holder is a responsible person for a listed corporation that holds a security sensitive authority—each executive officer of the corporation; or if the holder or former holder is an executive officer of a corporation, other than a listed corporation, that holds a security sensitive authority—each other executive officer of the corporation; or if the holder or former holder is a partner in a partnership that holds a security sensitive authority—each other partner. s 18C (prev s 18BA) ins 2020 SL No. 170 s 5 renum 2020 SL No. 170 s 7 (sec.18C-ssec.1) If a security clearance is suspended, the holder of the security clearance must, as soon as practicable after becoming aware of the suspension, take all reasonable steps to give notice of the suspension to each notifiable person for the holder, unless the holder has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—200 penalty units. (sec.18C-ssec.2) If a security clearance is cancelled, the former holder of the security clearance must, as soon as practicable after becoming aware of the cancellation, take all reasonable steps to give notice of the cancellation to each notifiable person for the former holder, unless the former holder has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—200 penalty units. (sec.18C-ssec.3) If a security clearance is surrendered, the former holder of the security clearance must, as soon as practicable after the surrender takes effect, take all reasonable steps to give notice of the surrender to each notifiable person for the former holder, unless the former holder has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—200 penalty units. (sec.18C-ssec.4) In this section— notifiable person , for the holder or former holder of a security clearance, means— if the holder or former holder is an employee of an employer who holds a security sensitive authority—the employer; or if the holder or former holder is a responsible person for a listed corporation that holds a security sensitive authority—each executive officer of the corporation; or if the holder or former holder is an executive officer of a corporation, other than a listed corporation, that holds a security sensitive authority—each other executive officer of the corporation; or if the holder or former holder is a partner in a partnership that holds a security sensitive authority—each other partner.
The fees payable under the Act for a security clearance are stated in schedule 2 , part 1 . s 18D (prev s 18C) ins 2019 SL No. 203 s 10 reloc and renum 2020 SL No. 170 ss 6 – 7
For section 13 of the Act , the following authorities may be issued— licence to import explosives licence to export explosives permit to import explosives permit to export explosives licence to manufacture explosives licence to sell explosives licence to store explosives permit to store explosives licence to transport explosives explosives driver licence licence to use explosives shotfirer licence fireworks contractor licence fireworks operator licence licence to collect ammunition. s 19 amd 2019 Act No. 7 s 97
For section 19 (1) of the Act , the maximum term of an authority is— for a fireworks contractor licence or a fireworks operator licence—3 years; or for another authority—5 years.
The fees payable under the Act for an authority are stated in schedule 2 , part 1 . s 21 amd 2019 SL No. 203 s 11
s 22 om 2022 SL No. 68 s 5
All or part of a licence fee paid may be refunded if— the licence is issued for a term longer than 1 year; and the licence is surrendered during the term. For subsection (1) , the amount that may be refunded is the licence fee for each whole year of the unexpired term of the licence. (sec.23-ssec.1) All or part of a licence fee paid may be refunded if— the licence is issued for a term longer than 1 year; and the licence is surrendered during the term. (sec.23-ssec.2) For subsection (1) , the amount that may be refunded is the licence fee for each whole year of the unexpired term of the licence.
For schedule 2 of the Act , definition occupational authority , each of the following authorities is prescribed— an explosives driver licence; a fireworks operator licence; a shotfirer licence; a licence to use explosives; a licence to collect ammunition. s 23A ins 2019 Act No. 7 s 98
For section 13 of the Act , this division prescribes the matters authorised by each type of authority. However, each authorisation of a matter under this division is subject to any relevant restrictions or prohibitions under this regulation or a condition or other provision of the authority. (sec.24-ssec.1) For section 13 of the Act , this division prescribes the matters authorised by each type of authority. (sec.24-ssec.2) However, each authorisation of a matter under this division is subject to any relevant restrictions or prohibitions under this regulation or a condition or other provision of the authority.
A licence to import explosives authorises the holder of the licence to— bring the explosives stated in the licence into the State from another country; and possess the explosives for the purpose of bringing them, under the licence, into the State. A licence to export explosives authorises the holder of the licence to— send the explosives stated in the licence from the State to another country; and possess the explosives for the purpose of sending them, under the licence, to another country. A licence to import explosives or licence to export explosives does not authorise the holder of the licence to purchase or sell explosives. (sec.25-ssec.1) A licence to import explosives authorises the holder of the licence to— bring the explosives stated in the licence into the State from another country; and possess the explosives for the purpose of bringing them, under the licence, into the State. (sec.25-ssec.2) A licence to export explosives authorises the holder of the licence to— send the explosives stated in the licence from the State to another country; and possess the explosives for the purpose of sending them, under the licence, to another country. (sec.25-ssec.3) A licence to import explosives or licence to export explosives does not authorise the holder of the licence to purchase or sell explosives.
A permit to import explosives authorises the holder of the permit to— bring into the State from another country, on the day and in the way stated in the permit, the explosives stated in the permit; and possess the explosives for the purpose of bringing them, under the permit, into the State. A permit to export explosives authorises the holder of the permit to— send from the State to another country, on the day and in the way stated in the permit, the explosives stated in the permit; and possess the explosives for the purpose of sending them, under the permit, to another country. A permit to import explosives or permit to export explosives does not authorise the holder of the permit to purchase or sell explosives. (sec.26-ssec.1) A permit to import explosives authorises the holder of the permit to— bring into the State from another country, on the day and in the way stated in the permit, the explosives stated in the permit; and possess the explosives for the purpose of bringing them, under the permit, into the State. (sec.26-ssec.2) A permit to export explosives authorises the holder of the permit to— send from the State to another country, on the day and in the way stated in the permit, the explosives stated in the permit; and possess the explosives for the purpose of sending them, under the permit, to another country. (sec.26-ssec.3) A permit to import explosives or permit to export explosives does not authorise the holder of the permit to purchase or sell explosives.
A licence to manufacture explosives authorises the holder of the licence to— manufacture, at the place, if any, stated in the licence, the explosives stated in the licence; and possess explosives manufactured under the licence; and possess explosives used in the manufacture of the explosives stated in the licence; and purchase explosives used in the manufacture of the explosives stated in the licence; and if a place is stated in the licence—store the explosives at the place as required under part 8 ; and if the licence is for a mobile manufacturing unit—transport explosives manufactured under the licence, or used in the manufacture of the explosives stated in the licence, in the mobile manufacturing unit.
A licence to sell explosives authorises the holder of the licence to— sell, at a place, if any, stated in the licence, the explosives stated in the licence; and possess the explosives for the purpose of selling them under the licence; and purchase the explosives for the purpose of selling them under the licence; and if a place is stated in the licence—store the explosives at the place as required under part 8 for the purpose of selling them under the licence.
A licence to store explosives authorises the holder of the licence to— store, at a place stated in the licence, the explosives stated in the licence; and possess the explosives for the purpose of storing them under the licence; and purchase the explosives for the purpose of storing them under the licence.
A permit to store explosives authorises the holder of the permit to— store, at a place and for the period stated in the permit, the explosives stated in the permit; and possess the explosives, for the period stated in the permit, for the purpose of storing them under the permit.
A licence to transport explosives authorises the holder of the licence to— operate a business of transporting the explosives stated in the licence in the way stated in the licence; and possess the explosives for the purpose of operating a business of transporting the explosives under the licence. A licence to transport explosives does not authorise the holder of the licence to purchase explosives. s 31 amd 2019 Act No. 7 s 99 (sec.31-ssec.1) A licence to transport explosives authorises the holder of the licence to— operate a business of transporting the explosives stated in the licence in the way stated in the licence; and possess the explosives for the purpose of operating a business of transporting the explosives under the licence. (sec.31-ssec.2) A licence to transport explosives does not authorise the holder of the licence to purchase explosives.
An explosives driver licence authorises the holder of the licence to transport explosives by driving a vehicle that, under a licence to transport explosives, is a vehicle in which explosives of that class may be transported. s 31A ins 2019 Act No. 7 s 100
A licence to use explosives authorises the holder of the licence to— use the explosives stated in the licence for the purpose stated in the licence; and possess the explosives for the purpose of using them under the licence; and purchase the explosives for the purpose of using them under the licence; and store and transport the explosives, as required under parts 8 and 9 , for the purpose of using them under the licence.
A shotfirer licence authorises the holder of the licence to— use the blasting explosives stated in the licence; and possess the blasting explosives for the purpose of using them under the licence; and purchase the blasting explosives for the purpose of using them under the licence; and store the blasting explosives, as required under part 8 , for the purpose of using them under the licence; and transport the blasting explosives, as required under part 9 , for the purpose of using them under the licence. However, a shotfirer licence authorises the holder of the licence to do a thing mentioned in subsection (1) (a) , (c) or (e) only if the holder has a current competency assessment in relation to the doing of the thing. In this section— current competency assessment , in relation to the doing of a thing mentioned in subsection (1) (a) , (c) or (e) by the holder of a shotfirer licence, means an assessment by a registered training organisation— that the holder has attained the specific competencies, approved by the chief inspector and published on a Queensland Government website, in the use of blasting explosives contained in an industry training package; and that was performed within 5 years before the day the thing is done. s 33 amd 2019 SL No. 203 s 4 (sec.33-ssec.1) A shotfirer licence authorises the holder of the licence to— use the blasting explosives stated in the licence; and possess the blasting explosives for the purpose of using them under the licence; and purchase the blasting explosives for the purpose of using them under the licence; and store the blasting explosives, as required under part 8 , for the purpose of using them under the licence; and transport the blasting explosives, as required under part 9 , for the purpose of using them under the licence. (sec.33-ssec.2) However, a shotfirer licence authorises the holder of the licence to do a thing mentioned in subsection (1) (a) , (c) or (e) only if the holder has a current competency assessment in relation to the doing of the thing. (sec.33-ssec.3) In this section— current competency assessment , in relation to the doing of a thing mentioned in subsection (1) (a) , (c) or (e) by the holder of a shotfirer licence, means an assessment by a registered training organisation— that the holder has attained the specific competencies, approved by the chief inspector and published on a Queensland Government website, in the use of blasting explosives contained in an industry training package; and that was performed within 5 years before the day the thing is done.
A fireworks contractor licence authorises the holder of the licence to— organise, or agree to organise, a fireworks display for the display host for a fireworks display; and possess fireworks for the purpose of supplying them to a fireworks operator; and purchase fireworks for use in a fireworks display organised by the fireworks contractor; and supply fireworks to a fireworks operator for use by the fireworks operator in a fireworks display organised by the fireworks contractor; and store and transport fireworks, as required under parts 8 and 9 , for the purpose of supplying them to a fireworks operator.
A fireworks operator licence authorises the holder of the licence to— use fireworks for the purpose of a fireworks display organised by a fireworks contractor; and possess fireworks for the purpose of using them in a fireworks display organised by a fireworks contractor; and store and transport the fireworks, as required under parts 8 and 9 , for the purpose of using them in a fireworks display organised by a fireworks contractor. A fireworks operator licence does not authorise the holder of the licence to purchase fireworks. (sec.35-ssec.1) A fireworks operator licence authorises the holder of the licence to— use fireworks for the purpose of a fireworks display organised by a fireworks contractor; and possess fireworks for the purpose of using them in a fireworks display organised by a fireworks contractor; and store and transport the fireworks, as required under parts 8 and 9 , for the purpose of using them in a fireworks display organised by a fireworks contractor. (sec.35-ssec.2) A fireworks operator licence does not authorise the holder of the licence to purchase fireworks.
A licence to collect ammunition authorises the holder of the licence to— bring collectors’ ammunition into the State from another country; and send collectors’ ammunition from the State to another country; and purchase, sell and possess collectors’ ammunition; and store and transport collectors’ ammunition as required under parts 8 and 9 .
A person is an appropriate person for the issue of an explosives driver licence if— the person— is 21 years or more; and holds a valid driver licence; and has, within the 3-year period ending on the day the application for the licence is made, been assessed by a registered training organisation as having attained the specific competencies, approved by the chief inspector and published on a Queensland Government website, in the transporting of explosives contained in an industry training package; and the chief inspector is reasonably satisfied the person— is physically able to drive a vehicle transporting explosives; and is suitable having regard to the person’s driving history; and is, in all the circumstances, an appropriate person for the issue of an explosives driver licence. In this section— valid , in relation to a driver licence, means— the licence has not expired; and the licence has not been cancelled or suspended; and the person is not disqualified, by order of an Australian court, from holding or obtaining a driver licence. s 36A ins 2019 Act No. 7 s 101 amd 2019 SL No. 203 s 12 (sec.36A-ssec.1) A person is an appropriate person for the issue of an explosives driver licence if— the person— is 21 years or more; and holds a valid driver licence; and has, within the 3-year period ending on the day the application for the licence is made, been assessed by a registered training organisation as having attained the specific competencies, approved by the chief inspector and published on a Queensland Government website, in the transporting of explosives contained in an industry training package; and the chief inspector is reasonably satisfied the person— is physically able to drive a vehicle transporting explosives; and is suitable having regard to the person’s driving history; and is, in all the circumstances, an appropriate person for the issue of an explosives driver licence. (sec.36A-ssec.2) In this section— valid , in relation to a driver licence, means— the licence has not expired; and the licence has not been cancelled or suspended; and the person is not disqualified, by order of an Australian court, from holding or obtaining a driver licence.
A person is an appropriate person for the issue of a shotfirer licence if the chief inspector is reasonably satisfied the person— is an adult; and is physically able to carry out blasting activities; and has, within the 5-year period ending on the day the application for the licence is made, been assessed by a registered training organisation as having attained the specific competencies, approved by the chief inspector and published on a Queensland Government website, in the use of blasting explosives contained in an industry training package; and has satisfactory knowledge of the following matters— the requirements under the Act about the storage, transport, manufacture, sale and use of blasting explosives; the hazards associated with each type of blasting explosive stated in the licence, its blasting characteristics, and the procedures and methods for safely and securely handling the explosive; the potential environmental consequences of blasting and methods for minimising the adverse effects of blasting; and is proficient in the following— designing, loading and initiating blasts; handling misfires; disposing of blasting explosives; and is, in all the circumstances, an appropriate person for the issue of a shotfirer licence. For subsection (1) (d) and (e) , the chief inspector may require the person to take a written, oral or practical examination. s 37 amd 2019 SL No. 203 s 5 ; 2019 Act No. 7 s 102 (sec.37-ssec.1) A person is an appropriate person for the issue of a shotfirer licence if the chief inspector is reasonably satisfied the person— is an adult; and is physically able to carry out blasting activities; and has, within the 5-year period ending on the day the application for the licence is made, been assessed by a registered training organisation as having attained the specific competencies, approved by the chief inspector and published on a Queensland Government website, in the use of blasting explosives contained in an industry training package; and has satisfactory knowledge of the following matters— the requirements under the Act about the storage, transport, manufacture, sale and use of blasting explosives; the hazards associated with each type of blasting explosive stated in the licence, its blasting characteristics, and the procedures and methods for safely and securely handling the explosive; the potential environmental consequences of blasting and methods for minimising the adverse effects of blasting; and is proficient in the following— designing, loading and initiating blasts; handling misfires; disposing of blasting explosives; and is, in all the circumstances, an appropriate person for the issue of a shotfirer licence. (sec.37-ssec.2) For subsection (1) (d) and (e) , the chief inspector may require the person to take a written, oral or practical examination.
A person is an appropriate person for the issue of a fireworks contractor licence if the chief inspector is reasonably satisfied the person or, if the person is a corporation, an executive officer or employee of the corporation— is 21 years or more; and holds a fireworks operator licence or an equivalent authority; and has held a fireworks operator licence or an equivalent authority for 3 years or more; and either— has, within the 3-year period ending on the day the application for the licence is made, been assessed by a registered training organisation as having attained the specific competencies, approved by the chief inspector and published on a Queensland Government website, in organising fireworks displays contained in an industry training package; or otherwise demonstrates the skill, knowledge and experience required to organise fireworks displays to a standard considered by the chief inspector to be necessary for the safety and health of persons; and is, in all the circumstances, an appropriate person for the issue of a fireworks contractor licence. For subsection (1) (d) (ii) , the chief inspector may require the person to take a written, oral or practical examination. In this section— equivalent authority means a licence issued under the law of another State authorising the person to use fireworks. s 38 amd 2019 SL No. 203 s 6 (sec.38-ssec.1) A person is an appropriate person for the issue of a fireworks contractor licence if the chief inspector is reasonably satisfied the person or, if the person is a corporation, an executive officer or employee of the corporation— is 21 years or more; and holds a fireworks operator licence or an equivalent authority; and has held a fireworks operator licence or an equivalent authority for 3 years or more; and either— has, within the 3-year period ending on the day the application for the licence is made, been assessed by a registered training organisation as having attained the specific competencies, approved by the chief inspector and published on a Queensland Government website, in organising fireworks displays contained in an industry training package; or otherwise demonstrates the skill, knowledge and experience required to organise fireworks displays to a standard considered by the chief inspector to be necessary for the safety and health of persons; and is, in all the circumstances, an appropriate person for the issue of a fireworks contractor licence. (sec.38-ssec.2) For subsection (1) (d) (ii) , the chief inspector may require the person to take a written, oral or practical examination. (sec.38-ssec.3) In this section— equivalent authority means a licence issued under the law of another State authorising the person to use fireworks.
A person is an appropriate person for the issue of a fireworks operator licence if the chief inspector is reasonably satisfied the person— is an adult; and is physically able to use fireworks in a fireworks display; and either— has, within the 3-year period ending on the day the application for the licence is made, been assessed by a registered training organisation as having attained the specific competencies, approved by the chief inspector and published on a Queensland Government website, in the use of fireworks in fireworks displays contained in an industry training package; or otherwise demonstrates the skill, knowledge and experience required to use fireworks to a standard considered by the chief inspector to be necessary for the safety and health of persons; and has satisfactory knowledge of the following matters— the requirements under the Act about the storage, transport, manufacture, sale and use of fireworks; the hazards associated with each type of firework stated in the licence, and the procedures and methods for safely and securely handling the firework; the requirements under the Queensland fireworks code; and is, in all the circumstances, an appropriate person for the issue of a fireworks operator licence. For subsection (1) (c) (ii) and (d), the chief inspector may require the person to take a written, oral or practical examination. s 39 amd 2019 SL No. 203 s 7 ; 2019 Act No. 7 s 103 (sec.39-ssec.1) A person is an appropriate person for the issue of a fireworks operator licence if the chief inspector is reasonably satisfied the person— is an adult; and is physically able to use fireworks in a fireworks display; and either— has, within the 3-year period ending on the day the application for the licence is made, been assessed by a registered training organisation as having attained the specific competencies, approved by the chief inspector and published on a Queensland Government website, in the use of fireworks in fireworks displays contained in an industry training package; or otherwise demonstrates the skill, knowledge and experience required to use fireworks to a standard considered by the chief inspector to be necessary for the safety and health of persons; and has satisfactory knowledge of the following matters— the requirements under the Act about the storage, transport, manufacture, sale and use of fireworks; the hazards associated with each type of firework stated in the licence, and the procedures and methods for safely and securely handling the firework; the requirements under the Queensland fireworks code; and is, in all the circumstances, an appropriate person for the issue of a fireworks operator licence. (sec.39-ssec.2) For subsection (1) (c) (ii) and (d), the chief inspector may require the person to take a written, oral or practical examination.
A person is an appropriate person for the issue of an authority, other than an authority mentioned in sections 36A to 39 , if the chief inspector is reasonably satisfied the person or, if the person is a corporation, an executive officer of the corporation— is an adult; and is physically able to handle explosives under the authority; and has satisfactory knowledge of— the requirements under the Act applicable to holders of the authority; and the hazards associated with the explosives to which the authority would apply; and is, in all the circumstances, an appropriate person for the issue of the authority. For subsection (1) (c) , the chief inspector may require the person to take a written, oral or practical examination. s 40 amd 2019 Act No. 7 s 104 (sec.40-ssec.1) A person is an appropriate person for the issue of an authority, other than an authority mentioned in sections 36A to 39 , if the chief inspector is reasonably satisfied the person or, if the person is a corporation, an executive officer of the corporation— is an adult; and is physically able to handle explosives under the authority; and has satisfactory knowledge of— the requirements under the Act applicable to holders of the authority; and the hazards associated with the explosives to which the authority would apply; and is, in all the circumstances, an appropriate person for the issue of the authority. (sec.40-ssec.2) For subsection (1) (c) , the chief inspector may require the person to take a written, oral or practical examination.
This section applies in relation to an applicant for a licence to transport explosives. The chief inspector may, by notice given to the applicant, ask the applicant to produce written evidence that a vehicle the applicant proposes to use to transport a category 2 load, a category 3 load or a placard load under the licence, if granted, is covered by a policy of insurance, or other form of indemnity, described in section 144 . The applicant is taken to have withdrawn the application if the applicant fails to produce the evidence requested within 14 days after the day the notice is given. s 41 amd 2019 Act No. 7 s 313 s ch 1 pt 3 (sec.41-ssec.1) This section applies in relation to an applicant for a licence to transport explosives. (sec.41-ssec.2) The chief inspector may, by notice given to the applicant, ask the applicant to produce written evidence that a vehicle the applicant proposes to use to transport a category 2 load, a category 3 load or a placard load under the licence, if granted, is covered by a policy of insurance, or other form of indemnity, described in section 144 . (sec.41-ssec.3) The applicant is taken to have withdrawn the application if the applicant fails to produce the evidence requested within 14 days after the day the notice is given.
This section applies to an employee of the holder of a prescribed authority who is— acting within the scope of the employee’s employment; and if the prescribed authority is a licence to use explosives, a shotfirer licence or a fireworks operator licence—acting in the presence and under the direct supervision of the holder of the prescribed authority. The employee is taken to be a holder of the prescribed authority. In this section— prescribed authority means any of the following— a licence to import explosives; a licence to export explosives; a licence to manufacture explosives; a licence to sell explosives; a licence to store explosives; a permit to store explosives; a licence to transport explosives; a licence to use explosives; a shotfirer licence; a fireworks contractor licence; a fireworks operator licence; a licence or permit issued under the Weapons Act 1990 . (sec.42-ssec.1) This section applies to an employee of the holder of a prescribed authority who is— acting within the scope of the employee’s employment; and if the prescribed authority is a licence to use explosives, a shotfirer licence or a fireworks operator licence—acting in the presence and under the direct supervision of the holder of the prescribed authority. (sec.42-ssec.2) The employee is taken to be a holder of the prescribed authority. (sec.42-ssec.3) In this section— prescribed authority means any of the following— a licence to import explosives; a licence to export explosives; a licence to manufacture explosives; a licence to sell explosives; a licence to store explosives; a permit to store explosives; a licence to transport explosives; a licence to use explosives; a shotfirer licence; a fireworks contractor licence; a fireworks operator licence; a licence or permit issued under the Weapons Act 1990 .
This section applies if any of the following events (each a prescribed event ) happens during the term of an authority— the holder of the authority becomes aware of a change in circumstances that prevents the holder complying with the Act or a condition of the authority; a change in the holder’s physical health if the holder of the authority is an individual— the holder’s name changes; or the holder’s address changes; or the holder becomes an insolvent under administration; if the holder of the authority is a corporation— there is a change to the corporation’s executive officers; or the corporation becomes an externally administered corporation; if the holder of the authority is a corporation other than a listed corporation—there is a change to the corporation’s shareholders; if the authority is not a security sensitive authority or the holder of the authority is a corporation—the holder is, in Queensland or elsewhere, convicted of or charged with an offence involving a prescribed activity. The holder of the authority must, as soon as practicable after the holder becomes aware the prescribed event has happened, give the chief inspector a notice about the event, unless the holder has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty— for a prescribed event mentioned in subsection (1) (b) (i) or (ii) —20 penalty units; or otherwise—200 penalty units. In this section— externally administered corporation means a Chapter 5 body corporate within the meaning of the Corporations Act , section 9 . s 43 amd 2019 Act No. 7 s 105 ; 2023 Act No. 23 s 247 sch 1 s 2 (1) (sec.43-ssec.1) This section applies if any of the following events (each a prescribed event ) happens during the term of an authority— the holder of the authority becomes aware of a change in circumstances that prevents the holder complying with the Act or a condition of the authority; a change in the holder’s physical health if the holder of the authority is an individual— the holder’s name changes; or the holder’s address changes; or the holder becomes an insolvent under administration; if the holder of the authority is a corporation— there is a change to the corporation’s executive officers; or the corporation becomes an externally administered corporation; if the holder of the authority is a corporation other than a listed corporation—there is a change to the corporation’s shareholders; if the authority is not a security sensitive authority or the holder of the authority is a corporation—the holder is, in Queensland or elsewhere, convicted of or charged with an offence involving a prescribed activity. (sec.43-ssec.2) The holder of the authority must, as soon as practicable after the holder becomes aware the prescribed event has happened, give the chief inspector a notice about the event, unless the holder has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty— for a prescribed event mentioned in subsection (1) (b) (i) or (ii) —20 penalty units; or otherwise—200 penalty units. (sec.43-ssec.3) In this section— externally administered corporation means a Chapter 5 body corporate within the meaning of the Corporations Act , section 9 .
This section applies if any of the following events (each a prescribed event ) happens during the term of a security sensitive authority— if the holder of the authority is a listed corporation— the responsible person for the corporation stops being employed or engaged by the corporation; or the responsible person for the corporation is, in Queensland or elsewhere, convicted of or charged with a relevant offence; or the responsible person for the corporation is named as the respondent in a domestic violence order, police protection direction or police protection notice; or release conditions are imposed on the responsible person for the corporation under the Domestic and Family Violence Protection Act 2012 , section 125 ; if the holder of the authority is a corporation other than a listed corporation— an executive officer of the corporation is, in Queensland or elsewhere, convicted of or charged with a relevant offence; or an executive officer of the corporation is named as the respondent in a domestic violence order, police protection direction or police protection notice; or release conditions are imposed on an executive officer of the corporation under the Domestic and Family Violence Protection Act 2012 , section 125 . The holder of the security sensitive authority must, as soon as practicable after the holder becomes aware the prescribed event has happened, give the chief inspector a notice about the event, unless the holder has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—200 penalty units. s 43A ins 2019 Act No. 7 s 106 amd 2025 SL No. 129 s 20 (sec.43A-ssec.1) This section applies if any of the following events (each a prescribed event ) happens during the term of a security sensitive authority— if the holder of the authority is a listed corporation— the responsible person for the corporation stops being employed or engaged by the corporation; or the responsible person for the corporation is, in Queensland or elsewhere, convicted of or charged with a relevant offence; or the responsible person for the corporation is named as the respondent in a domestic violence order, police protection direction or police protection notice; or release conditions are imposed on the responsible person for the corporation under the Domestic and Family Violence Protection Act 2012 , section 125 ; if the holder of the authority is a corporation other than a listed corporation— an executive officer of the corporation is, in Queensland or elsewhere, convicted of or charged with a relevant offence; or an executive officer of the corporation is named as the respondent in a domestic violence order, police protection direction or police protection notice; or release conditions are imposed on an executive officer of the corporation under the Domestic and Family Violence Protection Act 2012 , section 125 . (sec.43A-ssec.2) The holder of the security sensitive authority must, as soon as practicable after the holder becomes aware the prescribed event has happened, give the chief inspector a notice about the event, unless the holder has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—200 penalty units.
This section applies if, during the term of a prescribed authority, the holder of the authority proposes to do any of the following things— change the construction or location of a building stated in the authority as a place where activities may be carried out under the authority; construct a new building in which activities are proposed to be carried out under the authority; use new equipment or vehicles, or change the location of equipment used when the authority was issued, in connection with carrying out activities under the authority. The holder must, before doing the thing, give the chief inspector notice of the proposal unless the holder has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. In this section— new equipment or vehicles , in relation to a prescribed authority, means equipment or vehicles not proposed to be used in connection with carrying out activities under the authority when the holder applied for the authority. prescribed authority means any of the following— a licence to manufacture explosives; a licence to store explosives; a licence to transport explosives. s 44 amd 2019 Act No. 7 s 313 s ch 1 pt 3 (sec.44-ssec.1) This section applies if, during the term of a prescribed authority, the holder of the authority proposes to do any of the following things— change the construction or location of a building stated in the authority as a place where activities may be carried out under the authority; construct a new building in which activities are proposed to be carried out under the authority; use new equipment or vehicles, or change the location of equipment used when the authority was issued, in connection with carrying out activities under the authority. (sec.44-ssec.2) The holder must, before doing the thing, give the chief inspector notice of the proposal unless the holder has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. (sec.44-ssec.3) In this section— new equipment or vehicles , in relation to a prescribed authority, means equipment or vehicles not proposed to be used in connection with carrying out activities under the authority when the holder applied for the authority. prescribed authority means any of the following— a licence to manufacture explosives; a licence to store explosives; a licence to transport explosives.
This section applies if, during the term of a prescribed authority, the holder of the authority disposes of an explosive. The holder must make a record under subsection (3) of each explosive disposed of under the prescribed authority. Maximum penalty—100 penalty units. The record must include— the amount and type of explosive disposed of; and the date of disposal; and details of where the explosive was disposed of. In this section— prescribed authority means any of the following authorities— a licence to import explosives; a licence to export explosives; a licence to manufacture explosives; a licence to sell explosives; a licence to store explosives; a licence to transport explosives; a licence to use explosives; a shotfirer licence; a fireworks contractor licence. (sec.45-ssec.1) This section applies if, during the term of a prescribed authority, the holder of the authority disposes of an explosive. (sec.45-ssec.2) The holder must make a record under subsection (3) of each explosive disposed of under the prescribed authority. Maximum penalty—100 penalty units. (sec.45-ssec.3) The record must include— the amount and type of explosive disposed of; and the date of disposal; and details of where the explosive was disposed of. (sec.45-ssec.4) In this section— prescribed authority means any of the following authorities— a licence to import explosives; a licence to export explosives; a licence to manufacture explosives; a licence to sell explosives; a licence to store explosives; a licence to transport explosives; a licence to use explosives; a shotfirer licence; a fireworks contractor licence.
In this division— emergency event includes the following— an explosion; a fire; a security breach at a place at which an activity is carried out under a prescribed authority; an event that requires a response to a security threat; a security lockdown or an attack relating to national security a flood; a cyclone. national counter terrorism alert level means the current level of alert for Australia of a terrorist act being carried out as published by the Commonwealth Government. prescribed authority means the following— a licence to import explosives; a licence to export explosives; a licence to manufacture explosives; a licence to sell explosives; a licence to store explosives; a licence to transport explosives; a licence to use explosives; a shotfirer licence; a fireworks contractor licence. safety and security management system means a document that sets out a system that incorporates risk management elements and practices to— protect the safety and health of persons who may be affected by activities carried out under a prescribed authority; and ensure explosives handled under the authority are kept securely so that the explosives cannot be accessed by persons who should not have access. s 46 prev s 46 om 2019 Act No. 7 s 107 pres s 46 ins 2019 Act No. 7 s 108
This section applies to the holder of a prescribed authority if 1 or more employees of the holder carry out activities under the authority. The holder of the authority must have and give effect to a safety and security management system that complies with subsections (3) and (4) . Maximum penalty—100 penalty units. For subsection (2) , the safety and security management system is to relate to— if a place is stated in the prescribed authority as a place at which an activity may be carried out under the authority—the place; or an explosives factory premises where explosives are stored if an activity is carried out under the prescribed authority other than at a place mentioned in paragraph (a) —the activity. blasting activities carried out under a prescribed authority at various locations transporting explosives The safety and security management system must include the following— a description of the holder’s safety and security policy; details of the organisational structure of the holder’s operations, including details of the personnel responsible for performing all the functions provided for under the system; a system procedure for each matter stated in schedule 3 , part 1 ; an operational procedure for each matter stated in schedule 3 , part 2 that applies to the place or activity to which the system applies; a security plan that complies with section 46C ; an emergency response plan to manage risk to the safety and health of persons and the security of explosives in an emergency event; a process for ongoing consultation with employees and contractors of the holder who are engaged in carrying out activities under the prescribed authority, at least once in each month, about safety and security in relation to the activities. s 46A ins 2019 Act No. 7 s 108 (sec.46A-ssec.1) This section applies to the holder of a prescribed authority if 1 or more employees of the holder carry out activities under the authority. (sec.46A-ssec.2) The holder of the authority must have and give effect to a safety and security management system that complies with subsections (3) and (4) . Maximum penalty—100 penalty units. (sec.46A-ssec.3) For subsection (2) , the safety and security management system is to relate to— if a place is stated in the prescribed authority as a place at which an activity may be carried out under the authority—the place; or an explosives factory premises where explosives are stored if an activity is carried out under the prescribed authority other than at a place mentioned in paragraph (a) —the activity. blasting activities carried out under a prescribed authority at various locations transporting explosives (sec.46A-ssec.4) The safety and security management system must include the following— a description of the holder’s safety and security policy; details of the organisational structure of the holder’s operations, including details of the personnel responsible for performing all the functions provided for under the system; a system procedure for each matter stated in schedule 3 , part 1 ; an operational procedure for each matter stated in schedule 3 , part 2 that applies to the place or activity to which the system applies; a security plan that complies with section 46C ; an emergency response plan to manage risk to the safety and health of persons and the security of explosives in an emergency event; a process for ongoing consultation with employees and contractors of the holder who are engaged in carrying out activities under the prescribed authority, at least once in each month, about safety and security in relation to the activities.
To remove any doubt, it is declared that the safety and security management system may be part of a safety and security management system (however called) required under another Act. The safety and security management system may be part of a safety and health management system for a coal mine required under the Coal Mining Safety and Health Act 1999 . s 46B ins 2019 Act No. 7 s 108
A security plan must— identify security risks for explosives that may affect an individual, property and information kept by the holder of a prescribed authority about explosives; and adopt processes that deal with identified security risks for explosives activities, that ensure— the explosives are kept securely; and records are kept that are sufficient to allow the inspector to assess whether the plan has been complied with; and methods are used that identify when explosives have been accessed and identify access to explosives by a person who should not have access to explosives; and the chain of possession of the explosives can be traced from the holder of the authority to the holder of another prescribed authority; and the explosives are delivered to a person authorised in the security plan to have access to the explosives and to receive the explosives; and records are kept that identify the persons who, in the scope of their employment, are allowed unsupervised access to explosives. s 46C ins 2019 Act No. 7 s 108
The holder of the prescribed authority must review the security plan— annually; and if any of the following happens— a change in the national counter terrorism alert level or level of risk; there is a loss of explosives; there is unauthorised entry, or attempted unauthorised entry, to the place where the explosives are stored; an explosives stock discrepancy cannot be reconciled with records kept by the holder; an explosive has been stolen; an explosive has been fraudulently obtained; an explosive or an explosive facility has been intentionally damaged; information kept by the holder in relation to explosives has been lost or stolen; an explosive has been accessed by a person who should not have access to the explosive; an explosive has been sold and has not been delivered by the expected delivery day. Maximum penalty—100 penalty units. s 46D ins 2019 Act No. 7 s 108
This section applies to an application to renew— a licence to use explosives; or a shotfirer licence; or a fireworks operator licence. The application must be accompanied by a record of the explosives used under the licence by the holder of the licence during the term of the licence. (sec.47-ssec.1) This section applies to an application to renew— a licence to use explosives; or a shotfirer licence; or a fireworks operator licence. (sec.47-ssec.2) The application must be accompanied by a record of the explosives used under the licence by the holder of the licence during the term of the licence.
The chief inspector must keep a register of— each authority issued by the chief inspector; and each security clearance given by the chief inspector. The register must include the following information for each authority or security clearance— the name and contact details of the holder of the authority or security clearance; details of the authority or security clearance; the day the authority or security clearance expires; the status of the authority or security clearance, including, if it has been suspended, cancelled or surrendered, details of the suspension, cancellation or surrender; any other information the chief inspector considers appropriate for inclusion in the register. The chief inspector may disclose information in the register, other than the following information, to any person— the contact details of an individual; the circumstances surrounding the suspension, cancellation or surrender of an authority or security clearance. The chief inspector may publish information in the register, other than the information mentioned in subsection (3) (a) or (b) , in the way the chief inspector considers appropriate. The chief inspector may publish information in the register on the internet in the form of a database that allows any person to obtain details about the holder of an authority or security clearance to check the validity of the holder’s authority or security clearance. s 47A ins 2020 SL No. 170 s 8 (sec.47A-ssec.1) The chief inspector must keep a register of— each authority issued by the chief inspector; and each security clearance given by the chief inspector. (sec.47A-ssec.2) The register must include the following information for each authority or security clearance— the name and contact details of the holder of the authority or security clearance; details of the authority or security clearance; the day the authority or security clearance expires; the status of the authority or security clearance, including, if it has been suspended, cancelled or surrendered, details of the suspension, cancellation or surrender; any other information the chief inspector considers appropriate for inclusion in the register. (sec.47A-ssec.3) The chief inspector may disclose information in the register, other than the following information, to any person— the contact details of an individual; the circumstances surrounding the suspension, cancellation or surrender of an authority or security clearance. (sec.47A-ssec.4) The chief inspector may publish information in the register, other than the information mentioned in subsection (3) (a) or (b) , in the way the chief inspector considers appropriate. The chief inspector may publish information in the register on the internet in the form of a database that allows any person to obtain details about the holder of an authority or security clearance to check the validity of the holder’s authority or security clearance.
For section 34 (2) of the Act , the following explosives are prescribed— an unrestricted firework; a distress signal; an explosive designed to activate an airbag, seatbelt, fire extinguisher or parachute; an electric match; a safety fuse or igniter; a power device cartridge; small arms ammunition, and an explosive ingredient of small arms ammunition, that is possessed by a person who is licensed or otherwise authorised under the Weapons Act 1990 to use a firearm; an explosive manufactured as mentioned in section 38 (2) (a) of the Act that is possessed by the person who manufactured the explosive; an explosive stored at a government magazine; an explosive possessed by a person who is transporting the explosive and who holds an authority under a corresponding law to transport the explosive; collectors’ ammunition possessed by a prescribed ammunition collector; an explosive that is stored in a secured area at a laboratory at an industrial facility, educational institution or research facility for use at the laboratory and is not more than— if the explosive is security sensitive ammonium nitrate—3kg; or if the explosive is other than security sensitive ammonium nitrate—100g. In this section— corresponding law see section 50 (6) of the Act . secured area see section 97 . (sec.48-ssec.1) For section 34 (2) of the Act , the following explosives are prescribed— an unrestricted firework; a distress signal; an explosive designed to activate an airbag, seatbelt, fire extinguisher or parachute; an electric match; a safety fuse or igniter; a power device cartridge; small arms ammunition, and an explosive ingredient of small arms ammunition, that is possessed by a person who is licensed or otherwise authorised under the Weapons Act 1990 to use a firearm; an explosive manufactured as mentioned in section 38 (2) (a) of the Act that is possessed by the person who manufactured the explosive; an explosive stored at a government magazine; an explosive possessed by a person who is transporting the explosive and who holds an authority under a corresponding law to transport the explosive; collectors’ ammunition possessed by a prescribed ammunition collector; an explosive that is stored in a secured area at a laboratory at an industrial facility, educational institution or research facility for use at the laboratory and is not more than— if the explosive is security sensitive ammonium nitrate—3kg; or if the explosive is other than security sensitive ammonium nitrate—100g. (sec.48-ssec.2) In this section— corresponding law see section 50 (6) of the Act . secured area see section 97 .
A person must not possess an explosive mentioned in section 48 (1) unless the person is an adult. Maximum penalty—20 penalty units. Subsection (1) does not apply in relation to the following explosives— an unrestricted firework; a distress signal on board a vehicle; small arms ammunition that is possessed by a person who is licensed or otherwise authorised under the Weapons Act 1990 to use a firearm that uses the ammunition. s 49 amd 2019 Act No. 7 s 313 s ch 1 pt 3 (sec.49-ssec.1) A person must not possess an explosive mentioned in section 48 (1) unless the person is an adult. Maximum penalty—20 penalty units. (sec.49-ssec.2) Subsection (1) does not apply in relation to the following explosives— an unrestricted firework; a distress signal on board a vehicle; small arms ammunition that is possessed by a person who is licensed or otherwise authorised under the Weapons Act 1990 to use a firearm that uses the ammunition.
A person must not, unless the person is authorised to do so under the Act or has a reasonable excuse, possess an explosive, other than an unrestricted firework, in a public place. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. A person must not, unless the person is authorised to do so under the Act or has a reasonable excuse, initiate an explosive, other than an unrestricted firework, in a public place. Maximum penalty—200 penalty units. (sec.50-ssec.1) A person must not, unless the person is authorised to do so under the Act or has a reasonable excuse, possess an explosive, other than an unrestricted firework, in a public place. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. (sec.50-ssec.2) A person must not, unless the person is authorised to do so under the Act or has a reasonable excuse, initiate an explosive, other than an unrestricted firework, in a public place. Maximum penalty—200 penalty units.
An explosive is exempt from section 36 of the Act if the explosive is— part of the operational equipment of a prescribed vehicle; or a distress signal on board a prescribed vehicle. an airbag in a vehicle a distress signal on board a boat as part of the boat’s safety equipment Also, small arms ammunition is exempt from section 36 of the Act if the ammunition is sent out of the State, or brought into the State— by a person who is licensed or otherwise authorised under the Weapons Act 1990 to use a firearm that uses the ammunition; and only for the person’s personal use for sports or target shooting or recreational shooting. In this section— prescribed vehicle means a vehicle entering the State from another country or leaving the State for another country. s 51 amd 2019 Act No. 7 s 313 s ch 1 pt 3 (sec.51-ssec.1) An explosive is exempt from section 36 of the Act if the explosive is— part of the operational equipment of a prescribed vehicle; or a distress signal on board a prescribed vehicle. an airbag in a vehicle a distress signal on board a boat as part of the boat’s safety equipment (sec.51-ssec.2) Also, small arms ammunition is exempt from section 36 of the Act if the ammunition is sent out of the State, or brought into the State— by a person who is licensed or otherwise authorised under the Weapons Act 1990 to use a firearm that uses the ammunition; and only for the person’s personal use for sports or target shooting or recreational shooting. (sec.51-ssec.3) In this section— prescribed vehicle means a vehicle entering the State from another country or leaving the State for another country.
An explosive is exempt from section 37 of the Act if the explosive is collectors’ ammunition.
In this division— relevant licence means— a licence to import explosives; or a licence to export explosives.
The holder of a relevant licence must not bring an import explosive into the State from another country, or send an export explosive from the State to another country, unless— the holder is reasonably satisfied the explosive is in a safe and secure condition for transport; and the explosive has been classified; and the packaging of the explosive is marked with the correct classification code for the explosive; and the explosive is an authorised explosive; and the explosive is packaged, marked and labelled as required under— the Australian explosives code; or the Australian dangerous goods code; and the holder can provide, on the request of an inspector, a safety data sheet for the explosive; and the holder has taken reasonable steps to ensure the explosive will function as it was designed to function. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. s 54 amd 2019 Act No. 7 s 109
This section applies to the holder of a relevant licence who is required under section 37 of the Act to give the chief inspector notice for an import explosive brought into the State or an export explosive sent to another country. The holder must ensure the explosive complies in all material respects with the details stated in the notice. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. (sec.55-ssec.1) This section applies to the holder of a relevant licence who is required under section 37 of the Act to give the chief inspector notice for an import explosive brought into the State or an export explosive sent to another country. (sec.55-ssec.2) The holder must ensure the explosive complies in all material respects with the details stated in the notice. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units.
The holder of a relevant licence must keep a record under subsection (2) of each import explosive brought into the State from another country, and each export explosive sent from the State to another country, under the licence. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. The record must include the following— the name of the explosive; the amount of the explosive; the date the explosive was brought into the State or sent to the country; the name of the consignee and consignor of the explosive. (sec.56-ssec.1) The holder of a relevant licence must keep a record under subsection (2) of each import explosive brought into the State from another country, and each export explosive sent from the State to another country, under the licence. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. (sec.56-ssec.2) The record must include the following— the name of the explosive; the amount of the explosive; the date the explosive was brought into the State or sent to the country; the name of the consignee and consignor of the explosive.
The holder of a relevant licence must take reasonable steps to ensure an employee or contractor of the holder is aware of, and complies with, the requirements under the Act about bringing import explosives into the State from another country or sending export explosives from the State to another country. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units.
Sourced from Queensland Legislation (legislation.qld.gov.au), CC BY 4.0.
This regulation may be cited as the Explosives Regulation 2017 .
This regulation commences on 1 September 2017.
The dictionary in schedule 7 defines particular words used in this regulation.
In this regulation, a reference to classifying an explosive is a reference to— for an explosive to which the UN model regulations apply— assigning the explosive to a class, division and compatibility group under the UN model regulations; or assigning the explosive to a class, division and packing group under the UN model regulations; or for an explosive to which the UN model regulations do not apply— classifying the explosive as an explosive too dangerous to transport; or classifying the explosive as non-dangerous goods.
In this regulation, a reference to the mass of an explosive is, unless stated to be a reference to the gross weight of the explosive, a reference to the mass of explosive material contained in the explosive. The gross weight of a box of distress signals might be 25kg, but the distress signals in the box might contain 2kg of explosive material. If this regulation stated a maximum amount for distress signals of 5kg, the box of distress signals would be less than the maximum amount.
Sets record-keeping, signage, inspection and auditing obligations for licence/permit holders, and gives inspectors and the chief inspector powers to request documents, inspect, issue remedial notices and take enforcement action (for example, record keeping for sales and stocktakes s90, s109; inspections s108; remedial notices s9 and Act cross-references).
Establishes processes for: declaring authorised or prohibited explosives and approving experimental trials (s12–s18); approving explosives limits for ports and imposing interim limits (s65–s69); government magazine operation, storage and fee recovery rules (s111–s126); and determinations and administrative/operational exemptions for transport safety under a competent authority model (s145A–s145O).
Introduces a safety-and-health fee and census regime requiring holders to report worker numbers and pay fees to support regulator safety/health activities (Part 12: s177–s183).
Sets offences and penalties for non‑compliance across many areas (possession, sale to unauthorised persons, false statements, failure to notify, record‑keeping failures, etc.) with penalties scaled by seriousness (e.g. s187, s188, s90, s91, s18B).
Who it affects
Businesses and individuals who handle explosives in any regulated way: manufacturers, importers/exporters, sellers, transport operators, storage facility operators, shotfirers, fireworks contractors/operators, collectors of ammunition, and holders of other specific licences (see s19).
Employers who hold authorities and employ people to carry out explosives activities (must implement SSMS and training) (s46A, s147).
Port authorities and port operators handling explosives — must prepare explosives limits documents and comply with approved limits (s65–s69, s66–67).
Government entities involved in storage or emergency response (chief inspector, government magazine managers) and the Queensland Police Service (specified exemptions and special arrangements at s8, s8AA).
Consumers and new clients purchasing security-sensitive explosives — sellers must carry out identity and licence checks and in many cases seek validation from the chief inspector before sale (s88–s90).
Why it matters (policy effects and implementation mechanics)
Safety and security: The regulation translates high‑level prohibitions and duties in the Act into operational rules and standards (packaging, labelling and classification requirements, storage and transport standards) and requires documented management systems and security plans (s46A, s46C, s73, s105, s136). That creates a compliance baseline for risk control and chain-of-custody.
Administrative control and discretion: The chief inspector/competent authority has extensive decision-making powers — to issue, condition, suspend or cancel authorities and administrative determinations; to approve port explosives limits and to approve exemptions and alternative measures (s13–s18, s67–s69, s145B–s145K). Those powers centralise operational discretion in a regulator whose procedural obligations and review rights are set out (external review references s184).
Compliance costs and incentives: The regulation imposes recurring compliance burdens — licences, security clearances, SSMS development and maintenance, record-keeping (often multi‑year retention), audits, insurer requirements for transport, notifications, and fees (s46A, s179C, s144, s178). These are direct costs to operators and likely raise fixed and ongoing operating costs, particularly for smaller operators and contractors. The safety & health fee (Part 12) creates an explicit charging mechanism linked to reported worker numbers (s178–s179).
Market effects and behaviour change: Sellers must verify new customers for security-sensitive explosives and obtain chief inspector validation before supply (s88–s89). Transporters face insurance and vehicle‑specification conditions (s144, s136). Storage and manufacturing licence‑holders must adopt SSMS and security plans, which shifts activity toward formalised, auditable processes (s46A–46D, schedule 3). These requirements increase barriers to entry for informal operators and create administrative overhead for legitimate operators.
Concentrated benefits and costs: Benefits (regulatory clarity, central oversight, and pooled enforcement capability) are concentrated among public safety agencies and larger licensed operators who can absorb compliance costs; costs (administrative, training, record-keeping, potential licence restrictions) are more diffuse across many small licensees, contractors and retailers (s21, s178, s73, s90). The chief inspector’s powers to sell or dispose of stored explosives and recover fees (s122–s125) concentrate leverage in the regulator’s hands.
Risks and trade‑offs: The chief inspector’s broad discretion (approvals, determinations, interim port limits, suspension/cancellation of administrative determinations) increases administrative flexibility but creates implementation risks — variable treatment between applicants, possible delays, and administrative burdens for industry (s67, s69, s145I–s145N). Alternative safety measures are allowed (s9), but they must demonstrably achieve equivalent risk, placing the evidentiary burden on businesses.
Who pays, who decides, what behaviour changes (summary)
Who pays: licence and security clearance applicants (fees s21, s18D), holders paying safety & health fees (Part 12 s178), port operators preparing explosives limits (administrative cost), handlers paying insurance for certain transports (s144), and commercial users who must implement SSMS (s46A) and training (s147).
Who decides: the chief inspector (central regulator) and inspectors exercise large powers — issuing licences, approving explosives, validating client identity/licences, approving SSMS alternatives, imposing port limits, and enforcing compliance (s13–s18, s46A, s66–69, s88–s89, s145B). For transport determinations, the chief inspector functions as the competent authority (s145A–s145G).
What behaviour changes: businesses must formalise safety and security systems, increase record-keeping and auditability, validate client identity before sales of security-sensitive explosives, purchase specified insurance for transport, and comply with port-specific explosives limits. Employers will need to train and supervise personnel and keep records for 5–7 years depending on the requirement (s185, s179C). Non-compliance risks penalties, licence suspension/cancellation, and civil recovery of unpaid fees.
Implementation and compliance risk factors
High administrative overhead for many small operators (SSMS development, record retention, regular inspections and stocktakes — s46A, s109).
Regulatory discretion concentrated in the chief inspector — requires clear procedural guidance to avoid inconsistent decisions (s67, s145E–s145K).
Evidence burden for alternative measures — operators proposing alternatives must document and prove equal-or-lower risk and be ready for remedial notices (s9).
Data and audit load for the safety and health census and fee calculations — requires payroll/worker-hour tracking and retention of supporting records for 7 years (s179–s179C).
Representative section references (non‑exhaustive)
Bottom line Mechanically, the Explosives Regulation 2017 turns statutory duties in the Act into a comprehensive operational regime: it prescribes classes of explosives, licensing categories and detailed obligations for safety, security, storage, transport and sale; sets reporting/fee rules; and gives the chief inspector wide operational powers. The practical effect is to shift activity towards formal, documented management systems, stricter identity and licence verification for sensitive sales, and regulator‑driven approvals and oversight. These produce clearer compliance standards but raise compliance costs, expand regulator discretion, and allocate administrative burdens disproportionately to smaller operators and retailers. Where the regulation allows alternatives to standards (s9), the onus is on industry to demonstrate equivalence.
For schedule 2 , definition explosive , paragraph (b) of the Act , each of the following is declared to be an explosive— a precursor; ammunition that does not contain explosives; security sensitive ammonium nitrate. However, subsection (1) (b) does not apply for section 38 of the Act . For subsection (1) (b) , ammunition does not include inert components of small arms ammunition. cartridge cases, projectiles (sec.6-ssec.1) For schedule 2 , definition explosive , paragraph (b) of the Act , each of the following is declared to be an explosive— a precursor; ammunition that does not contain explosives; security sensitive ammonium nitrate. (sec.6-ssec.2) However, subsection (1) (b) does not apply for section 38 of the Act . (sec.6-ssec.3) For subsection (1) (b) , ammunition does not include inert components of small arms ammunition. cartridge cases, projectiles
An explosive is exempt from the Act if— the explosive is an ingredient in a mixture prepared for a use that does not include initiating the mixture; and nitroglycerine contained in a tablet nitrocellulose contained in paint or nail polish the mixture is not— a class 1 explosive; or an authorised explosive. A person who possesses an explosive mentioned in subsection (1) must not use or modify the explosive to produce an explosive effect. Maximum penalty—200 penalty units. (sec.7-ssec.1) An explosive is exempt from the Act if— the explosive is an ingredient in a mixture prepared for a use that does not include initiating the mixture; and nitroglycerine contained in a tablet nitrocellulose contained in paint or nail polish the mixture is not— a class 1 explosive; or an authorised explosive. (sec.7-ssec.2) A person who possesses an explosive mentioned in subsection (1) must not use or modify the explosive to produce an explosive effect. Maximum penalty—200 penalty units.
s 7A ins 2025 SL No. 43 s 3 exp 1 July 2025 (see s 7(4))
The following entities are exempt from part 4 , divisions 2 , 7 and 8 of the Act — a police officer, special constable or police recruit of the Queensland Police Service who is acting in the course of the person’s official duties; a person mentioned in paragraph (a) who is not on duty as a member of the Queensland Police Service, in relation to the possession of— small arms ammunition; or an explosive that is an exhibit in a court proceeding; an officer of another State’s police service who is acting in the course of the officer’s official duties in Queensland for the Queensland Police Service; a corrective services officer who is acting in the course of the officer’s official duties. However, subsection (1) (b) applies only if the person is acting in accordance with any directions of the commissioner of the police service given in relation to the off-duty possession of ammunition or an explosive that is an exhibit. An inspector who is acting in the course of the inspector’s official duties is exempt from part 4 , divisions 2 and 6 to 8 of the Act . In this section— police recruit see the Police Service Administration Act 1990 , schedule 2 . special constable see the Police Service Administration Act 1990 , schedule 2 . s 8 amd 2023 Act No. 7 s 68 s ch 1 pt 2 ; 2024 SL No. 167 s 45 (sec.8-ssec.1) The following entities are exempt from part 4 , divisions 2 , 7 and 8 of the Act — a police officer, special constable or police recruit of the Queensland Police Service who is acting in the course of the person’s official duties; a person mentioned in paragraph (a) who is not on duty as a member of the Queensland Police Service, in relation to the possession of— small arms ammunition; or an explosive that is an exhibit in a court proceeding; an officer of another State’s police service who is acting in the course of the officer’s official duties in Queensland for the Queensland Police Service; a corrective services officer who is acting in the course of the officer’s official duties. (sec.8-ssec.2) However, subsection (1) (b) applies only if the person is acting in accordance with any directions of the commissioner of the police service given in relation to the off-duty possession of ammunition or an explosive that is an exhibit. (sec.8-ssec.3) An inspector who is acting in the course of the inspector’s official duties is exempt from part 4 , divisions 2 and 6 to 8 of the Act . (sec.8-ssec.4) In this section— police recruit see the Police Service Administration Act 1990 , schedule 2 . special constable see the Police Service Administration Act 1990 , schedule 2 . s 8 amd 2023 Act No. 7 s 68 s ch 1 pt 2 ; 2024 SL No. 167 s 45
This section prescribes exemptions for section 7 of the Act . Despite section 15A (2) of the Act , the Queensland Police Service is an appropriate person to hold, or to continue to hold, a security sensitive authority even if an employee of the Queensland Police Service— has or will have unsupervised access to an explosive in the course of the employee’s employment; and does not hold a security clearance. Despite section 33 (1) (b) of the Act , the Queensland Police Service may allow an employee of the Queensland Police Service to have access to an explosive— even if the employee does not hold a security clearance; and even if the access is not in the presence, and under the direct supervision, of a person who holds a security clearance. To remove any doubt, it is declared that Queensland Police Service must not allow an employee of the Queensland Police Service to have access to an explosive unless— the employee is the age prescribed by section 18A ; and the access is within the course of the employee’s employment. s 8AA ins 2024 SL No. 167 s 47 (sec.8AA-ssec.1) This section prescribes exemptions for section 7 of the Act . (sec.8AA-ssec.2) Despite section 15A (2) of the Act , the Queensland Police Service is an appropriate person to hold, or to continue to hold, a security sensitive authority even if an employee of the Queensland Police Service— has or will have unsupervised access to an explosive in the course of the employee’s employment; and does not hold a security clearance. (sec.8AA-ssec.3) Despite section 33 (1) (b) of the Act , the Queensland Police Service may allow an employee of the Queensland Police Service to have access to an explosive— even if the employee does not hold a security clearance; and even if the access is not in the presence, and under the direct supervision, of a person who holds a security clearance. (sec.8AA-ssec.4) To remove any doubt, it is declared that Queensland Police Service must not allow an employee of the Queensland Police Service to have access to an explosive unless— the employee is the age prescribed by section 18A ; and the access is within the course of the employee’s employment.
This section prescribes exemptions for section 7 of the Act . Despite section 15 (4) (b) (iii) of the Act , the chief inspector, in deciding whether a government entity or a Commonwealth entity is an appropriate person, is not required to consider whether an executive officer of the government entity or the Commonwealth entity would be considered to be an appropriate person under section 15 of the Act . Despite section 17 (2) (c) of the Act , the chief inspector may issue a security sensitive authority to a government entity or a Commonwealth entity even if each executive officer of the government entity or the Commonwealth entity does not hold a security clearance. Despite section 23 (1) (k) of the Act , the expiry, cancellation, suspension or surrender of a security clearance held by an executive officer of a government entity or a Commonwealth entity is not a ground for suspending or cancelling an authority held by the government entity or the Commonwealth entity. s 8AB ins 2024 SL No. 167 s 47 (sec.8AB-ssec.1) This section prescribes exemptions for section 7 of the Act . (sec.8AB-ssec.2) Despite section 15 (4) (b) (iii) of the Act , the chief inspector, in deciding whether a government entity or a Commonwealth entity is an appropriate person, is not required to consider whether an executive officer of the government entity or the Commonwealth entity would be considered to be an appropriate person under section 15 of the Act . (sec.8AB-ssec.3) Despite section 17 (2) (c) of the Act , the chief inspector may issue a security sensitive authority to a government entity or a Commonwealth entity even if each executive officer of the government entity or the Commonwealth entity does not hold a security clearance. (sec.8AB-ssec.4) Despite section 23 (1) (k) of the Act , the expiry, cancellation, suspension or surrender of a security clearance held by an executive officer of a government entity or a Commonwealth entity is not a ground for suspending or cancelling an authority held by the government entity or the Commonwealth entity.
For schedule 2 of the Act , definition security sensitive explosive , paragraph (c) , an unrestricted firework is prescribed. For schedule 2 of the Act , definition security sensitive explosive , paragraph (f) , the following explosives are prescribed— security sensitive ammonium nitrate; small arms ammunition with a bullet or projectile containing an incendiary, tracer, explosive, lachrymatory or noxious composition that is permitted to be used by the holder of a licence to use explosives mentioned in schedule 1 , part 1 , item 1, paragraph (c) . The effect of paragraph (b) is that a licence to use explosives mentioned in paragraph (b) is a security sensitive authority in relation to which the holder is required to hold a security clearance. See section 2A , and schedule 2 , definition security sensitive authority , of the Act . s 8A ins 2019 Act No. 7 s 94 amd 2024 SL No. 167 s 46 (sec.8A-ssec.1) For schedule 2 of the Act , definition security sensitive explosive , paragraph (c) , an unre
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