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Queensland act
What this law does (mechanics first)
Establishes a licensing and disciplinary regime for individuals practising architecture in Queensland. It creates the Board of Architects of Queensland (the board) to register architects, keep a public register, set and publish continuing‑registration requirements and a code of practice, investigate complaints and start disciplinary or prosecution processes (secs 3–4, 80, 102, 108).
Sets minimum gates to practise: who may apply (only individuals), what qualifications and examinations are required (national AACA pathways and board‑approved exams), and that applicants must be fit to practise (secs 8–11, 10). Registration is for a financial year and may be practising or non‑practising (secs 15, 7A).
Provides application, renewal and restoration procedures and timeframes (secs 8, 16–26). The board may require further information and can let an application lapse if the applicant does not comply (sec 27).
Creates notification duties and offences for architects and others: changing contact details, prescribed changes, disciplinary events, health‑related incapacity, false statements/documents in applications or investigations, impersonating investigators, obstructing investigations, and unlawful use of the title ‘architect’ (secs 30–33, 32, 32AA–32B, 65–68, 113–117).
Gives the board investigatory and enforcement powers: appoint investigators, require information or attendance, inspect and copy documents, seize and retain evidence, enter premises (with consent, public‑place rules or a warrant), use approved audit programs, and conduct health assessments of architects (secs 45–57, 58–66, 62A–62Y, 35I–35J, 35D–35H).
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Direct links to the current provisions in Architects Act 2002.
This Act may be cited as the Architects Act 2002 .
The following provisions of this Act commence on assent— part 1 , division 4 ; part 11 , division 2 , subdivision 1 ; section 149 ; schedule 2 . The remaining provisions of this Act commence on 1 January 2003. (sec.2-ssec.1) The following provisions of this Act commence on assent— part 1 , division 4 ; part 11 , division 2 , subdivision 1 ; section 149 ; schedule 2 . (sec.2-ssec.2) The remaining provisions of this Act commence on 1 January 2003.
The main objects of this Act are— to protect the public by ensuring architectural services of an architect are provided in a professional and competent way; and to maintain public confidence in the standard of services provided by architects; and to uphold the standards of practice of architects.
The main objects are to be achieved primarily by— providing for the registration of individuals as architects under this Act; and providing for the monitoring and enforcement of compliance with this Act; and imposing obligations on persons about the practice of architecture; and establishing the Board of Architects of Queensland.
This Act binds all persons, including the State. Subsection (1) does not make the State liable to be prosecuted for an offence. (sec.5-ssec.1) This Act binds all persons, including the State. (sec.5-ssec.2) Subsection (1) does not make the State liable to be prosecuted for an offence.
This Act does not affect the operation of the Mutual Recognition (Queensland) Act 1992 or the Trans-Tasman Mutual Recognition (Queensland) Act 2003 . s 6 amd 2003 No. 45 s 15 sch
The dictionary in schedule 2 defines particular words used in this Act.
The types of registration as an architect under this Act are registration as a practising architect or a non-practising architect. s 7A ins 2010 No. 18 s 3
Only an individual may apply to the board for registration as an architect. The application must be— in the approved form and state the type of registration to which the application relates; and accompanied by each of the following— satisfactory evidence of the applicant’s eligibility for registration; any other documents, identified in the approved form, the board reasonably requires to decide the application; the application fee and registration fee prescribed under a regulation. The approved form must provide for the inclusion of the applicant’s contact details as an architect. The applicant also must provide any other relevant information reasonably required by the board to decide the application. For how the board may make a requirement for information under section 8 (4) , 18 (6) or 23 (5) , see section 27 . s 8 amd 2010 No. 18 s 4 ; 2020 No. 24 s 153 s ch 1 pt 1 (sec.8-ssec.1) Only an individual may apply to the board for registration as an architect. (sec.8-ssec.2) The application must be— in the approved form and state the type of registration to which the application relates; and accompanied by each of the following— satisfactory evidence of the applicant’s eligibility for registration; any other documents, identified in the approved form, the board reasonably requires to decide the application; the application fee and registration fee prescribed under a regulation. (sec.8-ssec.3) The approved form must provide for the inclusion of the applicant’s contact details as an architect. (sec.8-ssec.4) The applicant also must provide any other relevant information reasonably required by the board to decide the application. For how the board may make a requirement for information under section 8 (4) , 18 (6) or 23 (5) , see section 27 .
An applicant for registration is eligible for registration only if— the applicant is qualified, under section 10 , for registration; and the board considers the applicant is fit to practise as an architect. Also, an applicant for registration as a non-practising architect is eligible for registration only if the board is satisfied that the applicant will not carry out, or be responsible for the carrying out of, architectural services within the registration period to which the application for registration relates. s 9 amd 2010 No. 18 s 5 ; 2023 No. 23 s 247 sch 1 s 5 (amdt could not be given effect) (sec.9-ssec.1) An applicant for registration is eligible for registration only if— the applicant is qualified, under section 10 , for registration; and the board considers the applicant is fit to practise as an architect. (sec.9-ssec.2) Also, an applicant for registration as a non-practising architect is eligible for registration only if the board is satisfied that the applicant will not carry out, or be responsible for the carrying out of, architectural services within the registration period to which the application for registration relates.
An applicant for registration is qualified for registration if the applicant has— 1 or more of the following qualifications— a qualification in architecture recognised by the Architects Accreditation Council of Australia (the AACA ); a qualification in architecture obtained outside Australia and assessed by the AACA to be equivalent to a qualification mentioned in subparagraph (i) ; successful completion of the National Program of Assessment, or another program, coordinated by the AACA; and successfully completed— the AACA’s Architectural Practice Examination; or another examination, if any, arranged or approved by the board. s 10 sub 2010 No. 18 s 6 amd 2020 No. 24 s 153 s ch 1 pt 1
In deciding whether an applicant for registration is fit to practise as an architect, the board may have regard to each of the following— whether the applicant has a conviction, other than a spent conviction, for— an indictable offence; or an offence against this Act or the repealed Act; or another offence, relating to the practice of architecture, against a law applying, or that applied, in the State, the Commonwealth, another State or a foreign country; if the applicant has been registered under this Act or the repealed Act, or registered to practise as an architect under a law applying, or that applied, in the Commonwealth, another State or a foreign country and the registration was suspended or cancelled—the reason for its suspension or cancellation; if the applicant has been a member of an association of architects, whether in Australia or a foreign country, and the membership was suspended or cancelled—the reason for its suspension or cancellation; an order about the applicant made under section 130 or 131 of this Act or section 80 of the repealed Act; a proceeding taken against the applicant for a matter mentioned in section 36 under a law applying, or that applied, in the Commonwealth, another State or a foreign country; whether the applicant— is affected by bankruptcy action; or is an executive officer of a corporation affected by control action after the commencement of this section; if the applicant was required to undergo a health assessment— whether the applicant complied with the requirement; and whether the applicant cooperated with the medical practitioner appointed to perform the assessment; whether a health assessment report for the applicant states that the applicant is unable to competently and safely practise as an architect; whether the board reasonably believes a materially false or misleading representation or document is included in the application; any other issue relevant to the applicant’s ability to competently practise as an architect, including, for example, the applicant’s mental or physical health. s 11 amd 2010 No. 18 s 7 ; 2020 No. 24 s 4
The board must consider each application for registration made under section 8 and either grant or refuse to grant the application as soon as practicable after the last of the following events to happen— the board receives the application; the board receives all necessary information to decide the application. s 12 amd 2010 No. 18 s 8
If the board decides to grant the application, it must as soon as practicable give the applicant a certificate of registration.
If the board decides to refuse to grant the application, it must as soon as practicable— give the applicant an information notice for the decision; and refund the fees that accompanied the application less a reasonable amount, if any, prescribed under a regulation for processing the application.
The period of registration that is to apply to an architect (the registration period ) is a financial year. If the board decides to register an applicant during a registration period, the registration remains in force for the period— commencing on the day when the board makes the decision; and ending on the last day of the registration period. (sec.15-ssec.1) The period of registration that is to apply to an architect (the registration period ) is a financial year. (sec.15-ssec.2) If the board decides to register an applicant during a registration period, the registration remains in force for the period— commencing on the day when the board makes the decision; and ending on the last day of the registration period.
Continuing registration requirements are requirements of the board that, if satisfied, demonstrate that an applicant for renewal or restoration of registration has maintained competency in the practice of architecture. The requirements may include requirements about the following— the nature, extent and period of practice of architecture by the applicant; the nature and extent of continuing professional development to be undertaken by the applicant; the nature and extent of research, study or teaching, relating to architecture, to be undertaken by the applicant; the nature and extent of administrative work, relating to architecture, to be performed by the applicant. The requirements are satisfied by complying with the board’s continuing registration requirements for architecture. The board must— keep published the board’s continuing registration requirements on the board’s website; and keep the requirements available for inspection, without charge, at the board’s office when the office is open to the public; and if asked by a person and on payment of the fee, if any, prescribed under a regulation, give the person a copy of the requirements. s 16 sub 2010 No. 18 s 9 amd 2020 No. 24 s 153 s ch 1 pt 1 ; 2022 No. 11 s 3 (sec.16-ssec.1) Continuing registration requirements are requirements of the board that, if satisfied, demonstrate that an applicant for renewal or restoration of registration has maintained competency in the practice of architecture. (sec.16-ssec.2) The requirements may include requirements about the following— the nature, extent and period of practice of architecture by the applicant; the nature and extent of continuing professional development to be undertaken by the applicant; the nature and extent of research, study or teaching, relating to architecture, to be undertaken by the applicant; the nature and extent of administrative work, relating to architecture, to be performed by the applicant. (sec.16-ssec.3) The requirements are satisfied by complying with the board’s continuing registration requirements for architecture. (sec.16-ssec.4) The board must— keep published the board’s continuing registration requirements on the board’s website; and keep the requirements available for inspection, without charge, at the board’s office when the office is open to the public; and if asked by a person and on payment of the fee, if any, prescribed under a regulation, give the person a copy of the requirements.
The board must give an architect notice of the expiry of the architect’s registration at least 3 months before the expiry.
An architect may apply to the board for renewal of the architect’s registration. The application may only be made at least 1 month, but not more than 3 months, before the last day of the registration period (the expiry day ). The application must be— in the approved form; and accompanied by each of the following— any other documents, identified in the approved form, the board reasonably requires to decide the application; the annual registration fee. Despite subsection (2) , the board may accept an application for renewal of registration made within 1 month before the expiry day if the board is satisfied it would be reasonable in all the circumstances to accept the application. The approved form must provide for the inclusion of the applicant’s contact details as an architect. The architect also must provide any other relevant information reasonably required by the board to decide the application. s 18 amd 2010 No. 18 s 10 (sec.18-ssec.1) An architect may apply to the board for renewal of the architect’s registration. (sec.18-ssec.2) The application may only be made at least 1 month, but not more than 3 months, before the last day of the registration period (the expiry day ). (sec.18-ssec.3) The application must be— in the approved form; and accompanied by each of the following— any other documents, identified in the approved form, the board reasonably requires to decide the application; the annual registration fee. (sec.18-ssec.4) Despite subsection (2) , the board may accept an application for renewal of registration made within 1 month before the expiry day if the board is satisfied it would be reasonable in all the circumstances to accept the application. (sec.18-ssec.5) The approved form must provide for the inclusion of the applicant’s contact details as an architect. (sec.18-ssec.6) The architect also must provide any other relevant information reasonably required by the board to decide the application.
If an application is made under section 18 (2) , or the board decides to accept an application under section 18 (4) , the applicant’s registration is taken to continue in force from the day it would, apart from this section, have expired until— if the board decides to renew the registration—the day a new certificate of registration is given to the applicant under section 21 ; or if the board decides to refuse to renew the registration—the day stated, under section 22 (a) , in the information notice for the decision; or if the application is taken to have lapsed under section 27 —the day it is taken to have lapsed. Subsection (1) does not apply if the registration is earlier suspended or cancelled under this Act. (sec.19-ssec.1) If an application is made under section 18 (2) , or the board decides to accept an application under section 18 (4) , the applicant’s registration is taken to continue in force from the day it would, apart from this section, have expired until— if the board decides to renew the registration—the day a new certificate of registration is given to the applicant under section 21 ; or if the board decides to refuse to renew the registration—the day stated, under section 22 (a) , in the information notice for the decision; or if the application is taken to have lapsed under section 27 —the day it is taken to have lapsed. (sec.19-ssec.2) Subsection (1) does not apply if the registration is earlier suspended or cancelled under this Act.
The board must consider an accepted application and either renew or refuse to renew the registration as soon as practicable after the last of the following events to happen— the board receives the application; the board receives all necessary information to decide the application. In deciding the application, the board must have regard to— whether the board considers the applicant is fit to practise as an architect; and the extent, if any, to which the applicant has satisfied the continuing registration requirements. Also, for an application for renewal of registration as a non-practising architect, the board must be satisfied that the applicant will not carry out, or be responsible for the carrying out of, architectural services within the registration period to which the application relates. In considering whether an applicant is fit to practise as an architect, the board may have regard to the same matters to which the board may have regard in deciding whether an applicant for registration is fit to practise as an architect. For the matters the board may have regard to in deciding if an applicant for registration is fit to practise as an architect, see section 11 (Fitness to practise as an architect). In this section— accepted application means an application made under section 18 (2) or an application the board accepts under section 18 (4) . s 20 amd 2010 No. 18 s 11 (sec.20-ssec.1) The board must consider an accepted application and either renew or refuse to renew the registration as soon as practicable after the last of the following events to happen— the board receives the application; the board receives all necessary information to decide the application. (sec.20-ssec.2) In deciding the application, the board must have regard to— whether the board considers the applicant is fit to practise as an architect; and the extent, if any, to which the applicant has satisfied the continuing registration requirements. (sec.20-ssec.3) Also, for an application for renewal of registration as a non-practising architect, the board must be satisfied that the applicant will not carry out, or be responsible for the carrying out of, architectural services within the registration period to which the application relates. (sec.20-ssec.4) In considering whether an applicant is fit to practise as an architect, the board may have regard to the same matters to which the board may have regard in deciding whether an applicant for registration is fit to practise as an architect. For the matters the board may have regard to in deciding if an applicant for registration is fit to practise as an architect, see section 11 (Fitness to practise as an architect). (sec.20-ssec.5) In this section— accepted application means an application made under section 18 (2) or an application the board accepts under section 18 (4) .
If the board decides to renew the applicant’s registration, it must as soon as practicable give the applicant a new certificate of registration.
If the board decides to refuse to renew the registration, it must as soon as practicable— give the applicant an information notice for the decision stating the day, not before the expiry day and not earlier than 7 days after the notice is given, on which the registration ends; and refund the annual registration fee that accompanied the application.
If an individual’s registration has expired, the individual, within 2 months after the expiry, may apply to the board for restoration of the registration. The application must be— in the approved form; and accompanied by each of the following— any documents, identified in the approved form, the board reasonably requires to decide the application; the application fee prescribed under a regulation; the annual registration fee. Despite subsection (1) , the board may accept an application for restoration of registration made more than 2 months after the expiry if the board is satisfied it would be reasonable in all the circumstances to accept the application. The approved form must provide for the inclusion of the applicant’s contact details as an architect. The applicant also must provide any other relevant information reasonably required by the board to decide the application. s 23 amd 2010 No. 18 s 12 (sec.23-ssec.1) If an individual’s registration has expired, the individual, within 2 months after the expiry, may apply to the board for restoration of the registration. (sec.23-ssec.2) The application must be— in the approved form; and accompanied by each of the following— any documents, identified in the approved form, the board reasonably requires to decide the application; the application fee prescribed under a regulation; the annual registration fee. (sec.23-ssec.3) Despite subsection (1) , the board may accept an application for restoration of registration made more than 2 months after the expiry if the board is satisfied it would be reasonable in all the circumstances to accept the application. (sec.23-ssec.4) The approved form must provide for the inclusion of the applicant’s contact details as an architect. (sec.23-ssec.5) The applicant also must provide any other relevant information reasonably required by the board to decide the application.
The board must consider an accepted application and either restore or refuse to restore the registration as soon as practicable after the last of the following events to happen— the board receives the application; the board receives all necessary information to decide the application. In deciding the application, the board must have regard to— whether the board considers the applicant is fit to practise as an architect; and the extent, if any, to which the applicant has satisfied the continuing registration requirements. Also, for an application for restoration of registration as a non-practising architect, the board must be satisfied that the applicant will not carry out, or be responsible for the carrying out of, architectural services within the registration period to which the application relates. In considering whether an applicant is fit to practise as an architect, the board may have regard to the same matters to which the board may have regard in deciding whether an applicant for registration is fit to practise as an architect. In this section— accepted application means an application made under section 23 (1) or an application the board accepts under section 23 (3) . s 24 amd 2010 No. 18 s 13 (sec.24-ssec.1) The board must consider an accepted application and either restore or refuse to restore the registration as soon as practicable after the last of the following events to happen— the board receives the application; the board receives all necessary information to decide the application. (sec.24-ssec.2) In deciding the application, the board must have regard to— whether the board considers the applicant is fit to practise as an architect; and the extent, if any, to which the applicant has satisfied the continuing registration requirements. (sec.24-ssec.3) Also, for an application for restoration of registration as a non-practising architect, the board must be satisfied that the applicant will not carry out, or be responsible for the carrying out of, architectural services within the registration period to which the application relates. (sec.24-ssec.4) In considering whether an applicant is fit to practise as an architect, the board may have regard to the same matters to which the board may have regard in deciding whether an applicant for registration is fit to practise as an architect. (sec.24-ssec.5) In this section— accepted application means an application made under section 23 (1) or an application the board accepts under section 23 (3) .
If the board decides to restore the applicant’s registration, the board must as soon as practicable give the applicant a new certificate of registration. The registration remains in force for the period— commencing on the day when the board makes the decision; and ending on the last day of the registration period in which the decision is made. (sec.25-ssec.1) If the board decides to restore the applicant’s registration, the board must as soon as practicable give the applicant a new certificate of registration. (sec.25-ssec.2) The registration remains in force for the period— commencing on the day when the board makes the decision; and ending on the last day of the registration period in which the decision is made.
If the board decides to refuse to restore the registration, it must as soon as practicable— give the applicant an information notice for the decision; and refund the annual registration fee that accompanied the application.
This section applies if an application for registration, or renewal or restoration of registration, is made under this part. The board may make a requirement under section 8 (4) , 18 (6) or 23 (5) for information to decide the application by giving the applicant a notice stating— the required information; and the time by which the information must be given to the board; and that, if the information is not given to the board by the stated time, the application will lapse. The stated time must be at least 21 days after the requirement is made. The board may give the applicant a further notice extending or further extending the time if the board is satisfied it would be reasonable in all the circumstances to give the extension. A notice may be given under subsection (4) even if the time to which it relates has lapsed. If the applicant does not comply with the requirement within the stated time, or any extension, the application lapses. If an application lapses under subsection (6) , the board must, as soon as practicable after it lapses, refund the fees that accompanied the application less a reasonable amount, if any, prescribed under a regulation for processing the application. s 27 amd 2020 No. 24 s 153 s ch 1 pt 1 (sec.27-ssec.1) This section applies if an application for registration, or renewal or restoration of registration, is made under this part. (sec.27-ssec.2) The board may make a requirement under section 8 (4) , 18 (6) or 23 (5) for information to decide the application by giving the applicant a notice stating— the required information; and the time by which the information must be given to the board; and that, if the information is not given to the board by the stated time, the application will lapse. (sec.27-ssec.3) The stated time must be at least 21 days after the requirement is made. (sec.27-ssec.4) The board may give the applicant a further notice extending or further extending the time if the board is satisfied it would be reasonable in all the circumstances to give the extension. (sec.27-ssec.5) A notice may be given under subsection (4) even if the time to which it relates has lapsed. (sec.27-ssec.6) If the applicant does not comply with the requirement within the stated time, or any extension, the application lapses. (sec.27-ssec.7) If an application lapses under subsection (6) , the board must, as soon as practicable after it lapses, refund the fees that accompanied the application less a reasonable amount, if any, prescribed under a regulation for processing the application.
The board may cancel an architect’s registration under this part if— the board believes on reasonable grounds the architect was registered because of a materially false or misleading representation or document; or the architect is— affected by bankruptcy action; or an executive officer of a corporation affected by control action; or the architect’s registration to practise as an architect under a law applying, or that applied, in the Commonwealth, another State or a foreign country has been cancelled under that law for disciplinary reasons; or the architect’s membership of an association of architects, whether in Australia or a foreign country, has been cancelled under the association’s rules for disciplinary reasons; or an order about the architect is made under section 130 or 131 ; or a proceeding is taken against the architect for a matter mentioned in section 36 under a law applying in the Commonwealth, another State or a foreign country; or the architect is convicted of— an indictable offence; or an offence against this Act; or another offence, relating to the practice of architecture, against a law applying in the State, the Commonwealth, another State or a foreign country; or the architect has contravened a condition of the architect’s registration; or the architect is required to undergo a health assessment and— the architect does not comply with the requirement; or the architect does not cooperate with the medical practitioner appointed to perform the assessment; or a health assessment report for the architect states that the architect is unable to competently and safely practise as an architect. s 28 amd 2010 No. 18 s 15 ; 2020 No. 24 s 5
If the board proposes to cancel an architect’s registration, the board must give the architect a notice stating the following— the board proposes to cancel the registration; the grounds for the proposed cancellation; the facts and circumstances that are the basis for the grounds; that the architect may make, within a stated period, written representations to show why the registration should not be cancelled. The stated period must end at least 21 days after the architect is given the notice. The board may also ask for more information by giving the architect a notice stating— the information sought; and the time, at least 21 days after the notice is given, by which the information is required. If, after considering all written representations made within the stated period and any requested information received by the stated time, the board still believes a ground exists to cancel the architect’s registration, the board may cancel the registration. The board must, as soon as practicable after making a decision under subsection (4) , give the architect an information notice for the decision. The decision takes effect on— the day the notice is given; or if a later day is stated in the notice—the stated day. s 29 amd 2020 No. 24 s 6 (sec.29-ssec.1) If the board proposes to cancel an architect’s registration, the board must give the architect a notice stating the following— the board proposes to cancel the registration; the grounds for the proposed cancellation; the facts and circumstances that are the basis for the grounds; that the architect may make, within a stated period, written representations to show why the registration should not be cancelled. (sec.29-ssec.2) The stated period must end at least 21 days after the architect is given the notice. (sec.29-ssec.3) The board may also ask for more information by giving the architect a notice stating— the information sought; and the time, at least 21 days after the notice is given, by which the information is required. (sec.29-ssec.4) If, after considering all written representations made within the stated period and any requested information received by the stated time, the board still believes a ground exists to cancel the architect’s registration, the board may cancel the registration. (sec.29-ssec.5) The board must, as soon as practicable after making a decision under subsection (4) , give the architect an information notice for the decision. (sec.29-ssec.6) The decision takes effect on— the day the notice is given; or if a later day is stated in the notice—the stated day.
This section applies if the board reasonably believes— a ground exists to cancel an architect’s registration under section 28 ; and it is in the public interest to immediately suspend the architect’s registration. The board may, by information notice given to the architect, immediately suspend the architect’s registration. The information notice must also state the period of suspension. The suspension— is for the period the board decides; and has effect when the information notice is given. The board must end the suspension if satisfied that the ground for the suspension no longer exist. The suspension ends if the architect’s registration is cancelled or otherwise ends. s 29A ins 2010 No. 18 s 16 amd 2020 No. 24 s 7 (sec.29A-ssec.1) This section applies if the board reasonably believes— a ground exists to cancel an architect’s registration under section 28 ; and it is in the public interest to immediately suspend the architect’s registration. (sec.29A-ssec.2) The board may, by information notice given to the architect, immediately suspend the architect’s registration. (sec.29A-ssec.3) The information notice must also state the period of suspension. (sec.29A-ssec.4) The suspension— is for the period the board decides; and has effect when the information notice is given. (sec.29A-ssec.5) The board must end the suspension if satisfied that the ground for the suspension no longer exist. (sec.29A-ssec.6) The suspension ends if the architect’s registration is cancelled or otherwise ends.
A person, in relation to an application under this part, must not make a statement the person knows is false or misleading in a material particular. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. s 30 amd 2024 No. 14 s 4
A person, in relation to an application under this part, must not give an entity a document containing information the person knows is false or misleading in a material particular. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. Subsection (1) does not apply to a person if the person, when giving the document— tells the entity, to the best of the person’s ability, how the information in the document is false or misleading; and if the person has, or can reasonably obtain, the correct information—gives the correct information. s 31 amd 2024 No. 14 s 5 (sec.31-ssec.1) A person, in relation to an application under this part, must not give an entity a document containing information the person knows is false or misleading in a material particular. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. (sec.31-ssec.2) Subsection (1) does not apply to a person if the person, when giving the document— tells the entity, to the best of the person’s ability, how the information in the document is false or misleading; and if the person has, or can reasonably obtain, the correct information—gives the correct information.
For sections 30 and 31 , a person is taken to make a statement, or give an entity a document, in relation to an application under this part if the person makes the statement or gives the document in connection with— the application or anything that accompanies the application; or other information provided as required to decide the application; or an assessment relevant to the application, including the following— an assessment of qualifications; an examination; a health assessment; an assessment of whether the applicant has satisfied the continuing registration requirements. For subsection (1) , an assessment is relevant to an application under this part— whether the assessment is carried out by the board or another entity; and whether the assessment is carried out before or after the application is made. s 31A ins 2020 No. 24 s 8 sub 2024 No. 14 s 6 (sec.31A-ssec.1) For sections 30 and 31 , a person is taken to make a statement, or give an entity a document, in relation to an application under this part if the person makes the statement or gives the document in connection with— the application or anything that accompanies the application; or other information provided as required to decide the application; or an assessment relevant to the application, including the following— an assessment of qualifications; an examination; a health assessment; an assessment of whether the applicant has satisfied the continuing registration requirements. (sec.31A-ssec.2) For subsection (1) , an assessment is relevant to an application under this part— whether the assessment is carried out by the board or another entity; and whether the assessment is carried out before or after the application is made.
An architect must, within 21 days after changing his or her name or contact details, advise the board about the change unless the architect has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—10 penalty units.
An architect must give notice to the board of a prescribed change for the architect within 21 days after the change, unless the architect has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. In this section— prescribed change , for an architect, means a change relating to a matter that the board may consider under section 11 when deciding whether a person is fit to practise as an architect. s 32AA ins 2020 No. 24 s 9 (sec.32AA-ssec.1) An architect must give notice to the board of a prescribed change for the architect within 21 days after the change, unless the architect has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. (sec.32AA-ssec.2) In this section— prescribed change , for an architect, means a change relating to a matter that the board may consider under section 11 when deciding whether a person is fit to practise as an architect.
An architect must, within 21 days after a disciplinary event for the architect, give notice to the board of the disciplinary event, unless the architect has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. In this section— disciplinary event , for an architect, means a proceeding taken against the architect in relation to— the architect’s membership of an association of architects; or the architect’s registration to practise as an architect under a law applying in the Commonwealth, another State or a foreign country. s 32A ins 2010 No. 18 s 17 sub 2020 No. 24 s 10 (sec.32A-ssec.1) An architect must, within 21 days after a disciplinary event for the architect, give notice to the board of the disciplinary event, unless the architect has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. (sec.32A-ssec.2) In this section— disciplinary event , for an architect, means a proceeding taken against the architect in relation to— the architect’s membership of an association of architects; or the architect’s registration to practise as an architect under a law applying in the Commonwealth, another State or a foreign country.
This section applies if an architect has been unable to competently and safely practise as an architect for a continuous period of 6 months because of the architect’s mental or physical health. The architect must immediately notify the board in writing of that fact, unless the architect— has already notified the board in writing of the incapacity; or has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. s 32B ins 2010 No. 18 s 17 (sec.32B-ssec.1) This section applies if an architect has been unable to competently and safely practise as an architect for a continuous period of 6 months because of the architect’s mental or physical health. (sec.32B-ssec.2) The architect must immediately notify the board in writing of that fact, unless the architect— has already notified the board in writing of the incapacity; or has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units.
An architect may, by notice given to the board, surrender the architect’s registration. The surrender takes effect on the later of the following— the end of 7 days after the day the notice is given; a day stated in the notice for the surrender. (sec.33-ssec.1) An architect may, by notice given to the board, surrender the architect’s registration. (sec.33-ssec.2) The surrender takes effect on the later of the following— the end of 7 days after the day the notice is given; a day stated in the notice for the surrender.
A certificate of registration given under this part must be in the approved form. The approved form must provide for the inclusion of— the architect’s name; and the period of registration; and whether the architect is a practising or non-practising architect. s 34 amd 2010 No. 18 s 18 (sec.34-ssec.1) A certificate of registration given under this part must be in the approved form. (sec.34-ssec.2) The approved form must provide for the inclusion of— the architect’s name; and the period of registration; and whether the architect is a practising or non-practising architect.
This section applies if an applicant withdraws an application made under this part before the application is decided. The board must, as soon as practicable after the application is withdrawn— for an application for registration—refund the fees that accompanied the application less a reasonable amount, if any, prescribed under a regulation for processing the application; or for an application for renewal or restoration of registration—refund the annual registration fee that accompanied the application. (sec.35-ssec.1) This section applies if an applicant withdraws an application made under this part before the application is decided. (sec.35-ssec.2) The board must, as soon as practicable after the application is withdrawn— for an application for registration—refund the fees that accompanied the application less a reasonable amount, if any, prescribed under a regulation for processing the application; or for an application for renewal or restoration of registration—refund the annual registration fee that accompanied the application.
This section applies to the following persons (each a relevant person )— an individual applying for registration as an architect under section 8 ; an architect applying for renewal of registration under section 18 ; an individual applying for restoration of the person’s registration under section 23 . The board may make inquiries about the relevant person to help in deciding whether the person is, or continues to be, fit to practise as an architect. s 35A ins 2010 No. 18 s 19 (sec.35A-ssec.1) This section applies to the following persons (each a relevant person )— an individual applying for registration as an architect under section 8 ; an architect applying for renewal of registration under section 18 ; an individual applying for restoration of the person’s registration under section 23 . (sec.35A-ssec.2) The board may make inquiries about the relevant person to help in deciding whether the person is, or continues to be, fit to practise as an architect.
The board may ask the police commissioner for a written report about the criminal history of a relevant person. If asked by the board, the police commissioner must give the board a written report about the criminal history of the relevant person. The duty imposed on the police commissioner applies only to information in the commissioner’s possession or to which the commissioner has access. A report mentioned in subsection (2) may only be used for the purposes of this Act and must be destroyed as soon as practicable after it is no longer needed for those purposes. In this section— relevant person see section 35A (1) . s 35B ins 2010 No. 18 s 19 amd 2020 No. 24 s 153 s ch 1 pt 1 (sec.35B-ssec.1) The board may ask the police commissioner for a written report about the criminal history of a relevant person. (sec.35B-ssec.2) If asked by the board, the police commissioner must give the board a written report about the criminal history of the relevant person. (sec.35B-ssec.3) The duty imposed on the police commissioner applies only to information in the commissioner’s possession or to which the commissioner has access. (sec.35B-ssec.4) A report mentioned in subsection (2) may only be used for the purposes of this Act and must be destroyed as soon as practicable after it is no longer needed for those purposes. (sec.35B-ssec.5) In this section— relevant person see section 35A (1) .
In this part— subject architect see section 35D (1) . s 35C ins 2010 No. 18 s 20
This section applies if the board reasonably believes an architect (the subject architect ) is unable to competently and safely practise as an architect because of the architect’s mental or physical health. The board may require the subject architect to undergo a health assessment by a medical practitioner (the health assessor ) appointed by the board. If the board decides to require a health assessment, the board must give the subject architect an information notice about the decision to require the assessment that includes— a stated date, time and place, for the assessment; and the name and qualifications of the health assessor appointed by the board to conduct the assessment; and the possible consequences of failing to undergo, or cooperate during, the assessment. The stated date must be no sooner than 14 days after the information notice is given to the subject architect unless the architect and the board agree, in writing, to an earlier date. The stated time and place must be reasonable having regard to the circumstances of the subject architect as known to the board. s 35D ins 2010 No. 18 s 20 amd 2020 No. 24 s 153 s ch 1 pt 1 (sec.35D-ssec.1) This section applies if the board reasonably believes an architect (the subject architect ) is unable to competently and safely practise as an architect because of the architect’s mental or physical health. (sec.35D-ssec.2) The board may require the subject architect to undergo a health assessment by a medical practitioner (the health assessor ) appointed by the board. (sec.35D-ssec.3) If the board decides to require a health assessment, the board must give the subject architect an information notice about the decision to require the assessment that includes— a stated date, time and place, for the assessment; and the name and qualifications of the health assessor appointed by the board to conduct the assessment; and the possible consequences of failing to undergo, or cooperate during, the assessment. (sec.35D-ssec.4) The stated date must be no sooner than 14 days after the information notice is given to the subject architect unless the architect and the board agree, in writing, to an earlier date. (sec.35D-ssec.5) The stated time and place must be reasonable having regard to the circumstances of the subject architect as known to the board.
Before appointing a medical practitioner as a health assessor, the board must be satisfied the medical practitioner does not have a personal or professional connection with the subject architect that may prejudice the way in which the medical practitioner conducts the assessment. s 35E ins 2010 No. 18 s 20 amd 2020 No. 24 s 153 s ch 1 pt 1
A health assessor conducting all or part of a health assessment of a subject architect must prepare a report about the assessment ( health assessment report ). The health assessment report must include— the health assessor’s findings as to whether the subject architect is currently unable to competently and safely practise as an architect; and if the health assessor finds that the subject architect is unable to competently and safely practise as an architect—the health assessor’s recommendations as to any conditions that could be imposed on the architect’s registration to overcome the inability. The health assessor must give the health assessment report to the board and a copy to the subject architect. s 35F ins 2010 No. 18 s 20 (sec.35F-ssec.1) A health assessor conducting all or part of a health assessment of a subject architect must prepare a report about the assessment ( health assessment report ). (sec.35F-ssec.2) The health assessment report must include— the health assessor’s findings as to whether the subject architect is currently unable to competently and safely practise as an architect; and if the health assessor finds that the subject architect is unable to competently and safely practise as an architect—the health assessor’s recommendations as to any conditions that could be imposed on the architect’s registration to overcome the inability. (sec.35F-ssec.3) The health assessor must give the health assessment report to the board and a copy to the subject architect.
The board is liable for the cost of the health assessment and the preparation of the health assessment report. However, if the assessment is that the subject architect is currently unable to competently and safely practise as an architect, the board may require the architect, by notice, to pay the board the amount of the cost of the assessment and of the preparation of the health assessment report. The amount mentioned in subsection (2) is a debt payable to the board. s 35G ins 2010 No. 18 s 20 (sec.35G-ssec.1) The board is liable for the cost of the health assessment and the preparation of the health assessment report. (sec.35G-ssec.2) However, if the assessment is that the subject architect is currently unable to competently and safely practise as an architect, the board may require the architect, by notice, to pay the board the amount of the cost of the assessment and of the preparation of the health assessment report. (sec.35G-ssec.3) The amount mentioned in subsection (2) is a debt payable to the board.
A health assessment report is not admissible in any proceeding, and a person can not be compelled to produce the report or to give evidence about the report or its contents in any proceeding. Subsection (1) does not apply in relation to— a proceeding relating to an application by the subject architect to whom the report relates for registration as, or renewal or restoration of registration as, an architect under this Act; or a proceeding on an appeal by the subject architect against a decision of the board— refusing to grant, renew or restore registration; or cancelling or immediately suspending registration. Also, subsection (1) does not apply if the report is admitted or produced, or evidence about the report or its contents is given, in a proceeding with the consent of— the health assessor who prepared the report; and the architect to whom the report relates. A health assessment report may only be used for the purposes of this Act and must be destroyed as soon as practicable after it is no longer needed for those purposes. In this section— health assessment report includes a copy of the report or a part of the report or copy. s 35H ins 2010 No. 18 s 20 (sec.35H-ssec.1) A health assessment report is not admissible in any proceeding, and a person can not be compelled to produce the report or to give evidence about the report or its contents in any proceeding. (sec.35H-ssec.2) Subsection (1) does not apply in relation to— a proceeding relating to an application by the subject architect to whom the report relates for registration as, or renewal or restoration of registration as, an architect under this Act; or a proceeding on an appeal by the subject architect against a decision of the board— refusing to grant, renew or restore registration; or cancelling or immediately suspending registration. (sec.35H-ssec.3) Also, subsection (1) does not apply if the report is admitted or produced, or evidence about the report or its contents is given, in a proceeding with the consent of— the health assessor who prepared the report; and the architect to whom the report relates. (sec.35H-ssec.4) A health assessment report may only be used for the purposes of this Act and must be destroyed as soon as practicable after it is no longer needed for those purposes. (sec.35H-ssec.5) In this section— health assessment report includes a copy of the report or a part of the report or copy.
The board may approve a program (an approved audit program ) to audit 1 or more architects. The purpose of the approved audit program is to find out if an architect to whom the program applies (an audited architect ) has complied with— a code of practice approved under section 108 ; or part 7 . The approved audit program must state all of the following— the purpose of the program; when the program starts and ends; the criteria used to select an architect for the program; who will carry out the program; any other matter relevant to carrying out the program. s 35I ins 2020 No. 24 s 11 (sec.35I-ssec.1) The board may approve a program (an approved audit program ) to audit 1 or more architects. (sec.35I-ssec.2) The purpose of the approved audit program is to find out if an architect to whom the program applies (an audited architect ) has complied with— a code of practice approved under section 108 ; or part 7 . (sec.35I-ssec.3) The approved audit program must state all of the following— the purpose of the program; when the program starts and ends; the criteria used to select an architect for the program; who will carry out the program; any other matter relevant to carrying out the program.
The board may, by notice given to an audited architect, require the audited architect to give the board a copy of, or access to, a document about a stated matter in the audited architect’s possession or control. The notice must require the copy of, or access to, the document to be given within a stated reasonable period and in a stated reasonable way. The audited architect must comply with the requirement, unless the audited architect has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—100 penalty units. For subsection (3) , it is a reasonable excuse for the audited architect not to comply with the requirement if complying with the requirement might tend to incriminate the audited architect or expose the audited architect to a penalty. s 35J ins 2020 No. 24 s 11 (sec.35J-ssec.1) The board may, by notice given to an audited architect, require the audited architect to give the board a copy of, or access to, a document about a stated matter in the audited architect’s possession or control. (sec.35J-ssec.2) The notice must require the copy of, or access to, the document to be given within a stated reasonable period and in a stated reasonable way. (sec.35J-ssec.3) The audited architect must comply with the requirement, unless the audited architect has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—100 penalty units. (sec.35J-ssec.4) For subsection (3) , it is a reasonable excuse for the audited architect not to comply with the requirement if complying with the requirement might tend to incriminate the audited architect or expose the audited architect to a penalty.
Action may be taken under this part in relation to a person who was an architect at the time the conduct of the person that is relevant for this part happened even though the person is no longer an architect. For the purpose of taking action under this part, the person mentioned in subsection (1) is taken to be an architect. This section does not limit, but may extend, the operation of the other provisions of this part. s 36AA ins 2010 No. 18 s 21 (sec.36AA-ssec.1) Action may be taken under this part in relation to a person who was an architect at the time the conduct of the person that is relevant for this part happened even though the person is no longer an architect. (sec.36AA-ssec.2) For the purpose of taking action under this part, the person mentioned in subsection (1) is taken to be an architect. (sec.36AA-ssec.3) This section does not limit, but may extend, the operation of the other provisions of this part.
Each of the following is a ground (a disciplinary ground ) for disciplining an architect— the architect has, whether before or after the commencement of this Act, behaved in a way that constitutes unsatisfactory professional conduct; the architect has failed to comply with a provision of this Act or the repealed Act; the architect has been convicted of an offence against an Act of the State, the Commonwealth or another State related to the practice of architecture; the architect has contravened an undertaking entered into by the architect and the board under section 73 (2) (b) ; the architect has contravened a condition of the architect’s registration. s 36 amd 2020 No. 24 s 12
A person who is aggrieved by an architect’s conduct in carrying out architectural services, whether before or after the commencement of this Act, may make a complaint about the conduct to the board. A complaint must be in the approved form. The chairperson must keep available for inspection, at the board’s office by members of the public, information about— the type of conduct the board considers may give rise to a complaint; and how a person may make a complaint. The board must publish on the board’s website the information mentioned in subsection (3) . s 37 amd 2022 No. 11 s 4 (sec.37-ssec.1) A person who is aggrieved by an architect’s conduct in carrying out architectural services, whether before or after the commencement of this Act, may make a complaint about the conduct to the board. (sec.37-ssec.2) A complaint must be in the approved form. (sec.37-ssec.3) The chairperson must keep available for inspection, at the board’s office by members of the public, information about— the type of conduct the board considers may give rise to a complaint; and how a person may make a complaint. (sec.37-ssec.4) The board must publish on the board’s website the information mentioned in subsection (3) .
The board may, by notice, ask a complainant to give the board further information about the complaint within the reasonable time stated in the notice. Also, the board may require a complainant to verify the complaint or further information by statutory declaration. (sec.38-ssec.1) The board may, by notice, ask a complainant to give the board further information about the complaint within the reasonable time stated in the notice. (sec.38-ssec.2) Also, the board may require a complainant to verify the complaint or further information by statutory declaration.
The board may decide to reject a complaint if the board reasonably considers the complaint is frivolous, vexatious or trivial.
If a complainant withdraws a complaint, the board need not take any further action about the complaint. However, the withdrawal does not stop the board— investigating, or continuing to investigate, the matter of the complaint; or authorising an investigator to investigate, or continue to investigate, the matter of the complaint. In deciding whether to act as mentioned in subsection (2) , the board must have regard to the main objects of this Act and the disciplinary grounds. (sec.40-ssec.1) If a complainant withdraws a complaint, the board need not take any further action about the complaint. (sec.40-ssec.2) However, the withdrawal does not stop the board— investigating, or continuing to investigate, the matter of the complaint; or authorising an investigator to investigate, or continue to investigate, the matter of the complaint. (sec.40-ssec.3) In deciding whether to act as mentioned in subsection (2) , the board must have regard to the main objects of this Act and the disciplinary grounds.
This section applies if— a complaint is made about an architect’s conduct in carrying out architectural services; or the board reasonably believes an aspect of an architect’s conduct in carrying out architectural services may provide a ground for disciplining the architect. The board may conduct an investigation of the architect’s conduct or authorise, in writing, an investigator to conduct the investigation. To help the board decide whether to act under subsection (2) , the board may give the architect a notice stating the architect may make a submission to the board about the complaint or ground for disciplining the architect within the reasonable time stated in the notice. (sec.41-ssec.1) This section applies if— a complaint is made about an architect’s conduct in carrying out architectural services; or the board reasonably believes an aspect of an architect’s conduct in carrying out architectural services may provide a ground for disciplining the architect. (sec.41-ssec.2) The board may conduct an investigation of the architect’s conduct or authorise, in writing, an investigator to conduct the investigation. (sec.41-ssec.3) To help the board decide whether to act under subsection (2) , the board may give the architect a notice stating the architect may make a submission to the board about the complaint or ground for disciplining the architect within the reasonable time stated in the notice.
If the board reasonably suspects a person has committed an offence against this Act, the board may— investigate the suspected offence; or authorise, in writing, an investigator to conduct the investigation. For helping the board decide whether to act under subsection (1) , the board may give the person a notice stating the person may make a submission to the board about the matter the subject of the suspected offence within the reasonable time stated in the notice. (sec.42-ssec.1) If the board reasonably suspects a person has committed an offence against this Act, the board may— investigate the suspected offence; or authorise, in writing, an investigator to conduct the investigation. (sec.42-ssec.2) For helping the board decide whether to act under subsection (1) , the board may give the person a notice stating the person may make a submission to the board about the matter the subject of the suspected offence within the reasonable time stated in the notice.
The board, or an investigator it authorises to conduct an investigation, must conduct the investigation as quickly as possible having regard to the nature of the matter being investigated.
As soon as practicable after deciding to conduct, or authorising an investigator to conduct, an investigation in relation to a person, the board must give the person notice of the investigation. The notice must state each of the following— whether the investigation is being conducted by the board or an investigator; if an investigator is conducting the investigation—the investigator’s name; if the investigation relates to a complaint—the nature of the complaint; if the board or an investigator is conducting the investigation on the board’s own initiative under section 41 (1) (b) or 42 —the grounds that are the basis for the investigation; that the person may make, during the course of the investigation, a submission to the board or investigator about the complaint or other grounds for the investigation, and how a submission may be made. However, the board need not give the person the notice if the board reasonably believes that giving the notice may— seriously prejudice the investigation; or place the complainant or another person at risk of harassment or intimidation. A submission under subsection (2) (e) must be made to— if an investigator is conducting the investigation—the investigator; or otherwise—the board. (sec.44-ssec.1) As soon as practicable after deciding to conduct, or authorising an investigator to conduct, an investigation in relation to a person, the board must give the person notice of the investigation. (sec.44-ssec.2) The notice must state each of the following— whether the investigation is being conducted by the board or an investigator; if an investigator is conducting the investigation—the investigator’s name; if the investigation relates to a complaint—the nature of the complaint; if the board or an investigator is conducting the investigation on the board’s own initiative under section 41 (1) (b) or 42 —the grounds that are the basis for the investigation; that the person may make, during the course of the investigation, a submission to the board or investigator about the complaint or other grounds for the investigation, and how a submission may be made. (sec.44-ssec.3) However, the board need not give the person the notice if the board reasonably believes that giving the notice may— seriously prejudice the investigation; or place the complainant or another person at risk of harassment or intimidation. (sec.44-ssec.4) A submission under subsection (2) (e) must be made to— if an investigator is conducting the investigation—the investigator; or otherwise—the board.
The board may engage a person to help the board or investigator in conducting an investigation if the board is satisfied the person is sufficiently qualified or experienced to help the board or investigator about the matter the subject of the investigation. Without limiting subsection (1) , the board may engage the person to give the board or investigator a written report about the matter the subject of the investigation. (sec.45-ssec.1) The board may engage a person to help the board or investigator in conducting an investigation if the board is satisfied the person is sufficiently qualified or experienced to help the board or investigator about the matter the subject of the investigation. (sec.45-ssec.2) Without limiting subsection (1) , the board may engage the person to give the board or investigator a written report about the matter the subject of the investigation.
An investigator has the function of conducting the investigation the investigator is authorised to conduct by the board.
To conduct the investigation, an investigator has the powers given to the investigator under this Act.
The board may appoint a person as an investigator. The person must be an individual who is not a board member. However, the board may appoint a person as an investigator only if the board is satisfied the person is appropriately qualified. s 48 amd 2020 No. 24 s 153 s ch 1 pt 1 (sec.48-ssec.1) The board may appoint a person as an investigator. (sec.48-ssec.2) The person must be an individual who is not a board member. (sec.48-ssec.3) However, the board may appoint a person as an investigator only if the board is satisfied the person is appropriately qualified.
An investigator holds office on any conditions stated in— the investigator’s instrument of appointment; or a signed notice given to the investigator; or a regulation. The instrument of appointment, a signed notice given to the investigator or a regulation may limit the investigator’s powers under this Act. In this section— signed notice means a notice signed by the chairperson or deputy chairperson. (sec.49-ssec.1) An investigator holds office on any conditions stated in— the investigator’s instrument of appointment; or a signed notice given to the investigator; or a regulation. (sec.49-ssec.2) The instrument of appointment, a signed notice given to the investigator or a regulation may limit the investigator’s powers under this Act. (sec.49-ssec.3) In this section— signed notice means a notice signed by the chairperson or deputy chairperson.
The board must issue an identity card to each investigator. The identity card must— contain a recent photograph of the investigator; and contain a copy of the investigator’s signature; and identify the person as an investigator under this Act; and state an expiry date for the card. s 50 amd 2020 No. 24 s 13 (sec.50-ssec.1) The board must issue an identity card to each investigator. (sec.50-ssec.2) The identity card must— contain a recent photograph of the investigator; and contain a copy of the investigator’s signature; and identify the person as an investigator under this Act; and state an expiry date for the card. s 50 amd 2020 No. 24 s 13
In exercising a power under this Act in relation to a person, an investigator must— produce the investigator’s identity card for the person’s inspection before exercising the power; or have the identity card displayed so it is clearly visible to the person when exercising the power. However, if it is not practicable to comply with subsection (1) , the investigator must produce the identity card for the person’s inspection at the first reasonable opportunity. For subsection (1) , an investigator does not exercise a power in relation to a person only because the inspector has entered a public place under section 62A (1) (b) . s 51 amd 2020 No. 24 s 14 (sec.51-ssec.1) In exercising a power under this Act in relation to a person, an investigator must— produce the investigator’s identity card for the person’s inspection before exercising the power; or have the identity card displayed so it is clearly visible to the person when exercising the power. (sec.51-ssec.2) However, if it is not practicable to comply with subsection (1) , the investigator must produce the identity card for the person’s inspection at the first reasonable opportunity. (sec.51-ssec.3) For subsection (1) , an investigator does not exercise a power in relation to a person only because the inspector has entered a public place under section 62A (1) (b) .
An investigator ceases to hold office if any of the following happens— the term of office stated in a condition of office ends; under another condition of office, the investigator ceases to hold office; the investigator’s resignation under section 53 takes effect. Subsection (1) does not limit the ways an investigator may cease to hold office. In this section— condition of office means a condition on which the investigator holds office. (sec.52-ssec.1) An investigator ceases to hold office if any of the following happens— the term of office stated in a condition of office ends; under another condition of office, the investigator ceases to hold office; the investigator’s resignation under section 53 takes effect. (sec.52-ssec.2) Subsection (1) does not limit the ways an investigator may cease to hold office. (sec.52-ssec.3) In this section— condition of office means a condition on which the investigator holds office.
An investigator may resign by signed notice given to the board.
An individual who ceases to be an investigator must return the individual’s identity card to the board within 21 days after ceasing to be an investigator, unless the individual has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—10 penalty units.
For an investigation, the board or an investigator may, by notice given to a person, require the person to— give the board or investigator information related to the investigation by a stated reasonable time; or attend before the board or investigator at a stated reasonable time and place to answer questions, or produce documents, related to the investigation. For information that is an electronic document, compliance with the requirement requires the giving of a clear image or written version of the electronic document. In this section— information includes a document. architectural plans or drawings s 55 sub 2020 No. 24 s 15 (sec.55-ssec.1) For an investigation, the board or an investigator may, by notice given to a person, require the person to— give the board or investigator information related to the investigation by a stated reasonable time; or attend before the board or investigator at a stated reasonable time and place to answer questions, or produce documents, related to the investigation. (sec.55-ssec.2) For information that is an electronic document, compliance with the requirement requires the giving of a clear image or written version of the electronic document. (sec.55-ssec.3) In this section— information includes a document. architectural plans or drawings
A person of whom a requirement is made under section 55 (1) (a) must comply with the requirement unless the person has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. A person of whom a requirement is made under section 55 (1) (b) must not fail, without reasonable excuse— to attend as required by the notice; or to continue to attend as required by the board or investigator until excused from further attendance; or to answer a question the person is required to answer by the board or investigator; or to produce a document the person is required to produce by the notice. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. It is a reasonable excuse for a person not to give the information, answer the question or produce the document, if giving the information, answering the question or producing the document might tend to incriminate the person or expose the person to a penalty. s 56 amd 2020 No. 24 s 16 (sec.56-ssec.1) A person of whom a requirement is made under section 55 (1) (a) must comply with the requirement unless the person has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. (sec.56-ssec.2) A person of whom a requirement is made under section 55 (1) (b) must not fail, without reasonable excuse— to attend as required by the notice; or to continue to attend as required by the board or investigator until excused from further attendance; or to answer a question the person is required to answer by the board or investigator; or to produce a document the person is required to produce by the notice. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. (sec.56-ssec.3) It is a reasonable excuse for a person not to give the information, answer the question or produce the document, if giving the information, answering the question or producing the document might tend to incriminate the person or expose the person to a penalty.
If a document is produced to the board or an investigator, whether under a notice under section 55 or otherwise, the board or investigator may inspect it. Also, the board or investigator may make a copy of, or take an extract from, the document if the board or investigator reasonably considers the document may be relevant to the investigation being conducted by the board or investigator. (sec.57-ssec.1) If a document is produced to the board or an investigator, whether under a notice under section 55 or otherwise, the board or investigator may inspect it. (sec.57-ssec.2) Also, the board or investigator may make a copy of, or take an extract from, the document if the board or investigator reasonably considers the document may be relevant to the investigation being conducted by the board or investigator.
The board or investigator may seize a document mentioned in section 57 (1) if the board or investigator reasonably believes the document is evidence that is relevant to the investigation being conducted by the board or investigator.
As soon as practicable after the board or investigator seizes a document, the board or investigator must give a receipt for it to the person from whom it was seized. The receipt must describe generally each document seized and its condition. (sec.59-ssec.1) As soon as practicable after the board or investigator seizes a document, the board or investigator must give a receipt for it to the person from whom it was seized. (sec.59-ssec.2) The receipt must describe generally each document seized and its condition.
If an investigator seizes a document under section 58 , the investigator must give the document to the board when the investigator gives the board a report about the investigation under section 71 (1) .
Until a seized document is returned, the board or investigator must allow its owner to inspect or copy it. Subsection (1) does not apply if it would be unreasonable to allow the inspection or copying. (sec.61-ssec.1) Until a seized document is returned, the board or investigator must allow its owner to inspect or copy it. (sec.61-ssec.2) Subsection (1) does not apply if it would be unreasonable to allow the inspection or copying.
The board must return a document seized as evidence, whether by the board or an investigator, to its owner— at the end of 6 months; or if proceedings involving the document are started within 6 months—at the end of the proceedings and any appeal from the proceedings. Despite subsection (1) , the board must immediately return the document to its owner if the board stops being satisfied its continued retention as evidence is necessary. (sec.62-ssec.1) The board must return a document seized as evidence, whether by the board or an investigator, to its owner— at the end of 6 months; or if proceedings involving the document are started within 6 months—at the end of the proceedings and any appeal from the proceedings. (sec.62-ssec.2) Despite subsection (1) , the board must immediately return the document to its owner if the board stops being satisfied its continued retention as evidence is necessary.
An investigator may enter a place if— an occupier at the place consents under subdivision 2 to the entry and section 62D has been complied with for the occupier; or it is a public place and the entry is made when the place is open to the public; or the entry is authorised under a warrant and, if there is an occupier of the place, section 62I has been complied with for the occupier. If the power to enter arose only because an occupier of the place consented to the entry, the power is subject to any conditions of the consent and ceases if the consent is withdrawn. If the power to enter is under a warrant, the power is subject to the terms of the warrant. s 62A ins 2020 No. 24 s 17 (sec.62A-ssec.1) An investigator may enter a place if— an occupier at the place consents under subdivision 2 to the entry and section 62D has been complied with for the occupier; or it is a public place and the entry is made when the place is open to the public; or the entry is authorised under a warrant and, if there is an occupier of the place, section 62I has been complied with for the occupier. (sec.62A-ssec.2) If the power to enter arose only because an occupier of the place consented to the entry, the power is subject to any conditions of the consent and ceases if the consent is withdrawn. (sec.62A-ssec.3) If the power to enter is under a warrant, the power is subject to the terms of the warrant.
This subdivision applies if an investigator intends to ask an occupier of a place to consent to the investigator or another investigator entering the place under section 62A (1) (a) . s 62B ins 2020 No. 24 s 17
For the purpose of asking the occupier for the consent, an investigator may, without the occupier’s consent or a warrant— enter land around premises at the place to an extent that is reasonable to contact the occupier; or enter part of the place the investigator reasonably considers members of the public ordinarily are allowed to enter when they wish to contact an occupier of the place. s 62C ins 2020 No. 24 s 17
Before asking for the consent, the investigator must— explain to the occupier the purpose of the entry, including the powers intended to be exercised; and tell the occupier that— the occupier is not required to consent; and the consent may be given subject to conditions and may be withdrawn at any time. s 62D ins 2020 No. 24 s 17
If the consent is given, the investigator may ask the occupier to sign an acknowledgement of the consent. The acknowledgement must state— the purpose of the entry, including the powers to be exercised; and that the occupier has been given an explanation about the purpose of the entry, including the powers intended to be exercised; and that the occupier has been told— that the occupier is not required to consent; and that the consent may be given subject to conditions and may be withdrawn at any time; and that the occupier gives the investigator or another investigator consent to enter the place and exercise the powers; and the day and time the consent was given; and any conditions of the consent. If the occupier signs the acknowledgement, the investigator must immediately give a copy to the occupier. If— an issue arises in a proceeding about whether the occupier consented to the entry; and a signed acknowledgement complying with subsection (2) for the entry is not produced in evidence; the onus of proof is on the person relying on the lawfulness of the entry to prove the occupier consented. s 62E ins 2020 No. 24 s 17 (sec.62E-ssec.1) If the consent is given, the investigator may ask the occupier to sign an acknowledgement of the consent. (sec.62E-ssec.2) The acknowledgement must state— the purpose of the entry, including the powers to be exercised; and that the occupier has been given an explanation about the purpose of the entry, including the powers intended to be exercised; and that the occupier has been told— that the occupier is not required to consent; and that the consent may be given subject to conditions and may be withdrawn at any time; and that the occupier gives the investigator or another investigator consent to enter the place and exercise the powers; and the day and time the consent was given; and any conditions of the consent. (sec.62E-ssec.3) If the occupier signs the acknowledgement, the investigator must immediately give a copy to the occupier. (sec.62E-ssec.4) If— an issue arises in a proceeding about whether the occupier consented to the entry; and a signed acknowledgement complying with subsection (2) for the entry is not produced in evidence; the onus of proof is on the person relying on the lawfulness of the entry to prove the occupier consented.
An investigator may apply to a magistrate for a warrant for a place. The investigator must prepare a written application that states the grounds on which the warrant is sought. The written application must be sworn. The magistrate may refuse to consider the application until the investigator gives the magistrate all the information the magistrate requires about the application in the way the magistrate requires. The magistrate may require additional information supporting the written application to be given by statutory declaration. s 62F ins 2020 No. 24 s 17 (sec.62F-ssec.1) An investigator may apply to a magistrate for a warrant for a place. (sec.62F-ssec.2) The investigator must prepare a written application that states the grounds on which the warrant is sought. (sec.62F-ssec.3) The written application must be sworn. (sec.62F-ssec.4) The magistrate may refuse to consider the application until the investigator gives the magistrate all the information the magistrate requires about the application in the way the magistrate requires.
The magistrate may issue the warrant for the place only if the magistrate is satisfied there are reasonable grounds for suspecting there is at the place, or will be at the place within the next 7 days, a particular thing or activity that may provide evidence of an offence against this Act. The warrant must state— the place to which the warrant applies; and that a stated investigator or any investigator may with necessary and reasonable help and force— enter the place and any other place necessary for entry to the place; and exercise the powers of an investigator; and particulars of the offence that the magistrate considers appropriate; and the name of the person suspected of having committed the offence unless the name is unknown or the magistrate considers it inappropriate to state the name; and the evidence that may be seized under the warrant; and the hours of the day or night when the place may be entered; and the magistrate’s name; and the day and time of the warrant’s issue; and the day, within 14 days after the warrant’s issue, the warrant ends. s 62G ins 2020 No. 24 s 17 (sec.62G-ssec.1) The magistrate may issue the warrant for the place only if the magistrate is satisfied there are reasonable grounds for suspecting there is at the place, or will be at the place within the next 7 days, a particular thing or activity that may provide evidence of an offence against this Act. (sec.62G-ssec.2) The warrant must state— the place to which the warrant applies; and that a stated investigator or any investigator may with necessary and reasonable help and force— enter the place and any other place necessary for entry to the place; and exercise the powers of an investigator; and particulars of the offence that the magistrate considers appropriate; and the name of the person suspected of having committed the offence unless the name is unknown or the magistrate considers it inappropriate to state the name; and the evidence that may be seized under the warrant; and the hours of the day or night when the place may be entered; and the magistrate’s name; and the day and time of the warrant’s issue; and the day, within 14 days after the warrant’s issue, the warrant ends. s 62G ins 2020 No. 24 s 17
A warrant is not invalidated by a defect in— the warrant; or compliance with this subdivision; unless the defect affects the substance of the warrant in a material particular. s 62H ins 2020 No. 24 s 17
This section applies if an investigator named in a warrant issued under this subdivision for a place is intending to enter the place under the warrant. Before entering the place, the investigator must do or make a reasonable attempt to do the following things— identify himself or herself to a person present at the place who is an occupier of the place by producing the investigator’s identity card or another document evidencing the investigator’s appointment; give the person a copy of the warrant; tell the person the investigator is permitted by the warrant to enter the place; give the person an opportunity to allow the investigator immediate entry to the place without using force. However, the investigator need not comply with subsection (2) if the investigator believes on reasonable grounds that immediate entry to the place is required to ensure the effective execution of the warrant is not frustrated. s 62I ins 2020 No. 24 s 17 (sec.62I-ssec.1) This section applies if an investigator named in a warrant issued under this subdivision for a place is intending to enter the place under the warrant. (sec.62I-ssec.2) Before entering the place, the investigator must do or make a reasonable attempt to do the following things— identify himself or herself to a person present at the place who is an occupier of the place by producing the investigator’s identity card or another document evidencing the investigator’s appointment; give the person a copy of the warrant; tell the person the investigator is permitted by the warrant to enter the place; give the person an opportunity to allow the investigator immediate entry to the place without using force. (sec.62I-ssec.3) However, the investigator need not comply with subsection (2) if the investigator believes on reasonable grounds that immediate entry to the place is required to ensure the effective execution of the warrant is not frustrated.
The powers under this division may be exercised if the investigator enters a place under section 62A . However, if an investigator enters a place to get the occupier’s consent to enter a place, this division applies to the investigator only if the consent is given or the entry is otherwise authorised. s 62J ins 2020 No. 24 s 17 (sec.62J-ssec.1) The powers under this division may be exercised if the investigator enters a place under section 62A . (sec.62J-ssec.2) However, if an investigator enters a place to get the occupier’s consent to enter a place, this division applies to the investigator only if the consent is given or the entry is otherwise authorised.
The investigator may do any of the following (each a general power )— search any part of the place; inspect, examine or film any part of the place or anything at the place; take for examination a thing, or a sample of or from a thing, at the place; take an extract from, or copy, a document at the place, or take the document to another place to copy; take into or onto the place any person, equipment and materials the investigator reasonably requires for exercising a power under this division; remain at the place for the time necessary to achieve the purpose of the entry. The investigator may take a necessary step to allow the exercise of a general power. If the investigator takes a document from the place to copy it, the investigator must copy the document and return it to the place as soon as practicable. If the investigator takes from the place an article or device reasonably capable of producing a document from an electronic document to produce the document, the investigator must produce the document and return the article or device to the place as soon as practicable. In this section— examine includes analyse, test, account, measure, weigh, grade, gauge and identify. film includes photograph, videotape and record an image in another way. inspect , a thing, includes open the thing and examine its contents. s 62K ins 2020 No. 24 s 17 (sec.62K-ssec.1) The investigator may do any of the following (each a general power )— search any part of the place; inspect, examine or film any part of the place or anything at the place; take for examination a thing, or a sample of or from a thing, at the place; take an extract from, or copy, a document at the place, or take the document to another place to copy; take into or onto the place any person, equipment and materials the investigator reasonably requires for exercising a power under this division; remain at the place for the time necessary to achieve the purpose of the entry. (sec.62K-ssec.2) The investigator may take a necessary step to allow the exercise of a general power. (sec.62K-ssec.3) If the investigator takes a document from the place to copy it, the investigator must copy the document and return it to the place as soon as practicable. (sec.62K-ssec.4) If the investigator takes from the place an article or device reasonably capable of producing a document from an electronic document to produce the document, the investigator must produce the document and return the article or device to the place as soon as practicable. (sec.62K-ssec.5) In this section— examine includes analyse, test, account, measure, weigh, grade, gauge and identify. film includes photograph, videotape and record an image in another way. inspect , a thing, includes open the thing and examine its contents.
The investigator may make a requirement (a help requirement ) of an occupier of the place or a person at the place to give the investigator reasonable help to exercise a general power, including, for example, to produce a document or to give information. When making the help requirement, the investigator must give the person an offence warning for the requirement. s 62L ins 2020 No. 24 s 17 (sec.62L-ssec.1) The investigator may make a requirement (a help requirement ) of an occupier of the place or a person at the place to give the investigator reasonable help to exercise a general power, including, for example, to produce a document or to give information. (sec.62L-ssec.2) When making the help requirement, the investigator must give the person an offence warning for the requirement.
A person of whom a help requirement has been made must comply with the requirement unless the person has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. It is a reasonable excuse for an individual not to comply with a help requirement if complying might tend to incriminate the individual or expose the individual to a penalty. s 62M ins 2020 No. 24 s 17 (sec.62M-ssec.1) A person of whom a help requirement has been made must comply with the requirement unless the person has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. (sec.62M-ssec.2) It is a reasonable excuse for an individual not to comply with a help requirement if complying might tend to incriminate the individual or expose the individual to a penalty.
This section applies if an investigator enters a public place. The investigator may seize a thing at the public place if the investigator reasonably believes the thing is evidence of an offence against this Act. s 62N ins 2020 No. 24 s 17 (sec.62N-ssec.1) This section applies if an investigator enters a public place. (sec.62N-ssec.2) The investigator may seize a thing at the public place if the investigator reasonably believes the thing is evidence of an offence against this Act.
This section applies if— an investigator is authorised to enter a place under this part only with the consent of the occupier of the place or a warrant; and the investigator enters the place after obtaining the necessary consent or warrant. If the investigator enters the place with the occupier’s consent, the investigator may seize a thing at the place if— the investigator reasonably believes the thing is evidence of an offence under this Act; and seizure of the thing is consistent with the purpose of entry as explained to the occupier when asking for the occupier’s consent. If the investigator enters the place under a warrant, the investigator may seize the evidence for which the warrant was issued. The investigator may also seize anything else at the place if the investigator reasonably believes— the thing is evidence of an offence against this Act; and the seizure is necessary to prevent the thing being hidden, lost or destroyed. s 62O ins 2020 No. 24 s 17 (sec.62O-ssec.1) This section applies if— an investigator is authorised to enter a place under this part only with the consent of the occupier of the place or a warrant; and the investigator enters the place after obtaining the necessary consent or warrant. (sec.62O-ssec.2) If the investigator enters the place with the occupier’s consent, the investigator may seize a thing at the place if— the investigator reasonably believes the thing is evidence of an offence under this Act; and seizure of the thing is consistent with the purpose of entry as explained to the occupier when asking for the occupier’s consent. (sec.62O-ssec.3) If the investigator enters the place under a warrant, the investigator may seize the evidence for which the warrant was issued. (sec.62O-ssec.4) The investigator may also seize anything else at the place if the investigator reasonably believes— the thing is evidence of an offence against this Act; and the seizure is necessary to prevent the thing being hidden, lost or destroyed.
Having seized a thing under this division, an investigator may— leave it at the place where it was seized (the place of seizure ) and take reasonable action to restrict access to it; or move the thing from the place of seizure. For subsection (1) (a) , the investigator may, for example— seal the thing, or the entrance to the place of seizure, and mark the thing or place to show access to the thing or place is restricted; or for equipment—make it inoperable; or require a person the investigator reasonably believes is in control of the place or thing to do an act mentioned in paragraph (a) or (b) or anything else an investigator could do under subsection (1) (a) . s 62P ins 2020 No. 24 s 17 (sec.62P-ssec.1) Having seized a thing under this division, an investigator may— leave it at the place where it was seized (the place of seizure ) and take reasonable action to restrict access to it; or move the thing from the place of seizure. (sec.62P-ssec.2) For subsection (1) (a) , the investigator may, for example— seal the thing, or the entrance to the place of seizure, and mark the thing or place to show access to the thing or place is restricted; or for equipment—make it inoperable; or require a person the investigator reasonably believes is in control of the place or thing to do an act mentioned in paragraph (a) or (b) or anything else an investigator could do under subsection (1) (a) . s 62P ins 2020 No. 24 s 17
A person must comply with a requirement made of the person under section 62P (2) (c) unless the person has a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. s 62Q ins 2020 No. 24 s 17
If access to a seized thing is restricted under section 62P , a person must not tamper with the thing or with anything used to restrict access to the thing without— an investigator’s approval; or a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. If access to a place is restricted under section 62P , a person must not enter the place in contravention of the restriction or tamper with anything used to restrict access to the place without— an investigator’s approval; or a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. s 62R ins 2020 No. 24 s 17 (sec.62R-ssec.1) If access to a seized thing is restricted under section 62P , a person must not tamper with the thing or with anything used to restrict access to the thing without— an investigator’s approval; or a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. (sec.62R-ssec.2) If access to a place is restricted under section 62P , a person must not enter the place in contravention of the restriction or tamper with anything used to restrict access to the place without— an investigator’s approval; or a reasonable excuse. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units.
This section applies if an investigator seizes anything under this division unless— the investigator reasonably believes there is no-one apparently in possession of the thing or it has been abandoned; or because of the condition, nature and value of the thing it would be unreasonable to require the investigator to comply with this section. The investigator must, as soon as practicable after seizing the thing, give an owner or person in control of the thing before it was seized— a receipt for the thing that generally describes the thing and its condition; and an information notice about the decision to seize it. However, if an owner or person from whom the thing is seized is not present when it is seized, the receipt and information notice may be given by leaving them in a conspicuous position and in a reasonably secure way at the place at which the thing is seized. The receipt and information notice may— be given in the same document; and relate to more than 1 seized thing. The investigator may delay giving the receipt and information notice if the investigator reasonably suspects giving them may frustrate or otherwise hinder an investigation by the investigator under this part. However, the delay may be only for so long as the investigator continues to have the reasonable suspicion and remains in the vicinity of the place at which the thing was seized to keep it under observation. s 62S ins 2020 No. 24 s 17 (sec.62S-ssec.1) This section applies if an investigator seizes anything under this division unless— the investigator reasonably believes there is no-one apparently in possession of the thing or it has been abandoned; or because of the condition, nature and value of the thing it would be unreasonable to require the investigator to comply with this section. (sec.62S-ssec.2) The investigator must, as soon as practicable after seizing the thing, give an owner or person in control of the thing before it was seized— a receipt for the thing that generally describes the thing and its condition; and an information notice about the decision to seize it. (sec.62S-ssec.3) However, if an owner or person from whom the thing is seized is not present when it is seized, the receipt and information notice may be given by leaving them in a conspicuous position and in a reasonably secure way at the place at which the thing is seized. (sec.62S-ssec.4) The receipt and information notice may— be given in the same document; and relate to more than 1 seized thing. (sec.62S-ssec.5) The investigator may delay giving the receipt and information notice if the investigator reasonably suspects giving them may frustrate or otherwise hinder an investigation by the investigator under this part. (sec.62S-ssec.6) However, the delay may be only for so long as the investigator continues to have the reasonable suspicion and remains in the vicinity of the place at which the thing was seized to keep it under observation.
Until a seized thing is forfeited or returned, the investigator who seized the thing must allow an owner of the thing— to inspect it at any reasonable time and from time to time; and if it is a document—to copy it. Subsection (1) does not apply if it is impracticable or would be unreasonable to allow the inspection or copying. The inspection or copying must be allowed free of charge. s 62T ins 2020 No. 24 s 17 (sec.62T-ssec.1) Until a seized thing is forfeited or returned, the investigator who seized the thing must allow an owner of the thing— to inspect it at any reasonable time and from time to time; and if it is a document—to copy it. (sec.62T-ssec.2) Subsection (1) does not apply if it is impracticable or would be unreasonable to allow the inspection or copying. (sec.62T-ssec.3) The inspection or copying must be allowed free of charge.
If a seized thing is not forfeited, the investigator must return it to its owner— at the end of 1 year; or if proceedings involving the thing are started within 1 year, at the end of the proceedings and any appeal from the proceedings. Despite subsection (1) , unless a thing that has been seized as evidence is forfeited, the investigator must immediately return it to its owner if the investigator stops being satisfied its continued retention as evidence is necessary. s 62U ins 2020 No. 24 s 17 (sec.62U-ssec.1) If a seized thing is not forfeited, the investigator must return it to its owner— at the end of 1 year; or if proceedings involving the thing are started within 1 year, at the end of the proceedings and any appeal from the proceedings. (sec.62U-ssec.2) Despite subsection (1) , unless a thing that has been seized as evidence is forfeited, the investigator must immediately return it to its owner if the investigator stops being satisfied its continued retention as evidence is necessary.
The board may decide a thing that has been seized under this division is forfeited to the board if the board or an investigator— after making reasonable inquiries, can not find an owner; or after making reasonable efforts, can not return it to an owner; or reasonably believes it is necessary to keep the thing to prevent it being used to commit the offence for which it was seized. However, for subsection (1) (a) and (b) , the board or investigator is not required to— make inquiries if it would be unreasonable to make inquiries to find an owner; or make efforts if it would be unreasonable to make efforts to return the thing to an owner. The owner of the thing has migrated to another country. Regard must be had to the thing’s condition, nature and value in deciding— whether it is reasonable to make inquiries or efforts; and if inquiries or efforts are made—what inquiries or efforts, including the period over which they are made, are reasonable. s 62V ins 2020 No. 24 s 17 (sec.62V-ssec.1) The board may decide a thing that has been seized under this division is forfeited to the board if the board or an investigator— after making reasonable inquiries, can not find an owner; or after making reasonable efforts, can not return it to an owner; or reasonably believes it is necessary to keep the thing to prevent it being used to commit the offence for which it was seized. (sec.62V-ssec.2) However, for subsection (1) (a) and (b) , the board or investigator is not required to— make inquiries if it would be unreasonable to make inquiries to find an owner; or make efforts if it would be unreasonable to make efforts to return the thing to an owner. The owner of the thing has migrated to another country. (sec.62V-ssec.3) Regard must be had to the thing’s condition, nature and value in deciding— whether it is reasonable to make inquiries or efforts; and if inquiries or efforts are made—what inquiries or efforts, including the period over which they are made, are reasonable. s 62V ins 2020 No. 24 s 17
If the board decides under section 62V (1) to forfeit a seized thing, the board must as soon as practicable give a person who owned the thing immediately before the forfeiture (the former owner ) an information notice about the decision. If the decision was made under section 62V (1) (a) or (b) , the information notice may be given by leaving it at the place where the seized thing was seized, in a conspicuous position and in a reasonably secure way. The information notice must state that the former owner may apply for a stay of the decision if he or she applies to the tribunal for a review of the decision. However, subsections (1) to (3) do not apply if— the decision was made under section 62V (1) (a) or (b) ; and the place where the seized thing was seized is— a public place; or a place where the notice is unlikely to be read by the former owner. s 62W ins 2020 No. 24 s 17 (sec.62W-ssec.1) If the board decides under section 62V (1) to forfeit a seized thing, the board must as soon as practicable give a person who owned the thing immediately before the forfeiture (the former owner ) an information notice about the decision. (sec.62W-ssec.2) If the decision was made under section 62V (1) (a) or (b) , the information notice may be given by leaving it at the place where the seized thing was seized, in a conspicuous position and in a reasonably secure way. (sec.62W-ssec.3) The information notice must state that the former owner may apply for a stay of the decision if he or she applies to the tribunal for a review of the decision. (sec.62W-ssec.4) However, subsections (1) to (3) do not apply if— the decision was made under section 62V (1) (a) or (b) ; and the place where the seized thing was seized is— a public place; or a place where the notice is unlikely to be read by the former owner. s 62W ins 2020 No. 24 s 17
A thing becomes the property of the board if the thing is forfeited to the board under section 62V . s 62X ins 2020 No. 24 s 17
This section applies if, under section 62X , a thing becomes the property of the board. The board may deal with the thing as the board considers appropriate, including, for example, by destroying it or giving it away. The board must not deal with the thing in a way that could prejudice the outcome of an appeal against the forfeiture under this part. If the board sells the thing, the board must, after deducting the costs of the sale, make reasonable efforts to return the proceeds of the sale to the former owner of the thing. s 62Y ins 2020 No. 24 s 17 (sec.62Y-ssec.1) This section applies if, under section 62X , a thing becomes the property of the board. (sec.62Y-ssec.2) The board may deal with the thing as the board considers appropriate, including, for example, by destroying it or giving it away. (sec.62Y-ssec.3) The board must not deal with the thing in a way that could prejudice the outcome of an appeal against the forfeiture under this part. (sec.62Y-ssec.4) If the board sells the thing, the board must, after deducting the costs of the sale, make reasonable efforts to return the proceeds of the sale to the former owner of the thing.
This section applies if the board or an investigator damages property when exercising or purporting to exercise a power under division 6 or 7 . The board or investigator must immediately give notice of the damage to the person who appears to the board or investigator to be the owner of the property. The notice must state— the particulars of the damage; and that the person who suffered the damage may be entitled to claim compensation under section 64 . If the board or investigator believes the damage was caused by a latent defect in the property or circumstances beyond the board’s or investigator’s control, the board or investigator may state the belief in the notice. This section does not apply to damage the board or investigator reasonably believes is trivial. In subsection (2) — owner , of property, includes the person in possession or control of it. (sec.63-ssec.1) This section applies if the board or an investigator damages property when exercising or purporting to exercise a power under division 6 or 7 . (sec.63-ssec.2) The board or investigator must immediately give notice of the damage to the person who appears to the board or investigator to be the owner of the property. (sec.63-ssec.3) The notice must state— the particulars of the damage; and that the person who suffered the damage may be entitled to claim compensation under section 64 . (sec.63-ssec.4) If the board or investigator believes the damage was caused by a latent defect in the property or circumstances beyond the board’s or investigator’s control, the board or investigator may state the belief in the notice. (sec.63-ssec.5) This section does not apply to damage the board or investigator reasonably believes is trivial. (sec.63-ssec.6) In subsection (2) — owner , of property, includes the person in possession or control of it.
This section applies if a person incurs loss or damage because of the exercise or purported exercise of a power under division 6 or 7 . The person is entitled to be paid the reasonable compensation because of the loss or damage agreed between the board and the person, or failing agreement, decided by a court. Compensation may be claimed and ordered to be paid in a proceeding— brought in a court with jurisdiction for the recovery of the amount of compensation claimed; or for an offence against this Act brought against the person claiming compensation. A court may order compensation to be paid only if it is satisfied it is fair to make the order in the circumstances of the particular case. (sec.64-ssec.1) This section applies if a person incurs loss or damage because of the exercise or purported exercise of a power under division 6 or 7 . (sec.64-ssec.2) The person is entitled to be paid the reasonable compensation because of the loss or damage agreed between the board and the person, or failing agreement, decided by a court. (sec.64-ssec.3) Compensation may be claimed and ordered to be paid in a proceeding— brought in a court with jurisdiction for the recovery of the amount of compensation claimed; or for an offence against this Act brought against the person claiming compensation. (sec.64-ssec.4) A court may order compensation to be paid only if it is satisfied it is fair to make the order in the circumstances of the particular case.
A person must not, in relation to an investigation under this part, state anything to the board or an investigator that the person knows is false or misleading in a material particular. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units.
A person must not, in relation to an investigation under this part, give the board or an investigator a document containing information that the person knows is false or misleading in a material particular. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. Subsection (1) does not apply to a person who, when giving the document— informs the board or investigator, to the best of the person’s ability, how it is false or misleading; and if the person has, or can reasonably obtain, the correct information—gives the correct information to the board or investigator. (sec.66-ssec.1) A person must not, in relation to an investigation under this part, give the board or an investigator a document containing information that the person knows is false or misleading in a material particular. Maximum penalty—50 penalty units. (sec.66-ssec.2) Subsection (1) does not apply to a person who, when giving the document— informs the board or investigator, to the best of the person’s ability, how it is false or misleading; and if the person has, or can reasonably obtain, the correct information—gives the correct information to the board or investigator.
Sourced from Queensland Legislation (legislation.qld.gov.au), CC BY 4.0.
This Act may be cited as the Architects Act 2002 .
The following provisions of this Act commence on assent— part 1 , division 4 ; part 11 , division 2 , subdivision 1 ; section 149 ; schedule 2 . The remaining provisions of this Act commence on 1 January 2003. (sec.2-ssec.1) The following provisions of this Act commence on assent— part 1 , division 4 ; part 11 , division 2 , subdivision 1 ; section 149 ; schedule 2 . (sec.2-ssec.2) The remaining provisions of this Act commence on 1 January 2003.
The main objects of this Act are— to protect the public by ensuring architectural services of an architect are provided in a professional and competent way; and to maintain public confidence in the standard of services provided by architects; and to uphold the standards of practice of architects.
The main objects are to be achieved primarily by— providing for the registration of individuals as architects under this Act; and providing for the monitoring and enforcement of compliance with this Act; and imposing obligations on persons about the practice of architecture; and establishing the Board of Architects of Queensland.
Sets the outcomes available after investigation or on tribunal (QCAT) finding: cautions, reprimands, conditions on registration, cancellation, suspension, disqualification from future registration, fines up to set limits, and orders to pay investigation/trial costs (secs 73–75, 130–133, 139A, 106).
Provides transparency measures: public register, publication of certain decisions and codes, annual reporting and a performance agreement with the Minister (secs 102–103, 74A, 107–109, 99).
Who this affects
Individuals seeking to practise as architects (applicants and registrants). They must meet national qualifications, pass examinations approved by the board, and meet ongoing competency and notification requirements (secs 8–11, 16–18).
Registered architects: subject to continuing professional development/continuing registration requirements, audits, notification duties (name/contact, disciplinary events, health), possible health assessments, and disciplinary processes (secs 16, 17, 35I–35J, 32, 32AA–32B, 35D–35H, 73).
Businesses that provide architectural services using architects: they can file a notice with the board identifying business locations and responsible practising architects; corporations that comply with that process get limited entitlements to use titles (secs 141A, 114A).
The Board of Architects of Queensland (the regulator): given powers to administer the register, investigate, run audits, appoint investigators and staff, publish codes and register data, and enter into performance agreements with the Minister (secs 77–81, 35I, 100–101, 99).
Complainants and members of the public: can make complaints, inspect the register and access information about complaint processes (secs 37, 103, 125).
The tribunal (QCAT): responsible for review and disciplinary hearings in many cases (secs 121, 126, 130–133).
Why it matters (official rationale, then tested against costs and trade‑offs)
Official purpose claims: the Act says its main objects are to protect the public by ensuring architectural services are delivered professionally and competently, maintain public confidence and uphold standards of practice; it achieves this by registration, monitoring/enforcement, obligations on practice and establishing the board (secs 3–4).
Practical effects and trade‑offs:
Who pays, who decides, and what behaviour changes
Who pays: applicants and registered architects (application, annual fees — secs 8, 18); businesses that file notices (sec 141A); architects may be required to pay the costs of a health assessment if found currently unable to practise (sec 35G); persons found guilty or the subject of tribunal orders may be ordered to pay investigation or tribunal costs (secs 130(3)(d), 139A).
Who decides: the Board of Architects of Queensland decides registration, renewal, restoration, audit programs and whether to investigate or take administrative action (secs 12, 20, 24, 35I, 41, 73). Investigators appointed by the board exercise statutory investigatory powers (secs 46–49). The tribunal (QCAT) decides reviews and disciplinary proceedings and can make orders up to disqualification or cancellation (secs 121, 126, 130–133). The Minister can direct board performance (sec 98).
Behaviour changes required or discouraged:
Implementation risks and compliance burdens (brief)
This Act binds all persons, including the State. Subsection (1) does not make the State liable to be prosecuted for an offence. (sec.5-ssec.1) This Act binds all persons, including the State. (sec.5-ssec.2) Subsection (1) does not make the State liable to be prosecuted for an offence.
This Act does not affect the operation of the Mutual Recognition (Queensland) Act 1992 or the Trans-Tasman Mutual Recognition (Queensland) Act 2003 . s 6 amd 2003 No. 45 s 15 sch
The dictionary in schedule 2 defines particular words used in this Act.
The types of registration as an architect under this Act are registration as a practising architect or a non-practising architect. s 7A ins 2010 No. 18 s 3
Only an individual may apply to the board for registration as an architect. The application must be— in the approved form and state the type of registration to which the application relates; and accompanied by each of the following— satisfactory evidence of the applicant’s eligibility for registration; any other documents, identified in the approved form, the board reasonably requires to decide the application; the application fee and registration fee prescribed under a regulation. The approved form must provide for the inclusion of the applicant’s contact details as an architect. The applicant also must provide any other relevant information reasonably required by the board to decide the application. For how the board may make a requirement for information under section 8 (4) , 18 (6) or 23 (5) , see section 27 . s 8 amd 2010 No. 18 s 4 ; 2020 No. 24 s 153 s ch 1 pt 1 (sec.8-ssec.1) Only an individual may apply to the board for registration as an architect. (sec.8-ssec.2) The application must be— in the approved form and state the type of registration to which the application relates; and accompanied by each of the following— satisfactory evidence of the applicant’s eligibility for registration; any other documents, identified in the approved form, the board reasonably requires to decide the application; the application fee and registration fee prescribed under a regulation. (sec.8-ssec.3) The approved form must provide for the inclusion of the applicant’s contact details as an architect. (sec.8-ssec.4) The applicant also must provide any other relevant information reasonably required by the board to decide the application. For how the board may make a requirement for information under section 8 (4) , 18 (6) or 23 (5) , see section 27 .
An applicant for registration is eligible for registration only if— the applicant is qualified, under section 10 , for registration; and the board considers the applicant is fit to practise as an architect. Also, an applicant for registration as a non-practising architect is eligible for registration only if the board is satisfied that the applicant will not carry out, or be responsible for the carrying out of, architectural services within the registration period to which the application for registration relates. s 9 amd 2010 No. 18 s 5 ; 2023 No. 23 s 247 sch 1 s 5 (amdt could not be given effect) (sec.9-ssec.1) An applicant for registration is eligible for registration only if— the applicant is qualified, under section 10 , for registration; and the board considers the applicant is fit to practise as an architect. (sec.9-ssec.2) Also, an applicant for registration as a non-practising architect is eligible for registration only if the board is satisfied that the applicant will not carry out, or be responsible for the carrying out of, architectural services within the registration period to which the application for registration relates.
An applicant for registration is qualified for registration if the applicant has— 1 or more of the following qualifications— a qualification in architecture recognised by the Architects Accreditation Council of Australia (the AACA ); a qualification in architecture obtained outside Australia and assessed by the AACA to be equivalent to a qualification mentioned in subparagraph (i) ; successful completion of the National Program of Assessment, or another program, coordinated by the AACA; and successfully completed— the AACA’s Architectural Practice Examination; or another examination, if any, arranged or approved by the board. s 10 sub 2010 No. 18 s 6 amd 2020 No. 24 s 153 s ch 1 pt 1
In deciding whether an applicant for registration is fit to practise as an architect, the board may have regard to each of the following— whether the applicant has a conviction, other than a spent conviction, for— an indictable offence; or an offence against this Act or the repealed Act; or another offence, relating to the practice of architecture, against a law applying, or that applied, in the State, the Commonwealth, another State or a foreign country; if the applicant has been registered under this Act or the repealed Act, or registered to practise as an architect under a law applying, or that applied, in the Commonwealth, another State or a foreign country and the registration was suspended or cancelled—the reason for its suspension or cancellation; if the applicant has been a member of an association of architects, whether in Australia or a foreign country, and the membership was suspended or cancelled—the reason for its suspension or cancellation; an order about the applicant made under section 130 or 131 of this Act or section 80 of the repealed Act; a proceeding taken against the applicant for a matter mentioned in section 36 under a law applying, or that applied, in the Commonwealth, another State or a foreign country; whether the applicant— is affected by bankruptcy action; or is an executive officer of a corporation affected by control action after the commencement of this section; if the applicant was required to undergo a health assessment— whether the applicant complied with the requirement; and whether the applicant cooperated with the medical practitioner appointed to perform the assessment; whether a health assessment report for the applicant states that the applicant is unable to competently and safely practise as an architect; whether the board reasonably believes a materially false or misleading representation or document is included in the application; any other issue relevant to the applicant’s ability to competently practise as an architect, including, for example, the applicant’s mental or physical health. s 11 amd 2010 No. 18 s 7 ; 2020 No. 24 s 4
This is an opening excerpt, not the complete document.