Agricultural Chemicals Distribution Control Regulation 2021
In ForceQLD
Jurisdiction
Queensland
Act Number
129 of 2021
Collection
regulation
Plain English Summary
5/10 complexity
This regulation sets detailed rules for how agricultural chemicals may be distributed: it prescribes pilot and operator qualifications, classes of licences, equipment and safety requirements, maps of hazardous and excluded areas, and a permit process for work in hazardous zones. It matters to pilots, UAV operators, commercial aerial and ground contractors, and licence applicants because it defines required training, application steps, fees and penalties. Key decision and discretion rest with the chief executive (ss.24–29) while applicants pay fees (s.31) and must meet training standards (ss.6,8,9).
This regulation, titled the Agricultural Chemicals Distribution Control Regulation 2021, prescribes operational, licensing, training, mapping, permitting and enforcement detail to give effect to the Agricultural Chemicals Distribution Control Act (the Act). It commenced on 31 August 2021 (section 2). Mechanically the instrument does the following.
Replaces the 1998 regulation: it repeals the Agricultural Chemicals Distribution Control Regulation 1998 (section 32) and provides transitional rules for applications made under the repealed regulation (sections 34-36).
Prescribes geographic exceptions and hazardous-area boundaries: it declares parts of the State where the Act does not apply (schedule 1; section 4) and declares three hazardous areas by reference to maps in schedules 2-4 (section 16). The exact boundaries are held in digital form by the department and the maps are publicly accessible on the department’s website (sections 4(2)-(3); 16(2)-(3)).
Sets training and qualification requirements for licences and ratings: it prescribes the qualification requirements for a pilot chemical rating licence (section 6) and for commercial operator licences (sections 7-9). These include an industry “spraysafe accreditation” for pilots or specified VET competency units for UAV-only pilots or for unrestricted commercial operators (sections 6, 8). The regulation explicitly allows recognition of alternative training that the chief executive reasonably considers substantially equivalent (sections 6(5), 8(2), 9(b)).
Specifies licence form and administrative process: licences must be in the approved form (section 10). The standards officer must give information notices when suspending licences (section 11) and holders have a right of review to QCAT where an information notice is required (section 12).
Current sections
Direct links to the current provisions in Agricultural Chemicals Distribution Control Regulation 2021.
48
pt.1
Preliminary
Preliminary
sec.1
Short title
sec.1 Short title
This regulation may be cited as the Agricultural Chemicals Distribution Control Regulation 2021 .
sec.2
Commencement
sec.2 Commencement
This regulation commences on 31 August 2021 .
sec.3
Definitions
sec.3 Definitions
The dictionary in schedule 6 defines particular words used in this regulation.
sec.4
Parts of State excluded from application of Act— Act , s 3
sec.4 Parts of State excluded from application of Act— Act , s 3
For section 3 of the Act , it is declared that the Act does not apply in the parts of the State shown on the map in schedule 1 .
The exact location of the boundary of the parts of the State in which the Act is declared not to apply is held in digital electronic form by the department.
A map showing the exact location of the boundary of the parts of the State in which the Act is declared not to apply can be accessed, free of charge, on the department’s website.
The information held in digital electronic form can be reduced or enlarged to show the details of the boundaries.
(sec.4-ssec.1) For section 3 of the Act , it is declared that the Act does not apply in the parts of the State shown on the map in schedule 1 .
(sec.4-ssec.2) The exact location of the boundary of the parts of the State in which the Act is declared not to apply is held in digital electronic form by the department.
(sec.4-ssec.3) A map showing the exact location of the boundary of the parts of the State in which the Act is declared not to apply can be accessed, free of charge, on the department’s website.
(sec.4-ssec.4) The information held in digital electronic form can be reduced or enlarged to show the details of the boundaries.
sec.5
Ground equipment—Act, schedule
sec.5 Ground equipment—Act, schedule
For the schedule of the Act , definition ground equipment , a machine or apparatus, in an area other than a hazardous area, is prescribed not to be ground equipment for the purposes of the Act if the machine or apparatus—
is powered by hand; or
is powered by compressed air or gas applied directly to the spray liquid for distribution without the use of air blasting techniques; or
is a hose proportioning device.
(a) is powered by hand; or
(b) is powered by compressed air or gas applied directly to the spray liquid for distribution without the use of air blasting techniques; or
(c) is a hose proportioning device.
pt.2
Aerial distribution
Aerial distribution
sec.6
Qualification for pilot chemical rating licence— Act , s 12
sec.6 Qualification for pilot chemical rating licence— Act , s 12
This section prescribes the qualification for section 12 (2) (c) of the Act .
If a person intends to pilot only a manned aircraft under the licence, the qualification prescribed is a spraysafe accreditation.
If a person intends to pilot a manned aircraft, and use a UAV, under the licence, the qualification prescribed is a spraysafe accreditation.
If a person intends to use only a UAV under the licence, the qualification prescribed is—
a spraysafe accreditation; or
a statement of attainment issued by a registered training organisation stating that the person has successfully completed each of the following units of competency of a VET course—
AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases;
AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or
a record of results issued by a registered training organisation that shows the person has successfully completed each of the units of competency mentioned in paragraph (b) .
This section does not apply in relation to a person mentioned in subsection (2) , (3) or (4) who—
does not hold the qualification prescribed under the subsection; but
has successfully completed training the chief executive reasonably considers is substantially equivalent to the qualification.
Nothing in this section prevents Aerial Application Association of Australia Ltd ACN 002 501 886 charging a reasonable fee, under an express or implied contract or a law, in relation to providing for a person to attain, or attempt to attain, a spraysafe accreditation.
In this section—
spraysafe accreditation means an accreditation issued by Aerial Application Association of Australia Ltd ACN 002 501 886 that—
is designed for aircraft pilots; and
relates to safety in aerial distribution.
(sec.6-ssec.1) This section prescribes the qualification for section 12 (2) (c) of the Act .
(sec.6-ssec.2) If a person intends to pilot only a manned aircraft under the licence, the qualification prescribed is a spraysafe accreditation.
(sec.6-ssec.3) If a person intends to pilot a manned aircraft, and use a UAV, under the licence, the qualification prescribed is a spraysafe accreditation.
(sec.6-ssec.4) If a person intends to use only a UAV under the licence, the qualification prescribed is— a spraysafe accreditation; or a statement of attainment issued by a registered training organisation stating that the person has successfully completed each of the following units of competency of a VET course— AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases; AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or a record of results issued by a registered training organisation that shows the person has successfully completed each of the units of competency mentioned in paragraph (b) .
(sec.6-ssec.5) This section does not apply in relation to a person mentioned in subsection (2) , (3) or (4) who— does not hold the qualification prescribed under the subsection; but has successfully completed training the chief executive reasonably considers is substantially equivalent to the qualification.
(sec.6-ssec.6) Nothing in this section prevents Aerial Application Association of Australia Ltd ACN 002 501 886 charging a reasonable fee, under an express or implied contract or a law, in relation to providing for a person to attain, or attempt to attain, a spraysafe accreditation.
(sec.6-ssec.7) In this section— spraysafe accreditation means an accreditation issued by Aerial Application Association of Australia Ltd ACN 002 501 886 that— is designed for aircraft pilots; and relates to safety in aerial distribution.
(a) a spraysafe accreditation; or
(b) a statement of attainment issued by a registered training organisation stating that the person has successfully completed each of the following units of competency of a VET course— (i) AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases; (ii) AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or
(i) AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases;
(ii) AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or
(c) a record of results issued by a registered training organisation that shows the person has successfully completed each of the units of competency mentioned in paragraph (b) .
(i) AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases;
(ii) AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or
(a) does not hold the qualification prescribed under the subsection; but
(b) has successfully completed training the chief executive reasonably considers is substantially equivalent to the qualification.
(a) is designed for aircraft pilots; and
(b) relates to safety in aerial distribution.
pt.3
Ground distribution
Ground distribution
sec.7
Classes of commercial operator’s licence— Act , s 16
sec.7 Classes of commercial operator’s licence— Act , s 16
For section 16 (1) of the Act , the following classes of a commercial operator’s licence are prescribed—
a commercial operator’s licence, restricted to herbicides or equipment stated in the licence (a restricted commercial operator’s licence );
a commercial operator’s licence, not restricted to herbicides or equipment stated in the licence (an unrestricted commercial operator’s licence ).
(a) a commercial operator’s licence, restricted to herbicides or equipment stated in the licence (a restricted commercial operator’s licence );
(b) a commercial operator’s licence, not restricted to herbicides or equipment stated in the licence (an unrestricted commercial operator’s licence ).
sec.8
Qualification for unrestricted commercial operator’s licence— Act , s 16
sec.8 Qualification for unrestricted commercial operator’s licence— Act , s 16
For section 16 (2) of the Act , the qualification prescribed for an unrestricted commercial operator’s licence is—
a statement of attainment issued by a registered training organisation stating that the person has successfully completed each of the following units of competency of a VET course—
AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases;
AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or
a record of results issued by a registered training organisation that shows the person has successfully completed each of the units of competency mentioned in paragraph (a) .
This section does not apply in relation to a person who—
does not hold the qualification prescribed under subsection (1) ; but
has successfully completed training the chief executive reasonably considers is substantially equivalent to the qualification.
(sec.8-ssec.1) For section 16 (2) of the Act , the qualification prescribed for an unrestricted commercial operator’s licence is— a statement of attainment issued by a registered training organisation stating that the person has successfully completed each of the following units of competency of a VET course— AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases; AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or a record of results issued by a registered training organisation that shows the person has successfully completed each of the units of competency mentioned in paragraph (a) .
(sec.8-ssec.2) This section does not apply in relation to a person who— does not hold the qualification prescribed under subsection (1) ; but has successfully completed training the chief executive reasonably considers is substantially equivalent to the qualification.
(a) a statement of attainment issued by a registered training organisation stating that the person has successfully completed each of the following units of competency of a VET course— (i) AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases; (ii) AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or
(i) AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases;
(ii) AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or
(b) a record of results issued by a registered training organisation that shows the person has successfully completed each of the units of competency mentioned in paragraph (a) .
(i) AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases;
(ii) AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or
(a) does not hold the qualification prescribed under subsection (1) ; but
(b) has successfully completed training the chief executive reasonably considers is substantially equivalent to the qualification.
sec.9
Relevant pest management qualification for pest management technician— Act , s 16A
sec.9 Relevant pest management qualification for pest management technician— Act , s 16A
For section 16A (4) of the Act , definition relevant pest management qualification , the qualification prescribed is—
a statement of attainment issued by a registered training organisation stating that a person has successfully completed each of the following units of competency of a VET course—
CPPUPM3005—Manage pests without applying pesticides;
CPPUPM3006—Manage pests by applying pesticides;
CPPUPM3018—Maintain equipment and pesticide storage area in pest management vehicles; or
the successful completion of training the chief executive reasonably considers is substantially equivalent to a statement of attainment mentioned in paragraph (a) .
(a) a statement of attainment issued by a registered training organisation stating that a person has successfully completed each of the following units of competency of a VET course— (i) CPPUPM3005—Manage pests without applying pesticides; (ii) CPPUPM3006—Manage pests by applying pesticides; (iii) CPPUPM3018—Maintain equipment and pesticide storage area in pest management vehicles; or
(i) CPPUPM3005—Manage pests without applying pesticides;
(ii) CPPUPM3006—Manage pests by applying pesticides;
(iii) CPPUPM3018—Maintain equipment and pesticide storage area in pest management vehicles; or
(b) the successful completion of training the chief executive reasonably considers is substantially equivalent to a statement of attainment mentioned in paragraph (a) .
(i) CPPUPM3005—Manage pests without applying pesticides;
(ii) CPPUPM3006—Manage pests by applying pesticides;
(iii) CPPUPM3018—Maintain equipment and pesticide storage area in pest management vehicles; or
pt.4
Regulation of licensing
Regulation of licensing
sec.10
Form of licence
sec.10 Form of licence
A licence must be in the approved form.
sec.11
Information notice for decision of standards officer to suspend licence— Act , s 20
sec.11 Information notice for decision of standards officer to suspend licence— Act , s 20
This section applies if the standards officer decides, under section 20 of the Act , to suspend a licence.
The standards officer must, as soon as practical after the decision is made, give the holder of the licence an information notice for the decision.
(sec.11-ssec.1) This section applies if the standards officer decides, under section 20 of the Act , to suspend a licence.
(sec.11-ssec.2) The standards officer must, as soon as practical after the decision is made, give the holder of the licence an information notice for the decision.
sec.12
Right of review
sec.12 Right of review
This section applies if the holder of a licence must be given an information notice under section 11 for a decision of the standards officer to suspend the licence.
The holder may apply to QCAT, as provided under the QCAT Act, for a review of the decision.
(sec.12-ssec.1) This section applies if the holder of a licence must be given an information notice under section 11 for a decision of the standards officer to suspend the licence.
(sec.12-ssec.2) The holder may apply to QCAT, as provided under the QCAT Act, for a review of the decision.
sec.13
Register— Act , s 24
sec.13 Register— Act , s 24
For section 24 (1) of the Act , the manner prescribed is in electronic form.
For section 24 (1) of the Act , the following particulars are prescribed for each licensee—
the licensee’s name;
the licensee’s suburb;
the number of the licence;
the type of licence;
the date the licence commences;
the date the licence expires.
The standards officer may also enter other particulars in the register that the standards officer thinks are appropriate.
(sec.13-ssec.1) For section 24 (1) of the Act , the manner prescribed is in electronic form.
(sec.13-ssec.2) For section 24 (1) of the Act , the following particulars are prescribed for each licensee— the licensee’s name; the licensee’s suburb; the number of the licence; the type of licence; the date the licence commences; the date the licence expires.
(sec.13-ssec.3) The standards officer may also enter other particulars in the register that the standards officer thinks are appropriate.
(a) the licensee’s name;
(b) the licensee’s suburb;
(c) the number of the licence;
(d) the type of licence;
(e) the date the licence commences;
(f) the date the licence expires.
pt.5
Regulation of distribution
Regulation of distribution
pt.5-div.1
General
General
sec.14
Particular requirements for aerial distribution
sec.14 Particular requirements for aerial distribution
A pilot in command must not carry out aerial distribution unless each spray nozzle used to carry out the distribution is fitted with a positive and effective leakproof cut-off system.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
pt.5-div.2
Areas other than hazardous areas
Areas other than hazardous areas
sec.15
No distribution if damage or injury to crop or stock
sec.15 No distribution if damage or injury to crop or stock
This section applies to—
the pilot in command in charge of aerial distribution in an area other than a hazardous area; or
a licensed commercial operator in charge of ground distribution in an area other than a hazardous area.
The pilot in command or licensed commercial operator must not carry out the aerial distribution or the ground distribution with equipment, or under meteorological conditions, that might reasonably be expected to cause damage or injury to—
a crop the pilot or operator did not intend to treat by the distribution; or
stock.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
See section 19 in relation to aerial distribution and ground distribution in a hazardous area.
(sec.15-ssec.1) This section applies to— the pilot in command in charge of aerial distribution in an area other than a hazardous area; or a licensed commercial operator in charge of ground distribution in an area other than a hazardous area.
(sec.15-ssec.2) The pilot in command or licensed commercial operator must not carry out the aerial distribution or the ground distribution with equipment, or under meteorological conditions, that might reasonably be expected to cause damage or injury to— a crop the pilot or operator did not intend to treat by the distribution; or stock. Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
(a) the pilot in command in charge of aerial distribution in an area other than a hazardous area; or
(b) a licensed commercial operator in charge of ground distribution in an area other than a hazardous area.
(a) a crop the pilot or operator did not intend to treat by the distribution; or
(b) stock.
pt.5-div.3
Hazardous areas
Hazardous areas
sec.16
Hazardous areas— Act , s 28
sec.16 Hazardous areas— Act , s 28
For section 28 of the Act , each of the following areas is declared to be a hazardous area—
the area shown on the map in schedule 2 ( hazardous area no. 1 );
the area shown on the map in schedule 3 ( hazardous area no. 2 );
the area shown on the map in schedule 4 ( hazardous area no. 3 ).
The exact location of the boundary of each of the hazardous areas is held in digital electronic form by the department.
Maps showing the exact location of the boundary of each of the hazardous areas can be accessed, free of charge, on the department’s website.
The information held in digital electronic form can be reduced or enlarged to show the details of the boundaries.
(sec.16-ssec.1) For section 28 of the Act , each of the following areas is declared to be a hazardous area— the area shown on the map in schedule 2 ( hazardous area no. 1 ); the area shown on the map in schedule 3 ( hazardous area no. 2 ); the area shown on the map in schedule 4 ( hazardous area no. 3 ).
(sec.16-ssec.2) The exact location of the boundary of each of the hazardous areas is held in digital electronic form by the department.
(sec.16-ssec.3) Maps showing the exact location of the boundary of each of the hazardous areas can be accessed, free of charge, on the department’s website.
(sec.16-ssec.4) The information held in digital electronic form can be reduced or enlarged to show the details of the boundaries.
(a) the area shown on the map in schedule 2 ( hazardous area no. 1 );
(b) the area shown on the map in schedule 3 ( hazardous area no. 2 );
(c) the area shown on the map in schedule 4 ( hazardous area no. 3 ).
sec.17
Purpose of subdivision
sec.17 Purpose of subdivision
For sections 28 (1) and 29 of the Act , this subdivision prescribes the conditions for carrying out aerial distribution or ground distribution in a hazardous area.
Under section 29 of the Act , a person must not carry out aerial distribution or ground distribution in a hazardous area unless the distribution is carried out under the conditions prescribed by regulation for the area. The maximum penalty for a contravention of section 29 of the Act is 100 penalty units or 6 months imprisonment.
sec.18
Definition for subdivision
sec.18 Definition for subdivision
In this subdivision—
authorised technique , in relation to ground distribution, means—
a stem injection; or
cut stump treatment, frill ringing or basal bark treatment carried out not less than 100m from a crop that—
is not on a property owned by the person for whom the treatment is carried out; and
is susceptible to damage from the treatment.
(a) a stem injection; or
(b) cut stump treatment, frill ringing or basal bark treatment carried out not less than 100m from a crop that— (i) is not on a property owned by the person for whom the treatment is carried out; and (ii) is susceptible to damage from the treatment.
(i) is not on a property owned by the person for whom the treatment is carried out; and
(ii) is susceptible to damage from the treatment.
(i) is not on a property owned by the person for whom the treatment is carried out; and
(ii) is susceptible to damage from the treatment.
sec.19
No distribution if damage or injury to crop or stock
sec.19 No distribution if damage or injury to crop or stock
Aerial distribution or ground distribution must not be carried out in a hazardous area with equipment, or under meteorological conditions, that might reasonably be expected to cause damage or injury to—
a crop the person carrying out the distribution did not intend to treat by the distribution; or
stock.
(a) a crop the person carrying out the distribution did not intend to treat by the distribution; or
(b) stock.
sec.20
Smoke generation for aerial distribution
sec.20 Smoke generation for aerial distribution
Aerial distribution must not be carried out in a hazardous area unless—
the aircraft used to carry out the distribution has a smoke-generating device installed or attached; and
the device is used to show air movement immediately before and during the distribution.
(a) the aircraft used to carry out the distribution has a smoke-generating device installed or attached; and
(b) the device is used to show air movement immediately before and during the distribution.
sec.21
Conditions for hazardous area no. 1
sec.21 Conditions for hazardous area no. 1
This section applies in relation to hazardous area no. 1.
Aerial distribution of picloram, or of an ester formulation of MCPA or 2,4-D, must not be carried out unless the person carrying out the distribution holds a distribution permit that allows the person to carry out the distribution.
Ground distribution of picloram, or of an ester formulation of MCPA or 2,4-D, must not be carried out unless—
the person carrying out the distribution holds a distribution permit that allows the person to carry out the distribution; or
the distribution is by an authorised technique.
(sec.21-ssec.1) This section applies in relation to hazardous area no. 1.
(sec.21-ssec.2) Aerial distribution of picloram, or of an ester formulation of MCPA or 2,4-D, must not be carried out unless the person carrying out the distribution holds a distribution permit that allows the person to carry out the distribution.
(sec.21-ssec.3) Ground distribution of picloram, or of an ester formulation of MCPA or 2,4-D, must not be carried out unless— the person carrying out the distribution holds a distribution permit that allows the person to carry out the distribution; or the distribution is by an authorised technique.
(a) the person carrying out the distribution holds a distribution permit that allows the person to carry out the distribution; or
(b) the distribution is by an authorised technique.
sec.22
Conditions for hazardous area no. 2
sec.22 Conditions for hazardous area no. 2
This section applies in relation to hazardous area no. 2.
Aerial distribution or ground distribution of an ester formulation of 2,4-D must not be carried out.
Aerial distribution of an ester formulation of picloram must not be carried out unless the person carrying out the distribution holds a distribution permit that allows the person to carry out the distribution.
Ground distribution of an ester formulation of picloram must not be carried out unless—
the person carrying out the distribution holds a distribution permit that allows the person to carry out the distribution; or
the distribution is by an authorised technique.
(sec.22-ssec.1) This section applies in relation to hazardous area no. 2.
(sec.22-ssec.2) Aerial distribution or ground distribution of an ester formulation of 2,4-D must not be carried out.
(sec.22-ssec.3) Aerial distribution of an ester formulation of picloram must not be carried out unless the person carrying out the distribution holds a distribution permit that allows the person to carry out the distribution.
(sec.22-ssec.4) Ground distribution of an ester formulation of picloram must not be carried out unless— the person carrying out the distribution holds a distribution permit that allows the person to carry out the distribution; or the distribution is by an authorised technique.
(a) the person carrying out the distribution holds a distribution permit that allows the person to carry out the distribution; or
(b) the distribution is by an authorised technique.
sec.23
Conditions for hazardous area no. 3
sec.23 Conditions for hazardous area no. 3
This section applies in relation to hazardous area no. 3.
Aerial distribution of an ester formulation of 2,4-D must not be carried out unless the person carrying out the distribution holds a distribution permit that allows the person to carry out the distribution.
Ground distribution of an ester formulation of 2,4-D must not be carried out unless—
the person carrying out the distribution holds a distribution permit that allows the person to carry out the distribution; or
the distribution is by an authorised technique.
(sec.23-ssec.1) This section applies in relation to hazardous area no. 3.
(sec.23-ssec.2) Aerial distribution of an ester formulation of 2,4-D must not be carried out unless the person carrying out the distribution holds a distribution permit that allows the person to carry out the distribution.
(sec.23-ssec.3) Ground distribution of an ester formulation of 2,4-D must not be carried out unless— the person carrying out the distribution holds a distribution permit that allows the person to carry out the distribution; or the distribution is by an authorised technique.
(a) the person carrying out the distribution holds a distribution permit that allows the person to carry out the distribution; or
(b) the distribution is by an authorised technique.
sec.24
Application for distribution permit
sec.24 Application for distribution permit
A person who holds an aerial distribution contractor licence may apply to the chief executive for a permit (a distribution permit ) for a stated individual to carry out aerial distribution in a stated hazardous area if—
the individual is a pilot in command who holds a pilot chemical rating licence; and
either—
the individual is the applicant; or
the individual will carry out the aerial distribution in the course of the applicant’s business, or at the direction, or under the authority, of the applicant.
A person who holds an aerial distribution contractor licence or a ground distribution contractor’s licence may apply to the chief executive for a permit (also a distribution permit ) for a stated individual to carry out ground distribution in a stated hazardous area if—
the individual holds a commercial operator’s licence; and
either—
the individual is the applicant; or
the individual will carry out the ground distribution in the course of the applicant’s business, or at the direction, or under the authority, of the applicant.
The application must—
be in the approved form; and
be made at least 10 days before the day the applicant proposes to start the distribution to which the application relates.
(sec.24-ssec.1) A person who holds an aerial distribution contractor licence may apply to the chief executive for a permit (a distribution permit ) for a stated individual to carry out aerial distribution in a stated hazardous area if— the individual is a pilot in command who holds a pilot chemical rating licence; and either— the individual is the applicant; or the individual will carry out the aerial distribution in the course of the applicant’s business, or at the direction, or under the authority, of the applicant.
(sec.24-ssec.2) A person who holds an aerial distribution contractor licence or a ground distribution contractor’s licence may apply to the chief executive for a permit (also a distribution permit ) for a stated individual to carry out ground distribution in a stated hazardous area if— the individual holds a commercial operator’s licence; and either— the individual is the applicant; or the individual will carry out the ground distribution in the course of the applicant’s business, or at the direction, or under the authority, of the applicant.
(sec.24-ssec.3) The application must— be in the approved form; and be made at least 10 days before the day the applicant proposes to start the distribution to which the application relates.
(a) the individual is a pilot in command who holds a pilot chemical rating licence; and
(b) either— (i) the individual is the applicant; or (ii) the individual will carry out the aerial distribution in the course of the applicant’s business, or at the direction, or under the authority, of the applicant.
(i) the individual is the applicant; or
(ii) the individual will carry out the aerial distribution in the course of the applicant’s business, or at the direction, or under the authority, of the applicant.
(i) the individual is the applicant; or
(ii) the individual will carry out the aerial distribution in the course of the applicant’s business, or at the direction, or under the authority, of the applicant.
(a) the individual holds a commercial operator’s licence; and
(b) either— (i) the individual is the applicant; or (ii) the individual will carry out the ground distribution in the course of the applicant’s business, or at the direction, or under the authority, of the applicant.
(i) the individual is the applicant; or
(ii) the individual will carry out the ground distribution in the course of the applicant’s business, or at the direction, or under the authority, of the applicant.
(i) the individual is the applicant; or
(ii) the individual will carry out the ground distribution in the course of the applicant’s business, or at the direction, or under the authority, of the applicant.
(a) be in the approved form; and
(b) be made at least 10 days before the day the applicant proposes to start the distribution to which the application relates.
sec.25
Decision on application
sec.25 Decision on application
The chief executive must consider the application and decide to grant, or refuse to grant, the application.
If the chief executive does not make a decision under subsection (1) within 3 months after the day the application is made, the chief executive is taken—
to have decided to refuse to grant the application; and
to have given the applicant an information notice for the decision on the last day of that period.
(sec.25-ssec.1) The chief executive must consider the application and decide to grant, or refuse to grant, the application.
(sec.25-ssec.2) If the chief executive does not make a decision under subsection (1) within 3 months after the day the application is made, the chief executive is taken— to have decided to refuse to grant the application; and to have given the applicant an information notice for the decision on the last day of that period.
(a) to have decided to refuse to grant the application; and
(b) to have given the applicant an information notice for the decision on the last day of that period.
sec.26
Issue of distribution permit
sec.26 Issue of distribution permit
If the chief executive decides to grant the application, the chief executive must, within 14 days after the decision is made, issue a distribution permit in the approved form.
sec.27
Conditions for distribution permit
sec.27 Conditions for distribution permit
The chief executive may issue the distribution permit on the reasonable conditions the chief executive considers appropriate.
If the chief executive decides under subsection (1) to issue the distribution permit on conditions, the chief executive must, within 14 days after the decision is made, give the applicant an information notice for the decision.
(sec.27-ssec.1) The chief executive may issue the distribution permit on the reasonable conditions the chief executive considers appropriate.
(sec.27-ssec.2) If the chief executive decides under subsection (1) to issue the distribution permit on conditions, the chief executive must, within 14 days after the decision is made, give the applicant an information notice for the decision.
sec.28
Notice of refusal
sec.28 Notice of refusal
If the chief executive decides to refuse to grant the application, the chief executive must, within 14 days after the decision is made, give the applicant an information notice for the decision.
sec.29
Right of review
sec.29 Right of review
This section applies if the applicant must be given an information notice under section 27 (2) or 28 for a decision of the chief executive—
to issue the distribution permit on conditions; or
to refuse to grant the application.
The applicant may apply to QCAT, as provided under the QCAT Act , for a review of the decision.
(sec.29-ssec.1) This section applies if the applicant must be given an information notice under section 27 (2) or 28 for a decision of the chief executive— to issue the distribution permit on conditions; or to refuse to grant the application.
(sec.29-ssec.2) The applicant may apply to QCAT, as provided under the QCAT Act , for a review of the decision.
(a) to issue the distribution permit on conditions; or
(b) to refuse to grant the application.
pt.6
General
General
sec.30
False or misleading statements or documents
sec.30 False or misleading statements or documents
A person must not, in applying for a licence or distribution permit—
state anything to the chief executive the person knows is false or misleading in a material particular; or
give the chief executive a document the person knows is false or misleading in a material particular.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
Subsection (1) (b) does not apply to a person if the person, when giving the document—
tells the chief executive, to the best of the person’s ability, how the document is false or misleading; and
if the person has, or can reasonably obtain, the correct information—gives the correct information to the chief executive.
In this section—
apply , for a licence, includes apply for the renewal of a licence.
(sec.30-ssec.1) A person must not, in applying for a licence or distribution permit— state anything to the chief executive the person knows is false or misleading in a material particular; or give the chief executive a document the person knows is false or misleading in a material particular. Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
(sec.30-ssec.2) Subsection (1) (b) does not apply to a person if the person, when giving the document— tells the chief executive, to the best of the person’s ability, how the document is false or misleading; and if the person has, or can reasonably obtain, the correct information—gives the correct information to the chief executive.
(sec.30-ssec.3) In this section— apply , for a licence, includes apply for the renewal of a licence.
(a) state anything to the chief executive the person knows is false or misleading in a material particular; or
(b) give the chief executive a document the person knows is false or misleading in a material particular.
(a) tells the chief executive, to the best of the person’s ability, how the document is false or misleading; and
(b) if the person has, or can reasonably obtain, the correct information—gives the correct information to the chief executive.
sec.31
Fees
sec.31 Fees
The fees payable under the Act are stated in schedule 5 .
pt.7
Repeal and transitional provisions
Repeal and transitional provisions
pt.7-div.1
Repeal
Repeal
sec.32
Repeal
sec.32 Repeal
The Agricultural Chemicals Distribution Control Regulation 1998 , SL No. 135 is repealed.
pt.7-div.2
Transitional provisions
Transitional provisions
sec.33
Definition for division
sec.33 Definition for division
In this division—
repealed regulation means the repealed Agricultural Chemicals Distribution Control Regulation 1998 .
sec.34
Existing applications for pilot chemical rating licences
sec.34 Existing applications for pilot chemical rating licences
This section applies if—
before the commencement, an application was made under section 17 of the Act for a pilot chemical rating licence; and
immediately before the commencement, the application had not been dealt with.
Despite section 6 of this regulation, the repealed regulation, section 7 continues to prescribe the qualification for section 12 (2) (c) of the Act .
(sec.34-ssec.1) This section applies if— before the commencement, an application was made under section 17 of the Act for a pilot chemical rating licence; and immediately before the commencement, the application had not been dealt with.
(sec.34-ssec.2) Despite section 6 of this regulation, the repealed regulation, section 7 continues to prescribe the qualification for section 12 (2) (c) of the Act .
(a) before the commencement, an application was made under section 17 of the Act for a pilot chemical rating licence; and
(b) immediately before the commencement, the application had not been dealt with.
sec.35
Existing applications for unrestricted commercial operators’ licences
sec.35 Existing applications for unrestricted commercial operators’ licences
This section applies if—
before the commencement, an application was made under section 17 of the Act for an unrestricted commercial operator’s licence; and
immediately before the commencement, the application had not been dealt with.
Despite section 8 of this regulation, the repealed regulation, section 8 continues to prescribe the qualification for section 16 (2) of the Act .
(sec.35-ssec.1) This section applies if— before the commencement, an application was made under section 17 of the Act for an unrestricted commercial operator’s licence; and immediately before the commencement, the application had not been dealt with.
(sec.35-ssec.2) Despite section 8 of this regulation, the repealed regulation, section 8 continues to prescribe the qualification for section 16 (2) of the Act .
(a) before the commencement, an application was made under section 17 of the Act for an unrestricted commercial operator’s licence; and
(b) immediately before the commencement, the application had not been dealt with.
sec.36
Existing applications for distribution permits
sec.36 Existing applications for distribution permits
This section applies if—
before the commencement, an application was made under the repealed regulation, section 39 for a distribution permit; and
immediately before the commencement, the application had not been dealt with.
The application is taken to have been made under section 24 of this regulation and must be dealt with under part 5, division 3, subdivision 3 of this regulation.
(sec.36-ssec.1) This section applies if— before the commencement, an application was made under the repealed regulation, section 39 for a distribution permit; and immediately before the commencement, the application had not been dealt with.
(sec.36-ssec.2) The application is taken to have been made under section 24 of this regulation and must be dealt with under part 5, division 3, subdivision 3 of this regulation.
(a) before the commencement, an application was made under the repealed regulation, section 39 for a distribution permit; and
(b) immediately before the commencement, the application had not been dealt with.
Source text: opening excerpt
Sourced from Queensland Legislation (legislation.qld.gov.au), CC BY 4.0.
pt.1 Preliminary
Preliminary
sec.1 Short title
sec.1 Short title
This regulation may be cited as the Agricultural Chemicals Distribution Control Regulation 2021 .
sec.2 Commencement
sec.2 Commencement
This regulation commences on 31 August 2021 .
sec.3 Definitions
sec.3 Definitions
The dictionary in schedule 6 defines particular words used in this regulation.
sec.4 Parts of State excluded from application of Act— Act , s 3
sec.4 Parts of State excluded from application of Act— Act , s 3
For section 3 of the Act , it is declared that the Act does not apply in the parts of the State shown on the map in schedule 1 .
The exact location of the boundary of the parts of the State in which the Act is declared not to apply is held in digital electronic form by the department.
A map showing the exact location of the boundary of the parts of the State in which the Act is declared not to apply can be accessed, free of charge, on the department’s website.
The information held in digital electronic form can be reduced or enlarged to show the details of the boundaries.
(sec.4-ssec.1) For section 3 of the Act , it is declared that the Act does not apply in the parts of the State shown on the map in schedule 1 .
(sec.4-ssec.2) The exact location of the boundary of the parts of the State in which the Act is declared not to apply is held in digital electronic form by the department.
(sec.4-ssec.3) A map showing the exact location of the boundary of the parts of the State in which the Act is declared not to apply can be accessed, free of charge, on the department’s website.
(sec.4-ssec.4) The information held in digital electronic form can be reduced or enlarged to show the details of the boundaries.
sec.5 Ground equipment—Act, schedule
sec.5 Ground equipment—Act, schedule
For the schedule of the Act , definition ground equipment , a machine or apparatus, in an area other than a hazardous area, is prescribed not to be ground equipment for the purposes of the Act if the machine or apparatus—
is powered by hand; or
is powered by compressed air or gas applied directly to the spray liquid for distribution without the use of air blasting techniques; or
is a hose proportioning device.
(a) is powered by hand; or
(b) is powered by compressed air or gas applied directly to the spray liquid for distribution without the use of air blasting techniques; or
(c) is a hose proportioning device.
Creates an electronic public register format and required particulars for licensees (section 13).
Imposes operational controls on aerial and ground distribution: nozzle hardware requirements (a leakproof cut-off on each spray nozzle; section 14), safety and no-harm requirements (no distribution where equipment or meteorological conditions might reasonably be expected to cause damage or injury to unintended crops or stock; sections 15 and 19), a smoke-generation requirement for aircraft used in hazardous areas (section 20) and area-specific controls on certain chemicals and formulations, including permit requirements or outright prohibitions in the three hazardous areas (sections 21-23).
Establishes a distribution-permit scheme: who may apply, for whom, required form and timing (section 24), decision-making timelines and deemed refusal after 3 months (section 25), mandatory issue timing (section 26), power to impose reasonable conditions (section 27) and review rights to QCAT (section 29).
Provides offences and penalties relating to operational breaches and false or misleading applications (sections 14, 15, 19, 30). It also cross-references that contraventions of section 29 of the Act (which prohibits distribution in hazardous areas unless under prescribed conditions) carry a maximum penalty of 100 penalty units or 6 months imprisonment (section 17).
Prescribes fees payable under the Act in schedule 5 (section 31) and retains a discrete role for the Aerial Application Association of Australia in issuing “spraysafe accreditation” and charging a reasonable fee under contract or law for that accreditation (section 6(6)).
Mechanically, the regulation moves the Act from a high-level prohibition/permission framework to a practical operational regime: it fixes who needs what training, where special permits are needed, what equipment must be fitted or used, how the regulator administers permits and licences, and what administrative review rights exist. The regulation also shifts spatial policy implementation onto publicly available digital maps and places express duties on pilots and licensed operators to avoid causing unintended damage (sections 4, 13, 14-15, 19-23).
Main concepts
This regulation builds on several core concepts found in its provisions. Each concept is defined or implemented by discrete sections and schedules; the text repeatedly ties obligations to licences, permits, hazardous-area maps, approved forms and qualifications.
Hazardous areas and maps: three hazardous areas are declared (section 16). The regulation treats these areas as distinct regulatory zones for distribution activity; maps for both hazardous areas and parts excluded from the Act’s application are provided in schedules and held electronically by the department with public access via its website (sections 4, 16). The regulation therefore operationalises zonal controls by reference to mapped boundaries rather than free-text descriptions, and places an administrative duty on operators to consult those maps before acting (sections 4(2)-(3); 16(2)-(3)).
Licences, classes and qualifications: the regulation prescribes classes of commercial operator’s licence (restricted and unrestricted) (section 7) and sets the prescribed qualification for an unrestricted commercial operator’s licence as specified VET units or an equivalent record of results (section 8). For pilot chemical rating licences the regulation prescribes a spraysafe accreditation for manned pilots and either the spraysafe accreditation or particular VET units for UAV-only pilots (section 6). For pest management technicians it prescribes relevant CPPUPM units (section 9). The chief executive retains an ability to accept substantially equivalent training (sections 6(5), 8(2), 9(b)). These provisions tie statutory permission to particular recognised training units and create a route of equivalence by administrative discretion.
Distribution permits and decision-making: distribution permits are required to carry out certain chemical applications in hazardous areas (sections 21-23). Eligible applicants include aerial distribution contractor licence holders and ground distribution contractor licence holders, applying for stated individuals (section 24). Applications must be in the approved form and made at least 10 days before proposed distribution (section 24(3)). The chief executive must decide to grant or refuse; failure to decide within 3 months is taken to be refusal (section 25). If granted, the chief executive must issue the permit in approved form within 14 days (section 26); the chief executive may impose reasonable conditions (section 27). Information notices and review rights to QCAT are provided (sections 27-29).
Equipment and operational restrictions: an operator must not conduct aerial distribution unless each spray nozzle has a positive and effective leakproof cut-off system (section 14). In hazardous areas aircraft must have and use a smoke-generating device to show air movement immediately before and during distribution (section 20). There are prohibition/permit rules for specific chemicals/formulations in each hazardous area (sections 21-23). The regulation distinguishes authorised ground techniques (stem injection; cut stump/frill/basal bark at least 100m from susceptible crops not on the contractor’s client property) (section 18), which may substitute for a permit in some circumstances (sections 21-23).
Risk of criminal/penalty consequences: certain contraventions attract statutory monetary penalties. For example, failure to fit nozzles with leakproof cut-offs or distributing in conditions that might reasonably cause damage attract a maximum penalty of 20 penalty units (sections 14, 15, 19). The Act’s prohibition on distribution in hazardous areas (referred to in section 17) carries a maximum penalty of 100 penalty units or 6 months imprisonment.
Administrative transparency and record-keeping: licences are to be recorded on an electronic register with prescribed particulars including name, suburb, licence number, type and commencement/expiry dates (section 13). The standards officer may enter other particulars as appropriate (section 13(3)). False or misleading statements or documents in licence or permit applications are offences, with a narrowly drawn exception where the applicant identifies and corrects the inaccuracy (section 30).
These concepts operate together: spatial mapping triggers regulatory status (hazardous area or excluded area); licence and training requirements gate who may carry out distribution; equipment and technique prescriptions limit how distribution may be done; permit and administrative processes determine when exceptions are available; and enforcement provisions set legal and practical costs for non-compliance.
Who it affects
The regulation assigns duties and permissions across several identifiable groups. Who pays, who decides and who must change behaviour are clear in the text.
Licence-holders and applicants: persons applying for or holding pilot chemical rating licences, commercial operator licences (restricted or unrestricted), aerial distribution contractor licences and ground distribution contractor licences are directly affected. The regulation prescribes qualifications for these licences (sections 6-9), requires licences to be in the approved form (section 10), and requires licence holders to appear on the electronic register with specified particulars (section 13). False statements in licence applications are penalised (section 30).
Pilots and UAV operators: pilots in command of aircraft carrying out aerial distribution must meet the prescribed qualifications and operational duties. Aerial pilots must hold spraysafe accreditation if piloting manned aircraft or both manned aircraft and UAVs; UAV-only operators may meet qualification by either the spraysafe accreditation or specified VET units (section 6). Pilots carrying out aerial distribution in hazardous areas must ensure aircraft are fitted with smoke-generating devices and use them (section 20) and install positive leakproof cut-offs on each spray nozzle (section 14).
Commercial operators and contractors: aerial and ground distribution contractors who wish to carry out distribution in hazardous areas must apply for distribution permits allowing particular individuals to operate (section 24). The regulation separates restricted and unrestricted commercial operator’s licences (section 7) and requires particular VET competencies for unrestricted licences (section 8). Contractor licensees decide whether to nominate individuals for permits and bear application timing obligations (section 24(3)).
Property owners, landholders and adjacent owners: the regulation’s no-damage rules (sections 15, 19) create duties on operators to avoid causing harm to crops or stock not intended to be treated. Authorised ground techniques include minimum-distance requirements where treatments could affect susceptible crops not on the property owned by the person for whom treatment is carried out (section 18). The effect is to protect third-party property interests by imposing standards on operators.
The regulator and its officers: the chief executive and standards officer make decisions and enter particulars on the register (sections 11-13, 25-29). The chief executive decides applications for distribution permits (section 25), may impose conditions on permits (section 27), must issue information notices where licences are suspended (section 11), and must publish or hold map data in digital form (sections 4(2), 16(2)). The regulation gives the chief executive discretion to accept substantially equivalent training (sections 6(5), 8(2), 9(b)).
Industry training provider and accreditation body: Aerial Application Association of Australia Ltd is named as the issuer of a spraysafe accreditation (section 6(7)) and may charge a reasonable fee under contract or law for providing that accreditation (section 6(6)). This ties an industry body into the licensing chain.
Applicants for distribution permits: applicants (contractors) must apply at least 10 days before proposed activity (section 24(3)). The chief executive must decide within 3 months or a deemed refusal arises (section 25(2)). Applicants bear the time and administrative costs of application and the risk of refusal or conditions.
General public and competing businesses: while not directly named, the public and rival service providers will be affected by map determinations, permitting constraints, and the register of licensees (sections 4, 13, 16, 21-23). For example, prohibitions on particular ester formulations in given areas (sections 21-23) limit the availability of certain treatments, which affects contracting choices.
Overall, those who pay and take action are primarily the licence and permit applicants, the pilots and technicians who must satisfy training and equipment requirements, contractors who must seek distribution permits for hazardous-area work, and the department which must hold, publish and decide on digital maps and permit applications. The Aerial Application Association has a specific procedural role in providing a named accreditation and may charge for it (section 6).
Key duties and rights
The regulation sets out clear duties for operators and rights for applicants and licence-holders. Below are the principal obligations and procedural rights with section references.
Duties on operational actors
Hardware requirement for aerial nozzles: every spray nozzle used in aerial distribution must be fitted with a positive and effective leakproof cut-off system (section 14). Failure attracts a maximum penalty of 20 penalty units.
No-distribution obligations to avoid unintended damage: both for areas other than hazardous areas and for hazardous areas, a pilot in command or licensed commercial operator must not carry out distribution with equipment or under meteorological conditions that might reasonably be expected to cause damage or injury to crops not intended to be treated, or to stock (sections 15 and 19). Maximum penalty in non-hazardous areas is 20 penalty units (section 15); section 17 explains that contravening the Act’s section 29 (distribution in hazardous areas absent prescribed conditions) carries a maximum penalty of 100 penalty units or 6 months imprisonment.
Smoke-generation duty in hazardous areas: aircraft used to carry out aerial distribution in a hazardous area must have a smoke-generating device installed or attached, and use it to show air movement immediately before and during distribution (section 20).
Authorised techniques and distance limits for ground distribution in hazardous areas: authorised technique is defined and includes stem injection and cut stump/frill/basal bark carried out not less than 100 metres from a crop susceptible to damage that is not on the property of the person for whom the treatment is carried out. In certain hazardous areas, ground distribution of particular chemicals is permitted if performed by an authorised technique (sections 18, 21-23).
Duties relating to licences, permits and applications
Form and content: licences and applications must be in the approved form (sections 10 and 24(3)(a)). The register is to be maintained electronically with prescribed particulars (section 13).
Permits for hazardous-area work: to carry out specified distributions in hazardous areas, a person must hold a distribution permit allowing the person to do so (sections 21-23). The permit scheme requires applications to be submitted at least 10 days prior to proposed work (section 24(3)(b)).
Accuracy of applications and documents: an applicant must not state anything known to be false or misleading in a material particular to the chief executive or supply a document known to be false or misleading (section 30(1)). Subsection 30(2) carves out an exception for documents where the applicant identifies the false or misleading nature to the chief executive and provides corrected information if they have or can reasonably obtain it.
Administrative rights and review
Right to administrative review: where an information notice is required because of a standards officer’s decision to suspend a licence, the licence-holder may apply to QCAT for review (section 12). Where an applicant is given an information notice because the chief executive decided to issue a distribution permit on conditions or to refuse an application, that applicant may apply to QCAT for review (section 29).
Decision timelines and deemed refusals: the chief executive must decide to grant or refuse an application for a distribution permit (section 25(1)). If no decision is made within three months, the chief executive is taken to have refused and to have issued an information notice on the last day of that period (section 25(2)). If the chief executive decides to grant the application, they must issue a distribution permit within 14 days (section 26).
Discretion to impose conditions: the chief executive may issue a distribution permit on reasonable conditions the chief executive considers appropriate. If conditions are imposed, an information notice must be provided within 14 days (section 27).
Other rights and administrative mechanics
Register particulars: licensees have their name, suburb, licence number, type of licence, start and expiry dates entered on an electronic register (section 13). The standards officer may enter other particulars as deemed appropriate (section 13(3)).
Fee framework: fees payable under the Act are stated in schedule 5 (section 31), providing a statutory basis for charging for applications/licences, though the regulation text here does not set amounts (the schedule does).
These duties and rights create a procedural flow: train and qualify to hold licences, ensure equipment and technique compliance, consult digital maps for hazardous/ excluded zones, seek a distribution permit if required, and use available review avenues if the regulator imposes conditions or refuses. Non-compliance exposes operators to monetary penalties and, in the most serious hazardous-area contraventions, imprisonment (see section 17).
Penalties and enforcement
The regulation sets criminal/penalty consequences for a defined subset of breaches and creates administrative processes that activate enforcement risks. Enforcement is administered primarily through the standards officer and the chief executive, with rights of review to QCAT preserved.
Specified penalties in the regulation
20 penalty-unit offences: several operational offences carry a maximum penalty of 20 penalty units. These include:
Carrying out aerial distribution without each spray nozzle fitted with a positive and effective leakproof cut-off system (section 14).
Carrying out aerial distribution or ground distribution in an area other than a hazardous area with equipment or under meteorological conditions that might reasonably be expected to cause damage or injury to unintended crops or stock (section 15).
Carrying out aerial distribution or ground distribution in a hazardous area with equipment or under meteorological conditions that might reasonably be expected to cause damage or injury to unintended crops or stock (section 19).
Making false or misleading statements or providing documents known to be false or misleading in material particulars when applying for a licence or distribution permit (section 30(1)). Section 30 also sets out a narrow defence/exemption where the applicant discloses the inaccuracy to the chief executive and supplies corrected information if available (section 30(2)).
Higher penalty in relation to the Act’s hazardous-area rule: section 17 explicitly references the Act’s section 29 and notes that contravention of section 29 of the Act (the Act’s prohibition on carrying out aerial or ground distribution in a hazardous area unless carried out under prescribed regulation conditions) is punishable by up to 100 penalty units or 6 months imprisonment. The regulation therefore anchors its hazardous-area permitting regime to a statutory offence with significantly higher maximum penalties (section 17).
Enforcement actors and procedures
Standards officer and chief executive roles: the standards officer must give information notices when suspending a licence (section 11). The chief executive decides on distribution permit applications (section 25), may impose conditions (section 27), must give information notices for conditional permits and for refusals (sections 27(2), 28), and must issue permits within 14 days if deciding to grant (section 26). Information notices trigger review rights to QCAT (sections 12, 29).
Deemed refusal and administrative finality: failure by the chief executive to decide on a permit within 3 months results in a deemed refusal and a deemed information notice (section 25(2)). That regulatory construct turns administrative delay into a procedural refusal that can be reviewed under the QCAT Act (section 29).
Register and transparency: the electronic register (section 13) and publicly accessible digital maps (sections 4, 16) facilitate enforcement by making licence status and mapped hazardous boundaries discoverable. The regulation does not prescribe inspection regimes or sampling protocols, but the hardware and operational duties are expressed as offences enforceable by penalty units or higher sanctions via the Act.
Sanctions and compliance implications
Monetary exposure: the regulation specifies 20-penalty-unit offences for several routine operational matters; these are readily enforceable penalties exposing operators to financial cost. The Act’s hazardous-area offence magnifies exposure to 100 penalty units or imprisonment where distribution occurs outside the regulated conditions (section 17).
Administrative remedies: suspension of licences (already in the Act) triggers information notices and QCAT review rights (sections 11-12). The regulator’s discretion to impose permit conditions (section 27) exposes applicants to operational constraints enforceable by law if breached.
Evidence and disclosure tensions: section 30(2) provides a limited safe-harbour for applicants who supply documents they know to be false or misleading where they proactively disclose and correct. That narrow exception imposes a duty to correct and likely has evidentiary implications in enforcement proceedings.
The regulation therefore establishes a layered enforcement framework combining low-to-medium monetary penalties for operational compliance requirements, a statutory high-penalty offence for unpermitted hazardous-area distribution, and administrative controls through permits, notices and register entries. The chief executive’s decision-making timelines and the ability to review decisions to QCAT are the principal procedural constraints on regulatory action.
How it interacts with other laws
The regulation is an instrument designed to operate in tandem with the Act and other statutory frameworks. The text expressly references the Act and the QCAT Act and embeds cross-references that determine enforcement and review pathways.
Primary statutory interaction
The Act: almost every substantive provision in the regulation is linked to a section or concept in the parent Act. The regulation prescribes qualifications, classes of licences, hazardous areas, and conditions under which distribution may occur in hazardous areas, all pursuant to specific Act provisions (see repeated references to "Act, s ..." throughout the regulation). Most notably, section 17 ties the regulation’s hazardous-area technical rules to the Act’s section 29 offence, specifying the Act’s maximum penalty of 100 penalty units or 6 months imprisonment for contraventions of section 29. The regulation therefore fills the Act’s delegation to the executive by specifying qualifications, maps, procedures and conditions.
QCAT Act (review jurisdiction): the regulation gives applicants and licence-holders a statutory right to apply to QCAT for review where information notices are issued in specified circumstances (sections 12 and 29). That cross-reference preserves administrative law review within the tribunal framework rather than within regular civil courts.
Administrative law and internal review
Information notices: the requirements to give information notices (sections 11, 27(2), 28) and corresponding QCAT review rights establish an administrative decision-review pathway. While the regulation prescribes timelines (e.g., 3-month deemed refusal; 14-day permit issuance), it leaves substantive grounds for decision-making to the chief executive’s exercise of discretion within the Act’s standards.
Standards officer powers: the standards officer's suspension power under the Act is linked to the requirement to give information notices (section 11), making the suspension process subject to procedural safeguards and external review.
Other statutory and regulatory interfaces (practical implications)
Training and VET units: the regulation prescribes particular VET competency units as qualifying training (sections 6, 8, 9). These units sit within the Nationally Recognised Training framework; the regulation’s references thereby connect regulatory compliance to the separate statutory and administrative regimes governing registered training organisations, accreditation and unit currency.
Mapping and planning instruments: the regulation relies on departmental digital maps for precise boundaries (sections 4, 16). The regulation does not amend land-use planning instruments, but operators must consult these departmental maps in addition to any council or aviation safety requirements. Where aerial distribution intersects with civil aviation regulation, separate aviation safety law will remain relevant (the regulation prescribes operational measures such as smoke devices but does not displace aviation rules).
Contractual and private-law effects: the regulation imposes duties (e.g., 100m distance for some authorised techniques; section 18) that may affect private contracts for services or liability allocation. The regulation does not itself provide a private right of action, but third parties harmed by non-compliant distribution could use tort or contract remedies in the ordinary courts; the regulation will be relevant evidence of statutory standards.
Fees and other schedules: section 31 states that fees payable under the Act are stated in schedule 5. The schedule is part of the instrument and sets the prescribed fee framework under the Act; the regulation thus interacts with budgeting and cost allocation to industry without specifying fees in the main text.
Limitations and points of disconnection
The regulation does not itself define all terms: it relies on the dictionary in schedule 6 and on the Act’s definitions. Practitioners must therefore consult the Act and schedule 6 to resolve definitional questions not answered in the main text.
No explicit interplay with occupational health and safety statutes: the regulation imposes duties to avoid damage and injury, but it does not expressly reference state workplace health and safety laws. Operators should assume that compliance obligations under other statutes (e.g., Work Health and Safety) remain operative.
In sum, the regulation functions as a delegated instrument implementing the Act’s framework and interacts procedurally with administrative review under the QCAT Act, training and accreditation regimes, departmental mapping processes, and the general body of safety and land-use law. It does not displace those other regimes but adds statutory conditions and offences that practitioners must consider alongside other legal obligations.
Amendment history
The regulation is self-contained on commencement-related changes and transitional arrangements; the instrument’s text sets out the principal amendment events it effects.
Commencement: the regulation commenced on 31 August 2021 (section 2).
Repeal of the 1998 regulation: section 32 expressly repeals the Agricultural Chemicals Distribution Control Regulation 1998 (SL No. 135). The 2021 instrument therefore replaced the prior regulation as of its commencement date.
Transitional provisions for existing applications: the regulation provides transitional arrangements for applications pending at the time of commencement:
Pilot chemical rating licence applications made under the Act before commencement that remained undetermined immediately before commencement are to continue to be governed by the qualification prescribed in the repealed regulation section 7, despite section 6 of the new regulation (section 34). Practically, this preserves the applicant’s existing applicable qualification rules and avoids retrospective alteration of qualification requirements.
Similarly, existing applications for unrestricted commercial operator’s licences made under the Act and undetermined immediately before commencement remain subject to the repealed regulation’s section 8 qualification (section 35).
Existing applications for distribution permits made under the repealed regulation section 39 and undetermined at commencement are taken to have been made under section 24 of the new regulation and must be dealt with under part 5, division 3, subdivision 3 of the new regulation (section 36). That provision ensures continuity of administrative processing.
In-force structure: the regulation declares the dictionary in schedule 6 to define particular words used in the regulation (section 3). Schedules include maps for excluded parts of the State and hazardous areas, and schedule 5 contains the fees payable under the Act (sections 3, 4, 16, 31).
No further amendment entries in the text: the regulation as supplied contains no other amendment annotations, savings beyond sections 34-36, or staged commencement provisions. Any subsequent amendment to the regulation after commencement would need to be examined in the consolidated or later instruments; they are not set out in the present text.
Practical effect of amendment and transition mechanics
The repeal plus transitional rules create a single migration path for outstanding applications, preserving the applicant’s expectations where training qualifications under the old regulation differ from the new (sections 34-36). This lowers the risk of immediate legal challenge from applicants whose pending applications would otherwise be subject to more onerous new qualifications.
The regulation’s direct repeal of the 1998 instrument and immediate commencement centralise the current regulatory scheme in the 2021 regulation. Practitioners must therefore refer to the 2021 instrument and the Act for the operative rules after 31 August 2021.
For historical or interpretive work, the transitional sections are the only internal elements providing a bridge between the 1998 and 2021 instruments. The regulation itself does not set out an amendment history beyond repeal and these transitional saving clauses.
Litigation history
The regulation text contains no judicial decisions, cases or litigation references. It does, however, embed statutory review pathways and administrative mechanisms that will be the principal avenues for challenge or dispute.
No cases named in the instrument: the regulation does not cite any tribunal or court decisions, nor does it include a litigation history. Any dispute records would be external to the text and are not provided here.
Express administrative review routes: the regulation specifies rights to apply to QCAT for review in multiple circumstances. A licence-holder who must be given an information notice because a standards officer suspends a licence may apply to QCAT for review (section 12). An applicant for a distribution permit who must be given an information notice because the chief executive decided to issue the permit on conditions, or to refuse the application, may apply to QCAT for review (section 29). Those provisions effectively channel many administrative disputes into tribunal review rather than immediate court action.
Deemed refusal as a litigation trigger: section 25(2) provides that failure by the chief executive to decide an application within three months is taken to be a refusal and a deemed information notice on the last day of that period. That statutory construct creates a clear point in time at which an applicant can seek QCAT review, and therefore is a likely starting point for many review proceedings.
Anticipated dispute issues (grounded in the regulation): although the instrument does not supply litigation history, the regulation identifies likely areas of dispute:
whether the chief executive’s imposition of conditions on a distribution permit was reasonable (section 27);
whether training or qualifications are “substantially equivalent” to the prescribed units such that the chief executive should accept them (sections 6(5), 8(2), 9(b));
whether a given map boundary places a property inside or outside a hazardous area (sections 4, 16), given that exact boundaries are held digitally and can be scaled;
whether the facts show that equipment or meteorological conditions “might reasonably be expected” to cause damage or injury (sections 15, 19), which is a fact-intensive standard likely to generate evidentiary disputes.
Enforcement and penalties: disputes are also likely over enforcement decisions and penalty imposition (sections 14, 15, 19, 30), both in relation to the underlying facts and the legal characterisation of the conduct, and in relation to the Act’s higher penalty in hazardous-area contraventions (section 17). QCAT review may address administrative decisions but criminal prosecutions for serious breaches would proceed in the criminal courts where the regulation’s offences are relied upon.
In the absence of reported cases in the instrument, practitioners must rely on the statutory review routes provided and anticipate litigation themes from the regulatory text itself: discretionary chief executive decisions, equivalence of training, map-boundary interpretation, and the reasonableness standard for weather/equipment-related duties.
Gotchas
The regulation contains several provisions that can catch operators, contractors and advisers by surprise if not closely read. These "gotchas" are mechanistic traps grounded in the text.
Deemed refusal after 3 months (section 25(2)): if the chief executive does not decide a distribution permit application within three months, the application is taken to be refused and an information notice is deemed given on the last day of that period. Applicants who fail to seek or secure a decision within the statutory window risk an automatic refusal rather than a quiet administrative delay. Practically, applicants should track decision timelines and consider early follow-up or seeking reasons to avoid a deemed refusal.
Tight application lead-time and approved-form requirement (section 24): applications for distribution permits must be in the approved form and made at least 10 days before the proposed start date. This creates a short statutory lead time that can be missed, especially for seasonal operations or last-minute job scheduling. The regulation does not authorise late applications; plan on at least 10 days lead time plus potential processing.
Narrow training pathways and a named accreditation body (section 6): spraysafe accreditation is prescribed for manned pilots and for pilots who will use manned aircraft and UAVs; UAV-only pilots may alternatively rely on specific VET units. The regulation expressly allows the Aerial Application Association of Australia to issue spraysafe accreditation and to charge a reasonable fee under contract or law (section 6(6)-(7)). This creates a dependency on a named industry body for the primary accreditation route for manned operations and a cost for practitioners seeking that accreditation.
Smoke device and nozzle hardware prescripts (sections 14, 20): for hazardous-area aerial work the aircraft must have a smoke-generating device used to show air movement immediately before and during distribution (section 20). Separate to that, every spray nozzle must be fitted with a positive and effective leakproof cut-off system (section 14). These are hardware requirements that may require capital modification to aircraft and spray rigs. Non-compliance is an offence with penalty units attached.
Map-based boundaries held digitally (sections 4, 16): hazardous areas and excluded parts of the State are declared by maps in schedules and the exact boundaries are held in digital electronic form by the department and available on its website. Because boundaries are map-based and digitally held, there is risk of interpretive disputes about whether a particular parcel lies within or outside a hazardous area. Operators should not rely on rough descriptions; they must consult the department’s digital map and possibly obtain formal confirmation.
Authorised technique distance rule and property ownership nuance (sections 18, 21-23): the definition of authorised technique includes a 100m distance requirement from a crop that is not on the property owned by the person for whom the treatment is carried out and is susceptible to damage (section 18). The double condition,(a) not on the property owned by the person for whom the treatment is carried out and (b) susceptible to damage,requires attention to property boundaries and crop susceptibility. Misreading could result in an operator incorrectly assuming a permitted technique where a permit is actually required.
Differing chemical/formulation rules across hazardous areas (sections 21-23): the regulation does not apply a single rule to all hazardous areas. For example:
Hazardous area no. 1: aerial picloram and ester formulations of MCPA or 2,4-D require a permit; ground distribution requires a permit unless undertaken by an authorised technique (section 21).
Hazardous area no. 2: aerial or ground distribution of an ester formulation of 2,4-D is prohibited outright; aerial picloram requires a permit; ground picloram requires a permit unless by authorised technique (section 22).
Hazardous area no. 3: aerial distribution of ester 2,4-D requires a permit; ground ester 2,4-D requires a permit unless by authorised technique (section 23).
Misunderstanding these nuanced differences can lead to illegal distribution or missed opportunities to use authorised techniques.
False-document exception is narrow (section 30): providing a document known to be false is an offence unless, at the time of giving it, the person tells the chief executive how it is false to the best of their ability and gives correct information if they have or can reasonably obtain it (section 30(2)). If an applicant attempts to rely on this exception without timely disclosure and correction, they risk penalties.
Register particulars and privacy implications (section 13): the register includes licensee suburb (section 13(2)(b)). Practitioners should be aware that certain personal information will be publicly maintained in an electronic form; commercial privacy implications may arise.
Fees unspecified in the body text (section 31): fees are located in schedule 5, not in the main text. Practitioners must consult schedule 5 to determine exact fee liabilities.
Chief executive’s conditional power and reasonableness test (section 27): the chief executive may impose "reasonable conditions" on issued distribution permits. What is reasonable is a discretionary, fact-dependent administrative standard; applicants should prepare to anticipate and negotiate conditions and bear the possibility that conditions will materially constrain operational plans.
These gotchas are textual and procedural; they point to specific sections that impose timing, hardware, mapping and documentary constraints. Attention to these provisions will reduce the risk of administrative denial, enforcement action or operational interruption.
How to comply
Compliance under this regulation requires attention to training, equipment, spatial rules, permit procedures, record-keeping and administrative timelines. Below is a practical, source-grounded checklist keyed to the regulation’s provisions.
Determine spatial status using departmental digital maps (sections 4, 16)
Before planning distribution activities, consult the department’s digital maps for the exact boundary locations of hazardous areas (schedules 2-4) and the parts of the State where the Act does not apply (schedule 1) (sections 4(2)-(3); 16(2)-(3)).
Use the department’s website maps (free of charge) and consider capturing digital records of the map view consulted (date, zoom level) to evidence the basis for operational decisions if boundaries are in dispute.
Verify applicable licences and qualifications (sections 6-9, 10)
Ensure pilots and commercial operators hold licences in the approved form (section 10).
For pilot chemical rating licences:
Manned pilot (and manned plus UAV use) requires spraysafe accreditation (section 6(2)-(3)).
UAV-only pilots may hold spraysafe accreditation or the specified VET units (AHCCHM307 and AHCCHM304) or equivalent records of results (section 6(4)).
For unrestricted commercial operator’s licences, secure a statement of attainment for AHCCHM307 and AHCCHM304, or an equivalent record or equivalence recognised by the chief executive (section 8).
For pest management technicians, secure the required CPPUPM units or equivalent per the chief executive (section 9).
If relying on alternative training, obtain written confirmation from the chief executive that training is "substantially equivalent" to the prescribed qualification (sections 6(5), 8(2), 9(b)).
Fit every spray nozzle used in aerial distribution with a positive and effective leakproof cut-off system. Document the make/model and maintenance records for each nozzle (section 14).
For aerial operations in hazardous areas, install or attach a smoke-generating device and ensure it is used to demonstrate air movement immediately before and during the distribution (section 20). Maintain operational and maintenance logs for the smoke device.
Plan for authorised techniques where applicable (sections 18, 21-23)
If intending to avoid permit requirements for ground distribution in hazardous areas, use an authorised technique: stem injection; cut stump treatment, frill ringing or basal bark treatment carried out at least 100m from susceptible crops not on the treated person's client property (section 18).
Verify property boundaries and crop susceptibility before relying on the authorised technique exception.
Check which chemicals and formulations are permitted, prohibited or require a distribution permit in the specific hazardous area:
Hazardous area no. 1: aerial picloram and ester MCPA/2,4-D require permits; ground distribution requires permits unless by authorised technique (section 21).
Hazardous area no. 2: ester 2,4-D is prohibited for aerial or ground distribution; aerial picloram requires a permit; ground picloram requires permit or authorised technique (section 22).
Hazardous area no. 3: aerial ester 2,4-D requires permit; ground ester 2,4-D requires permit or authorised technique (section 23).
Keep precise records of formulations, product labels and batch numbers to show compliance with formulation-specific restrictions.
Apply for distribution permits correctly and early (sections 24-26)
Only aerial distribution contractor licence holders may apply for aerial distribution permits; aerial or ground distribution contractor licence holders may apply for ground distribution permits (section 24(1)-(2)).
Applications must be in the approved form and lodged at least 10 days before the proposed start date (section 24(3)).
Track the three-month decision period: follow up proactively because failure to receive a decision within three months is a deemed refusal (section 25(2)). If granted, expect the permit to be issued within 14 days of the decision (section 26).
Prepare for conditions and review rights (sections 27-29)
Anticipate the chief executive imposing reasonable conditions on distribution permits; ensure operational plans can adapt to probable conditions (section 27).
If issued a conditional permit or refused, be prepared to apply to QCAT for review; preserve records and contemporaneous evidence demonstrating compliance or reasons why the decision was incorrect (sections 27(2), 28, 29).
Keep accurate application and license documentation; avoid false statements (section 30)
Do not provide information or documents known to be false or misleading in material particulars when applying for a licence or permit. If an error is discovered, disclose it to the chief executive and provide corrected information if available, as the statute provides a statutory exception in those circumstances (section 30(1)-(2)).
Maintain copies of all communications with the chief executive and the department, including the precise approved-form applications submitted.
Maintain register and privacy awareness (section 13)
Ensure licensee particulars are current: name, suburb, licence number, type, commencement and expiry dates (section 13(2)). Notify the standards officer promptly of changes in particulars that should appear on the electronic register.
Consider privacy implications of register entries and manage client communications accordingly.
Budget for fees and accreditation charges (section 31, 6(6))
Consult schedule 5 to determine the fees payable under the Act (section 31).
Budget for the possible fee charged by Aerial Application Association of Australia for spraysafe accreditation, which the regulation explicitly permits (section 6(6)).
Recordkeeping and evidence for meteorological decisions (sections 15, 19)
For decisions to proceed or to refrain from distribution on meteorological grounds, keep contemporaneous logs (weather observations, windspeed/direction, use of smoke device, photos/video) to demonstrate the operator’s reasonable assessment and compliance with the “might reasonably be expected” standard (sections 15 and 19).
Liaise with the department on equivalence and boundary questions
If training equivalence or map-boundary ambiguity is material, obtain written confirmation from the chief executive or the department to reduce the risk of later enforcement or refusal.
Following these steps ties specific regulatory duties to concrete operational actions required by the regulation (sections cited above). The regulation’s mix of hardware, training, permit and mapping requirements makes an integrated compliance program,covering training, equipment, spatial checks and administrative processes,the most effective approach for operators and contractors.
sec.6 Qualification for pilot chemical rating licence— Act , s 12
sec.6 Qualification for pilot chemical rating licence— Act , s 12
This section prescribes the qualification for section 12 (2) (c) of the Act .
If a person intends to pilot only a manned aircraft under the licence, the qualification prescribed is a spraysafe accreditation.
If a person intends to pilot a manned aircraft, and use a UAV, under the licence, the qualification prescribed is a spraysafe accreditation.
If a person intends to use only a UAV under the licence, the qualification prescribed is—
a spraysafe accreditation; or
a statement of attainment issued by a registered training organisation stating that the person has successfully completed each of the following units of competency of a VET course—
AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases;
AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or
a record of results issued by a registered training organisation that shows the person has successfully completed each of the units of competency mentioned in paragraph (b) .
This section does not apply in relation to a person mentioned in subsection (2) , (3) or (4) who—
does not hold the qualification prescribed under the subsection; but
has successfully completed training the chief executive reasonably considers is substantially equivalent to the qualification.
Nothing in this section prevents Aerial Application Association of Australia Ltd ACN 002 501 886 charging a reasonable fee, under an express or implied contract or a law, in relation to providing for a person to attain, or attempt to attain, a spraysafe accreditation.
In this section—
spraysafe accreditation means an accreditation issued by Aerial Application Association of Australia Ltd ACN 002 501 886 that—
is designed for aircraft pilots; and
relates to safety in aerial distribution.
(sec.6-ssec.1) This section prescribes the qualification for section 12 (2) (c) of the Act .
(sec.6-ssec.2) If a person intends to pilot only a manned aircraft under the licence, the qualification prescribed is a spraysafe accreditation.
(sec.6-ssec.3) If a person intends to pilot a manned aircraft, and use a UAV, under the licence, the qualification prescribed is a spraysafe accreditation.
(sec.6-ssec.4) If a person intends to use only a UAV under the licence, the qualification prescribed is— a spraysafe accreditation; or a statement of attainment issued by a registered training organisation stating that the person has successfully completed each of the following units of competency of a VET course— AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases; AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or a record of results issued by a registered training organisation that shows the person has successfully completed each of the units of competency mentioned in paragraph (b) .
(sec.6-ssec.5) This section does not apply in relation to a person mentioned in subsection (2) , (3) or (4) who— does not hold the qualification prescribed under the subsection; but has successfully completed training the chief executive reasonably considers is substantially equivalent to the qualification.
(sec.6-ssec.6) Nothing in this section prevents Aerial Application Association of Australia Ltd ACN 002 501 886 charging a reasonable fee, under an express or implied contract or a law, in relation to providing for a person to attain, or attempt to attain, a spraysafe accreditation.
(sec.6-ssec.7) In this section— spraysafe accreditation means an accreditation issued by Aerial Application Association of Australia Ltd ACN 002 501 886 that— is designed for aircraft pilots; and relates to safety in aerial distribution.
(a) a spraysafe accreditation; or
(b) a statement of attainment issued by a registered training organisation stating that the person has successfully completed each of the following units of competency of a VET course— (i) AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases; (ii) AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or
(i) AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases;
(ii) AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or
(c) a record of results issued by a registered training organisation that shows the person has successfully completed each of the units of competency mentioned in paragraph (b) .
(i) AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases;
(ii) AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or
(a) does not hold the qualification prescribed under the subsection; but
(b) has successfully completed training the chief executive reasonably considers is substantially equivalent to the qualification.
(a) is designed for aircraft pilots; and
(b) relates to safety in aerial distribution.
pt.3 Ground distribution
Ground distribution
sec.7 Classes of commercial operator’s licence— Act , s 16
sec.7 Classes of commercial operator’s licence— Act , s 16
For section 16 (1) of the Act , the following classes of a commercial operator’s licence are prescribed—
a commercial operator’s licence, restricted to herbicides or equipment stated in the licence (a restricted commercial operator’s licence );
a commercial operator’s licence, not restricted to herbicides or equipment stated in the licence (an unrestricted commercial operator’s licence ).
(a) a commercial operator’s licence, restricted to herbicides or equipment stated in the licence (a restricted commercial operator’s licence );
(b) a commercial operator’s licence, not restricted to herbicides or equipment stated in the licence (an unrestricted commercial operator’s licence ).
sec.8 Qualification for unrestricted commercial operator’s licence— Act , s 16
sec.8 Qualification for unrestricted commercial operator’s licence— Act , s 16
For section 16 (2) of the Act , the qualification prescribed for an unrestricted commercial operator’s licence is—
a statement of attainment issued by a registered training organisation stating that the person has successfully completed each of the following units of competency of a VET course—
AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases;
AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or
a record of results issued by a registered training organisation that shows the person has successfully completed each of the units of competency mentioned in paragraph (a) .
This section does not apply in relation to a person who—
does not hold the qualification prescribed under subsection (1) ; but
has successfully completed training the chief executive reasonably considers is substantially equivalent to the qualification.
(sec.8-ssec.1) For section 16 (2) of the Act , the qualification prescribed for an unrestricted commercial operator’s licence is— a statement of attainment issued by a registered training organisation stating that the person has successfully completed each of the following units of competency of a VET course— AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases; AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or a record of results issued by a registered training organisation that shows the person has successfully completed each of the units of competency mentioned in paragraph (a) .
(sec.8-ssec.2) This section does not apply in relation to a person who— does not hold the qualification prescribed under subsection (1) ; but has successfully completed training the chief executive reasonably considers is substantially equivalent to the qualification.
(a) a statement of attainment issued by a registered training organisation stating that the person has successfully completed each of the following units of competency of a VET course— (i) AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases; (ii) AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or
(i) AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases;
(ii) AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or
(b) a record of results issued by a registered training organisation that shows the person has successfully completed each of the units of competency mentioned in paragraph (a) .
(i) AHCCHM307—Prepare and apply chemicals to control pest, weeds and diseases;
(ii) AHCCHM304—Transport and store chemicals; or
(a) does not hold the qualification prescribed under subsection (1) ; but
(b) has successfully completed training the chief executive reasonably considers is substantially equivalent to the qualification.
sec.9 Relevant pest management qualification for pest management technician— Act , s 16A
sec.9 Relevant pest management qualification for pest management technician— Act , s 16A
For section 16A (4) of the Act , definition relevant pest management qualification , the qualification prescribed is—
a statement of attainment issued by a registered training organisation stating that a person has successfully completed each of the following units of competency of a VET course—
CPPUPM3005—Manage pests without applying pesticides;
CPPUPM3006—Manage pests by applying pesticides;
CPPUPM3018—Maintain equipment and pesticide storage area in pest management vehicles; or
the successful completion of training the chief executive reasonably considers is substantially equivalent to a statement of attainment mentioned in paragraph (a) .
(a) a statement of attainment issued by a registered training organisation stating that a person has successfully completed each of the following units of competency of a VET course— (i) CPPUPM3005—Manage pests without applying pesticides; (ii) CPPUPM3006—Manage pests by applying pesticides; (iii) CPPUPM3018—Maintain equipment and pesticide storage area in pest management vehicles; or
(i) CPPUPM3005—Manage pests without applying pesticides;
(ii) CPPUPM3006—Manage pests by applying pesticides;
(iii) CPPUPM3018—Maintain equipment and pesticide storage area in pest management vehicles; or
(b) the successful completion of training the chief executive reasonably considers is substantially equivalent to a statement of attainment mentioned in paragraph (a) .
(i) CPPUPM3005—Manage pests without applying pesticides;
(ii) CPPUPM3006—Manage pests by applying pesticides;
(iii) CPPUPM3018—Maintain equipment and pesticide storage area in pest management vehicles; or
pt.4 Regulation of licensing
Regulation of licensing
sec.10 Form of licence
sec.10 Form of licence
A licence must be in the approved form.
sec.11 Information notice for decision of standards officer to suspend licence— Act , s 20
sec.11 Information notice for decision of standards officer to suspend licence— Act , s 20
This section applies if the standards officer decides, under section 20 of the Act , to suspend a licence.
The standards officer must, as soon as practical after the decision is made, give the holder of the licence an information notice for the decision.
(sec.11-ssec.1) This section applies if the standards officer decides, under section 20 of the Act , to suspend a licence.
(sec.11-ssec.2) The standards officer must, as soon as practical after the decision is made, give the holder of the licence an information notice for the decision.
sec.12 Right of review
sec.12 Right of review
This section applies if the holder of a licence must be given an information notice under section 11 for a decision of the standards officer to suspend the licence.
The holder may apply to QCAT, as provided under the QCAT Act, for a review of the decision.
(sec.12-ssec.1) This section applies if the holder of a licence must be given an information notice under section 11 for a decision of the standards officer to suspend the licence.
(sec.12-ssec.2) The holder may apply to QCAT, as provided under the QCAT Act, for a review of the decision.
sec.13 Register— Act , s 24
sec.13 Register— Act , s 24
For section 24 (1) of the Act , the manner prescribed is in electronic form.
For section 24 (1) of the Act , the following particulars are prescribed for each licensee—
the licensee’s name;
the licensee’s suburb;
the number of the licence;
the type of licence;
the date the licence commences;
the date the licence expires.
The standards officer may also enter other particulars in the register that the standards officer thinks are appropriate.
(sec.13-ssec.1) For section 24 (1) of the Act , the manner prescribed is in electronic form.
(sec.13-ssec.2) For section 24 (1) of the Act , the following particulars are prescribed for each licensee— the licensee’s name; the licensee’s suburb; the number of the licence; the type of licence; the date the licence commences; the date the licence expires.
(sec.13-ssec.3) The standards officer may also enter other particulars in the register that the standards officer thinks are appropriate.
(a) the licensee’s name;
(b) the licensee’s suburb;
(c) the number of the licence;
(d) the type of licence;
(e) the date the licence commences;
(f) the date the licence expires.
pt.5 Regulation of distribution
Regulation of distribution
pt.5-div.1 General
General
sec.14 Particular requirements for aerial distribution
sec.14 Particular requirements for aerial distributi
This is an opening excerpt, not the complete document.