Road Safety (General) Regulations 2019

Part 1—Preliminary

1 Objectives

The objectives of these Regulations are—

(a) to prescribe devices, systems and procedures for obtaining evidence in relation to—

(i) the presence of alcohol or any other drug in samples of blood, breath or urine; and

(ii) the speed of vehicles; and

(iii) the mass of vehicles; and

(iv) other traffic offences; and

(b) to specify engine management system reading devices and procedures; and

(c) to prescribe the matters to be included in parking infringement notices and traffic infringement notices; and

(d) to prescribe the penalties for parking infringements and traffic infringements; and

(e) to provide for the application of provisions of the Act and regulations to land of public authorities; and

(f) to provide for evidentiary matters relating to impounded or immobilised vehicles; and

Reg. 1(g) amended by S.R. No. 172/2019 reg. 6(Sch. 3 item 1).

(g) to provide that certain fees received by the Secretary are to be paid by the Secretary into the Roads Fund established under section 39B of the Transport Integration Act 2010; and

(h) to prescribe other matters authorised under the Road Safety Act 1986.

2 Authorising provision

These Regulations are made under section 95 of the Road Safety Act 1986.

3 Commencement

These Regulations come into operation on 27 September 2019.

4 Revocations

The Regulations listed in Schedule 1 are revoked.

5 Definitions

In these Regulations—

Reg. 5 def. of camera detected no-truck zone offence inserted by S.R. No. 28/2025 reg. 5(a).

camera detected no-truck zone offence means an offence against section 65BA(1) of the Act detected by a prescribed no-truck zone camera;

checksum means a number produced by the application of an algorithm to the contents of that part of a digital file that does not include the checksum;

Reg. 5 def. of data processing unit inserted by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 6(1).

data processing unit means a computer that temporarily stores images taken by a relocatable digital RSC;

digital file means a file in a digital format, or electronic copy of such a file, which is created and encrypted by—

(a) a road safety camera; or

(b) a digital camera that records date, time and location; or

(c) the process prescribed in regulation 33—

which contains the checksum for that file;

digitector means the device known by that name which determines the speed at which a motor vehicle travels between 2 vehicle detectors on a road;

fixed analogue RSC means the road safety camera system specified in regulation 32(a);

Reg. 5 def. of fixed digital RSC amended by S.R. Nos 47/2022 reg. 3, 36/2025 reg. 3.

fixed digital RSC means a road safety camera system specified in regulation 32(b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (h), (i), (j), (l), (n) or (p);

Reg. 5 def. of inbuilt device inserted by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 6(1).

inbuilt device has the same meaning as in rule 304A of the Road Safety Road Rules 2017;

infringement penalty has the same meaning as it has in the Infringements Act 2006;

laser device means a laser device specified in regulation 41;

mobile digital RSC means a road safety camera system specified in regulation 32(g), (k) or (m);

Reg. 5 def. of motor bike helmet device inserted by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 6(1).

motor bike helmet device has the same meaning as in rule 304A of the Road Safety Road Rules 2017;

Reg. 5 def. of mounted device inserted by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 6(1).

mounted device has the same meaning as in rule 304A of the Road Safety Road Rules 2017;

Reg. 5 def. of NTZ camera inserted by S.R. No. 28/2025 reg. 5(a).

NTZ camera means the no-truck zone camera system specified in regulation 40E;

Reg. 5 def. of portable device inserted by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 6(1).

portable device has the same meaning as in rule 304A of the Road Safety Road Rules 2017;

radar device means a radar device specified in regulation 41;

Reg. 5 def. of relocatable digital RSC inserted by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 6(1).

relocatable digital RSC means the road safety camera system specified in regulation 32(o);

Reg. 5 def. of senior police officer inserted by S.R. No. 106/2022 reg. 5.

senior police officer means a police officer who is of or above the rank of sergeant, as referred to in section 13(j) of the Victoria Police Act 2013;

speed calculation unit means the part or parts of a road safety camera that determine the speed of a vehicle;

testing officer means—

(a) a technical officer or the head of a faculty, school or department of electrical engineering, communications engineering or electronics engineering at a post-secondary education provider within the meaning of the Education and Training Reform Act 2006; or

(b) a person authorised in writing by the Chief Commissioner of Police or the Secretary to the Department of Justice and Community Safety; or

(c) a testing officer of a facility accredited in the testing and calibration of speed detectors or road safety cameras by the National Association of Testing Authorities, Australia (NATA);

the Act means the Road Safety Act 1986;

Reg. 5 def. of vehicle detector amended by S.R. Nos 172/2019 reg. 6(Sch. 3 item 2(a)), 8/2023 reg. 6(2), 28/2025 reg. 5(b).

vehicle detector means a part of a road safety camera or no-truck zone camera that detects the presence of a vehicle;

Reg. 5 def. of VicRoads revoked by S.R. No. 172/2019 reg. 6(Sch. 3 item 2(b)).

Reg. 5 def. of wearable device inserted by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 6(1).

wearable device has the same meaning as in rule 304A of the Road Safety Road Rules 2017.

6 Certificates under section 78A

For the purposes of section 78A of the Act, the prescribed form of a certificate is the form set out in Schedule 2.

7 Certificates under section 83A

For the purposes of section 83A(1) of the Act the prescribed information is the following—

(a) a statement that the certificate is issued by an authorised person under section 83A of the Act;

(b) in the case of a certificate certifying that a printed image or message was produced by a prescribed process, a statement that the certificate is issued by the person who caused or required that image or message to be printed;

(c) a statement that the certificate certifies that, to the best of the knowledge and belief of the person issuing the certificate, the matters set out in the certificate are true and correct.

Reg. 7A inserted by S.R. No. 28/2025 reg. 6.

7A Certificates under section 83B

For the purposes of section 83B(1) of the Act, the prescribed information is the following—

(a) a statement that the certificate is issued by an authorised person under section 83B of the Act;

(b) in the case of a certificate certifying that a printed image or message was produced by a prescribed process, a statement that the certificate is issued by the person who caused or required that image or message to be printed;

(c) a statement that the certificate certifies that, to the best of the knowledge and belief of the person issuing the certificate, the matters set out in the certificate are true and correct.

8 Certificates under section 84

For the purposes of section 84(1), (3) or (4A) of the Act, the prescribed particulars are the following—

(a) the expression "Road Safety Act 1986";

(b) the expression "Certificate under section 84(1)", "Certificate under section 84(3)" or "Certificate under section 84(4A)" (as the case requires);

(c) the name and official title of the person issuing the certificate;

(d) in the case of a certificate issued by an authorised person, a statement to that effect;

(e) the date on which the certificate is issued.

Pt 2 (Heading) renumbered as Pt 1A (Heading) by S.R. No. 19/2022 reg. 18, substituted by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 7, amended by S.R. No. 28/2025 reg. 7.

Part 1A—Notices

Reg. 9 substituted by S.R. No. 123/2020 reg. 7.

9 Notice of suspension

For the purposes of section 85L(1)(c) of the Act, the prescribed particulars are the following—

(a) the name and address of the person to whom the notice is issued;

(b) a statement of the alleged offence;

(c) in the case of an alleged offence under section 49(1)(b), (bc), (f), (g) or (j) of the Act, the alleged concentration of alcohol present in the blood or breath (as the case requires) of the person;

(d) in the case of an alleged offence that is a relevant speeding offence within the meaning of section 85F(2) of the Act—

(i) the alleged speed at which the motor vehicle was driven; and

(ii) the applicable speed limit;

(e) in the case of an alleged offence that is a relevant offence within the meaning of section 85I(4) of the Act—

Reg. 9(e)(i) amended by S.R. No. 106/2022 reg. 6(1).

Reg. 9(e)(ii)(A) substituted by S.R. No. 106/2022 reg. 6(2).

(A) the commission of the relevant offence by the person to whom the notice is issued resulted in injury or death; and

(B) the person to whom the notice is issued is an unacceptable risk to road safety until the charge for the alleged offence is determined;

Reg. 9(ea) inserted by S.R. No. 106/2022 reg. 6(3).

(ea) in the case of an alleged offence under section 61(1)(a) or (b) of the Act—

(A) another person has died or suffered serious injury from the accident that occurred; and

(B) the person to whom the notice is issued is an unacceptable risk to road safety until the charge is determined;

Reg. 9(eb) inserted by S.R. No. 106/2022 reg. 6(3).

(eb) in the case of an alleged offence under section 317AC, 317AD, 317AE, 317AF or 319AA(1) of the Crimes Act 1958—

(ii) a statement indicating that the senior police officer is reasonably satisfied that the person to whom the notice is issued is an unacceptable risk to road safety until the charge is determined;

(f) whether the person to whom the notice is issued holds a full driver licence, a learner permit or a probationary driver licence;

(g) a statement advising that the person to whom the notice is issued may appeal to the Magistrates' Court under section 85S of the Act against the decision to suspend the driver licence or learner permit;

(h) the name and signature of the person who issued the notice;

(i) the date the notice was issued to the person.

Reg. 9A inserted by S.R. No. 19/2022 reg. 19.

9A Notice of disqualification

For the purposes of section 85ZK(1)(b) of the Act, the prescribed particulars are the following—

(a) the name and address of the person to whom the notice is issued;

(b) a statement of the alleged offence;

(c) in the case of an alleged offence under section 49(1)(b), (bc), (f), (g) or (j) of the Act, the alleged concentration of alcohol present in the blood or breath (as the case requires) of the person;

(d) in the case of an alleged offence that is a relevant speeding offence within the meaning of section 85ZE(3) of the Act—

(i) the alleged speed at which the motor vehicle was driven; and

(ii) the applicable speed limit;

(e) in the case of an alleged offence that is a relevant offence within the meaning of section 85ZH(4) of the Act—

Reg. 9A(e)(i) amended by S.R. No. 106/2022 reg. 7(1).

Reg. 9A
(e)(ii)(A) substituted by S.R. No. 106/2022 reg. 7(2).

(A) the commission of the relevant offence by the person to whom the notice is issued resulted in injury or death; and

(B) the person to whom the notice is issued is an unacceptable risk to road safety until the charge for the alleged offence is determined;

Reg. 9A(ea) inserted by S.R. No. 106/2022 reg. 7(3).

(ea) in the case of an alleged offence under section 61(1)(a) or (b) of the Act—

(A) another person has died or suffered serious injury from the accident that occurred; and

(B) the person to whom the notice is issued is an unacceptable risk to road safety until the charge is determined;

Reg. 9A(eb) inserted by S.R. No. 106/2022 reg. 7(3).

(eb) in the case of an alleged offence under section 317AC, 317AD, 317AE, 317AF or 319AA(1) of the Crimes Act 1958—

(ii) a statement indicating that the senior police officer is reasonably satisfied that the person to whom the notice is issued is an unacceptable risk to road safety until the charge is determined;

(f) whether the person to whom the notice is issued holds a non-Victorian licence or permit;

(g) a statement advising that the person to whom the notice is issued may appeal to the Magistrates' Court under section 85ZQ of the Act against the decision to disqualify the person from obtaining a driver licence or learner permit;

(h) the name and signature of the person who issued the notice;

(i) the date the notice was issued to the person.

Reg. 9B inserted by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 8.

9B Notice of intention to raise a seatbelt exemption

For the purposes of section 84AB(2) of the Act, the following matters are prescribed—

(a) the accused's name, date of birth and address;

(b) the number of the accused's driver licence or learner permit;

(c) the number of the traffic infringement notice issued in respect of the camera detected seatbelt offence;

(d) the reason for raising the matter relating to the exemption;

(e) any other evidence that supports the matter relating to the exemption.

Reg. 9C inserted by S.R. No. 28/2025 reg. 8.

9C Notice of intention to raise a matter relating to an exception to a camera detected no-truck zone offence

For the purposes of section 84AC(2) of the Act, the following matters are prescribed—

(a) if the accused is an individual—

(i) the individual's name, date of birth and home address; and

(ii) the number of the individual's driver licence;

(b) if the accused is a body corporate—

(i) its name and home address; and

(ii) its Australian Company Number or Australian Registered Body Number (if applicable);

(c) the number of any traffic infringement notice issued in respect of the camera detected no-truck zone offence;

(d) the reason for raising the matter relating to the exception;

(e) any other evidence that supports the matter relating to the exception.

New Pt 2 (Heading) inserted by S.R. No. 19/2022 reg. 20.

Part 2—Evidence relating to alcohol and drug offences

10 Preliminary breath testing devices

For the purposes of section 53(1) and (2) of the Act, the prescribed devices are the breath testing devices known as—

(a) the lion alcolmeter SD-400 Touch; and

Reg. 10(b) substituted by S.R. No. 36/2025 reg. 4.

(b) the Dräger Alcotest 7000, also known as the Draeger Alcotest 7000; and

(c) the lion alcolmeter SD-400PA; and

(d) the Alcolizer LE.

11 Procedure for breath analysis

It is a requirement for the proper operation of a breath analysing instrument that a person authorised under section 55(3) of the Act to operate a breath analysing instrument—

(a) does not require a person to provide a breath sample for analysis until the authorised person is satisfied that the person has not consumed any alcohol for a period of at least 15 minutes before the analysis; and

(b) provides a fresh mouthpiece for use by each person required to provide a breath sample; and

(c) uses only a mouthpiece which, until required for taking a breath sample, has been kept in a sealed container.

12 Certificate under section 55(4)

For the purposes of section 55(4) of the Act, the prescribed particulars are the following—

(a) the serial number of the breath analysing instrument;

(b) the sample number;

(c) the location of the test;

(d) the name and date of birth of the person whose breath is analysed;

(e) the surname of the operator;

(f) the results of the self-tests conducted using the breath analysing instrument before and after the person's breath is analysed;

(g) the results of zero tests conducted using the breath analysing instrument before and after the person's breath is analysed;

(h) the date and time the person's breath was analysed.

13 Procedures for taking blood samples

If a blood sample is taken by a registered medical practitioner or an approved health professional for the purposes of the Act, the site of the puncture must be cleansed with a swab taken from a container that—

(a) appears to be sealed against contamination; and

(b) does not contain ethanol.

14 Procedures after taking blood samples

(1) A registered medical practitioner or an approved health professional who takes a blood sample must ensure that—

(a) the sample of blood is placed in 2 dry containers, each containing approximately the same amount of blood; and

(b) each container is vacuum sealed or sealed with a septum seal; and

(c) each container in which the sample is placed bears a label stating—

(i) the specific anticoagulant and the specific preservative that the container holds; and

(ii) the name of the chemist, laboratory or pharmaceutical organisation that prepared it; and

(d) each container has attached to it a label bearing the signature of the registered medical practitioner or approved health professional, the date and the time the sample was taken, and the name of the person from whom the sample was taken or, if the name of the person is not known, sufficient information to enable the sample to be identified with the person from whom it was taken.

(2) If a blood sample is taken under section 55, 55B, 55BA or 55E of the Act, the registered medical practitioner or approved health professional must give the sample containers to a police officer.

(3) If a blood sample is taken under section 56 of the Act, the registered medical practitioner or approved health professional must ensure that—

(a) both sample containers are placed and sealed in one plastic sample bag; and

(b) that plastic sample bag is placed in a locked receptacle provided for that purpose at the place where the sample was taken.

15 Oral fluid testing devices

(1) For the purposes of section 55D of the Act, the prescribed device is the oral fluid testing device known as the SECURETEC DRUGWIPE TWIN or the SECURETEC DRUGWIPE II TWIN.

(2) For the purposes of section 55E of the Act, the prescribed device is the oral fluid testing device known as the SECURETEC DRUGWIPE II TWIN COMBO.

16 Procedure for carrying out preliminary oral fluid test

For the purposes of section 55D of the Act, the prescribed procedure for carrying out a preliminary oral fluid test is that the police officer or person authorised under section 55D(2) of the Act who conducts the test—

(a) provides a fresh oral fluid collection unit for use by a person required to provide a preliminary oral fluid sample; and

(b) uses only an oral fluid collection unit that, until required for taking the oral fluid sample, has been kept in a sealed container; and

(c) tests the oral fluid sample by using the device, or the oral fluid testing unit that is part of the device, that was used to obtain the sample.

17 Procedure for taking oral fluid samples under section 55E

For the purposes of section 55E(4) of the Act, the prescribed procedure is—

(a) providing a fresh oral fluid collection unit for use by each person required to provide an oral fluid sample; and

(b) using only an oral fluid collection unit that, until required for taking an oral fluid sample, has been kept in a sealed container.

18 Procedure after taking oral fluid samples

An authorised officer who takes a sample of oral fluid under section 55E of the Act must ensure that the sample or, if the sample is broken into parts, each part has attached to it a label bearing—

(a) the name and signature of the authorised officer who took the oral fluid sample; and

(b) the date and time the sample was taken; and

(c) the name of the person from whom the sample was taken or, if the name of the person is not known, sufficient information to enable the sample to be identified with the person from whom it was taken.

19 Certificate under section 57(3)

For the purposes of section 57(3) of the Act, the prescribed particulars are the following—

(a) a statement by the registered medical practitioner or approved health professional that the requirements of these Regulations for the taking of blood samples have been complied with;

(b) the name of the person from whom the blood sample was taken;

(c) the time and date the blood sample was taken;

(d) the name and signature of the registered medical practitioner or approved health professional who took the blood sample.

20 Certificate under section 57(4)

For the purposes of section 57(4) of the Act, the prescribed particulars are the following—

(a) a statement by the approved analyst that the person is an approved analyst within the meaning of section 57 of the Act;

(c) the name and signature of the approved analyst;

(d) the date on which the analysis was conducted;

(e) the information set out in the identification label referred to in regulation 14(1)(d).

21 Certificate under section 57(4A)

For the purposes of section 57(4A) of the Act, the prescribed particulars are the following—

(a) a statement by the approved analyst that the person is an approved analyst within the meaning of section 57 of the Act;

(c) a statement that a substance that is, or is capable of being, a drug for the purposes of the Act was present in the sample of blood analysed;

(d) the name of the substance found to be present in the sample of blood analysed;

(e) the name and signature of the approved analyst;

(f) the date on which the analysis was conducted;

(g) the information set out in the identification label referred to in regulation 14(1)(d).

22 Certificate under section 57(4B)

For the purposes of section 57(4B) of the Act, the prescribed particulars are the following—

(a) a statement by the approved expert that the person is an approved expert within the meaning of section 57 of the Act;

(b) a statement as to the usual effect of a specified substance or substances on behaviour when consumed or used (including its effect on a person's ability to drive properly);

(c) the name and signature of the approved expert.

23 Certificate under section 57B(3)

For the purposes of section 57B(3) of the Act, the prescribed particulars are the following—

(a) a statement by the person who carried out the oral fluid test that the person is an authorised officer within the meaning of section 55E of the Act;

(b) a statement as to whether the requirements of these Regulations for the taking and testing of oral fluid samples have been complied with;

(c) a statement as to whether the result of the oral fluid tested indicated the oral fluid sample provided by the person contained a prescribed illicit drug;

(d) the name of the person from whom the oral fluid sample was taken;

(e) the time and date the oral fluid sample was taken;

(f) the name and signature of the authorised officer who took the oral fluid sample.

24 Certificate under section 57B(4)

For the purposes of section 57B(4) of the Act, the prescribed particulars are the following—

(a) a statement by the approved analyst that the person is an approved analyst within the meaning of section 57B of the Act;

(c) the name and signature of the approved analyst;

(d) the date on which the analysis was conducted;

(e) a description of the contents of the identification label referred to in regulation 18.

25 Particulars of report of assessment of drug impairment

For the purposes of section 55B(5) of the Act, the prescribed particulars are the following—

(a) particulars of the identity of the person on whom the assessment was carried out, including, if stated by the person, the person's name, address, date of birth and gender;

(b) the date and time at which the person underwent the assessment;

(c) the place at which the person underwent the assessment;

(d) the time (if any) reported to the police officer carrying out the assessment as the latest time the person drove, was in charge of or was an occupant of a motor vehicle;

(e) whether the person underwent a preliminary breath test in accordance with section 53 of the Act or furnished a sample of breath for analysis by a breath analysing instrument under section 55 of the Act and, if so, the result of the test or analysis, if known;

(f) the record of interview of the person carried out by the police officer carrying out the assessment;

(g) particulars of any medical treatment sought by or for the person;

(h) any statements made by the person concerning a drug or drugs;

(i) any observations made by the police officer carrying out the assessment of the person in relation to the following—

(i) any apparent injury or illness of the person;

(ii) whether the person smelt of intoxicating liquor;

(iii) the person's speech;

(iv) the person's eyes;

(v) the person's breathing;

(vi) the person's skin;

(vii) the person's movement;

(viii) the person's balance;

(ix) the state of the person's clothing;

(x) the person's actions;

(xi) the person's demeanour;

(xii) any physical signs of drug use by the person;

(xiii) the person's ability to comprehend instructions;

(xiv) the person's ability to divide attention;

(xv) whether the person, during the assessment, exhibited signs that indicated that the person was impaired by a drug or drugs;

(j) whether the assessment, in the opinion of the police officer carrying it out, indicates that the person may be impaired by a drug or drugs;

(k) the name, rank, station and signature of the police officer carrying out the assessment.

26 Procedures for collecting urine samples

A registered medical practitioner or an approved health professional who collects a urine sample for the purposes of the Act must ensure that the sample is collected in a container that is clean and dry and which has not previously been used.

27 Procedures after collecting urine samples

A registered medical practitioner or an approved health professional who collects a urine sample must ensure that

(a) the urine sample is placed in 2 dry containers, each containing approximately the same amount of urine; and

(b) each container is fitted with a tamper-proof locking seal; and

(c) each container has attached to it a label bearing—

(i) the signature of the registered medical practitioner or approved health professional who collected the urine sample; and

(ii) the date and the time the sample was collected; and

(iii) the name of the person from whom the sample was collected or, if the name of the person is not known, sufficient information to enable the sample to be identified with the person from whom it was collected.

28 Certificate under section 57A(3)

For the purposes of section 57A(3) of the Act, the prescribed particulars are the following—

(a) a statement by the registered medical practitioner or approved health professional as to whether the requirements of the Act and these Regulations for the collection of urine samples by the registered medical practitioner or approved health professional (as the case requires) have been complied with;

(b) the name of the person from whom the urine sample was collected or, if the name of the person is not known, sufficient information to enable the sample to be identified with the person from whom it was collected;

(c) the time and date the urine sample was collected;

(d) the name and signature of the registered medical practitioner or approved health professional who collected the urine sample.

29 Certificate under section 57A(4)

For the purposes of section 57A(4) of the Act, the prescribed particulars are the following—

(a) a statement by the approved analyst that the person is an approved analyst within the meaning of section 57A(1) of the Act;

(c) a statement that a substance that is, or is capable of being, a drug for the purposes of the Act was present in the urine sample analysed;

(d) the name of the substance found to be present in the urine sample analysed;

(e) the concentration of the substance found to be present in the urine sample analysed;

(f) the name and signature of the approved analyst;

(g) the date on which the analysis was conducted;

(h) the information set out in the identification label referred to in regulation 27(c) attached to the container in which the urine sample is placed.

30 Certificate under section 57A(5)

For the purposes of section 57A(5) of the Act, the prescribed particulars are the following—

(a) a statement by the approved expert that the person is an approved expert within the meaning of section 57A of the Act;

(b) a statement as to the usual effect of a specified substance or substances on behaviour when consumed or used in that concentration (including its effect on a person's ability to drive properly);

(c) the name and signature of the approved expert.

Part 3—Evidence relating to speeding and other offences

Division 1—Road safety cameras and prescribed processes

31 Offences detected by road safety cameras or prescribed processes—operator onus offences

For the purposes of section 66 of the Act, a prescribed offence is—

(a) an offence against the Act or the Road Safety Road Rules 2017[1] which involves a driver exceeding the applicable speed limit; and

(b) an offence against the Act or the Road Safety Road Rules 2017 which involves a driver disobeying a traffic signal, including where the vehicle enters a level crossing; and

(c) an offence against the Act or the Road Safety Road Rules 2017 which involves driving in a lane when not permitted to do so; and

Reg. 31(d) amended by S.R. Nos 105/2020 reg. 85, 121/2021 reg. 7, 8/2023 reg. 9(a).

(d) an offence against the Act or the Road Safety (Vehicles) Regulations 2021[2] which involves the use of a motor vehicle or trailer that is not registered; and

Reg. 31(e) inserted by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 9(b).

(e) an offence against the Road Safety Road Rules 2017 which involves a driver failing to wear a seatbelt; and

Reg. 31(f) inserted by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 9(b).

(f) an offence against the Road Safety Road Rules 2017 which involves a driver failing to ensure a passenger wears a seatbelt; and

Reg. 31(g) inserted by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 9(b).

(g) an offence against the Road Safety Road Rules 2017 which involves a driver touching a portable device when not permitted to do so; and

Reg. 31(h) inserted by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 9(b).

(h) an offence against the Road Safety Road Rules 2017 which involves a driver resting a portable device on the driver's body, on an item in the driver's lap, or on clothes worn by the driver.

32 Prescribed road safety cameras

For the purposes of the definition of prescribed road safety camera in section 3(1) of the Act, the following are prescribed—

(a) the camera system known as the Gatso Meter R.L.C.;

(b) the camera system known as the DCD ROBOT Digital Smart Camera;

(c) the camera system known as the REDFLEXred-speed system;

(d) the camera system known as the REDFLEXred-speed HDX system;

(e) the camera system known as the ROBOT TRAFFIPAX TraffiStar SR520;

(f) the camera system known as the Gatsometer Digital Radar Camera System—Parabolic (DRCS-P);

(g) the camera system known as the Gatsometer Radar24-GS11;

(h) the camera system known as the Gatsometer GTC-GS11;

(i) the camera system known as the REDFLEX red-speed HDX Optical system;

(j) the camera system known as the PoliScan Speed;

(k) the camera system known as the PoliScan Speed Mobile;

(l) the camera system known as the Gatso T‑Series;

Reg. 32(m) amended by S.R. No. 47/2022 reg. 4(a).

(m) the camera system known as the Gatso T‑Series Mobile;

Reg. 32(n) inserted by S.R. No. 47/2022 reg. 4(b), amended by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 10(a).

(n) the camera system known as the Redflex Halo;

Reg. 32(o) inserted by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 10(b), amended by S.R. No. 36/2025 reg. 5(a).

(o) the camera system known as the Jenoptik-One Task MobiCam DDS;

Reg. 32(p) inserted by S.R. No. 36/2025 reg. 5(b).

(p) the camera system known as the IDEMIA MESTAcompact.

33 Prescribed process for the calculation of average speed

For the purposes of section 66 of the Act, the prescribed process is the following—

(a) a computer receives digital files from 2 or more road safety cameras and each digital file contains—

(i) an image of the same motor vehicle; and

(ii) data indicating the date on which, and the time and place at which, the image was captured by the road safety camera; and

(iii) data indicating the speed limit at the time and place where the image was captured;

(b) using the data in paragraph (a), the computer calculates the average speed of the motor vehicle in accordance with section 78(2) of the Act;

(c) the computer creates a digital file containing the matters referred to in paragraphs (a) and (b).

Division 2—Fixed analogue road safety cameras

34 Use of fixed analogue RSC

For the purposes of sections 80, 80A and 84(7) of the Act, the prescribed manner of use of a fixed analogue RSC is that the person placing or removing the fixed analogue RSC or loading or unloading the film magazine into or from the fixed analogue RSC—

(a) checks the time, date and location code in the display of the fixed analogue RSC and makes any corrections that may be necessary to ensure that the correct data is displayed on the photograph printed from the reversal or negative film produced by the fixed analogue RSC; and

(b) checks the vehicle detector system to ensure that it is correctly monitoring the movement of vehicles at the location in the relevant direction of travel; and

(c) tests the fixed analogue RSC to ensure the correct activation of the fixed analogue RSC by vehicles passing over the detectors; and

(d) ensures that when the fixed analogue RSC is installed and left unattended it is kept in a locked housing.

Division 3—Fixed digital road safety cameras

35 Testing of fixed digital RSC

For the purposes of sections 81, 83A(1) and 84(7) of the Act, the prescribed manner of testing a fixed digital RSC is that a testing officer who tests the speed calculation unit of the fixed digital RSC—

(a) is satisfied that the speed calculation unit is in a satisfactory operating condition and, in particular, that any maintenance carried out on the speed calculation unit has been carried out in a satisfactory manner; and

(b) is satisfied that the speed calculation unit is properly calibrated so that it indicates speed readings within a limit of error not greater than or less than 2 kilometres per hour or 2 per cent (whichever is greater) of the true speeds.

36 Sealing of fixed digital RSC

For the purposes of sections 81, 83A(1) and 84(7) of the Act, the prescribed manner of sealing a fixed digital RSC is that the speed calculation unit of the fixed digital RSC is sealed—

(a) by the testing officer who carried out the test under regulation 35; and

(b) with a seal that effectively prevents interference with the time measuring or speed computing components of the speed calculation unit without breaking the seal.

37 Use of fixed digital RSC

For the purposes of sections 80, 80A, 81, 83A(1) and 84(7) of the Act, the prescribed manner of use of a fixed digital RSC is that—

(a) the speed calculation unit (if any) has been tested in accordance with regulation 35 within 12 months before the occasion of its use; and

(b) the vehicle detectors have been placed in position as specified by a manufacturer of fixed digital RSCs or by a person who distributes or maintains them; and

(c) the speed calculation unit (if any) has been sealed in accordance with regulation 36; and

(d) a person placing or removing the speed calculation unit or the fixed digital RSC or switching on or resetting the fixed digital RSC after it has been inoperable for any reason—

(i) checks the time, date and location code and makes any corrections that may be necessary to ensure that the correct data is recorded in the digital file; and

(ii) checks that the vehicle detectors are correctly responding to the movement of vehicles at the location; and

(iii) ensures that, when the speed calculation unit (if any) and the fixed digital RSC are installed and left unattended, they are kept in one or more locked housings.

Division 4—Mobile digital road safety cameras

38 Testing of mobile digital RSC

For the purposes of sections 81, 83A(1) and 84(7) of the Act, the prescribed manner of testing a mobile digital RSC is that a testing officer who tests the speed calculation unit of the mobile digital RSC—

(a) is satisfied that the speed calculation unit is in a satisfactory operating condition and, in particular, that any maintenance carried out on the speed calculation unit has been carried out in a satisfactory manner; and

(b) is satisfied that the speed calculation unit is properly calibrated so that it indicates speed readings within a limit of error not greater than or less than 3 kilometres per hour or 3 per cent (whichever is greater) of the true speeds.

39 Sealing of mobile digital RSC

For the purposes of sections 81, 83A(1) and 84(7) of the Act, the prescribed manner of sealing a mobile digital RSC is that the speed calculation unit is sealed—

(a) by the testing officer who carried out the test under regulation 38; and

(b) with a seal that effectively prevents interference with the time measuring or speed computing components of the speed calculation unit without breaking the seal.

40 Use of mobile digital RSC

For the purposes of sections 80, 80A, 81, 83A(1) and 84(7) of the Act, the prescribed manner of use of a mobile digital RSC is that—

(a) the mobile digital RSC is used in accordance with operating instructions approved by a testing officer; and

(b) the speed calculation unit has been tested in accordance with regulation 38 within 12 months before the occasion of its use; and

(c) the speed calculation unit has been sealed in accordance with regulation 39 at the time that it was last tested.

Pt 3 Div. 4A (Heading and regs 40A–40D) inserted by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 11.

Division 4A—Relocatable digital RSCs

Regs 40AA, 40AAB inserted by S.R. No. 67/2023 reg. 12, revoked by S.R. No. 60/2024 reg. 14.

Reg. 40A inserted by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 11.

40A Use of relocatable digital RSC

For the purposes of sections 80(1), 80A, 80B(2), 80C(2), 80D(2), 83A(1)(a) and 84(7) of the Act, the prescribed manner of use of a relocatable digital RSC is that—

(a) the relocatable digital RSC is used in accordance with operating instructions approved by a testing officer; and

(b) a person placing or removing the relocatable digital RSC—

Reg. 40A(b)(i) amended by S.R. No. 67/2023 reg. 13(a).

(i) checks that the vehicle detector has been placed in position as specified by a manufacturer of relocatable digital RSCs or by a person who distributes or maintains them; and

(ii) ensures that when the relocatable digital RSC is installed and left unattended, the data processing unit is kept in one or more locked housings; and

(c) a person placing or removing the relocatable digital RSC or switching on or resetting the relocatable digital RSC after it has been inoperable for any reason—

(i) checks the time, date and location code and makes any corrections that may be necessary to ensure that the correct data is recorded in the digital file; and

Reg. 40A(c)(ii) amended by S.R. No. 67/2023 reg. 13(b).

(ii) checks that the vehicle detector is correctly responding to the movement of vehicles at the location in the relevant direction of travel.

Reg. 40B inserted by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 11.

40B Destruction of image or message produced by relocatable digital RSC

(1) Subject to regulation 40C(1), an image of, or message relating to, a natural person produced by a relocatable digital RSC that does not detect an offence specified in subregulation (4) must be destroyed within 24 hours of the image or message being produced by the relocatable digital RSC.

(2) Subject to regulation 40C(1), an image of, or message relating to, a natural person produced by a relocatable digital RSC must be destroyed within the time period specified in subregulation (3) if the image or message—

Reg. 40B(2)(a) amended by S.R. No. 67/2023 reg. 14(1).

(a) is initially assessed as having detected an offence specified in subregulation (4); and

(b) it is subsequently established that the image or message does not detect an offence specified in subregulation (4).

Reg. 40B(2A) inserted by S.R. No. 67/2023 reg. 14(2).

(2A) Subregulation (2) does not apply if an infringement notice has been issued or court proceedings have been commenced for an offence specified in subregulation (4) relating to the image or message.

(3) For the purposes of subregulation (2), the specified time period by which an image or message must be destroyed is (whichever is the earlier)—

(a) within 30 days of the date on which it is established in accordance with subregulation (2)(b) that the image or message does not detect an offence specified in subregulation (4); or

(b) within 12 months of the image or message being produced by the relocatable digital RSC.

(4) For the purposes of subregulations (1) and (2), the following offences are specified—

(a) a seatbelt offence referred to in rule 264(1) and 264A(1) of the Road Safety Road Rules 2017;

(b) a portable device offence referred to in rules 304J(1) and (3) of the Road Safety Road Rules 2017.

Reg. 40C inserted by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 11.

40C Storage of image or message produced by relocatable digital RSC

(1) An image or message referred to in regulation 40B(1) and (2) may be stored for a period not exceeding 6 months for the following purposes—

(a) to test or improve the operation of the relocatable digital RSC;

(b) to monitor the operations of a contractor under an administrative services agreement in accordance with Part 14A of the Fines Reform Act 2014.

administrative services agreement has the same meaning as in section 173A of the Fines Reform Act 2014;

contractor has the same meaning as in section 173A of the Fines Reform Act 2014.

Reg. 40D inserted by S.R. No. 8/2023 reg. 11.

40D Reference to image or message produced by relocatable digital RSC

For the purposes of this Division, a reference to an image of or message relating to a natural person produced by a relocatable digital RSC includes a reference to any video related to or data associated with that image or message.

Pt 3 Div. 4B (Heading and regs 40E, 40F) inserted by S.R. No. 28/2025 reg. 9.

Division 4B—No-truck zone cameras

Reg. 40E inserted by S.R. No. 28/2025 reg. 9.

40E Prescribed no-truck zone camera

For the purposes of the definition of prescribed no-truck zone camera in section 3(1) of the Act, the camera system known as Sensor Dynamics TruckWatch is prescribed.

Reg. 40F inserted by S.R. No. 28/2025 reg. 9.

40F Use of NTZ cameras

For the purposes of sections 80E(2), 83B(1)(a) and 84(7A) of the Act, the prescribed manner of use of a NTZ camera is that—

(a) the vehicle detectors have been placed in position as specified by the manufacturer of NTZ cameras or by a person who distributes or maintains them; and

(b) a person placing or removing the NTZ camera or switching on or resetting the NTZ camera after it has been inoperable for any reason—

(i) checks the time, date and location code and makes any corrections that may be necessary to ensure the correct data is recorded in the digital file; and

(ii) checks that the vehicle detectors are correctly responding to the presence of heavy vehicles at the location; and

(iii) ensures that, when the NTZ camera is installed and left unattended, it is kept in one or more locked housings.

Division 5—Speed detectors

41 Prescribed speed detectors

For the purposes of the definition of prescribed speed detector in section 3(1) of the Act, the following speed detectors are prescribed—

(a) a digitector;

(b) the following laser devices—

(i) the Prolaser III;

(ii) the Pro-Lite;

(iii) the Pro-Lite+;

(iv) the ProLaser 4 (also known as the PROLASER 4);

(c) the following radar devices—

(i) the HR4;

(ii) the Falcon (also known as the FALCON);

(iii) the Stalker Dual DSR (also known as the STALKER DUAL DSR);

(iv) the Directional Golden Eagle II (also known as the DIRECTIONAL GOLDEN EAGLE II);

(v) the Falcon HR;

(vi) the Raptor RP-1;

(vii) the Directional Talon (also known as the DIRECTIONAL TALON);

(viii) the Stalker II SDR (also known as the STALKER II SDR);

(ix) the Eagle 3 (also known as the EAGLE 3).

42 Testing of speed detectors

For the purposes of section 79 of the Act, the prescribed manner of testing a speed detector is that the testing officer who tests the device—

(a) is satisfied that the device is in a satisfactory electrical condition; and

(b) is satisfied that the device is properly calibrated so that it indicates the speed readings within a limit of error not greater or less than 2 km per hour of the true speeds.

43 Sealing of speed detectors

For the purposes of section 79 of the Act, the prescribed manner of sealing a speed detector is that the speed detector is sealed—

(a) by the testing officer who carried out the test under regulation 42; and

(b) with a seal or electronic seal, or combination of both, that effectively prevents interference with the time measuring or speed computing components of the device without breaking the seal.

44 Use of digitectors

For the purposes of section 79 of the Act, the prescribed manner of use of a digitector is that—

(a) the 2 vehicle detectors which form part of the digitector are positioned across the road approximately parallel to each other at a distance of 25 metres apart within a limit of error that is not greater than 75 millimetres when used with the time measuring and speed computing components of the device for determining the speed at which a motor vehicle travels on a road; and

(b) the digitector has been tested in accordance with regulation 42 within a period of 2 years before the occasion of its use; and

(c) the digitector has been sealed in accordance with regulation 43 at the time that it was last tested.

45 Use of laser devices

For the purposes of section 79 of the Act, the prescribed manner of use of a laser device is that—

(a) the operator ensures that all elements of the speed display are illuminated; and

(b) the operator activates the device with the device aimed in the direction of a motor vehicle within the operator's field of vision and observes the reading displayed on the digital speed display; and

(c) the device has been tested in accordance with regulation 42 within 12 months before the occasion of its use; and

(d) the device has been sealed in accordance with regulation 43 at the time that it was last tested.

46 Use of radar devices

For the purposes of section 79 of the Act, the prescribed manner of use of a radar device is that—

(a) the operator ensures that—

(i) in the case of the Falcon HR, the Raptor RP-1 and the Eagle 3, all of the elements of the digital speed display are illuminated; and

(ii) in the case of all other radar devices, a reading of (888) is displayed on the digital target speed display; and

(b) the doppler audio signal of the radar device is set at a level clearly audible to the operator who may take a reading if the signal indicates normal operation; and

(c) in the case of the HR4, the Falcon, the Falcon HR, the Directional Talon and the Stalker II SDR, the operator activates the device with the device aimed in the direction of a motor vehicle within the operator's field of vision and observes the reading displayed on the digital target speed display; and

(d) in the case of the Stalker Dual DSR, the Directional Golden Eagle II, the Raptor RP‑1 and the Eagle 3, the operator activates the device with the antenna set in the direction of a motor vehicle within the operator's vision and observes the reading displayed on the digital target speed display; and

(e) the device has been tested in accordance with regulation 42 within 12 months before the occasion of its use; and

(f) the device has been sealed in accordance with regulation 43 at the time that it was last tested.

Division 6—Prescribed processes

47 Process for production of printed image

Reg. 47(1) amended by S.R. Nos 8/2023 reg. 12, 28/2025 reg. 10(a).

(1) For the purposes of sections 80(1)(b), 80A, 80B(2)(b), 80C(2)(b), 80D(2)(b), 80E(2)(b), 81(1)(c) and (2), 83A(1), 83B(1) and 84(7) and (7A) of the Act, the prescribed process of producing an image or message is that—

(a) a printed image is produced from a digital file; and

(b) the data contained in the digital file has been verified by a computer—

(i) decrypting that digital file; and

(ii) recalculating the checksum produced for that file; and

(iii) confirming that the checksum produced by the recalculation is identical to the checksum contained in that file; and

Reg. 47(1)(c) amended by S.R. No. 28/2025 reg. 10(b).

(c) the printed image contains an image derived from the digital file (with or without decompressing the image) and a message containing data relating to an offence referred to in section 66A of the Act or regulation 31.

(2) An image or message is produced in accordance with subregulation (1) whether or not the printed image contains—

(a) a marker, derived from data in the digital file, on a motor vehicle that appears in the printed image; or

(b) a message stating the speed of the marked motor vehicle.

Division 7—Other matters

48 Interference with road safety cameras

A person must not, without reasonable excuse, interfere with a road safety camera or any seal affixed to a road safety camera or any housing in which a road safety camera is placed or installed.

49 Interference with speed detectors

A person must not, without reasonable excuse, interfere with a speed detector or any seal affixed to a speed detector or any housing in which a speed detector is placed or installed.

50 Record-keeping requirements

(1) A testing officer who tests a fixed digital RSC in accordance with regulation 35 must—

(a) record the results of the test, including a statement showing the speed readings of the speed calculation unit and the true speeds; and

(b) retain the results referred to in paragraph (a) for at least 7 years.

(2) A testing officer who seals a speed calculation unit in accordance with regulation 36 must—

(i) the identification number of the speed calculation unit;

(iii) the manner in which the speed calculation unit was sealed; and

(3) A testing officer who tests a mobile digital RSC in accordance with regulation 38 must—

(a) record the results of the test, including a statement showing the speed readings of the speed calculation unit and the true speeds; and

(b) retain the results referred to in paragraph (a) for at least 7 years.

(4) A testing officer who seals a speed calculation unit in accordance with regulation 39 must—

(i) the identification number of the speed calculation unit;

(iii) the manner in which the speed calculation unit was sealed; and

(5) A testing officer who tests a speed detector in accordance with regulation 42 must—

(a) record the results of the test; and

(b) record the date of the test and the ambient temperature at the time of the test; and

(c) retain the results referred to in paragraphs (a) and (b) for at least 7 years.

(6) A testing officer who seals a speed detector in accordance with regulation 43 must—

(i) the identification number of the detector;

(iii) the manner in which the detector was sealed; and

51 Certificate as to testing and sealing road safety camera or speed detector

(1) For the purposes of section 83 of the Act, the prescribed form is the form set out in Schedule 3.

(2) A testing officer is authorised to sign the form referred to in subregulation (1).

Reg. 51A inserted by S.R. No. 28/2025 reg. 11.

51A Classes of heavy vehicle which may be driven in no-truck zone

(1) For the purposes of section 65BA(2)(b) of the Act, the following classes of heavy vehicle are prescribed—

(a) a 2 axle truck that is not transporting a shipping container;

(b) a tow truck;

(c) a concrete truck;

(d) a waste disposal truck;

(e) a motor home;

(f) an emergency vehicle;

(g) a police vehicle.

emergency vehicle has the same meaning as in the Road Rules;

motor home means a motor vehicle that is designed and constructed for the primary purpose of providing a temporary dwelling for persons using the motor vehicle for recreational travel;

police vehicle has the same meaning as in the Road Rules;

tow truck has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Accident Towing Services Act 2007.

Reg. 51B inserted by S.R. No. 28/2025 reg. 11.

51B Circumstances where driving of heavy vehicle permitted in no-truck zone

(1) For the purposes of section 65BA(2)(f) of the Act, the following circumstances are prescribed—

(a) a class 2 heavy vehicle authorisation (permit) has been issued by the Regulator authorising the use of the vehicle in the no-truck zone at that time and on that day;

(b) a mass or dimension exemption (permit) has been issued by the Regulator in relation to the vehicle, and—

(i) the exemption applies to an area or route that includes the no-truck zone; and

(ii) the vehicle is being driven in the no-truck zone under the authorisation of the permit;

(c) the driver is obeying a direction given to the driver by a police officer or an authorised person;

(d) the heavy vehicle is being driven to a place or from a place within a no-truck zone that is the garage address of the vehicle.

authorised person has the same meaning as in the Road Rules;

class 2 heavy vehicle authorisation (permit) has the same meaning as in section 5 of the Heavy Vehicle National Law (Victoria);

mass or dimension exemption (permit) has the same meaning as in section 5 of the Heavy Vehicle National Law (Victoria).

Division 8—Engine management system reading devices

52 Specified engine management system reading devices

For the purposes of sections 14(1A) and 79A of the Act, the following engine management system reading devices are specified—

(a) a Pro-Link GRAPHIQ that has been fitted with—

(i) an application cartridge applicable to the type of engine to be tested; or

(ii) a multi-protocol cartridge containing an application card applicable to the type of engine to be tested;

(b) a computer that is running a version or variant of one or more of the following types of software—

(i) Detroit Diesel Diagnostic Link;

(ii) Cummins Insite;

(iii) Cat Electronic Technician.

53 Use of engine management system reading device

For the purposes of section 14(1A) of the Act, an engine management system reading device is used in accordance with these Regulations if—

(a) it is connected to the electronic control module of a vehicle; and

(b) the information contained in that electronic control module relevant to the vehicle's operation is transferred—

(i) in the case of an engine management system reading device specified in regulation 52(a), to a printer connected to the device; or

(ii) in the case of an engine management system reading device specified in regulation 52(b), into the device's memory.

54 Obtaining information from an engine management system reading device

For the purposes of section 79A of the Act—

(a) an engine management system reading device is operated in the specified manner if the engine management system reading device is connected to the electronic control module of a vehicle; and

(b) information held in a vehicle's engine management system is derived in accordance with these Regulations if the information contained in the electronic control module relevant to the vehicle's operation is transferred—

(i) in the case of an engine management system reading device specified in regulation 52(a), to a printer connected to the device; or

(ii) in the case of an engine management system reading device specified in regulation 52(b), into the device's memory.

Part 4—Vehicle impoundment, immobilisation and forfeiture

55 Content of notice of impoundment or immobilisation

For the purposes of section 84L(h) of the Act, the prescribed particulars are the following—

(a) the driver's address, gender and date of birth;

(b) the number, type and expiry date of the driver's driver licence or learner permit;

(c) if the driver is not the registered operator of the motor vehicle—

(i) the name, address and other details of the registered operator; or

(ii) if the motor vehicle is not registered and the Chief Commissioner of Police is able to establish the identity of the owner of the motor vehicle, the name, address and other details of the owner;

(d) if the motor vehicle is moved to a holding yard by use of a tow truck, the name and business address of the operator of the tow truck;

(e) the details of the police officer who seized the motor vehicle or required it to be surrendered;

(f) advice that it is an offence to move an impounded or immobilised motor vehicle without authorisation;

(g) if the notice is given to the registered operator of the motor vehicle who is not the owner or sole owner of the motor vehicle, advice that the registered operator must take reasonable steps to serve a copy of the notice on any owner as soon as reasonably practicable;

(h) if the notice is given to an owner of the motor vehicle who is not the sole owner of the motor vehicle, advice that the owner must take reasonable steps to serve a copy of the notice on any other owner as soon as reasonably practicable.

56 Evidence of identity and entitlement to recover vehicle

(1) For the purposes of section 84Q(1)(c) of the Act, satisfactory evidence of the identity and entitlement to recover a motor vehicle of a person who is the registered operator of the motor vehicle is—

Reg. 56(1)(a) amended by S.R. No. 15/2025 reg. 23(a).

(a) the production or display (as the case requires) of the person's current driver licence document or learner permit document bearing a photograph of the person; or

(b) other evidence that in the reasonable opinion of a police officer satisfactorily establishes the person's identity and entitlement to recover the vehicle.

(2) For the purposes of section 84Q(1)(c) of the Act, satisfactory evidence of the identity and entitlement to recover a motor vehicle of a person who is not the registered operator of the motor vehicle is—

(a) evidence of the person's identity in the form of—

Reg. 56(2)(a)(i) amended by S.R. No. 15/2025 reg. 23(b).

(i) the person's current driver licence document or learner permit document bearing a photograph of the person; or

(ii) other evidence that in the reasonable opinion of a police officer satisfactorily establishes the person's identity; and

(b) evidence of entitlement to recover the motor vehicle in the form of—

(i) a written statement signed by the registered operator of the motor vehicle authorising the release of the motor vehicle to the person; or

(ii) other evidence that in the reasonable opinion of a police officer satisfactorily establishes the person's entitlement to recover the motor vehicle.

57 Form of search and seizure warrant

For the purposes of section 84ZH(4) of the Act, the prescribed form is the form in Schedule 4.

58 Form of report on execution of warrant

For the purposes of section 84ZO(2)(a) of the Act, the prescribed form is the form in Schedule 5.

Part 5—Evidence relating to mass of vehicles

59 Prescribed portable weighing devices

For the purposes of section 82(1) of the Act, the prescribed device is a portable mechanical or electrical device capable of determining the mass carried on any axle or axles of a motor vehicle or trailer.

60 Testing of portable weighing devices

(1) For the purposes of section 82(1) of the Act, a portable weighing device is tested in the prescribed manner if—

(a) the load applied for the purposes of testing a portable weighing device is one tonne or more for a single device and 2 tonnes or more for a pair of devices; and

Reg. 60(1)(b) amended by S.R. No. 172/2019 reg. 6(Sch. 3 item 3).

(b) a person authorised by the Secretary under subregulation (5) is satisfied that the device operates within the limits of error in regulation 61; and

(c) in the case of portable weighing devices tested in pairs—

(i) each device is used only with the other device with which it was tested; and

(ii) the prescribed limit of error is calculated on the sum of the readings of the 2 devices; and

(iii) the devices are either passed or failed together.

Reg. 60(2) amended by S.R. No. 172/2019 reg. 6(Sch. 3 item 3).

(2) A portable weighing device must be tested by a person authorised by the Secretary under subregulation (5)—

(a) before it is first used; and

(b) at least once every 12 months after it is first used.

(3) The person who carried out the test under subregulation (1) must ensure that full and accurate records of all portable weighing devices tested are kept for at least 7 years, including—

(a) the identification number of each device; and

(b) the date on which the test was carried out; and

(c) the results of the test.

(4) The records of the test must be signed by the person who carried out the test.

Reg. 60(5) amended by S.R. No. 172/2019 reg. 6(Sch. 3 item 3).

(5) For the purposes of this regulation, the Secretary may authorise in writing a suitably qualified person to test a portable weighing device.

61 Prescribed limits of error for portable weighing devices

For the purposes of section 82(1) of the Act, the prescribed limit of error for a portable weighing device is not more than 2 per cent greater than or less than the weight at which calibration is effected.

62 Sealing of portable weighing devices

(1) For the purposes of section 82(1) of the Act, a portable weighing device is sealed in the prescribed manner if—

(a) the device has been tested in accordance with regulations 60 and 61 and the device has satisfied the test requirements; and

(b) the device is sealed by the person who carried out the test; and

(c) the device is sealed with a seal which effectively prevents interference with the mechanism or circuitry of the device without breaking the seal.

(2) The person who carried out the test under regulation 60(1) must ensure that full and accurate records of all portable weighing devices sealed are kept for at least 7 years, including—

(a) the identification number of each device sealed; and

(b) the date on which the device was sealed; and

(c) the manner in which the device was sealed.

(3) The records in subregulation (2) must be signed by the person who sealed the device.

(4) If, at any time after a portable weighing device is sealed, a repair, alteration or adjustment (other than setting the reading to zero) is made to its mechanism or circuitry, the device must be tested again in accordance with regulation 60 and sealed again in accordance with this regulation.

63 Use of portable weighing devices

For the purposes of section 82(1) of the Act, a portable weighing device is used in the prescribed manner if—

(a) to ascertain the mass carried on a single axle—

(i) the device is placed under each of any 2 tyres on the axle so that the whole mass borne by the axle is borne by or on the device; and

(ii) the reading on the device used to ascertain the mass is taken while the axle load is borne by or on the device; and

(iii) in the case of more than one device being used to ascertain the mass, the mass carried on the axle is calculated as the sum of the readings of each of the devices; and

(b) to ascertain the mass carried on a group of axles, the mass carried on the axles is calculated as the sum of the mass carried on all the axles comprising the group.

64 Certificate as to testing and sealing portable weighing devices

(1) For the purposes of section 83 of the Act, the prescribed form is the form in Schedule 3.

Reg. 64(2) amended by S.R. No. 172/2019 reg. 6(Sch. 3 item 4).

(2) A person authorised by the Secretary under regulation 60(5) who tests and seals portable weighing devices is authorised to sign a certificate for the purposes of section 83 of the Act.

65 Interference with portable weighing devices

A person must not, without reasonable excuse, interfere with the mechanism or circuitry of a portable weighing device or the seal affixed to such a device.

Part 6—Parking infringements

66 Infringement penalties for parking infringements

For the purposes of section 87(3) of the Act, the infringement penalty for a parking infringement specified in an item in column 3 of Schedule 6 is the amount prescribed in column 4 of that Schedule for that parking infringement.

The infringement penalty for a parking infringement may be varied by a municipal council or relevant public authority under section 87(4) of the Act.

67 Service of parking infringement notices

For the purposes of section 87 of the Act, a parking infringement notice may be served in accordance with section 12 of the Infringements Act 2006.

68 Summaries of parking infringements in Schedule 6

A summary of a parking infringement in Schedule 6 is not to be taken to affect the nature or elements of the infringement to which the summary refers or the operation of these Regulations.

Part 7—Traffic infringements

Reg. 69 amended by S.R. No. 104/2019 reg. 6.

69 Prescribed traffic infringements

For the purposes of paragraph (a) of the definition of traffic infringement in section 3(1) of the Act, an offence set out in column 3 of Schedule 7 is a prescribed offence for the purposes of Part 7 of the Act.

Reg. 69A inserted by S.R. No. 155/2025 reg. 4.

69A Prescribed electric scooter offences

For the purposes of the definition of electric scooter offence in section 3(1) of the Act, the following offences are prescribed—

(a) an offence against any of the following provisions of the Road Safety Road Rules 2017 constituted by the riding of an electric scooter—

(i) rule 247(1);

(ii) rule 247A(1);

(iii) rule 247B(1) or (2);

(iv) rule 248(1) or (2);

(v) rule 249;

(vi) rule 253;

(vii) rule 254(1) or (2);

(viii) rule 255;

(ix) rule 256(1);

(x) rule 258;

(xi) rule 259;

(xii) rule 260(1);

(xiii) rule 261(1);

(xiv) rule 262(1);

(b) an offence against any of the following provisions of the Road Safety Road Rules 2017—

(i) rule 250(2A);

(ii) rule 251(2);

(iii) rule 252(1A);

(iv) rule 262C;

(v) rule 262D(1);

(vi) rule 262E;

(vii) rule 262F;

(viii) rule 262G;

(ix) rule 262H;

(x) rule 262HA;

(xi) rule 262I.

70 Infringement penalties for traffic infringements

For the purposes of section 88(5) of the Act, the infringement penalty for a traffic infringement specified in an item in column 3 of Schedule 7 is the amount prescribed in column 4 of that Schedule for that traffic infringement.

71 Prescribed details of traffic infringement notice

(1) For the purposes of section 88(2)(c) of the Act, the additional prescribed details are—

(a) in the case of a traffic infringement notice issued in respect of an offence prescribed in regulation 31—

(i) the words "The Operator"; and

(ii) a statement that it is a traffic infringement notice issued in relation to an offence detected by a road safety camera; and

(b) if the alleged traffic infringement arises out of driving or being in charge of a motor vehicle or trailer, the registration number or other identification of the motor vehicle or trailer; and

(c) if the traffic infringement notice relates to an alleged drink-driving infringement or an alleged excessive speed infringement—

(i) a statement that it is issued in respect of a drink‑driving infringement or excessive speed infringement
(as the case requires); and

(ii) a statement that unless a notice of objection is received at the address specified in the notice within 28 days after the date of the notice, the notice will take effect as a conviction and will result in cancellation or suspension of the driver licence or learner permit of the person on whom it is served; and

(d) if the traffic infringement notice relates to an alleged drug-driving infringement—

(i) a statement that it is issued in respect of a drug-driving infringement; and

(ii) a statement that unless a notice of objection is received at the address specified in the notice within 28 days after the date of the notice, the notice will take effect as a conviction and will result in suspension of the driver licence or driver permit of the person on whom it is served; and

(e) if the notice is issued in respect of an alleged offence prescribed in regulation 31, a statement that a copy of the image or message produced by a road safety camera of the alleged traffic infringement may be inspected or purchased and the manner in which the inspection or purchase may be arranged; and

(f) if the notice is issued in respect of an alleged drink‑driving infringement, drug-driving infringement or excessive speed infringement under section 89A of the Act, the address of the person to whom a notice of objection is to be sent.

These details are in addition to the prescribed details that are required to be included in an infringement notice under regulation 14 of the Infringements Regulations 2016[3].

(2) A traffic infringement notice issued in respect of a drink-driving infringement, drug-driving infringement or excessive speed infringement under section 89A of the Act may be accompanied by—

(a) a notice setting out in summary form—

(i) the consequences of paying or failing to pay the infringement penalty; and

(ii) the consequences of giving or failing to give a notice of objection; and

(b) a form of notice of objection.

72 Summaries of traffic infringements in Schedule 7

A summary of a traffic infringement set out in Schedule 7 is not to be taken to affect the nature or elements of the offence to which the summary refers or the operation of these Regulations.

73 Withdrawal of traffic infringement notice

For the purposes of sections 88(3) and 89A(7)(c) of the Act, a withdrawal notice—

(a) must be served in accordance with section 93 of the Act; and

(b) must contain the following particulars—

(i) the name and address of the person on whom the traffic infringement notice was served;

(ii) the number and date of issue of the traffic infringement notice;

(iii) a statement that the traffic infringement notice has been withdrawn;

(iv) if it is intended that proceedings in the Magistrates' Court be instituted against the person in respect of the alleged traffic infringement, a statement to that effect;

(v) if a payment has been made in respect of the infringement penalty, a statement that the amount paid will be refunded.

74 Proof of prior convictions or findings of guilt

(1) For the purposes of section 90(1) of the Act, a document setting out particulars of alleged prior convictions or findings of guilt must contain the following particulars—

(a) the name and address of the person to whom it applies;

(b) in respect of each alleged prior conviction or finding of guilt—

(i) the court that convicted the person or found the person guilty; and

(ii) the date of the alleged conviction or finding of guilt; and

(iii) a short description of the alleged offence.

(2) For the purposes of section 90(2)(a) of the Act, the prescribed particulars are a statement that the document will be admissible as evidence that the person has been previously convicted or found guilty as alleged if—

(a) the person does not appear in answer to the summons served with the notice; and

(b) the person is convicted or found guilty of the infringement alleged in the summons.

Part 8—Operator onus

75 Prescribed period for making statements

(1) Subject to subregulation (2), for the purposes of sections 84BE(1)(a) and 84BF(1)(a) of the Act, the prescribed period is—

(a) in the case of an infringement notice issued in respect of an excessive speed infringement, the period beginning on the date of the notice and ending immediately before the earlier of—

(i) a conviction taking effect under section 89A(2) of the Act; and

(ii) a notice of objection being given under section 89A(4) of the Act; and

Under section 89A(2) of the Act, a traffic infringement notice that is issued in respect of an excessive speed infringement takes effect as a conviction for the offence specified in the notice 28 days after the date of the notice.

(b) in the case of an infringement notice issued in respect of any other operator onus offence—

(i) if the infringement notice was issued to a person other than a child within the meaning of the Fines Reform Act 2014 and the fine is an infringement fine within the meaning of that Act that may be registered under section 16 of that Act, the period beginning on the date of the notice and ending immediately before the infringement fine is registered under section 16 of that Act; or

(ii) if the infringement notice for that offence was issued to a child, the period beginning on the date of the notice and ending immediately before the infringement penalty in respect of that offence is registered under clause 4 of Schedule 3 to the Children, Youth and Families Act 2005; or

(iii) if subparagraphs (i) and (ii) do not apply, the period beginning on the date of the notice and ending immediately before the expiry of the period for bringing a proceeding in relation to the offence to which the infringement notice relates.

The period prescribed under paragraph (b) for making a statement under Part 6AA of the Act is the same period set out in section 22(2) of the Infringements Act 2006 for a person to apply to a relevant enforcement agency for internal review of a decision to serve an infringement notice under section 22 of the Infringements Act 2006.

(2) If an extension of time to deal with, or object to, an infringement notice has been granted under section 67 or 89B of the Act, the prescribed period for the purposes of sections 84BE(1)(a) and 84BF(1)(a) of the Act is the extension of time granted under section 67 or 89B of the Act.

76 Prescribed period for accepting or rejecting statements

For the purposes of section 84BE(6) of the Act, the prescribed period is 90 days beginning on the date that the enforcement official received the relevant statement.

Part 9—Application of the Act to public authorities

77 Power to prosecute

For the purposes of section 77(2)(e) of the Act, the following public authorities and persons are prescribed—

(a) the Melbourne Market Authority established under section 4(1) of the Melbourne Market Authority Act 1977;

(b) an Authority within the meaning of section 3(1) of the Water Act 1989;

(c) the port of Melbourne operator declared under section 4A of the Port Management Act 1995;

Reg. 77(d) substituted by S.R. No. 36/2025 reg. 6.

(d) Alpine Resorts Victoria established under section 14 of the Alpine Resorts (Management) Act 1997;

Reg. 77(e) substituted by S.R. No. 36/2025 reg. 6.

(e) the Secretary to the Department of Energy, Environment and Climate Action;

(f) the Minister administering Part 7B of the Financial Management Act 1994;

(g) Parks Victoria established under section 5 of the Parks Victoria Act 2018.

78 Prosecution for parking offences

For the purposes of section 77(4) of the Act, the following public authorities and persons are prescribed—

Reg. 78(a) revoked by S.R. No. 172/2019 reg. 6(Sch. 3 item 5(a)).

Reg. 78(b) amended by S.R. No. 172/2019 reg. 6(Sch. 3 item 5(b)).

(b) the Secretary;

(c) an authorised officer within the meaning of section 2A of the Land Act 1958;

Reg. 78(d) substituted by S.R. No. 36/2025 reg. 7(a).

(d) Safe Transport Victoria;

(e) a transport safety officer appointed under section 116 of the Transport (Safety Schemes Compliance and Enforcement) Act 2014;

Reg. 78(f) substituted by S.R. No. 36/2025 reg. 7(b).

(f) Alpine Resorts Victoria established under section 14 of the Alpine Resorts (Management) Act 1997;

(g) the board of a denominational hospital within the meaning of section 3(1) of the Health Services Act 1988;

(h) the board of a public hospital within the meaning of section 3(1) of the Health Services Act 1988;

(i) the council of a university established by or under any Act;

(j) a TAFE institute within the meaning of section 1.1.3(1) of the Education and Training Reform Act 2006;

(k) a committee of management appointed under section 14 of the Crown Land (Reserves) Act 1978.

79 Appropriation of fines

(1) For the purposes of section 77(5) of the Act, an offence is a prescribed offence if it is—

(a) committed on land or premises which are vested in or under the control or management of the public authority or person referred to in subregulation (2)(a) and is—

(i) an offence under the Road Safety Road Rules 2017; or

Reg. 79(1)(a)(ii) amended by S.R. No. 105/2020 reg. 86, substituted by S.R. No. 121/2021 reg. 8.

(ii) an offence under Division 3, 4, 5 or 7 of Part 2, Part 4, Part 5 or Part 8 of the Road Safety (Vehicles) Regulations 2021; or

Reg. 79(1)(a)(iii) amended by S.R. No. 104/2019 reg. 4.

(iii) an offence under Part 2 of the Road Safety (Drivers) Regulations 2019[4]; or

(b) an offence against section 90E of the Act, or under a regulation made under the Act, for which the charge was filed by a municipal council or any member of staff of a municipal council who is authorised in writing to do so either generally or in a particular case by the municipal council.

(2) For the purposes of section 77(5) of the Act—

(a) a public authority or person specified in Column 1 of an item in Schedule 8 is prescribed; and

(b) a fund described in Column 2 of an item in Schedule 8 is prescribed in respect of the public authority or person set out in the corresponding item.

80 Extension of the Act by the Minister

For the purposes of section 98(1) of the Act, the following public authorities or other persons are prescribed—

Reg. 80(a) amended by S.R. No. 172/2019 reg. 6(Sch. 3 item 6).

(a) the Secretary;

Reg. 80(ab) inserted by S.R. No. 36/2025 reg. 8(a).

(ab) the Head, Transport for Victoria;

(b) Metro Trains Melbourne Pty Ltd (ACN 136 429 948);

Reg. 80(c) amended by S.R. No. 123/2020 reg. 8.

(c) a Council within the meaning of section 3(1) of the Local Government Act 2020;

(d) the Melbourne Market Authority established under section 4(1) of the Melbourne Market Authority Act 1977;

(e) an Authority within the meaning of section 3(1) of the Water Act 1989;

(f) the port of Melbourne operator declared under section 4A of the Port Management Act 1995;

(g) the council of a university established by or under any Act;

(h) a TAFE institute within the meaning of section 1.1.3(1) of the Education and Training Reform Act 2006;

(i) a committee of management appointed under section 14 of the Crown Land (Reserves) Act 1978;

(j) the board of a denominational hospital within the meaning of section 3(1) of the Health Services Act 1988;

(k) the board of a public hospital within the meaning of section 3(1) of the Health Services Act 1988;

(l) the House Committee within the meaning of section 3 of the Parliamentary Committees Act 2003;

Reg. 80(m) substituted by S.R. No. 36/2025 reg. 8(b).

(m) the Secretary to the Department of Energy, Environment and Climate Action;

(n) Parks Victoria established under section 5 of the Parks Victoria Act 2018;

Reg. 80(o) substituted by S.R. No. 36/2025 reg. 8(c).

(o) Safe Transport Victoria;

Reg. 80(p) inserted by S.R. No. 36/2025 reg. 8(c).

(p) a passenger transport company;

Reg. 80(q) inserted by S.R. No. 36/2025 reg. 8(c).

(q) Rail Track.

Part 10—Application of fees

Reg. 81 amended by S.R. No. 172/2019 reg. 6(Sch. 3 item 7).

81 Application of certain fees

For the purposes of section 97 of the Act, the following fees received by the Secretary must be paid by the Secretary into the Roads Fund established under section 39B of the Transport Integration Act 2010—

(a) fees payable under regulation 23(4) of the Road Management (General) Regulations 2016[5] (consent application fees for hoardings and advertisements);

(b) fees payable under regulation 27 of the Road Management (General) Regulations 2016 (property enquiry fees);

(c) fees payable under regulation 22 of the
Road Management (Works and Infrastructure) Regulations 2015[6] (consent application fees for proposed works).

Pt 11 (Heading and reg. 82) inserted by S.R. No. 172/2019 reg. 7.

Part 11—General

Reg. 82 inserted by S.R. No. 172/2019 reg. 7.

82 Provisions under or for the purposes of which officers or employees of the Corporation may be appointed as authorised officers

For the purposes of section 105F(2) of the Act, the following provisions of the Act are prescribed—

(a) section 13(6);

(b) section 16(1A);

(c) section 16(2);

(d) section 53(2);

(e) section 55D(2);

(f) section 55E;

(g) section 59;

(h) section 74;

(i) section 77;

(j) section 112.

Schedule 1—Revocations

Regulation 4

| S.R. No. | Title | | 115/2009 | Road Safety (General) Regulations 2009 | | 130/2009 | Road Safety (General) Amendment Regulations 2009 | | 16/2010 | Road Safety (General) Amendment Regulations 2010 | | 52/2010 | Road Safety (General) Amendment (Application of Fees) Regulations 2010 | | 134/2010 | Road Safety (General) Further Amendment Regulations 2010 | | 62/2011 | Road Safety (General) Amendment Regulations 2011 | | 126/2011 | Road Safety (General) Amendment (Preliminary Breath Test Device) Regulations 2011 | | 48/2012 | Road Safety (General) Amendment (Infringement) Regulations 2012 | | 84/2012 | Road Safety (General) Amendment (Car Doors) Regulations 2012 | | 118/2013 | Road Safety (General) Amendment Regulations 2013 | | 67/2014 | Road Safety (General) Amendment (Corporate Penalties) Regulations 2014 | | 143/2014 | Road Safety (Drivers) and (General) Amendment (Alcohol Interlocks) Regulations 2014 | | 144/2014 | Road Safety (Drivers) and (General) Amendment (Motor Cycle Graduated Licensing System) Regulations 2014 | | 145/2014 | Road Safety (General) and (Drivers) Amendment Regulations 2014 | | 199/2014 | Road Safety (Drivers), (General) and (Vehicles) Amendment Regulations 2014 | | 9/2015 | Road Safety (General) Amendment (Prescribed Offences) Regulations 2015 | | 62/2015 | Road Safety (General) Amendment (Application of Fees) Regulations 2015 | | 85/2015 | Road Safety (Traffic Management) and (General) Amendment (Stock Crossings) Regulations 2015 | | 121/2015 | Road Safety (General) Amendment (Lane Filtering) Regulations 2015 | | 12/2016 | Road Safety (General) Amendment Regulations 2016 | | 24/2016 | Road Safety (Drivers) and (General) Amendment Regulations 2016 | | 99/2016 | Road Safety (General) Amendment (Electric Personal Transporters Trial) Regulations 2016 | | 100/2016 | Road Safety (General) Amendment (Portable Weighing Devices) Regulations 2016 | | 42/2017 | Road Safety (Drivers), (General), (Traffic Management) and (Vehicles) Amendment (Road Rules) Regulations 2017 | | 79/2017 | Road Safety (General) Amendment Regulations 2017 | | 140/2017 | Road Safety (Drivers) and (General) Amendment (Fines Reform) Regulations 2017 | | 141/2017 | Road Safety (General) Further Amendment Regulations 2017 | | 47/2018 | Road Safety (Drivers) and (General) Amendment (Behaviour Change Program and Other Matters) Regulations 2018 | | 89/2018 | Road Safety (Drivers), (General) and (Vehicles) Amendment Regulations 2018 | | 181/2018 | Road Safety (Drivers) and (General) Amendment (Unlicensed Driving and Other Matters) Regulations 2018 |

Sch. 2 amended by S.R. No. 172/2019 reg. 6(Sch. 3 item 8).

Schedule 2—Certificate under section 78A

Regulation 6

I am a licensed surveyor within the meaning of the Surveying Act 2004 and I am approved by—

*the Surveyor-General

*the Secretary

for the purposes of section 78A of the Road Safety Act 1986.

I certify that the shortest distance, expressed in metres, that would be travelled by a motor vehicle on the [identify road] between:

(a) [describe first point on road] and

(b) [describe second point on road]

is [insert number of metres] metres.

Signature of person issuing certificate:

Name: [print name]

*Delete if inapplicable.

Schedule 3—Certificate under section 83

Regulations 51, 64

The *road safety camera/*speed detector/*portable weighing device/ (No. ) was tested in accordance with the Road Safety (General) Regulations 2019
on [date].

The test confirmed that the *road safety camera/*speed detector/*portable weighing device was operating correctly in accordance with the requirements of those Regulations.

The *road safety camera/*speed detector/*portable weighing device has been properly sealed in accordance with those Regulations.

Signature of person issuing certificate:

Name: [print name]

*Strike out whichever is not applicable.

Schedule 4—Search and seizure warrant

Regulation 57

| Court Ref. | |

This warrant is issued for the purpose of searching for and seizing the motor vehicle described.

Description of motor vehicle authorised for seizure:

• Registration number (if known):

• Vehicle identifier (if known):

• Engine identification number (if known):

• Make, model and colour of motor vehicle:

Premises which may be searched for motor vehicle:

Number and name of street and suburb or other description of premises:

Grounds for issue of warrant:

Reasonable grounds for believing that the motor vehicle described above—

🞏 is

🞏 may be within the next 72 hours—

in or on the premises described.

This warrant is issued to the following police officer(s)—

• Name:

• Rank number:

• Agency and address:

This warrant authorises the police officer(s) named, with the aid of any assistants considered reasonably necessary to achieve the purpose for which the warrant was issued, to—

🞏 enter the premises described;

🞏 use reasonable force to break into or open any structure on the premises described above that may store the motor vehicle described;

🞏 search for and seize the motor vehicle described.

This warrant also authorises the police officer(s) named, or a person assisting that police officer or those police officers, to seize and impound or immobilise the motor vehicle described in this warrant.

Nothing in this warrant authorises the seizure of property not described in this warrant or the arrest of a person.

This warrant ceases to have effect if it is recalled and cancelled by the magistrate who issued it. If it is not recalled and cancelled, this warrant ceases to have effect at the end of one month after its issue or when it is executed, whichever occurs first.

The person who executes this warrant must announce that the person is authorised by the warrant to enter the premises and must give any person at the premises an opportunity to allow entry to the premises before force is used to enter.

If the occupier is present at the premises where this warrant is being executed, the person executing the warrant must identify themselves to the occupier and give the occupier a copy of the warrant. If the occupier is not present at the premises where this warrant is being executed, the person executing the warrant must identify themselves to any other person at the premises and give that person a copy of the warrant.

This warrant is issued under section 84ZH of the Road Safety Act 1986.

Issued at *a.m./*p.m. on / / at
by Magistrate.

*Delete if inapplicable.

Schedule 5—Report on execution of search and seizure warrant

Regulation 58

To the registrar of the Magistrates' Court

I, [insert name and address]

being the person to whom this search and seizure warrant was issued, report the following outcome in relation to the warrant—

🞏 The warrant was executed by

[insert name and address]

at *a.m./*p.m. on / / .

The following motor vehicle was seized—

• Registration number (if known):

• Vehicle identifier (if known):

• Engine identification number (if known):

• Make, model and colour of motor vehicle:

| A copy of the warrant | * was given to the occupier | | | * was given to a person at the premises other than the occupier | | | * was not given to the occupier or any other person at the premises because—<br> [set out reasons why copy of warrant not given] |

*Delete whichever is inapplicable.

🞏 This warrant was not executed because—

[set out reasons why warrant not executed]

Signature:

Sch. 6 amended by S.R. Nos 123/2020 reg. 9, 19/2022 reg. 21(1)(2).

Schedule 6—Parking infringements

Regulation 66

In this Schedule—

RR means the Road Safety Road Rules 2017;

RSA means the Road Safety Act 1986.

Note to Sch. 6 revoked by S.R. No. 19/2022 reg. 21(3).

Sch. 7 amended by S.R. Nos 104/2019 regs 3, 5, 172/2019 reg. 6(Sch. 3 item 9), 105/2020 reg. 87, 123/2020 reg. 10, 36/2021 reg. 6, 121/2021 reg. 9, 136/2021 reg. 4, 19/2022 reg. 22, 31/2022 reg. 4, 47/2022 reg. 5, 8/2023 reg 13, 23/2023 reg. 4, 60/2024 reg. 15, 102/2024 reg. 4, 15/2025 reg. 24, 28/2025 reg. 12, 36/2025 reg. 9.