These Regulations set the rules for approving and operating children's services in Victoria, covering provider and service approvals, premises, staffing, safety (including sleep and transport), record‑keeping, fees, waivers and enforcement. The Regulatory Authority decides approvals, conditions, fees and compliance action; approved providers pay fees and must maintain policies, staff qualifications, records and notification procedures. Non‑compliance attracts penalties, infringement notices and possible public reporting.
These Regulations prescribe the operational, approval, record-keeping, fee and enforcement rules for the approval and operation of children's services under the Children's Services Act 1996. They operate as subordinate legislation made under s 191 of the Act (reg 2), commenced 17 May 2020 (reg 3) and incorporate later amendments up to 1 October 2024 (Endnotes; Table of Amendments). The Regulations translate the Act's high-level duties into concrete application requirements (provider and service approval information), mandatory policies and procedures, minimum staffing and qualification standards, premises and safety requirements, reporting timeframes and record retention rules.
Mechanically, the Regulations:
Set the documentary and identity requirements for provider approvals (regs 12-21) and for service approvals (regs 22-24), including what plans, soil assessments, occupancy, planning and building documentation must be supplied for premises (reg 23).
Establish an approval-in-principle regime for proposed premises (regs 41A-41E), and prescribe the criteria linked to approval-in-principle (reg 6A).
Prescribe operational requirements for education programs, health, safety, sleep and rest, incident handling, administration of medication, emergencies, excursions and transportation of children (Parts 4 Divisions 1-7B). Examples include documented child assessments (reg 43), first aid kit and training rules (regs 58, 95), sleep and rest policies and risk assessments (regs 53A-53C), and a prohibition on bassinets (reg 53D).
Fix educator-to-child ratios (reg 90), minimum qualification mixes for occasional care and limited hours services (regs 91-92), and procedures for temporary replacements and absences (regs 92A, 94).
Require a suite of policies and procedures to be in place and available to staff and parents (reg 112) and require certain information to be displayed (reg 116).
Current sections
Direct links to the current provisions in Children's Services Regulations 2020.
199
Part 1
Preliminary
Part 1—Preliminary
1
Objective
1 Objective
The objective of these Regulations is to provide for certain matters for the regulation of the approval and operation of children's services under the Children's Services Act 1996.
2
Authorising provision
2 Authorising provision
These Regulations are made under section 191 of the Children's Services Act 1996.
3
Commencement
3 Commencement
These Regulations come into operation on 17 May 2020.
4
Revocations
4 Revocations
The regulations set out in Schedule 1 are revoked.
5
Definitions
5 Definitions
(1) In these Regulations—
Reg. 5(1) def. of ABN inserted by S.R. No. 80/2024 reg. 5.
ABN has the same meaning as in section 41 of the A New Tax System (Australian Business Number) Act 1999 of the Commonwealth;
actively working towards a qualification—see regulation 8;
approved certificate III level education and care qualification means—
(a) a qualification for the education and care of children generally or children of a specified age that is approved by the National Authority and included in the list of approved certificate III level education and care qualifications published under regulation 137 of the national regulations; or
(b) a qualification included in the list of approved diploma level education and care qualifications or approved early childhood teaching qualifications published under regulation 137 of the national regulations;
approved diploma level education and care qualification means—
(a) a qualification for the education and care of children generally or children of a specified age that is approved by the National Authority and included in the list of approved diploma level education and care qualifications published under regulation 137 of the national regulations; or
(b) a qualification included in the list of approved early childhood teaching qualifications published under regulation 137 of the national regulations;
Reg. 5(1) def. of approved early childhood teaching qualification inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 5(a).
approved early childhood teaching qualification means a qualification for the education and care of children generally or children of a specified age that is approved by the National Authority and included in the list of approved early childhood teaching qualifications published under regulation 137 of the national regulations;
Reg. 5(1) def. of approved education and care qualification inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 5(a).
approved education and care qualification, in regulations 92A and 94, means—
(a) an approved certificate III level education and care qualification; or
(b) an approved diploma level education and care qualification; or
(c) an approved early childhood teaching qualification;
approved number of places, in relation to a children's service, means the maximum number of children who can be educated and cared for by the service at any one time, stated on the service approval under section 51(g) of the Act;
bankruptcy declaration means a declaration made by an individual about any proceeding in bankruptcy brought against the individual including—
(a) whether any actions have been taken against the individual under Part IV of the Bankruptcy Act 1966 of the Commonwealth; and
(b) whether the individual has made any debt agreement under Part IX of the Bankruptcy Act 1966 of the Commonwealth; and
(c) whether the individual has made any personal insolvency agreement under Part X of the Bankruptcy Act 1966 of the Commonwealth;
building law means the Building Act 1993;
building practitioner means—
(a) a person who is registered as a building practitioner under the building law; or
(b) a person who is registered as an architect under the Architects Act 1991; or
(c) a person who is registered as a licensed surveyor under the Surveying Act 2004;
certificate of final inspection means a certificate issued on completion of building work by a building practitioner under the building law;
child over preschool age means a child who—
(a) is enrolled or registered at a school; and
(b) attends, or in the current calendar year, will attend school in the year before grade 1 or in grade 1 or a higher grade;
child preschool age or under means a child under the age of 7 years who is not a child over preschool age;
child protection law means—
(a) the Children, Youth and Families Act 2005; and
(b) the Child Wellbeing and Safety Act 2005; and
(c) the Family Violence Protection Act 2008;
commencement day means 17 May 2020;
criminal history record check means a full disclosure Australia-wide criminal history record check, issued by a police force or other authority of a State or Territory or the Commonwealth;
criminal history statement means a statement made by an individual that—
(a) states whether the individual has been convicted in Australia of any offences relevant to a person seeking to work with children; and
(b) includes details of those convictions;
diagnosed as at risk of anaphylaxis, in relation to a child, means a child who has been diagnosed by a registered medical practitioner as at risk of anaphylaxis;
disciplinary proceedings statement means a statement made by an individual that states—
(a) whether the individual is or has been subject to a formal disciplinary proceeding or action under an education law or an equivalent law of a participating jurisdiction (other than a proceeding or action that was unsuccessful or was withdrawn); and
(b) the outcome of the proceeding or action (if known);
educational program means a program referred to in section 108 of the Act;
emergency, in relation to a children's service, means an incident, situation or event where there is an imminent or severe risk to the health, safety or wellbeing of a person at the children's service;
Examples
1 Flood.
2 Fire.
3 A situation that requires the children's service premises to be locked down.
excursion means an outing organised by a children's service, but does not include an outing organised by a children's service provided on a school site if—
(a) the child or children leave the children's service premises in the company of an educator; and
(b) the child or children do not leave the school site;
financial declaration means a declaration made by a person who is not an individual indicating whether the person is or has been declared insolvent or is or has been placed under external administration;
in attendance at a children's service, in relation to an early childhood teacher or a suitably qualified person—see regulation 9;
infectious disease has the same meaning as in the Public Health and Wellbeing Act 2008;
limited hours service means a children's service that does not provide education and care to any child who attends the service for more than—
(a) 3 hours per day; and
(b) 6 hours per week;
medication means medicine within the meaning of the Therapeutic Goods Act 1989 of the Commonwealth;
Reg. 5(1) def. of multi-storey building inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 5(a).
multi-storey building means a building with more than 2 storeys;
occasional care service means a children's service that is not a limited hours service;
occupancy permit means a permit issued under the building law that permits a building to be occupied;
overseas criminal history statement means a statement made by an individual that—
(a) states whether the individual has been convicted outside Australia of any offences relevant to a person seeking to work with children; and
(b) includes details of those convictions;
planning and development law means the Planning and Environment Act 1987;
planning permit means a permit issued under Part 4 of the planning and development law in respect of the use or development of any land;
previous service statement means a statement made by an individual that states—
(a) whether or not the individual has held any role with an education and care service or a children's service in the previous 3 years; and
(b) includes the following details for each role—
(i) the name of the service;
(ii) the State or Territory in which the service was located;
(iii) the nature of the role;
Reg. 5(1) def. of regular outing amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 5(b).
regular outing, in relation to a children's service, means a walk, drive or trip to and from a destination—
(a) that the service visits regularly as part of its educational program; and
(b) where the circumstances relevant to the risk assessment are substantially the same on each outing;
Reg. 5(1) def. of regular transportation inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 5(a).
regular transportation, in relation to a children's service, means the transportation by the service or arranged by the service (other than as part of an excursion) of a child being educated and cared for by the service, where the circumstances relevant to a risk assessment are substantially the same for each occasion on which the child is transported;
responsible person, in relation to a children's service, means a person referred to in section 103(a) to (c) of the Act;
serious incident—see regulation 10;
soil assessment means an analysis of soil conducted by an environmental consultant, environmental consulting firm, or environmental auditor for the purposes of determining—
(a) the nature, extent and levels of contamination; and
(b) the actual or potential risk to human health resulting from that contamination;
Reg. 5(1) def. of storey inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 5(a).
storey, of a building, includes the following—
(a) the ground level;
(b) a level of a split level;
suitably qualified person means a person who has—
(a) a qualification for the education and care of children generally or children of a specified age that is approved by the National Authority and included in the list of approved qualifications for suitably qualified persons published under regulation 137 of the national regulations; or
(b) a qualification approved by the National Authority as a higher qualification for suitably qualified persons and included in the list of approved qualifications for suitably qualified persons published under regulation 137 of the national regulations;
the Act means the Children's Services Act 1996;
working directly with children—see regulation 11.
(2) A requirement under these Regulations applying in relation to a stated number of children applies each time there is the stated number of children or a part of the stated number.
There are 30 children aged 36 months or over (not including children over preschool age) at a children's service. Regulation 90(1)(b) requires one educator for each 11 children. In this case, 3 educators would be required.
6
Prescribed entity
6 Prescribed entity
For the purposes of paragraph (e) of the definition of person in section 3(1) of the Act, a body politic is a prescribed entity.
Reg. 6A inserted by S.R. No. 80/2024 reg. 6.
6A
Approval in principle criteria
6A Approval in principle criteria
For the purposes of the definition of approval in principle criteria in section 3(1) of the Act, the following regulations are prescribed—
(a) regulation 78(b);
(b) regulation 79(a) and (b);
(c) regulation 81(4);
(d) regulation 84.
7
Types of children's service
7 Types of children's service
For the purposes of these Regulations, each of the following is a type of children's service—
(a) an occasional care service;
(b) a limited hours service.
8
Meaning of *actively working towards* a qualification
8 Meaning of *actively working towards* a qualification
For the purposes of these Regulations, an educator is actively working towards a qualification if the educator—
(a) is enrolled in the course for the qualification; and
(b) provides the approved provider with documentary evidence from the provider of the course that—
(i) the educator has commenced the course; and
(ii) the educator is making satisfactory progress towards completion of the course; and
(iii) the educator is meeting the requirements for maintaining the enrolment; and
(iv) in the case of an approved diploma level education and care qualification, the educator—
(A) holds an approved certificate III level education and care qualification; or
(B) has completed the units of study in an approved certificate III level education and care qualification determined by the National Authority under the national regulations; or
(C) has completed the percentage of total units of study required for completion of an approved early childhood teaching qualification determined by the National Authority under the national regulations.
9
Meaning of *in attendance* at a children's service
9 Meaning of *in attendance* at a children's service
For the purposes of these Regulations, an early childhood teacher is in attendance at a children's service if the early childhood teacher—
(a) is physically present at the service; and
(b) carries out education and care activities at the service including one or more of the following—
(i) working directly with children;
(ii) planning programs;
(iii) mentoring, coaching or supporting educators;
(iv) facilitating education and care research.
10
Meaning of *serious incident*
10 Meaning of *serious incident*
For the purposes of the definition of serious incident in section 3(1) of the Act, each of the following is prescribed as a serious incident—
(a) the death of a child—
(i) while that child is being educated and cared for by a children's service; or
(ii) following an incident occurring while that child was being educated and cared for by a children's service;
(b) any incident involving serious injury or trauma to a child occurring while that child is being educated and cared for by a children's service—
(i) which a reasonable person would consider required urgent medical attention from a registered medical practitioner; or
(ii) for which the child attended, or ought reasonably to have attended, a hospital;
A broken limb.
(c) any incident involving serious illness of a child occurring while that child is being educated and cared for by a children's service for which the child attended, or ought reasonably to have attended, a hospital;
Severe asthma attack, seizure or anaphylaxis reaction.
(d) any emergency for which emergency services attended;
(e) any circumstance where a child being educated and cared for by a children's service—
(i) appears to be missing or cannot be accounted for; or
(ii) appears to have been taken or removed from the children's service premises in a manner that contravenes these Regulations; or
(iii) is mistakenly locked in or locked out of the children's service premises or any part of the premises.
11
Meaning of *working directly with children*
11 Meaning of *working directly with children*
For the purposes of these Regulations, a person is working directly with children at a given time if at that time the person—
(a) is physically present with the children; and
(b) is directly engaged in providing education and care to the children.
Part 2
Provider approvals
Part 2—Provider approvals
12
Application for provider approvals by individual
12 Application for provider approvals by individual
For the purposes of section 11(c) of the Act, the following information is prescribed for an application for a provider approval made by an individual under section 10 of the Act—
(d) proof of the applicant's identity;
(e) a previous service statement made by the applicant;
Reg. 12(f) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 6.
(f) if held by the applicant, a copy of the applicant's current WWC clearance;
(g) if the applicant is a registered teacher under the education law, proof of the current registration under that law;
(h) a criminal history record check in respect of the applicant issued not more than 6 months before the date of the application;
(i) a criminal history statement made by the applicant in relation to the period after the date on which the criminal history record check referred to in paragraph (h) was issued to the date of the application;
(j) if the applicant lived and worked outside Australia at any time within the previous 3 years, an overseas criminal history statement made by the applicant;
(k) a disciplinary proceedings statement made by the applicant;
(l) a bankruptcy declaration made by the applicant.
If there is more than one applicant, the prescribed information must be provided in respect of each applicant—see section 10(3)(a) of the Act.
13
Application for provider approval by person other than an individual
13 Application for provider approval by person other than an individual
For the purposes of section 11(c) of the Act, the following information is prescribed for an application for a provider approval made by a person other than an individual under section 10 of the Act—
(b) the applicant's street address and postal address or, if there is more than one address, the street address and postal address of the applicant's principal office;
(d) documentary evidence of the legal status of the applicant and its constitution;
(e) a financial declaration regarding the applicant;
(f) for each individual who will be a person with management or control of a children's service to be operated by the applicant, the information set out in regulation 12.
If there is more than one applicant, the prescribed information must be provided in respect of each applicant—see section 10(3)(a) of the Act.
14
Matters relating to criminal history
14 Matters relating to criminal history
For the purposes of section 13(1)(d)(i) of the Act, the following matters relating to the criminal history of a person that the Regulatory Authority must have regard to are prescribed—
(a) whether the person—
Reg. 14(a)(i) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 7.
(i) holds a current WWC clearance; or
(ii) is a registered teacher under the education law;
(b) any matters included in a criminal history record check.
15
Application for amendment of provider approval
15 Application for amendment of provider approval
For the purposes of section 22(2)(b) of the Act, the following information is prescribed for an application under section 22 of the Act for an amendment of a provider approval—
(a) the full name of the approved provider;
(b) the provider approval number;
(d) the details of the amendment applied for;
(e) sufficient information or documentation to support the application for amendment.
16
Maximum period of suspension of provider approval
16 Maximum period of suspension of provider approval
For the purposes of sections 27(b)(i) and 33(1)(a)(ii) of the Act, the prescribed maximum period of suspension of a provider approval under section 27(b)(i) or 33(1)(a)(ii) of the Act is 12 months.
17
Application for voluntary suspension of provider approval
17 Application for voluntary suspension of provider approval
For the purposes of section 37(2)(b) of the Act, the following information is prescribed for an application under section 37 of the Act for the suspension of a provider approval—
(a) the full name of the approved provider;
(b) the provider approval number;
(d) the reasons for the suspension;
(e) the date on which the suspension is proposed to take effect and the duration of the suspension;
(f) what is intended to happen to each children's service operated by the approved provider during the proposed suspension;
(g) a statement indicating that the approved provider has notified the parents of children enrolled at the children's services operated by the approved provider in accordance with section 37(3) of the Act.
18
Application by individual executor for provider approval
18 Application by individual executor for provider approval
For the purposes of section 39(6)(b) of the Act, the following information is prescribed for an application for a provider approval made under section 39(5) of the Act by an executor who is an individual—
(d) in relation to the current approved provider—
(i) the approved provider's full name; and
(iii) the date of the approved provider's death; and
(iv) a copy of the death certificate or other evidence of the death of the approved provider;
(f) proof of the applicant's identity;
Reg. 18(g) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 8.
(g) if held by the applicant, a copy of the applicant's current WWC clearance;
(h) if the applicant is a registered teacher under the education law, proof of the current registration under that law;
(i) a criminal history record check issued not more than 6 months before the date of the application;
(j) a criminal history statement made by the applicant in relation to the period after the date on which the criminal history record check referred to in paragraph (i) was issued to the date of the application;
(k) if the applicant lived and worked outside Australia at any time within the previous 3 years, an overseas criminal history statement made by the applicant;
(l) a disciplinary proceedings statement made by the applicant;
(m) a bankruptcy declaration made by the applicant.
19
Application by executor other than an individual for provider approval
19 Application by executor other than an individual for provider approval
For the purposes of section 39(6)(b) of the Act, the following information is prescribed for an application for a provider approval made under section 39(5) of the Act by an executor other than an individual—
(b) the applicant's street address and postal address or, if there is more than one address, the street address and postal address of the applicant's principal office;
(d) in relation to the current approved provider—
(i) the approved provider's full name; and
(iii) the date of the approved provider's death; and
(iv) a copy of the death certificate or other evidence of the death of the approved provider;
(f) documentary evidence of the legal status of the applicant and its constitution;
(g) a financial declaration regarding the applicant;
(h) for each individual who will be a person with management or control of a children's service to be operated by the applicant, the information set out in regulation 18.
20
Application by individual for provider approval on incapacity of approved provider
20 Application by individual for provider approval on incapacity of approved provider
For the purposes of section 40(3)(b) of the Act, the following information is prescribed for an application for a provider approval made under section 40(2) of the Act by the legal personal representative or guardian of an approved provider, if the applicant is an individual—
(d) the current approved provider's full name and provider approval number;
(f) proof of the applicant's identity;
Reg. 20(g) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 9.
(g) if held by the applicant, a copy of the applicant's current WWC clearance;
(h) if the applicant is a registered teacher under the education law, proof of current registration;
(i) a criminal history record check issued not more than 6 months before the date of the application;
(j) a criminal history statement made by the applicant in relation to the period after the date on which the criminal history record check referred to in paragraph (i) was issued until the application is made;
(k) if the applicant lived and worked outside Australia at any time within the previous 3 years, an overseas criminal history statement made by the applicant;
(l) a disciplinary proceedings statement made by the applicant;
(m) a bankruptcy declaration made by the applicant.
21
Application by person other than an individual for provider approval on incapacity of approved provider
21 Application by person other than an individual for provider approval on incapacity of approved provider
For the purposes of section 40(3)(b) of the Act, the following information is prescribed for an application for a provider approval made under section 40(2) of the Act by the legal personal representative or guardian of an approved provider, if the applicant is a person other than an individual—
(b) the applicant's street address and postal address or, if there is more than one address, the street address and postal address of the applicant's principal office;
(d) the current approved provider's full name and provider approval number;
(f) documentary evidence of the legal status of the applicant and its constitution;
(g) a financial declaration regarding the applicant;
(h) for each individual who will be a person with management or control of a children's service to be operated by the applicant, the information set out in regulation 20.
Part 3—Service approvals
Division 1—Applications for service approvals
22 Application for service approval
Subject to regulation 24, for the purposes of section 43(c) of the Act, the following information is prescribed for an application under section 42 of the Act for a service approval for a children's service—
(a) the applicant's full name and—
(i) provider approval number; or
(ii) if the applicant has applied for a provider approval but the application has not been decided, the applicant's contact details;
(b) the name of the proposed children's service;
(c) the proposed date on which the children's service will commence operation;
(d) if known, the contact details, including an after-hours telephone number, for the proposed children's service;
(e) the proposed ages of children to be educated and cared for by the children's service;
(f) the proposed maximum number of children to be educated and cared for by the children's service;
(g) the proposed hours and days of operation of the children's service;
(h) the proposed type of children's service being applied for and a description of the nature of the children's service;
Reg. 22(ha) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 10.
(ha) a description of any proposed regular transportation of children by or arranged by the children's service;
(i) a statement that the applicant has prepared the policies and procedures referred to in regulation 112;
(j) the full name and contact details, including the after-hours telephone number, of each nominated supervisor.
The application must include a nominated supervisor's written consent to the nomination unless the nominated supervisor is the approved provider—see section 43(e) of the Act.
23
Additional information about proposed children's service premises
23 Additional information about proposed children's service premises
(1) Subject to subregulation (2) and regulation 24, for the purposes of section 43(c) of the Act, the following information about the proposed children's service premises is prescribed for an application for a service approval for a children's service (in addition to the information required under regulation 22)—
(a) the location and street address of the proposed children's service premises;
(b) plans prepared by a building practitioner of the proposed children's service premises showing the following—
(i) the location of all buildings, structures, outdoor play areas and shaded areas;
(ii) the location of all entries and exits;
(iii) the location of all fences and gates, specifying the type of fence or gate used or to be used;
(iv) the location of toilet and washing facilities, nappy changing areas and any food preparation areas;
(v) the boundaries of the premises;
(vi) the landscape of, or landscaping plans for, outdoor spaces that will be used by the children's service, specifying the natural environments that are or will be provided;
(vii) a floor plan indicating unencumbered indoor and outdoor spaces suitable for children;
(viii) calculations, carried out by a building practitioner, of the areas referred to in regulations 76 and 77 relating to unencumbered indoor and outdoor space;
(ix) the elevation plans of the premises;
Reg. 23(1)(ba) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 11.
(ba) if the proposed children's service premises will be located within a multi-storey building shared with other occupants—
(i) the total number of storeys in the building; and
(ii) the storey or storeys on which the premises will be located; and
(iii) if the premises will be located on more than one storey, the ages of the children who will attend on each storey;
(c) if a swimming pool or other water hazard is situated on the proposed children's service premises, a copy of the service's proposed water safety policy;
(d) one of the following—
(i) a soil assessment for the site of the proposed children's service premises;
(ii) if a soil assessment for the site of the proposed children's service premises has previously been undertaken, a statement to that effect, specifying when the soil assessment was undertaken;
(iii) a statement made by the applicant that states that, to the best of the applicant's knowledge the site history does not indicate that the site is likely to be contaminated in a way that poses an unacceptable risk to the health of children;
(e) a copy of the planning permit for the proposed children's service premises if a planning permit is required under the planning and development law;
(f) a statement that the applicant has the right to occupy and use the premises and any document evidencing this;
A lease of the premises.
(g) a copy of any occupancy permit, certificate of final inspection, building certificate, certificate of classification or building surveyor's statement issued or given in respect of the final construction and fit out of the children's service premises;
Reg. 23(1)(h) amended by S.R. No. 80/2024 reg. 7(a).
(h) a statement made by a building practitioner that states that the children's service premises complies with the requirements under the building law and planning and development law;
Reg. 23(1)(i) inserted by S.R. No. 80/2024 reg. 7(b).
(i) if the proposed children's service premises has an approval in principle—
(i) the approval in principle number (if any); and
(ii) a statement made by the applicant that, to the best of the applicant's knowledge, the premises were constructed, altered or repaired in accordance with the plans, drawings or specifications attached to, or specified in, the approval in principle.
(2) If the approved provider is seeking to locate the children's service on a school site, the Regulatory Authority may determine that the requirements of subregulation (1)(b), (d), (e), (g) or (h) do not apply to the application for the service approval.
24
Application for service approval for a children's service—relocation of existing children's service
24 Application for service approval for a children's service—relocation of existing children's service
(1) This regulation applies if—
(a) an application for a service approval relates to a children's service that is an approved children's service; and
(b) the purpose of the application is to change the location of that service.
A service approval cannot be amended to change the location of a children's service—see section 53(8) of the Act.
(2) If the children's service is to be relocated for less than 12 months, the Regulatory Authority may determine that the requirements of regulation 23(1)(b) or (g) do not apply to the application for the service approval.
(3) If the children's service is to be relocated due to exceptional circumstances (whether for more or less than 12 months), the Regulatory Authority may determine that any of the following information is not required to be provided in the application for the service approval—
(a) the information set out in regulation 22(g);
(b) the contact details of the nominated supervisor set out in regulation 22(j);
Reg. 24(3)(c) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 12.
(c) any of the information set out in regulation 23(1)(b), (ba), (c), (d), (e), (f) or (g).
(4) If the Regulatory Authority makes a determination under subregulation (3), the approved provider must provide the relevant information to the Regulatory Authority as soon as possible.
(5) A failure by the approved provider to provide the relevant information to the Regulatory Authority under subregulation (4) does not prevent the Regulatory Authority granting the service approval.
25
Additional matters to have regard to in determining application for service approval
25 Additional matters to have regard to in determining application for service approval
For the purposes of section 46(1)(f) of the Act, the following matters are prescribed matters for the Regulatory Authority to have regard to in determining an application for a service approval under section 42 of the Act—
(a) any suspension of the applicant's provider approval;
Reg. 25(b) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 13(a).
(b) any conditions of the applicant's provider approval;
Reg. 25(c) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 13(b).
(c) in the case of a proposed children's service to be located within a multi‑storey building shared with other occupants, for each storey on which the service is proposed to be located, whether there is direct egress to an assembly area to allow the safe evacuation of all children attending the service, including non-ambulatory children.
26
Additional grounds for refusal to grant service approval
26 Additional grounds for refusal to grant service approval
For the purposes of section 48(2) of the Act, the following grounds for refusing to grant a service approval are prescribed—
(a) the Regulatory Authority is not satisfied that the applicant is capable of operating the proposed service in a way that meets the requirements of the Act or these Regulations;
The Regulatory Authority is not satisfied that the applicant is capable of maintaining premises or equipment or providing staff as required under the Act, whether because of financial or management capacity or another reason.
(b) the Regulatory Authority is not satisfied that the applicant is entitled to occupy the children's service premises.
27
Condition on service approval—insurance
27 Condition on service approval—insurance
For the purposes of section 50(3) of the Act, the prescribed insurance in respect of the children's service is—
(a) a current policy of insurance providing adequate cover for the children's service against public liability with a minimum cover of $10 000 000; or
(b) a policy of insurance or an indemnity against public liability provided by the State in respect of the children's service.
See regulation 121 for the requirement to keep evidence of prescribed insurance.
28
Condition on service approval—entitlement to occupy premises
28 Condition on service approval—entitlement to occupy premises
For the purposes of section 50(6) of the Act, the service continuing to be entitled to occupy the children's service premises is a prescribed condition.
29
Prescribed matters included in copy of service approval
29 Prescribed matters included in copy of service approval
For the purposes of section 51(1)(i) of the Act, a copy of the service approval must state the type of children's service for which the service approval has been granted.
Regulation 7 provides that, for the purposes of these Regulations, there are 2 types of children's service—
(a) occasional care service; and
(b) limited hours service.
30
Annual fees
30 Annual fees
(1) For the purposes of section 52 of the Act, the prescribed annual fee for a service approval is the relevant annual fee set out in Schedule 2.
(2) The approved provider of a children's service must pay the relevant annual fee in respect of each service approval on or before 1 July each year.
(3) Despite subregulation (1), the prescribed annual fee for the financial year ending 30 June 2020 is nil.
Div 2
Amendment of service approval and notice of change to nominated supervisor
Division 2—Amendment of service approval and notice of change to nominated supervisor
31
Prescribed information for application to amend service approval
31 Prescribed information for application to amend service approval
For the purposes of section 53(2)(b) of the Act, the following information is prescribed for an application under section 53(1) of the Act for an amendment of a service approval—
(a) the name of the children' service;
(d) the details of the amendment applied for;
(e) sufficient information or documentation to support the application for amendment.
32
Notice of addition of new nominated supervisor
32 Notice of addition of new nominated supervisor
For the purposes of section 55(2)(b) of the Act, the following information is prescribed for a notice under section 55(1) of the Act to add a new nominated supervisor of a children's service—
(d) the full name and contact details of the new nominated supervisor;
(e) the date on which the new nominated supervisor commences or commenced work as a nominated supervisor.
A notice must include a nominated supervisor's written consent to the nomination unless the nominated supervisor is the approved provider—see section 55(2)(a) of the Act.
Div 3
Transfer of service approval
Division 3—Transfer of service approval
33
Notice of transfer of service approval
33 Notice of transfer of service approval
For the purposes of section 59(2)(b) of the Act, the following information is prescribed for a notice under section 59(1) of the Act of a transfer of a service approval for a children's service—
(c) the transferring approved provider's—
(i) name and contact details; and
(ii) provider approval number;
(d) the receiving approved provider's—
(i) name and contact details; and
(ii) provider approval number;
(e) the date on which the transfer is intended to take effect;
(f) the details of any proposed changes in relation to the information required to be provided under regulations 22 and 23.
34
Notification of decision to intervene in transfer of service approval
34 Notification of decision to intervene in transfer of service approval
For the purposes of section 62(4)(b) of the Act, the following information is prescribed for a notification under section 62(2) of the Act of the decision to intervene in the transfer of a service approval—
(c) the name of the transferring approved provider;
(d) the name of the receiving approved provider;
(e) the matters about which the Regulatory Authority is concerned.
Div 4
Suspension of service approval
Division 4—Suspension of service approval
35
Maximum period of suspension of service approval
35 Maximum period of suspension of service approval
For the purposes of sections 72(b)(i) and 78(1)(a)(ii) of the Act, the prescribed maximum period of suspension of a service approval is 12 months.
36
Application for voluntary suspension of service approval
36 Application for voluntary suspension of service approval
For the purposes of section 83(2)(b) of the Act, the following information is prescribed for an application under section 83(1) of the Act for the suspension of a service approval—
(d) the reasons for the suspension;
(e) the date on which the suspension is proposed to take effect and the duration of the suspension;
(f) a statement indicating that the approved provider has notified the parents of children enrolled at the children's service in accordance with section 83(4) of the Act.
Div 5
Service waiver
Division 5—Service waiver
Reg. 37 amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 14.
37
Service waiver—prescribed requirements
37 Service waiver—prescribed requirements
For the purposes of section 85(1) of the Act, the requirements of regulations 73, 76, 77, 79 to 84, 88, 90, 91, 92 and 93 are prescribed.
38
Prescribed information—application for service waiver
38 Prescribed information—application for service waiver
For the purposes of section 86(b) of the Act, the following information is prescribed for an application under section 85 of the Act for a service waiver—
(d) a statement that specifies—
(i) the regulations in relation to which a service waiver is sought; and
(ii) the way in which the children's service does not or will not comply with the specified regulations;
(e) if the children's service is unable to comply with the specified regulations—
(i) the reasons that the children's service is unable to comply; and
(ii) details and evidence of any attempts made to comply with the specified regulations;
(f) the reasons that the children's service seeks the service waiver;
(g) the measures being taken or to be taken to protect the wellbeing of children being educated and cared for by the service while the service waiver is in force.
39
Prescribed period—revocation of service waiver
39 Prescribed period—revocation of service waiver
(1) For the purposes of section 90(3) of the Act, the prescribed period in relation to a revocation of a service waiver under section 90(1) of the Act is—
(a) 14 days after the Regulatory Authority notifies the approved provider of the decision to revoke; or
(b) if another period is determined by the Regulatory Authority with the agreement of the approved provider, that other period.
(2) For the purposes of section 90(3) of the Act, the prescribed period in relation to a revocation of a service waiver under section 90(2) of the Act, is—
(a) 14 days after the Regulatory Authority notifies the approved provider of the approval of the application; or
(b) if another period is determined by the Regulatory Authority with the agreement of the approved provider, that other period.
Div 6
Temporary waiver
Division 6—Temporary waiver
40
Temporary waiver—prescribed requirements
40 Temporary waiver—prescribed requirements
Reg. 40 amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 15.
For the purposes of section 92 of the Act, the requirements of regulations 73, 76, 77, 79 to 84, 88, 90, 91, 92, 93 and 95 are prescribed.
41
Application for temporary waiver
41 Application for temporary waiver
For the purposes of section 93(b) of the Act, the following information is prescribed for an application under section 92 of the Act for a temporary waiver—
(d) a statement that specifies—
(i) the regulations in relation to which a temporary waiver is sought; and
(ii) the way in which the children's service does not or will not comply with the regulations;
(e) the reasons that the children's service is unable to comply with the specified regulations;
(f) details and evidence of any attempts made to comply with the specified regulations;
(g) the period for which a temporary waiver is sought and the reasons for seeking that period;
This period cannot exceed 12 months—see section 96(2) of the Act.
(h) details of steps that are being or will be taken in order to comply with the specified regulations;
(i) the measures being taken or to be taken to protect the wellbeing of children being educated and cared for by the service while the temporary waiver is in force.
Pt 3A (Heading and regs 41A–41E) inserted by S.R. No. 80/2024 reg. 8.
Part 3A
Premises approvals in principle
Part 3A—Premises approvals in principle
Reg. 41A inserted by S.R. No. 80/2024 reg. 8.
41A
Application for approval in principle of proposed premises
41A Application for approval in principle of proposed premises
For the purposes of section 100B(1)(c) of the Act, the following information is prescribed—
(a) if the applicant is an individual—
(i) the applicant's full name; and
(ii) any former or other name the applicant may be known by; and
(iii) proof of the applicant's identity;
(b) if the applicant is a person other than an individual—
(i) the applicant's name; and
(ii) any trading or other name used by the applicant; and
(iii) documentary evidence of the legal status of the applicant and its constitution;
(c) the applicant's ABN (if any);
(d) the applicant's provider approval number (if any);
(e) if the applicant does not have a provider approval number, whether the applicant has applied for a provider approval but the application has not been decided;
A provider approval is not required for an application for an approval in principle.
(f) the applicant's street address and postal address or, if there is more than one address, the street address and postal address of the applicant's principal office;
(g) the name and contact details of the contact person for the purposes of the application;
(h) the location and street address of the proposed children's service premises;
(i) a description of the land on which the proposed children's service premises will be located;
(j) a soil assessment for the site of the proposed children's service premises;
(k) plans prepared by a building practitioner showing—
(i) all possible evacuation routes from each storey of the proposed children's service premises; and
(ii) the assembly area proposed to be used in an emergency evacuation of the proposed children's service premises;
(l) a description of—
(i) any other occupants or proposed occupants of the building in which the premises are proposed to be located; and
(ii) the types of any enterprises operating from properties within 50 metres of the proposed children's service premises;
A supermarket.
(m) a plan showing the direct sunlight to be received by the proposed children's service premises between 9.00 a.m. and 3.00 p.m. on the winter solstice and the summer solstice.
Reg. 41B inserted by S.R. No. 80/2024 reg. 8.
41B
Application for amendment of approval in principle
41B Application for amendment of approval in principle
For the purposes of section 100J(2)(b) of the Act, the following information is prescribed—
(b) the name of the approval in principle holder;
(f) the details of the amendment applied for;
(g) any plans prepared by a building practitioner that are relevant to the amendment applied for.
Reg. 41C inserted by S.R. No. 80/2024 reg. 8.
41C
Notice of transfer of approval in principle
41C Notice of transfer of approval in principle
For the purposes of section 100M(3)(c) of the Act, the following information is prescribed—
(b) the name of the transferring approval in principle holder;
(c) the name and contact details of the contact person for the transferring approval in principle holder for the purposes of the transfer;
(f) if the receiving approval in principle holder is an individual—
(i) the individual's full name; and
(ii) any former or other name the individual may be known by; and
(iii) proof of the individual's identity;
(g) if the receiving approval in principle holder is a person other than an individual—
(i) the person's name; and
(ii) any trading or other name used by the person; and
(iii) documentary evidence of the legal status of the person and its constitution;
(h) the receiving approval in principle holder's ABN (if any);
(i) the receiving approval in principle holder's address and postal address or, if there is more than one address, the street address and postal address of the receiving approval in principle holder's principal office;
(j) the name and contact details of the contact person for the receiving approval in principle holder for the purposes of the transfer.
Reg. 41D inserted by S.R. No. 80/2024 reg. 8.
41D
Application to extend approval in principle
41D Application to extend approval in principle
For the purposes of section 100S(3)(b) of the Act, the following information is prescribed—
(b) the name of the approval in principle holder;
(f) the estimated date of completion of the construction, alteration or repair of the proposed children's service premises;
(g) details of any proposed application for a service approval in respect of the proposed children's service premises, including—
(i) the name of the approved provider (if any); and
(ii) the provider approval number (if any); and
(iii) the estimated date by which the application for a service approval will be made.
Reg. 41E inserted by S.R. No. 80/2024 reg. 8.
41E
Application to reinstate approval in principle
41E Application to reinstate approval in principle
For the purposes of section 100T(2)(b) of the Act, the following information is prescribed—
(b) the name of the approval in principle holder at the time of the expiry of the approval in principle;
(f) the estimated date of completion of the construction, alteration or repair of the proposed children's service premises;
(g) details of any proposed application for a service approval in respect of the proposed children's service premises, including—
(i) the name of the approved provider (if any); and
(ii) the provider approval number (if any); and
(iii) the estimated date by which the application for a service approval will be made.
Part 4—Operational requirements
Division 1—Educational program and practice
42 Educational program
(1) This Part applies in relation to the program (the educational program) that is required to be delivered under section 108 of the Act to a child being educated and cared for by a children's service.
(2) An educational program is to contribute to the following outcomes for each child—
(a) the child will have a strong sense of identity;
(b) the child will be connected with and contribute to his or her world;
(c) the child will have a strong sense of wellbeing;
(d) the child will be a confident and involved learner;
(e) the child will be an effective communicator.
43
Documenting of child assessments or evaluations for delivery of educational program
43 Documenting of child assessments or evaluations for delivery of educational program
(1) The approved provider of the children's service must ensure that, for the purposes of the educational program, the following are documented—
(a) for a child preschool age or under—
(i) assessments of the child's developmental needs, interests, experiences and participation in the educational program; and
(ii) assessments of the child's progress against the outcomes of the educational program;
Reg. 43(1)(b) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 16.
(b) for a child over preschool age, evidence of the development of the program.
(2) In preparing the documentation, the approved provider must—
(a) consider—
(i) the period of time that the child is being educated and cared for by the service; and
(ii) how the documentation will be used by the educators at the service; and
(b) prepare the documentation in a way that is readily understandable by the educators at the service and the parents of the child.
44
Information about educational program to be kept available
44 Information about educational program to be kept available
The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that—
(a) information about the contents and operation of the educational program for the service is displayed at the children's service premises at a place accessible to parents of children being educated and cared for by the service; and
(b) a copy of the educational program is available at the children's service premises.
45
Information about educational program to be given to parents
45 Information about educational program to be given to parents
The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that a parent of a child being educated and cared for by the service is provided with the following information on request—
(a) information about the content and operation of the educational program so far as it relates to that child;
(b) information about the child's participation in the program;
(c) a copy of the documents kept under regulation 43 in respect of the child.
Division 2—Health, safety and wellbeing of children
46
Health, hygiene and safe food practices
46 Health, hygiene and safe food practices
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that nominated supervisors and staff members of, and volunteers at, the service implement—
(a) adequate health and hygiene practices; and
(b) safe practices for handling, preparing and storing food—
to minimise risks to children being educated and cared for by the service.
(2) A nominated supervisor of a children's service must implement, and ensure that all staff members of, and volunteers at, the service implement—
(a) adequate health and hygiene practices; and
(b) safe practices for handling, preparing and storing food—
to minimise risks to children being educated and cared for by the service.
47
Food and beverages
47 Food and beverages
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that children being educated and cared for by the service—
(a) have access to safe drinking water at all times; and
(b) are offered food and beverages appropriate to the needs of each child on a regular basis throughout the day.
(2) A nominated supervisor of a children's service must ensure that children being educated and cared for by the service—
(a) have access to safe drinking water at all times; and
(b) are offered food and beverages on a regular basis throughout the day.
48
Service providing food and beverages
48 Service providing food and beverages
(1) The approved provider of a children's service that provides food or a beverage to children being educated and cared for by the service must ensure that—
(a) the food or beverage provided is nutritious and adequate in quantity; and
(b) the food or beverage provided is chosen having regard to the dietary requirements of individual children taking into account—
(i) each child's growth and development needs; and
(ii) any specific cultural, religious or health requirements.
(2) A nominated supervisor of a children's service that provides food or a beverage to children being educated and cared for by the service must ensure that—
(a) the food or beverage provided is nutritious and adequate in quantity; and
(b) the food or beverage provided is chosen having regard to the dietary requirements of individual children taking into account—
(i) each child's growth and development needs; and
(ii) any specific cultural, religious or health requirements.
(3) To avoid doubt, this regulation does not apply to food or a beverage provided by a parent or family member for consumption by the child.
49
Weekly menu
49 Weekly menu
(1) The approved provider of a children's service that provides food and beverages (other than water) to children being educated and cared for by the service must ensure that a weekly menu—
(a) is displayed at a place at the children's service premises accessible to parents of children being educated and cared for by the service; and
(b) accurately describes the food and beverages to be provided by the service each day.
(2) A nominated supervisor of a children's service that provides food and beverages (other than water) to children being educated and cared for by the service must ensure that a weekly menu—
(a) is displayed at a place at the children's service premises accessible to parents of children being educated and cared for by the service; and
(b) accurately describes the food and beverages to be provided by the service each day.
(3) To avoid doubt, this regulation does not apply to food and beverages provided by a parent or family member for consumption by the child.
Reg. 50 revoked by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 17.
51
Tobacco, drug and alcohol-free environment
51 Tobacco, drug and alcohol-free environment
The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that children being educated and cared for by the service are provided with an environment that is free from the use of tobacco, illicit drugs and alcohol.
52
Staff members not to be affected by alcohol or drugs
52 Staff members not to be affected by alcohol or drugs
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that a nominated supervisor or a staff member of, or volunteer at, the service is not affected by alcohol or drugs (including prescription medication) so as to impair the person's capacity to supervise or provide education and care to children being educated and cared for by the service.
(2) A nominated supervisor of a children's service must not, while educating and caring for children for the service—
(a) consume alcohol; or
(b) be affected by alcohol or drugs (including prescription medication) so as to impair the supervisor's capacity to supervise or provide education and care to the children.
Reg. 53 substituted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 18.
53
Awareness of child protection law
53 Awareness of child protection law
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that a person specified in subregulation (2) is advised of—
(a) the existence and application of any child protection law; and
(b) any obligations that the person may have under that law.
(2) The following persons are specified—
(a) a nominated supervisor of the service;
(b) a staff member of the service;
(c) a volunteer at the service;
(d) a student who participates in the service.
Pt 4 Div. 2A (Heading and regs 53A–53D) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 19.
Div 2A
Sleep and rest
Division 2A—Sleep and rest
Reg. 53A inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 19.
53A
Sleep and rest
53A Sleep and rest
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must take reasonable steps to ensure that the needs for sleep and rest of children being educated and cared for by the service are met, having regard to the ages, developmental stages and individual needs of the children.
(2) A nominated supervisor of a children's service must take reasonable steps to ensure that the needs for sleep and rest of children being educated and cared for by the service are met, having regard to the ages, developmental stages and individual needs of the children.
Reg. 53B inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 19.
53B
Sleep and rest policies and procedures
53B Sleep and rest policies and procedures
The sleep and rest policies and procedures required under regulation 112(2)(a)(v) must address—
(a) how children will be protected from any risks identified in a risk assessment conducted under regulation 53C; and
(b) how the sleep and rest needs of children being educated and cared for by the service are met, including how the ages, developmental stages and the sleep and rest needs of individual children are considered; and
(c) how the health care needs of individual children being educated and cared for by the service are met; and
(d) how requests from families about a child's sleep and rest and cultural preferences are considered; and
(e) supervision and monitoring during sleep and rest periods, including—
(i) the method and frequency of checking the safety, health and wellbeing of children during sleep and rest periods; and
(ii) the documentation of sleep and rest periods; and
(f) how the sleep and rest practices at the service are consistent with any current health guidelines on the best practices to adopt to ensure the safety of children during sleep and rest; and
(g) the induction, training and knowledge of staff who educate and care for children at the service in relation to best practices for children's sleep and rest; and
(h) the location and arrangement of sleep and rest areas at the service and how this meets the sleep and rest needs of children being educated and cared for by the service; and
(i) safety and suitability of cots, bedding and bedding equipment, having regard to the ages and developmental stages of children who will use the cots, bedding and bedding equipment; and
(j) management of potential hazards—
(i) in sleep and rest areas; and
(ii) on a child during sleep and rest periods; and
(k) management of physical safety and suitability of sleep and rest environments (including temperature, lighting and ventilation); and
(l) communication of the sleep and rest policies and procedures to a parent.
Reg. 53C inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 19.
53C
Risk assessment for purposes of sleep and rest policies and procedures
53C Risk assessment for purposes of sleep and rest policies and procedures
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that a sleep and rest risk assessment is conducted in accordance with this regulation—
(b) as soon as practicable after becoming aware of any circumstance that may affect the safety, health or wellbeing of children during sleep and rest.
(2) A risk assessment must consider the following—
(a) the number, ages and developmental stages of children being educated and cared for by the service;
(b) the sleep and rest needs of children being educated and cared for (including health care needs, cultural preferences, sleep and rest needs of individual children and requests from families about a child's sleep and rest) by the service;
(c) the suitability of staffing arrangements to adequately supervise and monitor children during sleep and rest periods;
(d) the level of knowledge and training of staff supervising children during sleep and rest periods;
(e) the location of sleep and rest areas, including the arrangement of cots and beds within the sleep and rest areas at the service;
(f) the safety and suitability of any cots, beds and bedding equipment, having regard to the ages and developmental stages of the children who will use the cots, bed and bedding equipment;
(g) any potential hazards—
(i) in sleep and rest areas; or
(ii) on a child during sleep and rest periods;
(h) the physical safety and suitability of sleep and rest environments (including temperature, lighting and ventilation) at the service.
(3) As soon as practicable after conducting a risk assessment under this regulation, the approved provider of a children's service must make any necessary updates to the sleep and rest policies and procedures.
(4) The approved provider must keep a record of each risk assessment conducted under this regulation.
Reg. 53D inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 19.
53D
Prohibition of bassinets
53D Prohibition of bassinets
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that a bassinet is not on the children's service premises at any time during which children are being educated and cared for by the service.
(2) A nominated supervisor of a children's service must ensure that a bassinet is not on the children's service premises at any time during which children are being educated and cared for by the service.
Division 3—Incidents, injury, trauma and illness
54
Incident, injury, trauma and illness policies and procedures
54 Incident, injury, trauma and illness policies and procedures
The incident, injury, trauma and illness policies and procedures of a children's service required under regulation 112 must include policies and procedures to be followed by nominated supervisors and staff members of, and volunteers at, the service in the event that a child, while being educated and cared for by the service—
(a) is injured; or
(b) becomes ill; or
(c) suffers a trauma.
55
Notification to parents of incident, injury, trauma and illness
55 Notification to parents of incident, injury, trauma and illness
The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that a parent of a child being educated and cared for by the service is notified as soon as practicable, but not later than 24 hours after the occurrence, if the child is involved in any incident, injury, trauma or illness while the child is being educated and cared for by the children's service.
56
Incident, injury, trauma and illness record
56 Incident, injury, trauma and illness record
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that an incident, injury, trauma and illness record is kept in accordance with this regulation.
(2) The incident, injury, trauma and illness record must include—
(a) details of any incident in relation to a child or injury received by a child or trauma to which a child has been subjected while being educated and cared for by the children's service, including—
(i) the name and age of the child; and
(ii) the circumstances leading to the incident, injury or trauma; and
(iii) the time and date the incident occurred, the injury was received or the child was subjected to the trauma; and
(b) details of any illness which becomes apparent while the child is being educated and cared for by the children's service including—
(i) the name and age of the child; and
(ii) the relevant circumstances surrounding the child becoming ill and any apparent symptoms; and
(iii) the time and date of the apparent onset of the illness; and
(c) details of the action taken by the children's service in relation to any incident, injury, trauma or illness which a child has suffered while being educated and cared for by the children's service, including—
(i) any medication administered or first aid provided; and
(ii) any medical personnel contacted; and
(d) details of any person who witnessed the incident, injury or trauma; and
(e) the name of any person—
(i) whom the children's service notified or attempted to notify, of any incident, injury, trauma or illness which a child has suffered while being educated and cared for by the children's service; and
(ii) the time and date of the notifications or attempted notifications; and
(f) the name and signature of the person making an entry in the record, and the time and date that the entry was made.
(3) The information referred to in subregulation (2) must be included in the incident, injury, trauma and illness record as soon as practicable, but not later than 24 hours after the incident, injury or trauma, or the onset of the illness.
57
Infectious diseases
57 Infectious diseases
(1) If there is an occurrence of an infectious disease at a children's service, the approved provider of the service must ensure that reasonable steps are taken to prevent the spread of the infectious disease at the service.
(2) If there is an occurrence of an infectious disease at a children's service, the approved provider of the service must ensure that a parent or an authorised emergency contact of each child being educated and cared for by the service is notified of the occurrence as soon as practicable.
58
First aid kits
58 First aid kits
The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that, wherever the service is providing education and care to children—
(a) an appropriate number of first aid kits are kept having regard to the number of children being educated and cared for by the service; and
(b) the first aid kits are suitably equipped; and
(c) the first aid kits are easily recognisable and readily accessible to adults, having regard to the design of the children's service premises.
Division 4—Medical conditions policy
59
Medical conditions policy
59 Medical conditions policy
(1) The medical conditions policy of a children's service must set out practices in relation to the following—
(a) the management of medical conditions, including asthma, diabetes or a diagnosis that a child is at risk of anaphylaxis;
(b) informing nominated supervisors and staff members of, and volunteers at, the service of practices in relation to managing those medical conditions;
(c) the requirements arising if a child enrolled at the children's service has a specific health care need, allergy or relevant medical condition, including—
(i) requiring a parent of the child to provide a medical management plan for the child; and
(ii) requiring the medical management plan to be followed in the event of an incident relating to the child's specific health care need, allergy or relevant medical condition; and
(iii) requiring the development of a risk-minimisation plan in consultation with the parents of a child—
(A) to ensure that the risks relating to the child's specific health care need, allergy or relevant medical condition are assessed and minimised; and
(B) if relevant, to ensure that practices and procedures in relation to the safe handling, preparation, consumption and service of food are developed and implemented; and
(C) if relevant, to ensure that practices and procedures to ensure that the parents are notified of any known allergens that pose a risk to a child and strategies for minimising the risk are developed and implemented; and
(D) to ensure that practices and procedures ensuring that all staff members and volunteers can identify the child, the child's medical management plan and the location of the child's medication are developed and implemented; and
(E) if relevant, to ensure that practices and procedures ensuring that the child does not attend the service without medication prescribed by the child's registered medical practitioner in relation to the child's specific health care need, allergy or relevant medical condition are developed and implemented; and
(iv) requiring the development of a communications plan to ensure that—
(A) relevant staff members and volunteers are informed about the medical conditions policy and the medical management plan and risk minimisation plan for the child; and
(B) a child's parent can communicate any changes to the medical management plan and risk minimisation plan for the child, setting out how that communication can occur.
(2) The medical conditions policy of the children's service must set out practices in relation to self‑administration of medication by children over preschool age if the service permits that self‑administration.
(3) In subregulation (2), the practices must include any practices relating to recording in the medication record for a child of notifications from the child that medication has been self‑administered.
60
Medical conditions policy to be provided to parents
60 Medical conditions policy to be provided to parents
The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that a copy of the medical conditions policy document is provided to the parent of a child enrolled at a children's service if the provider is aware that the child has a specific health care need, allergy or other relevant medical condition.
Division 5—Administration of medication
61
Medication record
61 Medication record
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that a medication record is kept that includes the details set out in subregulation (2) for each child to whom medication is or is to be administered while being educated and cared for by the service (including, if applicable, self-administration).
(2) The details to be recorded are—
(a) the name of the child; and
(b) the authorisation to administer medication, signed by a parent or a person named in the child's enrolment record as authorised to consent to administration of medication; and
(c) the name of the medication to be administered; and
(d) the time and date the medication was last administered; and
(e) the time and date, or the circumstances under which, the medication should be next administered; and
(f) the dosage of the medication to be administered; and
(g) the manner in which the medication is to be administered; and
(h) if the medication is administered to the child—
(i) the dosage that was administered; and
(ii) the manner in which the medication was administered; and
(iii) the time and date the medication was administered; and
(iv) the name and signature of the person who administered the medication; and
(v) if another person is required under regulation 64 to check the dosage and administration, the name and signature of that person.
62
Administration of medication
62 Administration of medication
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that medication is not administered to a child being educated and cared for by the service unless—
(a) that administration is authorised; and
(b) the medication is administered in accordance with regulation 64 or 65.
(2) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that written notice is given to a parent or other family member of a child as soon as practicable if medication is administered to the child under an authorisation referred to in subregulation (4)(b).
(3) A nominated supervisor of a children's service must ensure that medication is not administered to a child being educated and cared for by the service unless—
(a) that administration is authorised; and
(b) the medication is administered in accordance with regulation 64 or 65.
(4) In this regulation the administration of medication to a child is authorised if an authorisation to administer the medication—
(a) is recorded in the medication record for that child under regulation 61; or
(b) in the case of an emergency, is given verbally by—
(i) a parent or a person named in the child's enrolment record as authorised to consent to administration of medication; or
(ii) if a parent or person named in the enrolment record cannot reasonably be contacted in the circumstances, a registered medical practitioner or emergency service personnel.
63
Exception to authorisation requirement—anaphylaxis or asthma emergency
63 Exception to authorisation requirement—anaphylaxis or asthma emergency
(1) Despite regulation 62, medication may be administered to a child without an authorisation in case of an anaphylaxis or asthma emergency.
(2) If medication is administered under this regulation, the approved provider or a nominated supervisor of the children's service must ensure that the following are notified as soon as practicable—
(a) a parent of the child;
(b) emergency services.
64
Procedure for administration of medication
64 Procedure for administration of medication
Subject to regulation 65, if medication is administered to a child being educated and cared for by a children's service—
(a) the medication must be administered—
(i) if the medication has been prescribed by a registered medical practitioner, from its original container, bearing the original label with the name of the child to whom the medication is to be administered, and before the expiry or use by date; or
(ii) from its original container, bearing the original label and instructions and before the expiry or use by date; and
(b) the medication must be administered in accordance with any instructions—
(i) attached to the medication; or
(ii) any written or verbal instructions provided by a registered medical practitioner; and
(c) except in the case of a children's service that is permitted to have only one educator to educate and care for children, the following must be checked by a person other than the person administering the medication—
(i) the dosage of the medication to be administered;
(ii) the identity of the child to whom the medication is to be administered.
65
Self-administration of medication
65 Self-administration of medication
The approved provider of a children's service may permit a child over preschool age to self‑administer medication if an authorisation for the child to self-administer medication is recorded in the medication record for the child under regulation 61.
Division 6—Emergencies and communication
66
Emergency and evacuation procedures
66 Emergency and evacuation procedures
(1) The emergency and evacuation procedures required under regulation 112 must set out—
(a) instructions for what must be done in the event of an emergency; and
Reg. 66(1)(b) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 20(1).
(b) an emergency and evacuation floor plan; and
Reg. 66(1)(c) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 20(2).
(c) if the children's service premises is located within a multi-storey building shared with other occupants and on a storey with no direct egress to an assembly area—
(i) all possible evacuation routes from each storey on which the premises is located; and
(ii) the evacuation routes that are proposed to be used in an evacuation; and
(iii) how all children will be safely evacuated from the premises, including non-ambulatory children; and
(iv) the stages in which an evacuation will be carried out; and
(v) the identity of the person in charge of an evacuation; and
(vi) the roles and responsibilities of staff members during an evacuation; and
(vii) the arrangements made with the other occupants of the multi-storey building in relation to the evacuation of the multi-storey building.
(2) For the purposes of preparing the emergency and evacuation procedures, the approved provider of a children's service must ensure that a risk assessment is conducted to identify potential emergencies that are relevant to the service.
Reg. 66(2A) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 20(3).
(2A) The approved provider of a children's service must review the risk assessment conducted under subregulation (2)—
(b) as soon as practicable after becoming aware of any circumstance that may affect the safe evacuation of children from the service.
Reg. 66(2B) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 20(3).
(2B) As soon as practicable after reviewing the risk assessment under subregulation (2A), the approved provider of a children's service must make any necessary updates to the emergency and evacuation policies and procedures.
(3) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that—
(a) the emergency and evacuation procedures are rehearsed every 3 months by the staff members, volunteers and children present at the service on the day of the rehearsal and the responsible person in relation to the service who is present at the time of the rehearsal; and
(b) the rehearsals of the emergency and evacuation procedures are documented.
(4) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that a copy of the emergency and evacuation floor plan and instructions are displayed in a prominent position near each exit at the children's service premises.
67
Telephone or other communication equipment
67 Telephone or other communication equipment
The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that, when educating or caring for children as part of the service, nominated supervisors and staff members of the service have ready access to an operating telephone or other similar means of communication to enable immediate communication to and from parents and emergency services.
Fixed-line telephone, mobile phone, satellite phone, 2-way radio, video conferencing equipment.
Div 7
Collection of children from premises and excursions
Division 7—Collection of children from premises and excursions
68
Children leaving the children's service premises
68 Children leaving the children's service premises
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that a child who is being educated and cared for by the children's service does not leave the children's service premises except in accordance with subregulation (3).
(2) A nominated supervisor of a children's service must ensure that a child who is being educated and cared for by the children's service does not leave the children's service premises except in accordance with subregulation (3).
(3) The child may only leave the relevant premises if the child—
(a) is given into the care of—
(i) a parent of the child; or
(ii) an authorised nominee named in the child's enrolment record; or
(iii) a person authorised by a parent or authorised nominee named in the child's enrolment record to collect the child from the premises; or
(b) leaves the premises in accordance with the written authorisation of the child's parent or authorised nominee named in the child's enrolment record; or
(c) is taken on an excursion in accordance with this Division; or
Reg. 68(3)(ca) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 21.
(ca) is transported by the service or on transportation arranged by the service in accordance with Division 7B; or
(d) is given into the care of a person or taken outside the premises—
(i) because the child requires medical, hospital or ambulance care or treatment; or
(ii) because of another emergency.
(4) Nothing in this regulation affects the operation of any court order that prohibits a parent from—
(a) collecting a child from the children's service premises; or
(b) authorising a child to leave the children's service premises.
69
Risk assessment must be conducted before excursion
69 Risk assessment must be conducted before excursion
Reg. 69(1) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 22.
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure a risk assessment is carried out in accordance with regulation 70 before an authorisation referred to in regulation 71(3) is sought for an excursion.
Reg. 69(2) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 22.
(2) A nominated supervisor of a children's service must ensure a risk assessment is carried out in accordance with regulation 70 before an authorisation referred to in regulation 71(3) is sought for an excursion.
(3) A risk assessment is not required under this regulation for an excursion if—
(a) the excursion is a regular outing; and
(b) a risk assessment has been conducted for the excursion not more than 12 months before the excursion is to occur.
70
Conduct of risk assessment for excursion
70 Conduct of risk assessment for excursion
(1) A risk assessment for an excursion must—
(a) identify and assess risks that the excursion may pose to the safety, health or wellbeing of any child being taken on the excursion; and
(2) Without limiting subregulation (1), a risk assessment must consider—
(a) the proposed route and destination for the excursion; and
(b) any water hazards; and
(c) any risks associated with water-based activities; and
Reg. 70(2)(d) substituted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 23.
(d) if the excursion involves transporting children—
(i) the means of transport; and
(ii) any requirements for seatbelts or safety restraints under a law of each jurisdiction in which the child is being transported; and
(iii) the process for entering and exiting—
(A) the children's service premises; and
(B) the pick-up location or destination (as required); and
(iv) procedures for embarking and disembarking the means of transport, including how each child is to be accounted for on embarking and disembarking; and
(e) the number of adults and children involved in the excursion; and
(f) given the risks posed by the excursion, the number of educators or other responsible adults that is appropriate to provide supervision and whether any adults with specialised skills are required; and
Specialised skills could include life-saving skills.
(g) the proposed activities; and
(h) the proposed duration of the excursion; and
(i) the items that should be taken on the excursion.
A mobile phone and a list of emergency contact numbers for children on the excursion.
71
Authorisation for excursions
71 Authorisation for excursions
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that a child being educated and cared for by the service is not taken outside the children's service premises on an excursion unless written authorisation has been given under subregulation (3).
(2) A nominated supervisor of a children's service must ensure that a child being educated and cared for by the service is not taken outside the children's service premises on an excursion unless written authorisation has been given under subregulation (3).
Reg. 71(3) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 24(a).
(3) The authorisation must be given by a parent or other person named in the child's enrolment record as having authority, given by a parent, to authorise the taking of the child outside the children's service premises by an educator and must state—
(a) the child's name; and
(b) the reason the child is to be taken outside the premises; and
Reg. 71(3)(c) substituted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 24(b).
(c) if the authorisation is for a regular outing, a description of when the child is to be taken on the regular outings; and
Reg. 71(3)(ca) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 24(b).
(ca) if the authorisation is for an excursion that is not a regular outing, the date the child is to be taken on the excursion; and;
(d) a description of the proposed destination for the excursion; and
Reg. 71(3)(e) substituted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 24(c).
(e) if the excursion involves transporting children—
(i) the means of transport; and
(ii) any requirements for seatbelts or safety restraints under a law of each jurisdiction in which the child is being transported; and
(f) the proposed activities to be undertaken by the child during the excursion; and
(g) the period the child will be away from the premises; and
(h) the anticipated number of children likely to be attending the excursion; and
(i) the anticipated ratio of educators attending the excursion to the anticipated number of children attending the excursion; and
(j) the anticipated number of staff members and any other adults who will accompany and supervise the children on the excursion; and
(k) that a risk assessment has been prepared and is available at the service.
(4) If the excursion is a regular outing, the authorisation is only required to be obtained once in a 12‑month period.
Pt 4 Div. 7A (Heading and regs 71A–71C) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 25.
Div 7A
Safe arrival of children
Division 7A—Safe arrival of children
Reg. 71A inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 25.
71A
Definition
71A Definition
In this Division—
education or early childhood service means—
(a) a school; or
(b) an education and care service; or
(c) a children's service; or
(d) any other service which provides education or care to children.
Reg. 71B inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 25.
71B
Safe arrival of children policies and procedures
71B Safe arrival of children policies and procedures
(1) The safe arrival of children policies and procedures required under regulation 112(2)(gb) must set out the procedures to be followed by a children's service to ensure the safe arrival of children who travel between a children's service and any other education or early childhood service.
(2) In preparing the safe arrival of children policies and procedures, the approved provider of a children's service must consult with—
(a) staff of the service; and
(b) parents of children being educated and cared for by the service; and
(c) children being educated and cared for by the service (if applicable).
Reg. 71C inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 25.
71C
Risk assessment for the purposes of safe arrival of children policies and procedures
71C Risk assessment for the purposes of safe arrival of children policies and procedures
(1) For the purposes of preparing the safe arrival of children policies and procedures under regulation 71B(1), the approved provider of a children's service must ensure that a risk assessment is conducted in accordance with this regulation.
(2) The approved provider must conduct a risk assessment—
(b) as soon as practicable after becoming aware of any circumstance that may affect the safe arrival of children travelling between a children's service and any other education or early childhood service.
(3) A risk assessment must—
(a) identify and assess any risks that a child's travel between a children's service and any other education or early childhood service may pose to the safety, health or wellbeing of the child; and
(4) Without limiting subregulation (3), a risk assessment must consider the following, in respect of a child who travels between a children's service and any other education or early childhood service—
(a) the age, developmental stage and individual needs of the child;
(b) the role and responsibilities of the following persons (if applicable)—
(i) the nominated supervisor of each service;
(ii) the child's parent;
(iii) an authorised nominee named in the child's enrolment record;
(iv) a person authorised by—
(A) the child's parent; or
(B) an authorised nominee named in the child's enrolment record;
(c) the role and responsibilities of the service the care of which the child is entering or leaving;
(d) the communication arrangements between the service the child is leaving and the service the child is entering including any communication arrangements if the child is missing or cannot be accounted for during the child's travel;
(e) the procedure to be followed by the service if the service has identified that the child is missing or cannot be accounted for during the child's travel;
(f) given the risks posed by the child's travel, the number of educators or other responsible adults that are appropriate to provide supervision;
(g) the proposed route and destination, including any proximity to harm and hazards;
(h) the process for entering and exiting—
(i) the service premises; and
(ii) the pick-up location or destination (as required);
(i) the procedure to be followed by the service to ensure the child leaves the service premises in accordance with regulation 68(3)(b).
(5) If, after conducting a risk assessment, a risk relating to a child's travel is identified, the approved provider must make any necessary updates to the safe arrival of children policies and procedures as soon as practicable.
(6) The approved provider must keep a record of each risk assessment conducted under this regulation.
Pt 4 Div. 7B (Heading and regs 71D–71I) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 25.
Div 7B
Transportation of children other than as part of an excursion
Division 7B—Transportation of children other than as part of an excursion
Reg. 71D inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 25.
71D
Application of Division
71D Application of Division
This Division does not apply to transportation of a child by or arranged by a children's service that is undertaken as part of an excursion.
Reg. 71E inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 25.
71E
Transport risk assessment must be conducted before service transports child
71E Transport risk assessment must be conducted before service transports child
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure a risk assessment is carried out in accordance with regulation 71F before an authorisation referred to in regulation 71G(3) is sought to transport a child.
(2) A nominated supervisor of a children's service must ensure a risk assessment is carried out in accordance with regulation 71F before an authorisation referred to in regulation 71G(3) is sought to transport a child.
(3) A risk assessment is not required under this regulation for transporting a child if—
(a) the transportation is regular transportation; and
(b) a risk assessment has been conducted for the regular transportation of the child within the previous 12 months.
Reg. 71F inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 25.
71F
Conduct of risk assessment for transporting of children by the children's service
71F Conduct of risk assessment for transporting of children by the children's service
(1) A risk assessment for the transportation of a child by or arranged by the children's service must—
(a) identify and assess risks that transporting the child may pose to the safety, health or wellbeing of the child; and
(2) Without limiting subregulation (1), a risk assessment must consider—
(a) the proposed route and duration of the transportation; and
(b) the proposed pick-up location and destination; and
(c) the means of transport; and
(d) any requirements for seatbelts or safety restraints under a law of each jurisdiction in which the child is being transported; and
(e) any water hazards; and
(f) the number of adults and children involved in the transportation; and
(g) given the risks posed by transportation, the number of educators or other responsible adults that is appropriate to provide supervision and whether any adults with specialised skills are required; and
(h) whether any items should be readily available during transportation; and
A mobile phone and a list of emergency contact numbers for the children being transported.
(i) the process for entering and exiting—
(i) the children's service premises; and
(ii) the pick-up location or destination (as required); and
(j) procedures for embarking and disembarking the means of transport, including how each child is to be accounted for on embarking and disembarking.
Reg. 71G inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 25.
71G
Authorisation for service to transport children
71G Authorisation for service to transport children
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that a child being educated and cared for by the service is not transported by the service or on transportation arranged by the service unless written authorisation has been given under subregulation (3).
(2) A nominated supervisor of a children's service must ensure that a child being educated and cared for by the service is not transported by the service or on transportation arranged by the service unless written authorisation has been given under subregulation (3).
(3) The authorisation must be given by a parent or other person named in the child's enrolment record as having authority, given by a parent, to authorise the child being transported by the service or on transportation arranged by the service and must state—
(a) the child's name; and
(b) the reason the child is to be transported; and
(c) if the authorisation is for regular transportation, a description of when the child is to be transported; and
(d) if the authorisation is not for regular transportation, the date the child is to be transported; and
(e) a description of the proposed pick-up location and destination; and
(f) the means of transport; and
(g) the period of time during which the child is to be transported; and
(h) the anticipated number of children likely to be transported; and
(i) the anticipated number of staff members and any other adults who will accompany and supervise the children during the transportation; and
(j) any requirements for seatbelts or safety restraints under a law of each jurisdiction in which the child is being transported; and
(k) that a risk assessment has been prepared and is available at the children's service; and
(l) that written policies and procedures for transporting children are available at the children's service.
(4) If the transportation is regular transportation, the authorisation is only required to be obtained once in a 12 month period.
Reg. 71H inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 25.
71H
Children embarking a means of transport
71H Children embarking a means of transport
(1) This regulation applies in relation to the regular transportation of children by or arranged by a children's service.
(2) The approved provider of the service must ensure the requirements under subregulation (4) are complied with in relation to children embarking a means of transport at the children's service premises.
(3) A nominated supervisor of the service must ensure the requirements under subregulation (4) are complied with in relation to children embarking a means of transport at the children's service premises.
(4) The requirements are that—
(a) a staff member or nominated supervisor of the service, who is not driving the means of transport, is present when the children embark the means of transport at the children's service premises; and
(b) each child embarking the means of transport at the children's service premises is accounted for by the person referred to in paragraph (a); and
(c) immediately after all the children have embarked the means of transport at the children's service premises, a record is made that—
(i) confirms each child referred to in paragraph (b) has been accounted for; and
(ii) states how each child referred to in paragraph (b) has been accounted for; and
(iii) states the date and time the record is made; and
(iv) states the name of, and is signed by, the person referred to in paragraph (a).
(5) Nothing in this regulation prevents the person referred to in subregulation (4)(a) from being counted as an educator in calculating the educator to child ratio of the service under Subdivision 2 of Division 11 of Part 4.
Reg. 71I inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 25.
71I
Children disembarking a means of transport
71I Children disembarking a means of transport
(1) This regulation applies in relation to the regular transportation of children by or arranged by a children's service.
(2) The approved provider of the service must ensure the requirements under subregulation (4) are complied with in relation to children disembarking a means of transport at the children's service premises.
(3) A nominated supervisor of the service must ensure the requirements under subregulation (4) are complied with in relation to children disembarking a means of transport at the children's service premises.
(4) The requirements are that—
(a) a staff member or nominated supervisor of the service, who is not driving the means of transport, is present when the children disembark the means of transport at the children's service premises; and
(b) each child disembarking the means of transport at the children's service premises is accounted for by the person referred to in paragraph (a); and
(c) the person referred to in paragraph (a) examines the interior of the means of transport to confirm no children remain on the means of transport; and
(d) immediately after all the children have disembarked the means of transport at the children's service premises, a record is made that—
(i) confirms each child referred to in paragraph (b) has been accounted for; and
(ii) states how each child referred to in paragraph (b) has been accounted for; and
(iii) states the examination referred to in paragraph (c) has been carried out; and
(iv) states the date and time the record is made; and
(v) states the name of, and is signed by, the person referred to in paragraph (a).
(5) Nothing in this regulation prevents the person referred to in subregulation (4)(a) from being counted as an educator in calculating the educator to child ratio of the service under Subdivision 2 of Division 11 of Part 4.
Div 8
Physical environment
Division 8—Physical environment
72
Premises, furniture and equipment to be safe, clean and in good repair
72 Premises, furniture and equipment to be safe, clean and in good repair
The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that the children's service premises and all equipment and furniture used in providing the children's service are safe, clean and in good repair.
73
Fencing
73 Fencing
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that any outdoor space used by children at the children's service premises is enclosed by a fence or barrier that is of a height and design that children preschool age or under cannot go through, over or under it.
(2) This regulation does not apply to a children's service that primarily provides education and care to children over preschool age.
74
Furniture, materials and equipment
74 Furniture, materials and equipment
The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that each child being educated and cared for by the children's service has access to sufficient furniture, materials and developmentally appropriate equipment suitable for the education and care of that child.
75
Laundry and hygiene facilities
75 Laundry and hygiene facilities
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that the service has—
(a) laundry facilities or access to laundry facilities; or
(b) other arrangements for dealing with soiled clothing, nappies and linen, including hygienic facilities for storage prior to their disposal or laundering—
that are adequate and appropriate for the needs of the service.
(2) The approved provider of the service must ensure that laundry and hygienic facilities are located and maintained in a way that does not pose a risk to children.
76
Space requirements—indoor space
76 Space requirements—indoor space
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that, for each child being educated and cared for by the service, the children's service premises has at least 3·25 square metres of unencumbered indoor space.
(2) In calculating the area of unencumbered indoor space—
(a) the following areas are to be excluded—
(i) any passageway or thoroughfare (including door swings);
(ii) any toilet and hygiene facilities;
(iii) any nappy changing area or area for preparing bottles;
(iv) any area permanently set aside for the use or storage of cots;
(v) any area permanently set aside for storage;
(vi) any area or room for staff or administration;
(vii) any other space that is not suitable for children; and
(b) the area of a kitchen is to be excluded, unless the kitchen is primarily to be used by children as part of an educational program provided by the service.
(3) The area of a verandah may be included in calculating the area of indoor space only with the written approval of the Regulatory Authority.
(4) A verandah that is included in calculating the area of outdoor space cannot be included in calculating the area of indoor space.
(5) In this regulation a reference to a child does not include a child being educated or cared for in an emergency in the circumstances set out in regulation 90(4).
77
Space requirements—outdoor space
77 Space requirements—outdoor space
(1) This regulation applies to an occasional care service other than an occasional care service that—
(a) is a former limited hours Type 2 service; and
(b) does not provide education and care to any child who attends the service for more than—
(i) 5 hours per day; and
(ii) 15 hours per week.
(2) The approved provider of an occasional care service must ensure that, for each child being educated and cared for by the service, the children's service premises has at least 7 square metres of unencumbered outdoor space.
(3) In calculating the area of unencumbered outdoor space required, the following areas are to be excluded—
(a) any pathway or thoroughfare, except where used by children as part of the education and care program;
(b) any car parking area;
(c) any storage shed or other storage area;
(d) any other space that is not suitable for children.
(4) A verandah that is included in calculating the area of indoor space cannot be included in calculating the area of outdoor space.
(5) An area of unencumbered indoor space may be included in calculating the outdoor space of a service that provides education and care to children over preschool age if—
(a) the Regulatory Authority has given written approval; and
(b) that indoor space has not been included in calculating the indoor space under regulation 76.
(6) In this regulation a reference to a child does not include a child being educated or cared for in an emergency in the circumstances set out in regulation 90(4).
(7) In this regulation, a former limited hours Type 2 service means a children's service in respect of which a licence to operate a limited hours Type 2 service was issued and in force immediately before the commencement day.
78
Toilet and hygiene facilities
78 Toilet and hygiene facilities
The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that—
(a) adequate, developmentally and age-appropriate toilet, washing and drying facilities are provided for use by children being educated and cared for by the service; and
(b) the location and design of the toilet, washing and drying facilities enable safe use and convenient access by the children.
79
Ventilation and natural light
79 Ventilation and natural light
The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that the indoor spaces used by children at the children's service premises—
(a) are well ventilated; and
(b) have adequate natural light; and
(c) are maintained at a temperature that ensures the safety and wellbeing of children.
Div 9
Other space requirements
Division 9—Other space requirements
80
Administrative space
80 Administrative space
The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that an adequate area or areas are available at the children's service premises for the purposes of—
(a) conducting the administrative functions of the service; and
(b) consulting with parents of children; and
(c) conducting private conversations.
81
Nappy change facilities
81 Nappy change facilities
(1) This regulation applies if a children's service educates and cares for children who wear nappies.
(2) The approved provider of the children's service must ensure that adequate and appropriate hygienic facilities are provided for nappy changing.
(3) Without limiting subregulation (2), the approved provider must ensure that the following are provided—
(a) if any of the children are under 3 years of age, at least one properly constructed nappy changing bench;
(b) hand cleansing facilities for adults in the immediate vicinity of the nappy change area.
(4) The approved provider of the children's service must ensure that nappy change facilities are designed, located and maintained in a way that prevents unsupervised access by children.
82
Outdoor space—natural environment
82 Outdoor space—natural environment
The approved provider of an occasional care service must ensure that any outdoor spaces provided at the children's service premises allow children to explore and experience the natural environment.
The use of natural features such as trees, sand and natural vegetation.
83
Outdoor space—shade
83 Outdoor space—shade
The approved provider of an occasional care service must ensure that any outdoor spaces provided at the children's service premises include adequate shaded areas to protect children from overexposure to ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
84
Premises designed to facilitate supervision
84 Premises designed to facilitate supervision
The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that the children's service premises (including toilets and nappy change facilities) are designed and maintained in a way that facilitates supervision of children at all times that they are being educated and cared for by the service, having regard to the need to maintain the rights and dignity of the children.
Div 10
Minimum requirements for persons in day‑to‑day charge and nominated supervisors
Division 10—Minimum requirements for persons in day‑to‑day charge and nominated supervisors
85
Placing a person in day-to-day charge
85 Placing a person in day-to-day charge
For the purposes of the definition of a person in day-to-day charge in section 3(1) of the Act, a person is in day-to-day charge of a children's service if—
(a) the person is placed in day-to-day charge by the approved provider or a nominated supervisor of the children's service; and
(b) the person consents to the placement in writing.
86
Minimum requirements for a person in day-to-day charge
86 Minimum requirements for a person in day-to-day charge
(1) An approved provider or a nominated supervisor of a children's service must not place a person in day-to-day charge unless—
(a) the person has attained the age of 18 years; and
(b) the approved provider or nominated supervisor (as the case requires)—
(i) has had regard to the matters set out in subregulation (2); and
(ii) has taken reasonable steps to ensure that the person has adequate knowledge and understanding of the provision of education and care to children and an ability to effectively supervise and manage a children's service.
(2) For the purposes of subregulation (1)(b)(i), the matters are—
(a) the person's history of compliance with—
(iii) a former education and care services law, within the meaning of the National Law, of a participating jurisdiction; and
(v) an education law or an equivalent law of a participating jurisdiction; and
(b) any decision to refuse, refuse to renew, suspend, or cancel a licence, approval, registration, certification or other authorisation granted to the person under—
(iii) a former education and care services law, within the meaning of the National Law, of a participating jurisdiction; and
(v) an education law or an equivalent law of a participating jurisdiction.
87
Minimum requirements for a nominated supervisor
87 Minimum requirements for a nominated supervisor
(1) For the purposes of section 102 of the Act, the following minimum requirements are prescribed—
(a) the person nominated must have attained the age of 18 years;
(b) the person nominated must have adequate knowledge and understanding of the provision of education and care to children;
(c) the person nominated must have the ability to effectively supervise and manage a children's service.
(2) In determining whether to nominate a person as a nominated supervisor, an approved provider of a children's service must have regard to the following matters—
(a) the history of the person's compliance with—
(iii) a former education and care services law, within the meaning of the National Law, of a participating jurisdiction; and
(v) an education law or an equivalent law of a participating jurisdiction;
(b) any decision to refuse, refuse to renew, suspend, or cancel a licence, approval, registration, certification or other authorisation granted to the person under—
(iii) a former education and care services law, within the meaning of the National Law, of a participating jurisdiction; and
(v) an education law or an equivalent law of a participating jurisdiction.
Division 11—Staffing arrangements
Subdivision 1—Age and supervision requirements
88 Educators who are under 18 to be supervised
The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that any educator at the service who is under 18 years of age—
(a) does not work alone at the service; and
(b) is adequately supervised at all times by an educator who has attained the age of 18 years.
Subdiv 2
Minimum number of educators required
Subdivision 2—Minimum number of educators required
89
Educators must be working directly with children to be included in ratios
89 Educators must be working directly with children to be included in ratios
(1) An educator cannot be included in calculating the educator to child ratio of a children's service unless the educator is working directly with children at the service.
(2) In this regulation, a reference to an educator includes an early childhood teacher who is counted as an educator under regulation 90(3).
90
Educator to child ratios
90 Educator to child ratios
(1) For the purposes of section 109(1) and (3) of the Act, the prescribed minimum number of educators educating and caring for children at a children's service is to be calculated in accordance with the following ratios—
(a) for children from birth to under 36 months of age—one educator to 4 children;
(b) for children aged 36 months of age or over (not including children over preschool age)—one educator to 11 children;
(c) for children over preschool age—one educator to 15 children.
(2) If children being educated and cared for at an occasional care service are of mixed ages, the minimum number of educators for the children must meet the requirements of subregulation (1) at all times.
(3) If an early childhood teacher is required under Subdivision 4 of this Division to be in attendance at a children's service, subject to regulation 89, that early childhood teacher is counted as an educator at the service for the purposes of this regulation.
(4) In subregulations (1) and (2), a reference to children does not include a child who is, or 2 or more children from the same family who are, educated and cared for at a children's service in an emergency for a period of not more than 2 consecutive days on which the service operates.
1 A child is determined to be in need of protection under a child protection order.
2 The parent of a child needs urgent health care that prevents them caring for the child.
(5) An approved provider of a children's service must not permit an additional child or additional children to be educated and cared for at the service in an emergency in the circumstances set out in subregulation (4) unless the approved provider is satisfied on reasonable grounds that this will not affect the health, safety and wellbeing of all the children attending the service.
Subdiv 3
Requirements for educators
Subdivision 3—Requirements for educators
91
Occasional care services—educator qualifications
91 Occasional care services—educator qualifications
(1) For the purposes of section 109(2) and (4) of the Act, educators educating and caring for children at an occasional care service must satisfy the following prescribed qualification requirements—
Reg. 91(1)(a) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 26.
(a) at least 50 per cent of the educators who are required to meet the relevant educator to child ratios for the service must hold, or be actively working towards, at least an approved diploma level education and care qualification;
Reg. 91(1)(b) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 26.
(b) all other educators who are required to meet the relevant educator to child ratios for the service must hold, or be actively working towards, at least an approved certificate III level education and care qualification.
(2) The qualification requirements in subregulation (1)(b) do not apply to an educator if the educator has been employed by an approved provider on a probationary basis for not more than 3 months, at one or more occasional care services operated by the approved provider.
(3) If Subdivision 4 of this Division requires an early childhood teacher to be in attendance at an occasional care service, that early childhood teacher, or a person taken to be an early childhood teacher under regulation 94(1), is to be counted as meeting the requirements of subregulation (1)(a).
Meaning of actively working towards*—*see regulation 8.
92
Limited hours services—educator qualifications
92 Limited hours services—educator qualifications
For the purposes of section 109(2) and (4) of the Act, the prescribed qualification requirement for educators educating and caring for children at a limited hours service is at least an approved certificate III level education and care qualification.
Reg. 92A inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 27.
92A
Illness or absence of a qualified educator
92A Illness or absence of a qualified educator
(1) This regulation applies if an educator referred to in regulation 91(1)(a) or (b) or 92 is absent from an occasional care service or a limited hours service in any of the following circumstances—
(a) short-term illness;
(b) the educator's resignation;
(c) a practicum placement required to be undertaken by the educator for an approved education and care qualification;
(d) leave.
(2) During the educator's absence, for the purposes of regulation 91(1)(a) or (b) or 92, a person who holds a qualification in primary teaching may be taken to hold an approved diploma level education and care qualification or an approved certificate III level education and care qualification (as the case requires).
(3) An educator may be replaced in accordance with subregulation (2) for a maximum of 30 days in any 12 month period.
(4) For the purposes of subregulation (3), in relation to a part-time educator, 30 days is to be calculated on a pro rata basis.
Subdiv 4
Requirements for educators who are early childhood teachers
Subdivision 4—Requirements for educators who are early childhood teachers
93
Occasional care services—early childhood teacher requirements and qualifications
93 Occasional care services—early childhood teacher requirements and qualifications
(1) This regulation applies to an occasional care service that, on average over any given 4‑week period, educates and cares for any child for more than 30 hours per week.
(2) For the purposes of section 109(1) and (3) of the Act, the prescribed number of educators educating and caring for children at an occasional care service is at least one educator who is an early childhood teacher who holds a qualification referred to in subregulation (3) in attendance at the occasional care service for, whichever is the lower of—
(a) at least 50 per cent of the time the service is operating; or
(b) at least 20 hours per week.
(3) For the purposes of section 109(2) and (4) of the Act, the prescribed qualification requirement for an educator who is required to be in attendance at an occasional care service under subregulation (2) is an approved early childhood teaching qualification within the meaning of the national regulations.
The Education and Training Reform Act 2006 requires that an early childhood teacher must be registered under Division 3A of Part 2.6 of that Act.
94
Illness or absence of early childhood teacher
94 Illness or absence of early childhood teacher
Reg. 94(1) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 28(1).
(1) If an early childhood teacher who is required under regulation 93(2) to be in attendance at an occasional care service is absent because of a circumstance specified in subregulation (4), the following persons may be taken to be an early childhood teacher during that absence—
(a) a person who holds an approved diploma level education and care qualification;
(b) a person who holds a qualification in primary teaching;
(c) a suitably qualified person.
(2) An early childhood teacher required to be in attendance under regulation 93(2) may be replaced in accordance with subregulation (1) for a maximum of 60 days in any 12-month period.
(3) For the purposes of subregulation (2), in relation to a part-time early childhood teacher, 60 days is to be calculated on a pro rata basis.
Reg. 94(4) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 28(2).
(4) For the purposes of subregulation (1), the following circumstances are specified—
(a) short-term illness;
(b) the resignation of the early childhood teacher;
(c) a practicum placement required to be undertaken by the early childhood teacher for an approved education and care qualification;
(d) leave.
Subdiv 5
First aid qualifications
Subdivision 5—First aid qualifications
95
First aid qualifications
95 First aid qualifications
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that each of the following persons are in attendance at any place where children are being educated and cared for by the service, and immediately available in an emergency, at all times that children are being educated and cared for by the service—
(a) at least one staff member or one nominated supervisor of the service who holds a current approved first aid qualification;
(b) at least one staff member or one nominated supervisor of the service who has undertaken current approved anaphylaxis management training;
(c) at least one staff member or one nominated supervisor of the service who has undertaken current approved emergency asthma management training.
(2) If children are being educated and cared for at children's service premises on the site of a school, it is sufficient for the purposes of subregulation (1) if the following are in attendance at the school site and immediately available in an emergency—
(a) for the purposes of subregulation (1)(a), at least one staff member of the school who holds a current approved first aid qualification;
(b) for the purposes of subregulation (1)(b), at least one staff member of the school who has undertaken current approved anaphylaxis management training;
(c) for the purposes of subregulation (1)(c), at least one staff member of the school who has undertaken current approved emergency asthma management training.
(3) The same person may hold one or more of the qualifications set out in subregulation (1).
Reg. 95(3A) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 29.
(3A) For the purposes of this regulation—
(a) an approved first aid qualification is taken to be current if—
(i) in the case of emergency life support training and cardio‑pulmonary resuscitation training that forms part of the approved first aid qualification, the training was completed within the previous year; and
(ii) in the case of any other training that forms part of the approved first aid qualification, the training was completed within the previous 3 years; and
(b) approved anaphylaxis management training is taken to be current if the training was completed within the previous 3 years; and
(c) approved emergency asthma management training is taken to be current if the training was completed within the previous 3 years.
(4) In this regulation—
approved anaphylaxis management training means anaphylaxis management training approved by the National Authority in accordance with Division 7 of Part 4.4 of the national regulations;
approved emergency asthma management training means emergency asthma management training approved by the National Authority in accordance with Division 7 of Part 4.4 of the national regulations;
approved first aid qualification means a qualification that—
(a) includes training in the following that relates to and is appropriate to children—
(i) emergency life support and cardio-pulmonary resuscitation;
(ii) convulsions;
(iii) poisoning;
(iv) respiratory difficulties;
(v) management of severe bleeding;
(vi) injury and basic wound care;
(vii) administration of an auto-immune adrenalin device; and
(b) has been approved by the National Authority in accordance with Division 7 of Part 4.4 of the national regulations.
Reg. 96(1) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 30(2).
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must read, or ensure that a nominated supervisor or a person in day-to-day charge of the service has read, a person's WWC clearance before the person is—
(a) engaged as an educator at the service; or
(b) permitted to volunteer at the service; or
(c) engaged or employed as a staff member (other than as a person in day-to-day charge) at the service.
Reg. 96(2) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 30(2).
(2) The approved provider of a children's service must read, or ensure that a nominated supervisor has read, a person's WWC clearance before the person is placed as a person in day-to-day charge of the service.
Reg. 96(3) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 30(2).
(3) The approved provider of a children's service must read a person's WWC clearance before nominating that person as a nominated supervisor of the service.
(4) Subregulation (1) does not apply in respect of a person if—
Reg. 96(4)(a) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 30(2).
(a) a WWC clearance cannot be issued for the person because of the person's age; and
(b) the person educates and cares for children at the children's service only under the immediate supervision of an educator who has attained the age of 18 years.
(5) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is a volunteer and who provides education and care at the service only under the immediate supervision of an educator who has attained the age of 18 years.
(6) Subregulations (1), (2) and (3) do not apply in relation to a person who is a registered teacher under the education law and the approved provider, a nominated supervisor or a person in day-to-day charge of the children's service has checked the relevant register kept under the education law to ensure that the person is registered.
Subdiv 7
Staff and educator records
Subdivision 7—Staff and educator records
97
Staff record
97 Staff record
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that a staff record is kept for that service in accordance with this Subdivision.
(2) The staff record must include—
(a) the information about nominated supervisors set out in regulation 98; and
(b) the information about staff members set out in regulation 99; and
(c) the information about volunteers set out in regulation 100(1).
Other records are also required to be kept by the approved provider under this Subdivision.
98
Nominated supervisor
98 Nominated supervisor
The staff record must include the following information in relation to each nominated supervisor—
(a) the full name, address and date of birth of the nominated supervisor;
(b) evidence—
(i) of any relevant qualifications held by the nominated supervisor; or
(ii) if applicable, that the nominated supervisor is actively working towards that qualification as provided under regulation 8;
(c) evidence of any approved training (including first aid training) completed by the nominated supervisor;
(d) a record of either—
Reg. 98(d)(i) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 31.
(i) if the nominated supervisor has a WWC clearance, the identifying number and expiry date of that clearance; or
(ii) if the nominated supervisor is a registered teacher under the education law and has provided proof of that registration, the identifying number of the teacher registration and the expiry date of that registration.
99
Staff members
99 Staff members
The staff record must include the following information in relation to staff members—
(a) the full name, address and date of birth of the staff member;
(b) evidence—
(i) of any relevant qualifications held by the staff member; or
(ii) if applicable, that the staff member is actively working towards that qualification as provided under regulation 8;
(c) evidence of any approved training (including first aid training) completed by the staff member;
(d) a record of either—
Reg. 99(d)(i) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 32.
(i) if the staff member has a WWC clearance, the identifying number and expiry date of that clearance; or
(ii) if the staff member is a registered teacher under the education law and has provided proof of that registration, the identifying number of the teacher registration and the expiry date of that registration.
100
Volunteers and students
100 Volunteers and students
Reg. 100(1) substituted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 33.
(1) The staff record must include the following information in relation to each student or volunteer who participates in the children's service—
(a) the full name, address and date of birth of the student or volunteer;
(b) a record of the identifying number of the student's or volunteer's current WWC clearance and the expiry date of that clearance;
(c) if the student or volunteer has provided proof of their current teacher registration, a record of the identifying number of the teacher registration and the expiry date of that registration.
(2) The approved provider of a children's service must also keep a record for each day on which the student or volunteer participates in the service, the date and the hours of participation.
101
Responsible person
101 Responsible person
The staff record must include the name of the responsible person at the children's service for each time that children are being educated and cared for by the service.
102
Record of educators working directly with children
102 Record of educators working directly with children
The approved provider of a children's service must keep a record of educators working directly with children that includes the following information—
(a) the name of each educator who works directly with children being educated and cared for by the service;
(b) the hours that each educator works directly with children being educated and cared for by the service.
The record could be a staff roster or staff time sheet.
103
Record of attendance of early childhood teachers
103 Record of attendance of early childhood teachers
The approved provider of an occasional care service that, on average over any given 4‑week period, educates and cares for any child for more than 30 hours per week must ensure that a record is kept of the following—
(a) the period that an early childhood teacher is working with the service in accordance with regulation 93;
(b) the periods that the early childhood teacher is working directly with children and is not working directly with children.
Reg. 103A inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 34.
103A
Record of replacement of educator
103A Record of replacement of educator
The approved provider of an occasional care service or a limited hours service must keep a record of an educator who is replaced in accordance with regulation 92A that includes the following information—
(a) the full name of the educator;
(b) the qualification that the educator who is replaced holds, or is actively working towards, for the purposes of regulation 91 or 92;
(c) the qualification of the person who replaced the educator;
(d) the dates on which the educator was replaced;
(e) the reason for the educator's absence.
See regulation 92A(1) for the circumstances in which an educator may be absent from an occasional care service or limited hours service.
Reg. 103B inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 34.
103B
Record of replacement of early childhood teacher
103B Record of replacement of early childhood teacher
The approved provider of an occasional care service must keep a record of an early childhood teacher who is replaced in accordance with regulation 94 that includes the following information—
(a) the full name of the early childhood teacher;
(b) the qualification of the person who replaced the early childhood teacher;
(c) the dates on which the early childhood teacher was replaced;
(d) the reason for the early childhood teacher's absence.
See regulation 94(4) for the circumstances in which an early childhood teacher may be absent from an occasional care service.
Part 5
Relationships with children
Part 5—Relationships with children
104
Interactions with children
104 Interactions with children
An approved provider must take reasonable steps to ensure that the children's service provides education and care to children in a way that—
(a) encourages the children to express themselves and their opinions; and
(b) allows the children to undertake experiences that develop self-reliance and self-esteem; and
(c) maintains at all times the dignity and rights of each child; and
(d) gives each child positive guidance and encouragement toward acceptable behaviour; and
(e) has regard to the family and cultural values, age, and physical and intellectual development and abilities of each child being educated and cared for by the service.
105
Relationships in groups
105 Relationships in groups
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must take reasonable steps to ensure that the service provides children being educated and cared for by the service with opportunities to interact and develop respectful and positive relationships with each other and with staff members of, and volunteers at, the service.
(2) For the purposes of subregulation (1), the approved provider must have regard to the size and the composition of the groups in which children are being educated and cared for by the service.
Part 6
Collaborative partnerships with families and communities
Part 6—Collaborative partnerships with families and communities
106
Access for parents
106 Access for parents
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that a parent of a child being educated and cared for by the service may enter the children's service premises at any time that the child is being educated and cared for by the service.
(2) A nominated supervisor of a children's service must ensure that a parent of a child being educated and cared for by the service may enter the children's service premises at any time that the child is being educated and cared for by the service.
(3) Despite subregulations (1) and (2), the approved provider or nominated supervisor (as the case may be) is not required to allow a parent to enter the children's service premises if—
(a) permitting the parent's entry would—
(i) pose a risk to the safety, health or wellbeing of any child or children being educated or cared for by the service; or
(ii) pose a risk to the safety of staff of the children's service; or
(iii) conflict with any duty of the provider or supervisor under the Act; or
Where a direction has been given to an approved provider or nominated supervisor under section 111(1) of the Act to exclude a person whom the Regulatory Authority is satisfied is an 'inappropriate person' from the children's service premises for such time as the Authority considers appropriate.
(b) the provider or supervisor reasonably believes that permitting the parent's entry would contravene a court or tribunal order.
Other regulations also relate to collaboration with families including requirements to give information about educational programs to parents, for parents to provide enrolment information, for information to be provided or displayed to parents and for administration areas to have adequate space for consulting with parents.
Part 7—Governance and leadership
Division 1—Management of services
Subdivision 1—Attendance and enrolment records
107 Children's attendance record to be kept by approved provider
The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that a record of attendance is kept for the service that—
(a) records the full name of each child attending the service; and
(b) records the date and time each child arrives and departs; and
(c) is signed by one of the following persons at the time that the child arrives and departs—
(i) the person who delivers the child to the children's service premises or collects the child from the children's service premises;
(ii) a nominated supervisor or an educator.
108
Child enrolment records to be kept by approved provider
108 Child enrolment records to be kept by approved provider
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that an enrolment record is kept that includes the information set out in subregulation (2) for each child enrolled at the children's service.
(2) An enrolment record must include the following information for each child—
(a) the full name, date of birth and address of the child;
(b) the name, address and contact details of—
(i) each known parent of the child; and
(ii) any person who is to be notified of an emergency involving the child if any parent of the child cannot be immediately contacted; and
(iii) any person who is an authorised nominee within the meaning of section 110(3) of the Act; and
Authorised nominee means a person who has been given permission by a parent or family member to collect the child from the children's service. See section 110(3) of the Act.
(iv) any person who is authorised to consent to medical treatment of, or to authorise administration of medication to, the child; and
Reg. 108(2) (b)(v) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 35(a).
(v) any person who is authorised to authorise an educator to take the child outside the children's service premises; and
Reg. 108(2) (b)(vi) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 35(b).
(vi) any person who is authorised to authorise the children's service to transport the child or arrange transportation of the child;
(c) details of any court or tribunal orders, parenting orders or parenting plans provided to the approved provider relating to powers, duties, responsibilities or authorities of any person in relation to the child or access to the child;
(d) details of any other court or tribunal orders provided to the approved provider relating to the child's residence or the child's contact with a parent or other person;
(e) the gender of the child;
(f) the language used in the child's home;
(g) the cultural background of the child and, if applicable, the child's parents;
(h) any special considerations for the child, for example any cultural, religious or dietary requirements or additional needs;
(i) the relevant authorisations set out in regulation 109;
(j) the relevant health information set out in regulation 110.
(3) In this regulation—
parenting order means a parenting order within the meaning of section 64B(1) of the Family Law Act 1975 of the Commonwealth;
parenting plan means a parenting plan within the meaning of section 63C(1) of the Family Law Act 1975 of the Commonwealth, and includes a registered parenting plan within the meaning of section 63C(6) of that Act.
109
Authorisations to be kept in enrolment record
109 Authorisations to be kept in enrolment record
The authorisations to be kept in the enrolment record for each child enrolled at a children's service are—
(a) an authorisation, signed by a parent or a person named in the enrolment record as authorised to consent to the medical treatment of the child, for the approved provider, a nominated supervisor or an educator to seek—
(i) medical treatment for the child from a registered medical practitioner, hospital or ambulance service; and
(ii) transportation of the child by an ambulance service; and
Reg. 109(b) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 36(a).
(b) if relevant, an authorisation given under regulation 71 for the children's service to take the child on regular outings; and
Reg. 109(c) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 36(b).
(c) if relevant, an authorisation given under regulation 71G(3) for regular transportation of the child.
110
Health information to be kept in enrolment record
110 Health information to be kept in enrolment record
The health information to be kept in the enrolment record for each child enrolled at the children's service is—
(a) the name, address and telephone number of the child's registered medical practitioner or medical service; and
(b) if available, the child's Medicare number; and
(c) details of any—
(i) specific healthcare needs of the child, including any medical condition; and
(ii) allergies, including whether the child has been diagnosed as at risk of anaphylaxis; and
(d) any medical management plan, anaphylaxis medical management plan or risk minimisation plan to be followed with respect to a specific healthcare need, medical condition or allergy referred to in paragraph (c); and
(e) details of any dietary restrictions for the child; and
(f) the immunisation status of the child; and
(g) if the approved provider or a staff member has sighted a child health record for the child, a notation to that effect; and
(h) in the case of a children's service specified in paragraph (b) of the definition of early childhood service in section 3(1) of the Public Health and Wellbeing Act 2008—
(i) an immunisation status certificate within the meaning of section 147 of the Public Health and Wellbeing Act 2008 that is issued in relation to the child and that is provided under section 143B of that Act; or
(ii) details of any exemption in relation to the child under section 143C of the Public Health and Wellbeing Act 2008.
Subdivision 2—Record of children's service's compliance
111
Record of children's service's compliance
111 Record of children's service's compliance
(1) Subject to subregulations (2) and (3), the record of the children's service's compliance must include the following information—
(a) details of any amendment of the service approval made by the Regulatory Authority under section 54 of the Act, including—
(i) the reason stated by the Regulatory Authority for the amendment; and
(ii) the date on which the amendment took, or takes, effect; and
(iii) the date (if any) that the amendment ceases to have effect;
(b) details of any suspension of the service approval (other than a voluntary suspension), including—
(i) the reason stated by the Regulatory Authority for the suspension; and
(ii) the date on which the suspension took, or takes, effect; and
(iii) the date that the suspension ends;
(c) details of any compliance direction or compliance notice issued to the approved provider in respect of the service, including—
(i) the reason stated by the Regulatory Authority for issuing the direction or notice; and
(ii) the steps specified in the direction or notice; and
(iii) the date by which the steps specified must be taken.
(2) The information set out in subregulation (1) must not include any information that identifies any person other than the approved provider.
(3) Subregulation (1) does not include an amendment, suspension, compliance notice or compliance direction if—
(a) the period for seeking internal or external review under section 133 or 135 of the Act has not yet expired; or
(b) an application for internal or external review under section 133 or 135 of the Act has been made but not yet determined; or
(c) an application for internal or external review under section 133 or 135 of the Act has been determined, and the amendment, suspension, compliance notice or compliance direction was not confirmed.
Division 2—Policies and procedures
112
Children's service must have policies and procedures
112 Children's service must have policies and procedures
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that the service has in place policies and procedures in relation to the matters set out in subregulation (2).
Notes
1 These may include policies and procedures prepared by the approved provider in accordance with the education law.
2 A compliance direction may be issued for failure to comply with this subregulation.
(2) Policies and procedures are required in relation to the following—
(a) health and safety, including matters relating to—
(i) nutrition, food and beverages, and dietary requirements; and
(ii) sun protection; and
(iii) water safety, including safety during any water-based activities; and
(iv) the administration of first aid; and
Reg. 112(2) (a)(v) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 37(1).
(v) sleep and rest for children, including the matters set out in regulation 53B;
(b) incident, injury, trauma and illness policies and procedures complying with regulation 54;
(c) dealing with infectious diseases, including procedures complying with regulation 57;
(d) dealing with medical conditions in children, including the matters set out in regulation 59;
(e) emergency and evacuation, including the matters set out in regulation 66;
(f) delivery of children to, and collection of children from, the children's service premises, including procedures complying with regulation 68;
(g) excursions, including procedures complying with regulations 69, 70 and 71;
Reg. 112 (2)(ga) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 37(2).
(ga) if the service transports or arranges transportation of children other than as part of excursions, transportation including procedures complying with Division 7B of Part 4;
Reg. 112 (2)(gb) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 37(2).
(gb) the safe arrival of children who travel between a children's service and any other education or early childhood service within the meaning of regulation 71A, including the matters set out in regulation 71B;
Reg. 112(2)(h) substituted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 37(3).
(h) providing a child safe environment, including matters relating to—
(i) the promotion of a culture of child safety and wellbeing within the service; and
(ii) the safe use of online environments at the service;
(i) staffing, including—
(i) a code of conduct for staff members; and
(ii) determining the responsible person present at the service; and
(iii) the participation of volunteers and students on practicum placements;
(j) interactions with children, including the matters set out in regulations 104 and 105;
(k) enrolment and orientation;
(l) governance and management of the service, including confidentiality of records;
(m) the acceptance and refusal of authorisations;
(n) payment of fees and provision of a statement of fees charged by the children's service;
Reg. 112(2)(o) substituted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 37(4).
(o) dealing with complaints, including matters relating to—
(i) the provision of a complaint handling system at the service that is child focused; and
(ii) the management of a complaint that alleges a child is exhibiting harmful sexual behaviours.
113
Policies and procedures to be followed
113 Policies and procedures to be followed
The approved provider of a children's service must take reasonable steps to ensure that nominated supervisors and staff members of, and volunteers at, the service follow the policies and procedures required under regulation 112.
114
Policies and procedures to be kept available
114 Policies and procedures to be kept available
(1) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that copies of the current policies and procedures required under regulation 112 are readily accessible to nominated supervisors and staff members of, and volunteers at, the service.
(2) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that copies of the current policies and procedures required under regulation 112 are available for inspection at the children's service premises at all times that the service is educating and caring for children or otherwise on request.
115
Notification of change to policies or procedures
115 Notification of change to policies or procedures
(1) Subject to subregulation (4), the approved provider of a children's service must ensure that parents of children enrolled at the service are notified at least 14 days before making any change to a policy or procedure referred to in regulation 112 that may have a significant impact on the service's provision of education and care to any child enrolled at the service.
(2) Subject to subregulation (4), the approved provider of a children's service must ensure that parents of children enrolled at the service are notified at least 14 days before making any change to a policy or procedure referred to in regulation 112 that may have a significant impact on the family's ability to utilise the service.
(3) The approved provider of a children's service must ensure that parents of children enrolled at the service are notified at least 14 days before making any change that will affect the fees charged or the way in which fees are collected.
(4) If the approved provider considers that the notice period would pose a risk to the safety, health or wellbeing of any child enrolled at the service, the approved provider must ensure that parents of children enrolled at the service are notified as soon as practicable after making a change referred to in subregulations (1) and (2).
Division 3—Information and record-keeping requirements
Subdivision 1—Display and reporting of prescribed information
116 Prescribed information to be displayed
(1) For the purposes of section 112 of the Act, the following information is prescribed in respect of the matters in paragraphs (a) to (d) of that section—
(a) in relation to the provider approval—
(i) the name of the approved provider; and
(iii) any conditions on the provider approval;
(b) in relation to the service approval—
(i) the name of the children's service; and
(ii) the service approval number; and
(iii) any conditions on the service approval;
(c) the name of each nominated supervisor;
(d) in relation to any service waivers or temporary waivers held by the service, the details of the waivers including—
(i) the regulations the requirements of which have been waived; and
(ii) the duration of the waiver; and
(iii) whether the waiver is a service waiver or a temporary waiver.
(2) For the purposes of section 112(e) of the Act, the following matters are prescribed—
(a) the hours and days of operation of the children's service;
(b) the name and telephone number of the person at the children's service to whom complaints may be addressed;
(c) the name and position of the responsible person in charge of the children's service at any given time;
(d) the contact details of the Regulatory Authority;
(e) if applicable, a notice stating that a child who has been diagnosed as at risk of anaphylaxis is enrolled at the service;
(f) if applicable, a notice stating that there has been an occurrence of an infectious disease at the premises.
117
Time to notify certain circumstances to Regulatory Authority
117 Time to notify certain circumstances to Regulatory Authority
(1) For the purposes of section 113(4) of the Act, a notice must be provided within 14 days of the relevant event or within 14 days of the approved provider becoming aware of the relevant event.
(2) For the purposes of section 113(5) of the Act, a notice must be provided—
(a) in the case of a notice under section 113(2)(f), within the period referred to in section 59 of the Act; and
(b) in any other case, within 7 days of the relevant event or within 7 days of the approved provider becoming aware of the relevant event.
118
Prescribed information to be notified to Regulatory Authority
118 Prescribed information to be notified to Regulatory Authority
(1) For the purposes of section 114(1)(b) of the Act, the following matters are prescribed—
(a) any change to the address of the approved provider or the principal office of the approved provider, or the contact details of the approved provider;
(b) the appointment of receivers or liquidators or administrators to the approved provider or any other matters that affect the financial viability and ongoing operation of the children's service.
(2) For the purposes of section 114(2)(c) of the Act, the following matters are prescribed—
(a) any change to the hours and days of operation of the children's service;
Reg. 118 (2)(ab) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 38(a).
(ab) any change to the ages of children being educated or cared for by the children's service;
Reg. 118 (2)(ac) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 38(a).
(ac) any change to the nature of education and care offered by the children's service;
If a children's service educates and cares for children over preschool age and the service proposes to offer education and care to children who are preschool age and under.
(b) any incident that requires the approved provider to close, or reduce the number of children attending, the children's service for a period;
A flood or a fire that requires an approved provider to close the children's service premises (or part of those premises) while repairs are undertaken.
(c) any circumstance arising at the service that poses a risk to the health, safety or wellbeing of a child or children attending the service;
(d) the attendance at the approved children's service of any additional child or children being educated and cared for in an emergency in the circumstances set out in regulation 90(4), including—
(i) a description of the emergency; and
(ii) a statement by the approved provider that the approved provider had taken into account the safety, health and wellbeing of all the children attending the children's service when deciding to provide education and care to the additional child or children;
(e) any incident where the approved provider reasonably believes that physical abuse or sexual abuse of a child or children has occurred or is occurring while the child is, or the children are, being educated and cared for by the children's service;
Reg. 118(2)(f) amended by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 38(b).
(f) allegations that physical or sexual abuse of a child or children has occurred or is occurring while the child is, or the children are, being educated and cared for by the children's service (other than an allegation that has been notified under section 114(2)(b) of the Act);
Reg. 118(2)(g) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 38(c).
(g) for a children's service that starts providing, or arranging for, regular transportation of children—the first time the service provides, or arranges for, the transportation of children;
Reg. 118(2)(h) inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 38(c).
(h) for a children's service that stops providing, or arranging for, regular transportation of children—the final time the service provides, or arranges for, the transportation of children.
119
Time to notify certain information to Regulatory Authority
119 Time to notify certain information to Regulatory Authority
(1) For the purposes of section 114(3) of the Act, a notice must be provided within 7 days of the relevant event or within 7 days of the approved provider becoming aware of the relevant information.
(2) For the purposes of section 114(4) of the Act, a notice must be provided—
(a) in the case of a notice under section 114(2)(a)—
(i) in the case of the death of a child, as soon as practicable but within 24 hours of the death, or the time that the person becomes aware of the death; and
(ii) in the case of any other serious incident, within 24 hours of the incident or the time that the person becomes aware of the incident; and
(b) in the case of a notice under section 114(2)(b) or a notice of a matter referred to in regulation 118(2)(b), within 24 hours of the complaint or incident; and
(c) in the case of a notice under regulation 118(2)(d), within 24 hours of the commencement of the attendance of the child or children at the children's service; and
(d) in any other case, within 7 days of the relevant event or within 7 days of the approved provider becoming aware of the relevant information.
Subdivision 2—Prescribed records
More sections below
Source text: opening excerpt
Sourced from Victorian Legislation (legislation.vic.gov.au), CC BY 4.0.
1 Children's Services Regulations 2020
Version No. 004
Children's Services Regulations 2020
S.R. No. 32/2020
Version incorporating amendments as at
1 October 2024
TABLE OF PROVISIONS
Regulation Page
Part 1—Preliminary 1
1 Objective 1
2 Authorising provision 1
3 Commencement 1
4 Revocations 1
5 Definitions 1
6 Prescribed entity 10
6A Approval in principle criteria 10
7 Types of children's service 10
8 Meaning of actively working towards a qualification 11
9 Meaning of in attendance at a children's service 12
10 Meaning of serious incident 12
11 Meaning of working directly with children 13
Part 2—Provider approvals 15
12 Application for provider approvals by individual 15
13 Application for provider approval by person other than an individual 16
14 Matters relating to criminal history 17
15 Application for amendment of provider approval 17
16 Maximum period of suspension of provider approval 18
17 Application for voluntary suspension of provider approval 18
18 Application by individual executor for provider approval 19
19 Application by executor other than an individual for provider approval 20
20 Application by individual for provider approval on incapacity of approved provider 21
21 Application by person other than an individual for provider approval on incapacity of approved provider 23
Part 3—Service approvals 25
Division 1—Applications for service approvals 25
22 Application for service approval 25
23 Additional information about proposed children's service premises 26
24 Application for service approval for a children's service—relocation of existing children's service 29
25 Additional matters to have regard to in determining application for service approval 30
26 Additional grounds for refusal to grant service approval 31
27 Condition on service approval—insurance 31
Prescribe required records, retention periods and confidentiality limits (regs 120-124).
Set fees and fee units for service approvals, applications and annual fees (reg 30; Schedules 2-3), late payment fees (reg 136) and fee waiver discretion (reg 137).
Provide enforcement mechanisms: compliance directions (reg 128; Schedule 4), infringement offences and penalties (reg 129A; Schedule 5), suspension/cancellation rules (regs 16, 35) and publication of enforcement actions (regs 130-132).
Who decides under the regime is apparent: the Regulatory Authority holds decision-making power for approvals, waivers, enforcement and publication (many regs, e.g. regs 23(2) on school site adjustments; reg 25 on matters to consider in assessing service applications; regs 34, 128, 131-132). Operational day‑to‑day decisions sit with approved providers, nominated supervisors and responsible persons who must implement and document compliance (see regs 85-87, 112, 113).
The Regulations also allocate cost-bearing. Approved providers must pay application and annual fees as prescribed in Schedules 2 and 3 (reg 30; Schs 2-3), maintain insurance (reg 27; evidence at reg 121), meet premises and documentation costs (reg 23), and bear penalties for breaches (numerous regs with penalty units). The endnotes provide the mechanism for converting fee and penalty units to dollar amounts via the Monetary Units Act 2004 and the Sentencing Act 1991, with example values for 2024 (Endnotes: Fee Units and Penalty Units).
The statutory objective is stated in reg 1: to provide for regulation of approval and operation of children's services under the Act. The Regulations therefore operationalise the Act’s standards; their costs, incentives and compliance burdens derive from the content and granularity of the requirements summarised above.
Main concepts
This instrument organises the regulation of children's services around a small set of recurring statutory concepts: approvals (provider, service, and approvals in principle), operational standards (program, safety, staff and premises), record-keeping and publication, fees and waivers, and enforcement.
Approvals: Provider approvals are the foundational authorisation for an entity to operate a service; the Regulations prescribe applicant identity, criminal history checks, WWC documentation and supporting statements (regs 12-21). Service approvals require, in addition to applicant details, a clear description of premises, hours, ages and places, nominated supervisors, policies and premises documentation (regs 22-23). There is a mechanism for approvals in principle for proposed premises, with prescribed information including soil assessments and building practitioner plans (regs 41A-41E; reg 6A prescribes the approval-in-principle criteria).
Operational program and practice: The Regulations require an educational program contributing to five outcomes for each child (reg 42) and documentation of child assessments or evaluations to support program delivery (reg 43). They mandate display of educational program material and parental access to program information (regs 44-45). The early childhood teacher role and what it means to be “in attendance” are defined (reg 9), and an early childhood teacher may be required in attendance for certain services and hours (reg 93).
Health, safety and wellbeing: Multiple, interlinked requirements are prescribed , hygiene and food safety (regs 46-49), a tobacco/drug/alcohol-free environment (reg 51), staff sobriety obligations (reg 52), incident recording and notification duties including tight timeframes for serious incidents and deaths (regs 54-56; reg 119), infectious disease response (reg 57), first aid equipment and training (regs 58, 95), and detailed medical conditions policies including risk-minimisation plans and communication plans (regs 59-60). Sleep and rest receive specific treatment in regs 53A-53C, including annual risk assessments and policy content, and bassinet prohibition (reg 53D).
Premises, risk and transport: Premises must be safe, clean and facilitate supervision; indoor and outdoor unencumbered space minima are prescribed (regs 72, 76-77). Fencing, ventilation, toilets, nappy-change and laundry facilities, shaded outdoor space and natural environment provision for occasional care services are mandated in specific terms (regs 73, 78-83). Risk assessments are required before excursions (regs 69-71) and before transporting children other than for excursions (regs 71E-71F). For transport, authorisations, accounting for children when embarking/disembarking and records are required (regs 71G-71I; reg 120 additions).
Staffing, qualifications and supervision: Minimum educator-to-child ratios are set (reg 90). Qualification mixes for occasional care and limited-hours services prescribe proportions of diploma and certificate III qualifications and the operation of “actively working towards” status (reg 8; regs 91-92). Safeguards cover under-18 workers (reg 88), replacement rules for absent qualified educators (regs 92A, 94), and first aid/anaphylaxis/asthma training currency (reg 95 and reg 95(3A)). WWC clearances and teacher registration checks are required before appointment or nomination to responsible roles (reg 96).
Records, publication and enforcement: The Regulations prescribe a wide set of records that must be kept and made available to parents and the Regulatory Authority, with retention periods (regs 120-124). The Regulatory Authority may publish certain information about services, including enforcement actions (regs 130-132). Compliance tools include compliance directions (reg 128; Schedule 4 lists many operational provisions for which compliance directions may be issued), infringement notices and penalties (reg 129A; Schedule 5), suspension/cancellation and emergency action notices (regs 16, 35; reg 131 description of enforcement actions).
Fees and waivers: Annual fees and specified application fees are set out in Schedule 2 and Schedule 3 (reg 30; reg 135). The Regulatory Authority has discretion to waive, reduce, defer or refund fees in exceptional circumstances (reg 137). Service waivers and temporary waivers are available for specified requirements, with prescribed application content and maximum periods (regs 37-41; regs 39-41 set application and revocation timeframes).
Cross-references to other laws: The Regulations explicitly import or refer to the Building Act 1993, Architects Act 1991, Surveying Act 2004, Planning and Environment Act 1987, Public Health and Wellbeing Act 2008 and education laws and the national regulations (see definitions in reg 5 and references throughout regs 23, 27, 41A, 95 and elsewhere). Records and privacy obligations are linked to the Privacy and Data Protection Act 2014 (reg 120(8)). Final fee and penalty amounts depend on the Monetary Units Act 2004 and the Sentencing Act 1991 (Endnotes).
These concepts are repeated across the Parts of the Regulations to create a framework where approvals, premises, staffing, program, health/safety and records interact. The instrument is highly prescriptive in documentation and procedural requirements while leaving assessment and enforcement authority with the Regulatory Authority and authorised officers.
Who it affects
The Regulations allocate duties and obligations across three principal actor groups: the Regulatory Authority and its authorised officers, approved providers (including persons with management or control), and operational staff at services (nominated supervisors, persons in day-to-day charge, educators, volunteers and students). Third parties (parents, other education services, building practitioners) are also implicated.
Approved providers pay: Approved providers bear the administrative and financial costs of compliance. They must supply prescribed application materials for provider and service approvals (regs 12-23), pay application and annual fees (reg 30; Schs 2-3), hold and exhibit prescribed insurance (reg 27; evidence reg 121), maintain buildings and premises to the standards required (reg 72 et seq.), establish and maintain required policies and procedures (reg 112), keep and retain prescribed records for periods up to 25 years in some cases (reg 123), and respond to enforcement action, waiver processes and compliance directions (regs 37-41, 128-129A). Where a provider transfers a service approval they are also required to transfer records subject to parental consent (reg 124(1)-(2)).
Nominated supervisors and persons in day‑to‑day charge decide operational compliance: Nominated supervisors must meet minimum requirements (reg 87), be checked for WWC or teacher registration before nomination (reg 96(3)), implement policies (regs 112-114), ensure staff are fit for duty (regs 46-52), ensure training currency and first-aid competence (reg 95), and execute risk assessments and incident notifications (regs 66, 69, 71C, 71E, 119). The Regulations make nominated supervisors jointly responsible with providers for many operational obligations (see numerous penalties that attach to both provider and nominated supervisor duties, e.g. regs 46(2), 47(2), 48(2), 52(2)).
Educators, volunteers and students are affected by requirements about qualifications, supervision and record-keeping: minimum ratios (reg 90), qualification mixes and “actively working towards” documentation (reg 8; regs 91-92), supervision of under-18 educators (reg 88), and WWC and staff record requirements (reg 96; regs 97-103). The Regulations also require particular practices relating to medication, sleep/rest, transport and excursions for those directly providing care (regs 61-65; regs 53A-53C; Division 7B).
Parents and children: Parents are given rights, access and obligations. They must provide enrolment and health information (regs 108-110), authorise excursions and transport (regs 71, 71G), and are to be provided specific policy documents on request or when a child has a medical condition (reg 60). Parents may enter premises at any time their child is being educated and cared for, subject to safety and court orders (reg 106). Parents are the source of many authorisations required for administration of medication or excursions (regs 61-64; 71).
Third parties and the public: Building practitioners and planners must produce plans and certificates used in applications (reg 23). Other education sites (schools, other early childhood services) are relevant in shared premises cases and for safe-arrival procedures (reg 41A; Div 7A regs 71A-71C). The Regulatory Authority may publish enforcement information about providers and services (regs 130-132), affecting reputational exposure.
Enforcement actors: Authorised officers and the Regulatory Authority are empowered to require production of records, issue compliance directions (reg 128), serve infringement notices (reg 129A; Sch 5) and to publish enforcement action (reg 131). Identity card format and proof is prescribed for authorised officers (reg 127).
Who decides: The Regulatory Authority is the central decision-maker for approvals, waivers, interventions in transfers, enforcement actions and publication (see regs 23(2), 25, 33-35, 37-41, 34, 128, 130-132). Approved providers and nominated supervisors make operational decisions about hiring, rostering, training, policies, risk assessments and day-to-day supervision. Parents decide on authorisations and provide critical health and enrolment information; their consent is required for transfer of child records (reg 124(2)).
What behaviour changes: Entities that operate or wish to operate children's services will need to formalise and document operational procedures, invest in required premises documentation (plans, soil assessments, occupancy certificates), ensure staffing and qualifying mixes, implement regular risk assessments (emergency, sleep, excursions, transport), maintain and disclose records and policies, and meet notification timeframes for incidents and changes. Financial behaviour will change through payment of prescribed fees, potential late payment penalties (reg 136) and the choice to apply for waivers when compliance costs or constraints exist (regs 37-41).
Key duties and rights
The Regulations convert statutory duties in the Act into granular, enumerated duties and rights for providers, supervisors, educators and parents. Below are the principal duties and the rights they create.
Duties of approved providers
Apply for and maintain provider and service approvals with prescribed supporting information (regs 12-23, 31). For service approvals, provide premises plans, soil assessment or statements, planning permits and building practitioner certifications where applicable (reg 23).
Implement and maintain a set of policies and procedures across multiple domains (health and safety, sleep and rest, medical conditions, admissions, excursions, transport, child-safe environment) and ensure they are followed and available to staff and parents (regs 112-115).
Ensure minimum educator-to-child ratios and qualification mixes appropriate to the service type at all times (reg 90; regs 91-93) and maintain records of educators working directly with children (reg 102).
Maintain prescribed insurance (public liability minimum $10,000,000 or State indemnity) and keep evidence available at premises (reg 27; reg 121).
Conduct and document risk assessments for emergency and evacuation (reg 66), excursions (reg 69-70), transport (regs 71E-71F) and sleep and rest (reg 53C), and update policies after risk assessments (regs 66(2B), 53C(3), 71C(5)).
Keep comprehensive records (enrolment, attendance, incident/illness, medication, staff records) and retain them for statutory periods (reg 120; reg 123). Make certain records available to parents on request subject to privacy and court orders (reg 120(3)-(5)).
Notify the Regulatory Authority of prescribed changes, incidents and enforcement-triggering events within specified timeframes (regs 117-119; reg 118 prescribes what to notify).
Be present in accordance with nomination and be suitably qualified/able to supervise (regs 85-87). Their obligations mirror many provider duties operationally: implement health, hygiene and food practices (regs 46-48), supervise staff under 18 (reg 88), ensure staff fitness for duty regarding alcohol/drugs (reg 52) and ensure qualified or trained staff are immediately available (reg 95).
Carry out and document risk assessments, rehearsals of emergency procedures every three months and incident reporting/notifications (regs 66(3), 56, 119(2)(a)).
Rights and entitlements for parents and children
Parents can access premises at any time their child is being educated and cared for unless a risk or court order justifies denial (reg 106).
Parents have rights to obtain information about the educational program, documentation about their child (regs 44-45, 43).
Parents control authorisations for excursions, regular outings and transportation, and for administration of medication (regs 71, 71G, 61-64).
Parents must be given copies of the medical conditions policy if their child has a specific need (reg 60).
Regulatory powers and enforcement rights
The Regulatory Authority may refuse service applications on grounds including lack of capability or lack of entitlement to occupy premises (regs 25, 26). It may impose conditions on approvals, suspend approvals (regs 16, 35), issue compliance directions (reg 128; Schedule 4), publish enforcement actions (regs 130-132) and serve infringement notices for specified breaches (reg 129A; Sch 5).
Authorised officers have prescribed identity documentation requirements and may be required to produce additional ID where cards lack photographs (reg 127).
Procedural rights
Providers may apply for internal review of reviewable decisions with prescribed application content (reg 126). The Regulations also detail timing for publication where internal or external review rights exist (reg 132).
Specific, enforceable duties with tight timeframes and penalties
Notification of serious incidents and deaths: 24‑hour timeframes apply for certain notices under reg 119(2)(a).
Incident notification to parents: as soon as practicable but no later than 24 hours (reg 55).
Record-making: incident records must be completed as soon as practicable but not later than 24 hours after the event (reg 56(3)).
Many operational duties carry express penalty-unit sanctions (see regs 46-49, 51-53C, 56, 57, 58, 66(2), 76(1), 77(2), 79 and others).
Rights to seek waivers
Providers can seek service waivers or temporary waivers from specified requirements (regs 37-41). Waiver applications require justification, evidence of attempts to comply and measures to protect child wellbeing while a waiver is in force (regs 38(e)-(g); 41(e)-(i)).
In short, the Regulations set a comprehensive list of mandatory duties that allocate operational responsibility to providers and nominated supervisors, create parental rights to information and access, and empower the Regulatory Authority with robust enforcement and publication tools.
Penalties and enforcement
The Regulations establish a layered enforcement architecture combining criminal penalties (penalty units), infringement notices with prescribed penalties (reg 129A; Schedule 5), compliance directions and administrative remedies including suspension, amendment and publication of enforcement actions (Parts 7-9 and Schedule 4). The Regulatory Authority is the central enforcement actor.
Penalties and infringement regime
Many operational breaches attract penalty units. Examples include failures on health, hygiene and food practices (reg 46: 10 penalty units), providing access to safe drinking water and offering appropriate food (reg 47: 10 penalty units), and maintaining first aid kits and relevant staff training (regs 58, 95: 10 penalty units). The Regulations frequently list identical penalties for both the approved provider and nominated supervisor (e.g. regs 46(1) and 46(2)).
Schedule 5 (inserted by S.R. No. 80/2024) lists specified infringement offences and fixed infringement penalties (Column 3). For instance, reg 46(1) and reg 46(2) have an infringement penalty of 1 penalty unit each (Sch 5 items 1-2). Reg 49(1) (weekly menu display) is an infringement offence carrying 0.5 penalty units (Sch 5 item 3).
Penalty and fee unit dollar values are determined under separate Acts. The Endnotes set the value of a penalty unit for 2024 as $197.59 and give the fee unit example of $16.33 for 2024-25. Calculated penalties therefore reflect these statutory conversions (Endnotes: Fee Units and Penalty Units).
Administrative enforcement and compliance tools
Compliance directions are a key administrative tool. Regulation 128 prescribes the provisions for which a compliance direction may be given and Schedule 4 lists many operational provisions (e.g. regs 43, 44, 46, 51, 53A, 66 and many premises and record-keeping provisions). Compliance directions allow the Regulatory Authority to require steps to rectify non-compliance.
The Regulatory Authority may suspend or cancel approvals under the Act and the Regulations set maximum suspension terms for provider and service approvals (12 months for a maximum period of suspension: regs 16 and 35).
The Regulations allow for emergency action notices and amendment of approvals for enforcement purposes; such actions are included among the enforcement actions whose details may be published (reg 131(2)(f) and reg 131(3)-(3)(e)(v)).
Inspection and authorised officers
Authorised officers must carry prescribed identity cards,reg 127 prescribes the card format and the obligation to present alternate photographic ID if a photo is not on the card. This supports on‑site inspection and enforcement activity. The Regulatory Authority and authorised officers are expressly permitted recipients of confidential records under reg 122(c).
Publication and reputational enforcement
The Regulatory Authority may publish compliance and enforcement information about enforcement actions (reg 131). Published information can include the nature of action, identifying details of the provider where the Authority considers it in the public interest, reasons for action and details of penalties or remedial steps (reg 131(3)). Timing of publication where review rights exist is regulated (reg 132) and is linked to whether an internal or external review application is lodged or withdrawn.
Procedural safeguards and review
Providers have recourse to internal review for reviewable decisions under the Act; reg 126 prescribes what an internal review application must contain. Publication timing is sensitive to review windows (reg 132).
There is a prescribed process for applying to cancel a prohibition notice (reg 129 sets required application content).
Financial sanctions and costs
Late payment fees on annual service approval fees are expressed as 15% of the relevant annual fee for every 30 days overdue (reg 136).
Application and annual fees are set out in Schedules 2 and 3, exposing providers to recurring operating costs (reg 30; Schs 2-3). The Regulatory Authority can waive, reduce, defer or refund fees in exceptional circumstances (reg 137), so there is administrative discretion.
Targeted enforcement focus
Schedule 4 shows the Authority can issue compliance directions for many practical operational matters. That schedule identifies core health, safety, supervision, premises, records and policies as the prime focus for administrative remediation, signalling where enforcement resources will be concentrated.
Net effect
The enforcement architecture mixes criminal penalties, infringement fines, administrative compliance directions, suspension/cancellation powers and public disclosure. Providers face rapid operational exposure for failures (24-hour incident reporting deadlines, 24‑hour incident record creation, risk-assessment obligations) and the Regulatory Authority has multiple levers to require remediation or apply sanctions.
How it interacts with other laws
The Regulations are written to operate in a web of cross-references and interactions with Commonwealth and State legislative instruments, professional registration regimes and the National Law/regulations that underpin early childhood education and care. The text itself prescribes these interactions and imports external standards in multiple places.
Building, planning and environmental law
Premises approval and compliance requirements explicitly reference building and planning regimes. Reg 5 defines “building law” as the Building Act 1993 and “planning and development law” as the Planning and Environment Act 1987. Service application requirements mandate evidence such as planning permits, occupancy permits, certificates of final inspection and building practitioner statements (reg 23(1)(e)-(i)). The approvals-in-principle regime also requires plans prepared by building practitioners and soil assessments (regs 41A( j), 41A(k)).
National Law and national regulations
The Regulations repeatedly reference the National Authority and the national regulations for qualification lists and approved training. Definitions of approved certificate III, diploma and early childhood teaching qualifications are tied to the National Authority lists under regulation 137 of the national regulations (reg 5 definitions). First-aid, anaphylaxis and emergency asthma training are similarly required to be “approved by the National Authority” in accordance with the national regulations (reg 95(4)).
Education law and teacher registration
The Regulations incorporate teacher registration requirements. For persons who are registered teachers under the relevant education law, certain checks may substitute for WWC clearances and the education law registers are acceptable evidence (reg 96(6)). Reg 98(d)(ii) and 99(d)(ii) allow provider records to record teacher registration numbers and expiry dates.
Child protection and public health law
The definition of “child protection law” includes the Children, Youth and Families Act 2005, the Child Wellbeing and Safety Act 2005 and the Family Violence Protection Act 2008 (reg 5). The Regulations require that staff be advised of the existence and application of child protection law and their obligations under it (reg 53). Infectious disease is defined by reference to the Public Health and Wellbeing Act 2008 (reg 5) and regulation 57 prescribes duties if infectious disease occurs.
Privacy and data protection
The Regulations cross‑reference the Privacy and Data Protection Act 2014 for the meaning of “personal information” and prescribe steps for disclosure of personal information in enrolment and other records (reg 120(5)-(8)). Confidentiality duties and permitted disclosures are set out in reg 122.
Commonwealth bankruptcy/insolvency law and criminal history checks
Provider and applicant requirements include bankruptcy declarations and financial declarations referencing the Bankruptcy Act 1966 (reg 5 definition of “bankruptcy declaration”; regs 12(l), 13(e), 18(m), 19(g)). Criminal history checks are prescribed as Australia-wide full disclosure checks from police forces (reg 5 definition) and the Regulations require criminal history statements and overseas criminal history statements where the applicant has lived or worked overseas in the prior three years (regs 12(h)-(j), 18(i)-(k), 20(i)-(k)).
Monetary Units and penalty calculation
The Regulations specify fees and penalties in fee and penalty units. The Endnotes explain that the Monetary Units Act 2004 fixes the value of fee units and the Sentencing Act 1991 for penalty units and provide example values for 2024 (Endnotes). That means the dollar quantum of fees and penalties changes with separate statutory instruments and Treasurer determinations.
Interplay with the Act and review rights
The Regulations are subordinate to the Children's Services Act 1996 and are designed to complement the Act’s approval, review and enforcement provisions. The Regulations prescribe the content for internal review applications (reg 126) and set timing expectations for publication where review rights exist (reg 132), showing procedural integration between primary and subordinate legislation.
National training standards and vocational training providers
“Actively working towards” a qualification requires documentary evidence from the course provider showing commencement, progress and enrolment maintenance (reg 8). The Regulations therefore rely on third‑party course providers to produce evidence that affects staffing and compliance.
Practical effect
In practice the Regulations require operators to manage compliance across multiple legal domains: building/planning (for premises), health/public health (infectious disease, immunisation, first aid), education law (teacher registration), national early childhood standards (qualification lists and approved training), privacy law (record disclosure), insolvency and criminal history checks (financial and character vetting). This multiplies compliance channels and the number of external bodies with which providers must interact.
Amendment history
The child services regulatory framework in this instrument was made on 12 May 2020 and commenced 17 May 2020 (reg 3; Endnotes), replacing the older Children’s Services Regulations 2009 (Schedule 1 revocations). The published version in the text incorporates subsequent amendment instruments up to 1 October 2024 (Version No. 004).
Key amendment instruments recorded in the text:
Children's Services Amendment Regulations 2024, S.R. No. 12/2024. Date of making 20 February 2024. Commencement: many provisions on 2 April 2024 and one reg on 1 July 2024. The table of amendments in the Endnotes states which regs were affected; throughout the printed Regulations many paragraphs and regs are marked “amended by S.R. No. 12/2024” (for example, insertion of regs 53A-53D on sleep and rest, multiple amendments to regs 22, 23, 25, 31, 37, 40, 41, Divisions 7A and 7B, and various record-keeping changes).
Notable content introduced by S.R. No. 12/2024: a new Division 2A on sleep and rest (regs 53A-53D) including an express prohibition on bassinets (reg 53D), additions to transport and excursion authorisation detail (reg 71(3) amendments), insertion of safe arrival Division 7A (regs 71A-71C), expansion of transport rules in Division 7B (regs 71D-71I), more detailed staff record requirements (regs 100, 103A, 103B), and expanded policy content in regulation 112 (insertion of transport and safe arrival items). Many of these changes are annotated through the text by “inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024”.
Children's Services Further Amendment Regulations 2024, S.R. No. 80/2024. Date of making 3 September 2024. Commencement: 1 October 2024. The consolidated print incorporates the S.R. No. 80/2024 amendments (e.g. insertion of Part 3A approvals in principle (regs 41A-41E), addition of reg 6A prescribing approval-in-principle criteria, insertion of reg 129A authorising infringement notices with Schedule 5, amendments to reg 23 to insert building practitioner statements (reg 23(1)(h) as inserted by S.R. No. 80/2024 reg 7(b)), and edits to Schedules).
S.R. No. 80/2024 also inserted Schedule 5 (Infringement offences and penalties) and made changes to Schedules 2 and 3 fee entries.
The Endnotes provide a table of amendments and the Explanatory Details outline that certain regs were amended or inserted by the two 2024 instruments (Endnotes: Table of Amendments). The Endnotes also record that these Regulations will sunset 10 years after making (12 May 2030), pursuant to the Subordinate Legislation Act 1994 (Endnotes).
Practical amendment consequences visible in the consolidated text:
New or expanded operational duties introduced by S.R. No. 12/2024 increase requirements around sleep/rest, transport and safe arrival, and tighten record-keeping and policy content (see regs 53A-53D, Div 7A and Div 7B, reg 112 amendments).
S.R. No. 80/2024 created the approvals-in-principle pathway for premises (Part 3A) which requires new, specified documentation up front (regs 41A-41E), and created a schedule of infringement offences (Schedule 5) enabling infringement notices and specified penalties for selected breaches (reg 129A).
Several regs have been reworded or had new subparagraphs added to reflect the expanded regulatory focus on transport, multi-storey premises, building practitioner statements and approval-in-principle (see reg 23(1)(h) insertion, reg 23(1)(ba) on multi-storey building details).
The Explanatory Details also explain ancillary elements such as fee units and penalty unit valuation mechanisms (Endnotes: Explanatory details, Fee Units and Penalty Units) and give the making and commencement dates for the amending statutory rules. Each inserted or amended provision is footnoted in the consolidated text with the authority for the change (e.g. “inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 19”).
For practitioners, the key amendment-history points to track are the two 2024 amending instruments (S.R. Nos 12/2024 and 80/2024), their commencement dates (2 April 2024/1 July 2024 for parts of S.R. No. 12/2024 and 1 Oct 2024 for S.R. No. 80/2024) and the substantive topics they altered: sleep/rest and transport/safe arrival and premises approvals/penalty structure, respectively.
Litigation history
The Regulations as provided do not record any litigation history. The instrument contains no references to judicial decisions, appeals, or case law. The Endnotes identify amendment instruments and the usual administrative materials (table of amendments, explanatory details) but no litigation materials are included.
Where the Regulations intersect with adjudicable disputes, the text does provide procedural routes to challenge Regulatory Authority decisions: internal review application requirements are prescribed (reg 126) and the timing for publication related to internal and external review processes is regulated (reg 132). The Act itself (which the Regulations support) contains the wider legal framework for internal and external review rights (see regs 126 and 132 for the Regulations’ procedural detail).
Practitioners seeking litigation or appeal history will need to consult enforcement records, Tribunal and court databases, and the Regulatory Authority’s published enforcement information (reg 131 and reg 132) because the Regulations anticipate that enforcement actions may be published once review windows close. The Regulations do not themselves catalogue litigation.
Gotchas
The Regulations contain multiple specific operational details that commonly create compliance pitfalls. Below are concrete items to watch for, grounded in the text.
Documented evidence for “actively working towards” is strict: to count as actively working towards a higher qualification, the educator must be enrolled and provide documentary evidence from the course provider that they commenced, are making satisfactory progress, are meeting enrolment requirements and (for diploma entry) hold or have completed certain certificate III units (reg 8). Providers relying on “actively working towards” status must secure and retain this documentary evidence.
“In attendance” for early childhood teachers is a defined, substantive test: an early childhood teacher is only “in attendance” when physically present and carrying out education and care activities such as working directly with children, planning programs or mentoring (reg 9). Counting early childhood teacher hours for regulatory compliance requires verifying those activities occurred and recording attendance (reg 103).
Premises evidence is extensive and multi‑sourced: service applications require plans by a building practitioner, soil assessments or site statements, planning permits where required, occupancy permits and building practitioner statements confirming compliance with building and planning law (reg 23(1)(b),(d),(e),(g),(h)). If premises are in a multi-storey mixed-use building, extra details and evacuation planning are required (reg 23(1)(ba); regs 66(1)(c) and 41A). Providers who rely on school sites may have some documentation requirements waived but that is at the Regulatory Authority's discretion (reg 23(2)).
Two separate but overlapping transport regimes: one for excursions and one for transport outside excursions. Different risk assessments and authorisations are required (regs 69-71 for excursions; regs 71E-71G for transport). Regular transportation can be authorised once per 12 months, but risk assessments must be current within 12 months for regular transport or regular outings to avoid repeating full assessments (regs 69(3), 71G(4), 71E(3)).
Time-critical incident notifications and record entries: Many duties have 24-hour deadlines. Incident records must be completed within 24 hours (reg 56(3)), parents must be notified within 24 hours of incidents (reg 55), and certain notifications to the Regulatory Authority must be made within 24 hours for deaths and serious incidents (reg 119(2)(a)). Failure to meet these windows can attract penalties and cause enforcement escalation.
Record retention durations vary and can be long: Incident records must be kept until a child is 25 years old in certain cases (reg 123(2)(a)-(b)). Other child records must be kept 3 years after the last date the child was educated at the service (reg 123(2)(d)). Providers need secure systems to store records for differing statutory retention periods.
Insurance minimum is high or state indemnity only: The prescribed insurance is public liability with a minimum cover of $10,000,000 or a State-provided indemnity (reg 27). Evidence must be available at premises (reg 121). This is a significant operating cost and must be organised before or at approval.
Staffing and qualification mixes create counting complexity: Ratios are age‑based (reg 90) and qualification mixes differ by service type (regs 91-92). Early childhood teacher attendance obligations (reg 93) and the “replacement” provisions for absences (regs 92A and 94) permit temporary substitution but cap replacement days (30 days for educators under reg 92A; 60 days for early childhood teachers under reg 94(2)). Tracking time pro rata for part-time staff adds administrative complexity.
Prohibition on bassinets is absolute at the premises while educating and caring for children: Bassinets are prohibited and breaches attract 10 penalty units for the provider and nominated supervisor (reg 53D). Services with infant-care practices must ensure cots compliant with safety rules are used instead.
Publication risk is conditioned but present: The Regulatory Authority may publish enforcement actions, including identifying details where it considers it in the public interest (reg 131(3)(b)). Publication timing is sensitive to review windows (reg 132). Providers facing enforcement should expect potential reputational consequences.
Fee and penalty values fluctuate with fee/penalty unit instruments: The Regulations set amounts in fee or penalty units; the actual dollar amounts depend on changes under the Monetary Units Act 2004 and the Sentencing Act 1991 (Endnotes). Fee-year calculations and late fees (reg 136) can produce significant sums and require vigilant financial administration.
Records transfer requires parental consent on sale/transfer: When a service approval is transferred, the transferring provider must not transfer child documents unless the parent has first consented (reg 124(1)-(2)). This can complicate sales or transfers where parent consents are not easily obtained.
Compliance direction schedule is broad: Schedule 4 lists many core operational requirements for which compliance directions may be issued. Providers should assume that failures in any item in that Schedule may lead to immediate administrative directives requiring remedial steps (Schedule 4; reg 128).
Read the specific referenced regulations for operational detail rather than relying on summaries, because many obligations contain defined procedural steps and documentary proof requirements that are condition precedent to compliance.
How to comply
Compliance with these Regulations requires operational design, documented systems and periodic review. Below is a practitioner-focused checklist and set of recommended compliance controls aligned to the Regulations’ specific provisions.
Approvals and premises
For provider approval applications (regs 12-13): collect full identity documentation, criminal history record checks (issued within 6 months), criminal history statements covering the period after that check, disciplinary proceedings statements, WWC clearance copies where held and bankruptcy/financial declarations. For corporate applicants, include constitution and contact person details (reg 13).
For service approval applications (regs 22-23): prepare plans by a building practitioner showing indoor/outdoor spaces, boundaries, entries/exits, fencing, toilets/nappy change areas and calculations of unencumbered space per regs 76-77. Obtain and attach planning permits, occupancy permits, certificates and a soil assessment or site history statement (reg 23(1)(d)-(g)).
If premises are in a multi-storey building, include storey details and evacuation planning (reg 23(1)(ba); regs 41A(k), 66(1)(c)).
Where appropriate, use the approval-in-principle pathway (Part 3A; regs 41A-41E) to secure early clearance for premises and to identify nearby hazards or mixed-occupant issues.
Policies, procedures and records
Draft and maintain the full suite of policies required under reg 112. Ensure each policy includes the specific items the Regulations require , for example, sleep and rest policies must address monitoring frequency, bedding safety, risk management and communication with families (reg 53B).
Maintain policies in accessible form at the service and ensure staff and volunteers have ready access (regs 114(1)-(2)).
Keep prescribed records (reg 120(1)) , attendance (reg 107), enrolments (reg 108), incident/illness records (reg 56), medication records (reg 61), staff records (regs 97-100), records of educators working directly with children (reg 102), records of transport embarkation/disembarkation where applicable (reg 120(1)(ca),(cb)).
Implement secure storage systems to meet retention periods under reg 123 (up to 25 years for serious incident records). Combine electronic backup with physical record policies and access controls to meet confidentiality rules (reg 122).
Staffing, qualifications and training
Map rosters to the ratios in reg 90. Ensure educators counted in ratios are “working directly with children” per reg 89.
Ensure qualification mixes meet regs 91-92 for the service type. For staff “actively working towards” qualifications collect and file the course-provider documentary evidence required by reg 8.
Implement a system to manage temporary replacements and track replacement days to avoid exceeding 30 days for educators under reg 92A or 60 days for early childhood teachers under reg 94.
Ensure WWC clearances and/or teacher registration are checked and read before appointment, day-to-day charge placement or nomination as nominated supervisor (reg 96). Keep records of WWC numbers and expiry dates in staff files (regs 98-100).
Maintain first aid and anaphylaxis/asthma training currency per reg 95 and reg 95(3A). Implement a training calendar to renew certifications within required windows (CPR annually where required, other components every 3 years).
Health, safety, sleep, medication and emergencies
Adopt a medical conditions policy and ensure parents of children with specific health needs receive it (regs 59-60). Develop and document medical management plans and risk-minimisation plans in consultation with parents (reg 59(1)(c)(iii)).
Implement medication administration procedures and medication records as prescribed (regs 61-65). For emergency anaphylaxis/asthma interventions, ensure reporting to parents and emergency services as soon as practicable (reg 63(2)).
Conduct emergency and evacuation risk assessments at least annually and whenever circumstances change (reg 66(2), (2A)) and rehearse evacuation procedures quarterly (reg 66(3)). Document rehearsals and keep floor plans visible near exits (reg 66(4)).
For sleep and rest: conduct risk assessments at least annually and after any change affecting safety; update sleep/rest policies accordingly; ensure monitoring and documentation procedures are detailed (regs 53A-53C).
Excursions, transport and safe arrival
Implement an excursions policy with pre-excursion risk assessments that consider route, water hazards, transport means, supervision ratios, activities and equipment list (regs 69-71).
For regular transportation or transport arranged outside excursions, conduct transport risk assessments (reg 71E-71F). Secure written authorisations from parents; for regular transport authorisation it need only be obtained once in 12 months (reg 71G(4)).
For regular transport, implement and document procedures for accounting for children when embarking and disembarking (regs 71H(4), 71I(4)). Keep embarkation and disembarkation records as required (reg 120(1)(ca),(cb)).
Notifications and incident management
Put in place notification workflows for events that must be notified to the Regulatory Authority under regs 117-119 and reg 118 (changes of address, insolvency, incidents requiring closure, allegations of abuse, commencement or cessation of regular transportation). Ensure timeframes (7 days, 14 days or 24 hours depending on event per regs 117-119) are met.
For incidents and injuries, create an incident file system that captures all required fields and ensures entries are made within 24 hours (reg 56(3)).
Implement parent notification procedures so parents are informed as soon as practicable but not later than 24 hours after incidents (reg 55).
Insurance, fees and financial controls
Secure the prescribed insurance (public liability minimum $10,000,000) or confirm the State indemnity option and keep evidence available at premises (reg 27; reg 121).
Budget for application and annual fees per Schedules 2 and 3 (reg 30; reg 135). Monitor due dates and apply controls to avoid late payment fees (reg 136) and to prepare for possible fee unit increases tied to Treasury instruments (Endnotes).
If financial hardship or exceptional circumstances exist, consider applying for fee waiver or reduction under reg 137.
Audit, compliance and continuous review
Conduct internal audits mapped to Schedule 4 items (reg 128) and the compliance directions list to ensure remedial action is taken proactively.
Keep a register of service waivers and temporary waivers, and prepare evidence for waiver applications that demonstrate attempts to comply and measures to protect children while a waiver operates (regs 38-41).
Prepare for potential publication of enforcement actions by maintaining evidence of corrective actions and remediation steps (reg 131).
Practical administrative controls
Implement a staff file checklist to capture identity, WWC, teacher registration, qualifications, training records, and evidence of “actively working towards” status (regs 97-100).
Ensure the Act and these Regulations are accessible at premises (reg 125).
Document processes for parental consent during service transfers (reg 124(2)).
Seek advice and use Regulatory Authority resources
Where the Regulatory Authority may exercise discretion (e.g. multi-storey egress, school-site application relaxations, waivers), engage early with the Authority to confirm expectations (reg 23(2); regs 24(2)-(4); regs 37-41).
If enforcement action is threatened, prepare internal review material according to reg 126.
These steps map directly to the Regulations’ operational paragraphs. Providers should turn each item into a documented policy, assign responsibility and implement recordkeeping automation where possible to meet the specified timeframes and retention requirements.
Schedule 5—Infringement offences and infringement penalties 170
═════════════
Endnotes 171
1 General information 171
2 Table of Amendments 173
3 Explanatory details 174
Version No.004
Children's Services Regulations 2020
S.R. No. 32/2020
Version incorporating amendments as at
1 October 2024
Part 1—Preliminary
1 Objective
The objective of these Regulations is to provide for certain matters for the regulation of the approval and operation of children's services under the Children's Services Act 1996.
2 Authorising provision
These Regulations are made under section 191 of the Children's Services Act 1996.
3 Commencement
These Regulations come into operation on 17 May 2020.
4 Revocations
The regulations set out in Schedule 1 are revoked.
5 Definitions
(1) In these Regulations—
Reg. 5(1) def. of ABN inserted by S.R. No. 80/2024 reg. 5.
ABN has the same meaning as in section 41 of the A New Tax System (Australian Business Number) Act 1999 of the Commonwealth;
actively working towards a qualification—see regulation 8;
approved certificate III level education and care qualification means—
(a) a qualification for the education and care of children generally or children of a specified age that is approved by the National Authority and included in the list of approved certificate III level education and care qualifications published under regulation 137 of the national regulations; or
(b) a qualification included in the list of approved diploma level education and care qualifications or approved early childhood teaching qualifications published under regulation 137 of the national regulations;
approved diploma level education and care qualification means—
(a) a qualification for the education and care of children generally or children of a specified age that is approved by the National Authority and included in the list of approved diploma level education and care qualifications published under regulation 137 of the national regulations; or
(b) a qualification included in the list of approved early childhood teaching qualifications published under regulation 137 of the national regulations;
Reg. 5(1) def. of approved early childhood teaching qualification inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 5(a).
approved early childhood teaching qualification means a qualification for the education and care of children generally or children of a specified age that is approved by the National Authority and included in the list of approved early childhood teaching qualifications published under regulation 137 of the national regulations;
Reg. 5(1) def. of approved education and care qualification inserted by S.R. No. 12/2024 reg. 5(a).
approved education and care qualification, in regulations 92A and 94, means—
(a) an approved certificate III level education and care qualification; or
(b) an approved diploma level education and care qualification; or
(c) an approved early childhood teaching qualification;
approved number of places, in relation to a children's service, means the maximum number of children who can be educated and cared for by the service at any one time, stated on the service approval under section 51(g) of the Act;
bankruptcy declaration means a declaration made by an individual about any
This is an opening excerpt, not the complete document.