[2008] AATA 580
General information, not legal advice.
Administrative Appeals Tribunal of Australia
2008-07-04
Original judgment source is linked above.
CATCHWORDS - CORPORATIONS - prudential regulation - disqualification of responsible officers - whether Trustee or responsible officers breached covenants - meaning of covenants - meaning of ordinary prudent person covenant - meaning of best interests covenant - meaning of "reserve" - meaning of fit and proper person - decisions set aside
Acts Interpretation Act 1901 ss 8, 15, ,
Evidence Act 1995 ss 4 and 137
Financial Sector Legislation Amendment (Review of Prudential Decisions) Act 2008 Item 70(9)(b) of Schedule 1
Property Law Act 1958 (Vic) s 144
Superannuation Industry Supervision Act 1993 ss 3, 10, 19, 21(2), 26, 27A , 27C, 28, 29, 31, 34, 52, 55, 58, 59, 62, 86, 93(4), 106, 109, 110, 111, 120, 121, 120A, 126, 126A, 126B, 126D, 152, 126E, 193, 196, 197, 199, 202, 203, 205, 206, 207, 215, 220, 263, 265, 267, 280, 284, 298, 313(2), 314, 315, 320, 321, 322, 324 and 344
Albarran v Members of the Companies Auditors and Liquidators Disciplinary Board (2007) 234 ALR 618; 95 ALD 220; [2007] HCA 23
All State Life Insurance Co v Australia and New Zealand Banking Group Ltd (No 33) (1996) 64 FCR 79; 137 ALR 138
AM & S Europe Ltd v Commission of the European Communities [1983] QB 878;
APRA v VBN (2005) 88 ALD 403; [2005] FCA 1868
Arnotts Ltd v Trade Practices Commission (1990) 24 FCR 31; 97 ALD 555
Attorney-General (NT) v Maurice [1986] HCA 80; (1986) 161 CLR 475; 69 ALR 31
Attorney-General of the Commonwealth of Australia v Alinta Limited (2008) 242 ALR 1; [2008] HCA 2
Austin v Austin [1906] HCA 5; (1906) 3 CLR 516
Australian Broadcasting Tribunal v Bond and Others [1990] HCA 33; (1990) 170 CLR 321;
Australian Competition and Consumer Commission v Liquorland (Australia) Pty Ltd [2006] FCA 826
Australian Prudential Regulation Authority v VBN [2005] FCA 1868; (2005) 88 ALD 403;
Australian Rugby Union Ltd v Hospitality Group Pty Ltd [1999] FCA 1098
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Vines (2003) 48 ACSR 322; [2003] NSWSC 1116
Australian Securities Commission v AS Nominees [1995] FCA 1663; (1995) 62 FCR 504
AWB Ltd v Cole (2006) 232 ALR 743; 91 ALD 741; [2006] FCA 571
Barwick v Law Society of New South Wales [2000] HCA 2; (2000) 169 ALR 236
Beevers & Anor v Port Phillip Sea Pilots Pty Ltd & Anor [2007] VSC 556
Blount Inc v Registrar of Trade Marks [1998] FCA 440; (1998) 83 FCR 50
Boland v Yates Property Corporation Pty Ltd (1999) 74 ALJR 209; 167 ALR 575; [1999] HCA 64
Brandy v Human Rights and Equal Opportunity Commission [1995] HCA 10; (1995) 183 CLR 245; 127 ALR 1; 37 ALD 340
Briginshaw v Briginshaw [1938] HCA 34; (1938) 60 CLR 336
Bushell v Repatriation Commission [1992] HCA 47; (1992) 175 CLR 408
Carter v Managing Partner, Northmore Hale Davy and Leake (1995) 183 CLR 121; 129 ALR 593
Charlton v Baber [2003] NSWSC 745; (2003) 47 ACSR 31
Chevron USA Inc v Natural Resources Defense Council Inc [1984] USSC 140; (1984) 467 US 837
Chief Executive Officer of Customs v Labrador Liquor Wholesale Pty Limited and Others (2003) 216 CLR 161; 201 ALR 1; [2003] HCA 49
CIC Insurance Ltd v Bankstown Football Club Ltd (1997) 187 CLR 384;
Clark v Ryan (1960) 103 CLR 486; 34 ALJR 118; [1960] HCA 42
Collins v Minister for Immigration and Ethnic Affairs [1981] FCA 147; (1981) 36 ALR 598; 4 ALD 198
Comcare v Maganga (2008) 101 ALD 68; [2008] FCA 285
Commissioner Australian Federal Police v Propend Finance Ltd (1997) 188 CLR 501; 141 ALR 545; 91 A Crim R 451
Commissioner of Taxation of the Commonwealth of Australia v Murry [1998] HCA 42; (1998) 193 CLR 605; 155 ALR 67
Commissioner of Taxation (Cth) v Pratt Holdings Pty Ltd (2005) 225 ALR 266; [2005] FCA 1247
Corporation of the City of Enfield v Development Assessment Commission
Cosco Holdings Pty Ltd v Commissioner for Taxation & Anor [1997] FCA 1504
Cowan v Scargill [1985] 1 Ch 270
Daniels Corporation International Pty Ltd v ACCC [2002] HCA 49; (2002) 213 CLR 543;
Daniels v Anderson (1995) 37 NSWLR 438; 16 ACSR 607
Dennis Willcox Pty Ltd v Federal Commissioner of Taxation (1988) 79 ALR 267
Director of Public Prosecutions (Commonwealth) v Kane (1997) 140 FLR 468 Commissioner of the Australian Federal Police v Propend Finance Pty Ltd (1997) 188 CLR 501
Drake v Minister for Immigration and Ethnic Affairs (1979) 24 ALR 577; 2 ALD 60
Epeabaka v Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs (1997) 150 ALR 397; 47 ALD 555
Esber v Commonwealth of Australia and Another [1992] HCA 20; (1992) 106 ALR 577
Esso Australia Resources Ltd v Commissioner of Taxation [1999] HCA 67; (1999) 201 CLR 49;
Federal Commissioner for Taxation v Dalco [1990] HCA 3; (1990) 168 CLR 614;
Federal Commissioner of Taxation v Munro; British Imperial Oil Co Ltd v Federal Commissioner of Taxation [1926] HCA 58; (1926) 38 CLR 153
Ferguson v Federal Commissioner of Taxation [1979] FCA 29; (1979) 26 ALR 307
Fouche v Superannuation Fund Board [1952] HCA 1; (1952) 88 CLR 609
Gas Lighting Improvement Co Ltd v Inland Revenue Commissions [1923] AC 723
Golosky and Anor v Golosky Unreported, NSW Court of Appeal, 5 October 1993
Grant v Downs [1976] HCA 63; (1976) 135 CLR 674; 11 ALR 577
Hardcastle v Commissioner of Police [1984] FCA 105; (1984) 53 ALR 593
Heydon and Ors v NRMA Ltd and Ors [2000] NSWCA 374
HG v The Queen [1999] HCA 2; (1999) 197 CLR 414; 160 ALR 554
Hobart Bridge Company Limited v Federal Commissioner of Taxation [1951] HCA 33; (1951) 82 CLR 372
Hope v The Council of the City of Bathurst [1980] HCA 16; (1980) 144 CLR 1; 29 ALR 577
Huddart Parker & Co Pty Ltd v Moorehead [1909] HCA 36; (1909) 8 CLR 330; 15 ALR 241
Hughes and Vale Pty Ltd and Anor v State of New South Wales and Ors [No.2] [1955] HCA 28; (1955) 93 CLR 127
In the matter of Moustafa El Moustafa [1998] FCA 838
Ingot Capital Investments Pty Limited & Ors v Macquarie Equity Capital Markets Limited & Ors (2006) 233 ALR 369; 91 ALD 118; [2006] NSWSC 530
Inland Revenue Commissioners v National Federation of Self Employed and Small Business Ltd [1981] UKHL 2; [1982] AC 617
Jabarula v Poore (1989) 62 NTR 26
Ladic v Capital Territory Health Commission (1982) 5 ALN No 45
Lorimer v Smail [1911] HCA 44; (1911) 12 CLR 504
Mann v Carnell [1999] HCA 66; (1999) 201 CLR 1; 168 ALR 86
McDonald v Director-General of Social Security [1984] FCA 57; (1984) 1 FCR 354; (1984) 6 ALD 6
Mersey Docks and Harbour Board v Henderson Bros (1888) 13 AC 595
Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs v Anthonypillai [2001] FCA 274; (2001) 192 ALR 256
Mitchell v Bailey [2008] FCA 426
Murphy v R [1989] HCA 28; (1989) 167 CLR 94
NAIS v Minister for Immigration and Multicultural and Indigenous Affairs [2005] HCA 77; (2005) 223 ALR 171; 88 ALR 257
Paric v John Holland (Constructions) Pty Ltd [1985] HCA 58; (1985) 62 ALR 85
Pasini v United Mexican States (2002) 209 CLR 246; 187 ALR 409; [2002] HCA 3
Pickering v Deputy Commissioner of Taxation [1997] FCA 890
Precision Data Holdings Ltd v Wills [1992] HCA 28; (1991) 173 CLR 167; 104 ALR 317
Project Blue Sky Inc v Australian Broadcasting Authority [1998] HCA 28; (1998) 194 CLR 355;
Purkess v Crittenden (1965) 114 CLR 164; [1965] HCA 34
R v Bartlett [1996] VICSC 47; [1996] 2 VR 687
R v Bonython (1984) 38 SASR 45; 15 A Crim R 364 (SA CCA)
R v Davison [1954] HCA 46; (1954) 90 CLR 353
R v J (1994) 75 A Crim R 522 (Vic CCA)
R v Lam [2001] QCA 279; (2001) 121 A Crim R 272 (Qld CA)
R v Robb (1991) 93 Cr App R 161
Rana v Military Rehabilitation and Compensation Commission [2005] FCA 6
Re Australian Industrial Relations Commission; ex parte Australian Transport Officers Federation [1990] HCA 52; (1990) 171 CLR 216; 96 ALR 513
Re Becker and Minister for Immigration and Ethnic Affairs [1977] AATA 12; (1977) 1 ALD 158;
Re Civiti and Secretary, Tax Agents' Board of Victoria (1990) 90 ATC 2039
Re Costello and Secretary, Department of Transport (1979) 2 ALD 934
Re Dowling and Secretary to Department of Health (1985) 8 ALD 171
Re Farnaby and Military Rehabilitation and Compensation Commission (2007) 97 ALD 788; [2007] AATA 1792
Re Howarth and Australian Securities and Investments Commission [2008] AATA 278
Re Kevin and Minister for Capital Territory (1979) 2 ALD 238
Re Mann and Capital Territory Health Commission (No. 2) (1983) 5 ALN N368
Re Ngu and Minister for Immigration and Citizenship [2007] AATA 1047
Re Pochi v Minister for Immigration and Ethnic Affairs [1979] AATA 64; (1979) 36 FLR 482; 26 ALR 247
Re Preuss and Australian Prudential Regulation Authority [2005] AATA 748
Re Preston [1984] UKHL 5; [1985] AC 835
Re Radge and Ors and Commissioner of Taxation [2007] AATA 1317
Re Spoolder and Secretary, Department of Social Security (1991) 24 ALD 786
Re Taylor and Department of Transport (1978) 1 ALD 312
Re VBN and Australian Prudential and Regulation Authority (2006) 92 ALD 259; [2006] AATA 710
Re VBN and Australian Prudential Regulation Authority and VBT [2005] AATA 1060; (2005) 92 ALD 455; [2005] AATA 1060
Re VCA and Ors and Australian Prudential Regulation Authority (2006) 92 ALD 724; [2006] AATA 873
Re Wertheim and Department of Health (1984) 7 ALD 121
Repatriation Commission v Gorton [2001] FCA 1194
Repatriation Commission v Smith (1987) 74 ALR 537
Rich v Australian Securities and Investments Commission (2004) 209 ALR 271; [2004] HCA 42
Rola Co (Australia) Pty Ltd v Commonwealth [1944] HCA 17; (1944) 69 CLR 185
Russell v Russell (1976) 134 CLR 495; 9 ALR 103
Sampi v Western Australia [2005] FCA 777
Shell Pensions Trust Ltd v Pell Rrischmann & Partners [1986] 2 All ER 911 (QBD)
Singer v Berghouse [1994] HCA 40; (1994) 181 CLR 201; 123 ALR 481; 68 ALJR 653
Soulemezis v Dudley (Holdings) Pty Ltd (1987) 10 NSWLR 247
Spies v R [2000] HCA 43; (2000) 201 CLR 603
Stasos v Tax Agents' Board [1990] FCA 379; (1990) 21 ALD 437; 21 ATR 974
State of South Australia v Commonwealth [1942] HCA 14; (1942) 65 CLR 373
Telstra Corporation Ltd v Treloar [2000] FCA 1170; (2000) 102 FCR 595
The Daniels Corporation International Pty Ltd v Australian Competition and Consumer Commission [2002] HCA 49; (2002) 213 CLR 543; 192 ALR 561
The Queen v Trade Practices Tribunal; Ex parte Tasmanian Breweries Pty Ltd [1970] HCA 8; (1970) 123 CLR 361
Theo v Secretary, Department of Family and Community Services [2006] FCA 279
Thomas v Mowbray [2007] HCA 33; (2007) 81 ALJR 1414
Trade Practices Commission v Arnotts (No 5) (1990) 21 FCR 324; 92 ALR 527
Trade Practices Commission v Arnotts Ltd and Others (No. 2) (1989) 88 ALR 90
Treasurer of the Commonwealth of Australia v Canwest Global Communications Corp [1997] FCA 578
VCA, VCC and VCD and Australian Prudential Regulation Authority (2007) 92 ALR 724; [2006] AATA 873
Waimond Pty Ltd v Byrne (1989) 18 NSWLR 642
Waterford v Commonwealth of Australia [1987] HCA 25; (1987) 163 CLR 54; 71 ALR 673;
Watts v Rake [1960] HCA 58; (1960) 108 CLR 158
Weal v Bottom (1966) 40 ALJR 436
Wilkinson v Feldworth Financial Services Pty Ltd (1998) 29 ACSR 642
Wilson v Minister for Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Affairs [1996] HCA 18; (1996) 189 CLR 1
Winch v Repatriation Commission (1995) 55 ALD 351; [1995] FCA 408
Woodside Energy Ltd v Commissioner of Taxation [2006] FCA 1303; (2006) 155 FCR 357; 233 ALR 710
DECISION AND REASONS FOR DECISION [2008] AATA 580
(1) 9 December 2005 and confirmed by a decision of its delegate dated 10 February 2006 in respect of VCA;
(2) 20 January 2006 and confirmed by a decision of its delegate dated 17 February 2006 in respect of VCC; and
(3) 20 January 2006 and confirmed by a decision of its delegate dated 17 February 2006 in respect of VCD; and
s 35 of the Administrative Appeals Tribunal Act 1995.
VCA and VCD were part-time non-executive directors and co-chairs of the board of a trustee company (ATC). Equal numbers of directors were appointed to represent employer interests as to represent employee interests of those engaged in an industry (Industry). VCA was appointed to represent the various employee interests and VCD to represent those of the various employers. VCC has been the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of ATC since 2001. Since the 1990s, the Trustee has been the corporate trustee of a superannuation fund (ASF). It is a fund with a significant number of members and with substantial funds.
2. On 9 December 2005 (VCA) and on 20 January 2006 (VCC and VCD), a delegate of the Australian Prudential Regulation Authority (APRA) disqualified VCA, VCD and VCC, from being a trustee, investment manager or custodian of a superannuation entity or a responsible officer of a body corporate that is a trustee, investment manager or custodian. The delegate did so under s 120A(2) on the basis that the Trustee had contravened the Superannuation Industry Supervision Act 1993 (SIS Act) on a number of occasions, that each of the applicants was a responsible officer[1] of the Trustee on those occasions and that the nature, seriousness or nature of the contraventions provided grounds for their disqualification. In relation to VCC, the delegate also decided that he was not a fit and proper person to be a trustee, investment manager or custodian or responsible officer of a body corporate, investment manager or custodian and that he should be disqualified under s 120A(3). A different delegate of APRA confirmed the decisions on 10 December 2006 (VCA) and 17 February 2006 (VCC and VCD). APRA submits that we should affirm the decisions on the same bases and, in the case of VCA and VCD, should also find that they are also not fit and proper persons under s 120A(3). We have decided that there are no grounds on which the applicants, or any of them, may be disqualified and that, even if we are incorrect in our decision in that regard, we do not consider that we should exercise our discretion to do so.
3. The issues in this case can be divided into three main groups:
(1) Has the ATC contravened one or more of the following five sections of the SIS Act in the manner specified:
(a) s 29 - failing to give APRA written notice of contraventions of its Instrument of Approval;
(b) s 55 - contravening a covenant contained in, or taken to be contained in, the governing rules of a superannuation entity, namely the covenants contained in ss 52(2)(b), (c) and (e);
(c) s 62 - failing to maintain the ASF solely for one or more of the prescribed core purposes or for one or more of the prescribed core purposes and for one or more of the prescribed ancillary purposes;
(d) s 109 - making investments on a basis other than at arm's length; and
(e) s 111 - failing to keep proper accounting records.
(2) If the ATC has contravened one or more of those sections, on one or more occasions, was;
(a) all or any of VCA, VCC and VCD a responsible officer at the time of one or more of those contraventions; and
(b) if so, does or do the nature or seriousness of the contravention or contraventions or the number of them that occurred while VCA, VCC or VCD, as the case may be, was a responsible officer provide grounds for the disqualification for one or more of them?
(3) Are VCA, VCC and VCD, or any of them, persons who are not fit and proper persons to be a trustee, investment manager or custodian, or responsible officer of a body corporate that is a trustee, investment manager or custodian?
5. VCA has a long history of employment in the Industry and involvement with the various trade unions representing employees working in that Industry. He has held various elected positions in the union movement and expresses a deep personal commitment to the trade union movement and its aspirations. Among those aspirations are improved working conditions and remuneration for working class people and trade union members. In recent years, VCA has retired from the roles he held in the union movement.
6. VCA became a director of ATC in 1993 as a result of the position he held in the union representing the interests of many employees in the Industry (Union). He held that position until 2005 when he stood down as a result of the decision under review. From 1997, he was co-chair of ATC's Board and was also chair of its Administration Committee and of its Audit and Compliance Committee.
7. A Bachelor of Economics was conferred on VCC in 1980. Since 1983, he has been a Chartered Accountant and a Member of the Institute of Chartered Accountants. VCC is a member of the Australian Council of Superannuation Investors, which was established to promote prudential management of superannuation in Australia. He is also a member of the Association of Superannuation Funds in Australia Ltd, which is a national organisation promoting, protecting and advancing the interests of Australia's superannuation funds, their trustees and members and of the Australian Institute of Superannuation Trustees, which is an independent professional body for trustees managing superannuation funds.
8. VCC worked in the audit and audit systems areas of a large accountancy firm before joining a finance company (Finance Company) as the National Operations Manager of its superannuation administration subsidiary. We will call that subsidiary FCSAS. VCC also became an Account Manager. That meant that he became an adviser to the Boards of various superannuation funds, including ASF. In 1995, VCC was appointed as the Company Secretary of ATC and undertook that work on a part time basis as a full time employee of FCSAS. In 1999, he left FCSAS but continued to be engaged as ATC's company secretary while continuing as the CEO of another superannuation related entity. Both positions were part time but, in 2001, he became the full time CEO of ATC.
9. VCD holds a Bachelor of Economics and also completed further studies, which qualified him for admission to what is now called CPA Australia. He is currently a Fellow of CPA Australia. VCD worked in the Industry for many years and held a senior position in a successful business (Business Pty Ltd). That business had made contributions to a superannuation fund for the benefit of its senior staff and to another for the benefit of its remaining employees. VCD was a trustee of each fund.
10. VCD was a member of an association of those representing the employers engaged in the Industry (Employers' Association). The Employers' Association had a committee concerned with issues related to industrial relations and superannuation (IR Committee) and VCD was one of its members. As the years went by, he held senior positions in the Employers' Association and eventually accepted permanent employment as its Executive Director. At that time, he left Business Pty Ltd.
11. In approximately 1982 and long before VCD left Business Pty Ltd, it became an employer member of the ASF. Except for some in relation to senior staff, superannuation contributions and entitlements held by Business Pty Ltd's funds were transferred to ASF. Gradually, the funds were wound up and all of the monies were transferred to, and managed through, ASF. Since 1992, all of VCD's personal superannuation has been held in ASF and he has no other sources of superannuation.
12. VCD was appointed an Executive Director of ASF in 1991 and became the representative of the Employers' Association on the board of ATC. He remained a director of ATC continuously until he stood down as a result of a decision by the Australian Securities and Investments Commission (ASIC) in 2005. During that time, VCD was a member of a number of its sub-committees. Between 1991 and 2000, he was a member of the Administration Committee and of the Audit Committee. After retiring from those two committees, he served on the Investment Committee until 2005.
13. Both the Employers' Association and the Union wanted superannuation to be available to employees throughout the industry and so wanted a single fund. During the 1980s, the Australian Trade Workers' Union campaigned for industry superannuation funds to which employers could contribute and which would be managed by both employers and employees. VCD, who was representing the Employers' Association at this stage, considered it appropriate for both the Union representing the employees and the Employers' Association representing the employers to be able to represent their interests equally in the management of the superannuation fund.
14. They established ASF in 1985 by a Declaration of Trust. That declaration was amended from time to time and, in the mid 1990s was replaced by a Trust Deed which governs the operation of the scheme. That Trust Deed was last varied by a Deed of Variation in 1998 (Trust Deed). In 1982 when the ASF was established, compulsory superannuation was yet to be imposed and APRA had yet to be come into being. Initially, ASF was established on a very local scale but it subsequently attracted support across Australia and became the Industry's national scheme.
15. After ASF was initially established, entitlements held by trustees such as VCD on behalf of their employees were transferred over time to ASF. Employees of certain defined Employers in the Industry became members and either they made contributions to ASF or their employers did so on their behalf. The Trust Deed set out the benefits payable to employees and their dependants.
16. Before the appointment of ATC as its trustee, the trustees of ASF were natural persons with an equal number of representatives nominated by various employer representative associations including the Employers' Association and by the Union. The Trust Deed now provides that the trustee of ASF must be a constitutional corporation which is eligible to act as an approved trustee. That corporation must comply with the requirements of, among others, the SIS Act. It will cease to be the trustee if, among other matters, it ceases to qualify as an approved trustee.[2] Its board comprises twelve directors of whom half have been appointed by the Union and half by various employer representative associations including the Employers' Association.
The incorporation of ATC and its appointment as trustee of ASF
17. ATC was incorporated in 1992 as a proprietary company with the purpose to act solely as the trustee of ASF.[3] Neither the members in a general meeting nor the directors may declare any dividend or create any reserve.[4] Only eligible organisations can be members and such organisations are limited to Employer Organisations, which are those representing the interests of employers in the Industry, and to Fund Member Organisations, which are specified as the Union in so far as it represents Fund Members in the Industry.[5] Each member may nominate a director for appointment and, at the relevant time, 12 directors had been appointed with six representing Employers' Organisations and six representing Fund Member Organisations. VCA and VCD were co-chairs of the Board of ATC with VCA appointed by the Union and VCD by the Employers' Association. Neither ATC's members nor its directors may declare any dividend or create any reserve.[6]
18. The management and control of the business and affairs of ATC is vested in its directors. All directors are non-executive directors and they elect either one of their number to be Chairperson or two to be Co-Chairpersons.[7] Co-Chairpersons alternate as the chair of each meeting.[8] Each meeting of directors requires a quorum of four directors of whom two represent Employer Organisations and two Fund Member Organisations. At its meetings, directors may exercise all of the powers and all things authorised by the Corporations Law unless that legislation or the Constitution require that those powers and things be done by ATC in general meeting.[9] All business arising at any meeting of the directors is to be determined by Ordinary Resolution.[10] The Chairperson of a meeting does not have a second or casting vote.[11]
19. Directors may participate in a meeting through the medium of an instantaneous communication device such as radio, telephone or audio or audio-visual device provided that, among other matters, each director taking part in the meeting is able to hear each of the other directors taking part in that meeting.[12] The directors may also make a written resolution without a meeting provided each signs and dates it. The written resolution may be in "physical or electronic form (ie. Facsimile, e-mail)". That is the effect of cl 20.6 of the Constitution. The written resolution is "deemed to have been passed at a Directors' meeting on the day on which the last Director signed and dated the resolution."
20. The directors may appoint committees in accordance with cl 21 and may delegate any powers to those committees as they think fit.[13] Each committee must comprise at least two directors although the directors may also appoint non-directors to be members.[14] There must be at least two directors at every meeting to form a quorum.[15] Each member has one vote only and all business arising at a meeting of the committee is to be determined by ordinary resolution.[16]
21. The directors may appoint a person to be or act as the Secretary of ATC "for the term upon the conditions and with such remuneration as they shall think fit."[17] They may remove that person from office at any time.
22. Acting under s 26 of the SIS Act, APRA approved ATC in 2000 as a trustee for purposes of that legislation. A year later, it relied on s 27C to vary its approval noting that the provisions of s 26(1)(b)(iii) continued to apply to its approval and that its approval was subject to the conditions set out in the Schedule.[18] APRA advised of the variation in a notice headed "Variation of Approval as Trustee". At the foot of that notice was a note reminding ATC of the requirements to notify imposed by s 29 of the SIS Act. We will refer to this notice as the Instrument of Approval (IOA).
23. The Schedule to the IOA sets out Specific Conditions and General Conditions, which is divided into ten sections. It states that the Specific Conditions and Sections A, B, C, D and J of the General Conditions are applicable to ATC. Under the Specific Conditions, clause 1 provides that ATC "... is approved as a trustee for ... [ASF] only."
"3. Condition D.1 does not apply to the trustee.
25. Condition D.1, to which Condition 3 applies, comes under the heading of "Custodian conditions". It provides:
"The trustee must maintain at all times both eligible assets of at least $100,000 and a level of liquid assets of at least $100,000. For this purpose liquid assets are defined as Current assets less intangibles less current receivables due from a related entity. In addition, the trustee must obtain an annual audit certificate to state that the $100,000 eligible assets have been maintained during each year."[20]
26. The term "liquid assets" is not defined but the terms "eligible assets" and "assets" are. The word "assets" "... in relation to assets of an entity, includes the investment return on the assets".[21] The term "eligible assets" is defined in Condition J.1 (j) as having the same meaning as set out in Attachment 3 to the IOA. Attachment 3 begins with the statement that:
"Eligible assets must be calculated on the basis of assets and liabilities as they would appear if a balance sheet were made up for lodgement as part of a financial report under Chapter 2M of the Corporations Law at the time of calculation on the basis that the trustee (or custodian as the case may be) is a reporting entity. 'Eligible assets' means the total tangible assets of the trustee or the custodian less any adjusted liabilities."[22]
"'Adjusted liabilities' means total liabilities plus the following adjustments:
Clause 2 of Schedule 3 then qualifies cl 1 but the qualifications are not relevant. Clauses 4 defines "associate" to have the meaning set out in Division 2 of Part 1.2 of the Corporations Law, which would now be understood to be a reference to the Corporations Act 2001 (Corporations Act). The remaining three clauses define terms referred to in cl 2 but again they are not relevant in this case.
28. Turning to the General Conditions, we note that Condition A.15(a) comes under the general heading of "Provision of information conditions" and more specifically under "No other business or commercial activity". It provides, in so far as it is relevant, that:
"(a) The trustee must not engage in any business or commercial activity unless that activity is in its capacity as trustee of superannuation entities, unless:
(i) that business or commercial activity is necessary or reasonably incidental to the trustee's activities as a trustee of one or more regulated superannuation entities;
(ii) ...
(iii) ..."
29. Condition A.15(b) goes on to provide that a business or commercial activity includes acting as the trustee of a trust fund (other than a superannuation entity) or of a deceased estate but does not include acting as a single responsible entity of a managed investment scheme in certain limited circumstances.
30. Conditions B.2, B.3 and B.4 are also relevant in this case. They come under the heading "Insurance and contingency conditions". They provide:
"B.2 The trustee must maintain adequate levels of insurance against liabilities incurred as a result of a breach of its professional duty as trustee of an entity. The level of such insurance and the coverage provided by this insurance must not be less than the level of indemnity insurance cover that was either disclosed in the application or such higher amount as may have been disclosed in subsequent advice to APRA (unless APRA approves in writing of the reduction in the level of cover).
B.3 The trustee must maintain adequate levels of material damage and consequential loss insurance in respect of its business or undertaking as trustee of an entity. The level of such insurance must not be less than the level of business insurance cover that was in place at the time the original Instrument was granted (unless APRA approves in writing of the reduction in the level of cover). In this condition and condition B.2, 'adequate levels of insurance' means levels of insurance that are prudent and reasonable in all the circumstances, taking into account the assets of the trustee and its business or undertakings, that are reasonably relevant to the risk for which the insurance concerned provides indemnity.
B.4 The trustee must regularly review its insurance to ensure that conditions B.2 and B.3 are complied with."[24]
31. Condition C.1 of the General Conditions is concerned with the agreement with ASF's administrator. It provides that:
"A fund administrator in relation to an entity must not be appointed other than under a written agreement between the trustee and the fund administrator ('the fund administrator agreement'). A fund administrator agreement must be in force while a fund administrator provides any fund administration services in relation to an entity."[25]
32. The three committees of relevance in these proceedings are the Administration Committee, the Audit Committee and the Investment Committee. We will begin with the Investment Committee, which is ultimately responsible for managing ASF's investments and maximising the returns on those investments. The Investment Committee carries out its functions with the assistance of an external investment adviser. Its principal role is to monitor the performance of various investment managers, interview prospective investment managers and, ultimately, to make recommendations to ATC's Board about the appointment or dismissal of investment managers.
33. Investments and most of the assets of the ASF, including contributions made by and on behalf of its members, are held on its behalf by a custodian associated with a Bank (Custodian Company). This means that, should the Investment Committee of the Board of directors decide to purchase shares in a particular company, the Bank's custodian arm would purchase those shares with funds drawn from ASF's account with the Bank. Members' contributions are paid to that account. The Bank would then hold the purchased shares on behalf of ASF and its members.
34. Until the appointment of VCC as CEO, ASF relied on three coordinators. Apart from those coordinators, it had no full time employees of its own. It relied on an external administrator to undertake most of the administrative work connected with its management. That work, which the administrator undertook for a fee, included marketing and promoting ASF, registering an employer as a member participating in the fund, arranging for the issue of contribution statements and the registration and enrolment of employees as members of the fund. The administrator also maintained members' records, processed claims and administered claims either to transfer a member's funds to another superannuation fund or for their early release. In the case of a request to transfer or release funds, the administrator must assess the authenticity of the request and ensure that it complies with the Trust Deed and with any relevant legislative provisions. It must also process the claim in accordance with established policy of ATC's Board and of its Administration Committee. When an administrator corresponds with members, it uses the ASF's letterhead.
35. The ASF's administrator is also required to maintain and produce accounts required by law, prepare and distribute annual reports and notices of changes of legal requirements and provide an enquiry service for employers, members and other interested parties. It operates a call centre to provide advice to members, employers and to members of the public who may be interested as well as a website. In addition to administrative services, it also provided secretarial services to ASF.
36. The administrator reports to the Administration Committee[26] and, through it, to the Board on a regular basis regarding the progress of all claims. The Administration Committee reviews that progress at each of its meetings when the administrator reports to it. The Administration Committee also oversees the performance of the administrator in dealing with the day-to-day operations of ASF and appraises its performance against its budget and the business plan as well as against all policy, procedures and standards of services determined by the Board.
37. Until 2002, ASF's administrator was FCSAS. It would produce the statutory accounts to the Administration Committee as well as to the Audit Committee and so to ATC's Board. The Administration Committee relied on the information provided to it by FCSAS with regard to the accounts and to their statutory and regulatory responsibilities. It particularly relied on FCSAS to provide a clear picture of what was happening in the administration of ASF generally and to raise any issues that it, the committee, or the Board needed to address. The members also had the opportunity to maintain their own knowledge. VCD, for example, attended conferences and seminars conducted by the Australian Institute of Superannuation Trustees and Conference of Major Superannuation Funds.
38. The Audit and Compliance Committee is also responsible for the establishment and operation of a proper internal control system and overseeing the annual audit of ASF undertaken by external accountants. The accountants carrying out their annual audit report to this committee and, before finalising their report, could raise any issues or questions that needed to be addressed. The Board or the committee members could use the Audit and Compliance Committee as a forum in which to raise their own issues and concerns with the auditors before finalising ATC's annual report.
39. Initially, the minutes of each meeting of each committee and of the Board were taken by VCC, who was ATC's Secretary at the time. When VCC became the CEO of ATC, either he or his personal assistant took the minutes. If VCA were present, he would sign the minutes of the Administration Committee and of the Audit and Compliance Committee but, if he were not, he would give VCC authority to use a rubber stamp of his signature on the minutes.
40. ATC has retained the same firm of solicitors for a number of years. That firm specialises in superannuation law and practice. If a matter related to another area of the law, the Board might obtain advice from other solicitors but, in relation to superannuation law and practice, ATC retained the firm that we will refer to as the "Firm". It did not pay a retainer to the Firm which billed it for work done. There was one solicitor in the Firm who was responsible for giving advice and we will refer to him as VS.
41. While employed by FCSAS, VCC had served as ATC's company secretary on a part time basis for some two years. In 1999, he left FCSAS and was then engaged as CEO of another superannuation fund on a part time basis and continued as part time company secretary for ATC. As company secretary, he carried out the roles of both company secretary and CEO. In 2001, the Board of ATC reviewed its staffing needs on various bases including the basis that all members of the Board were non-executive directors. It decided to engage VCC as its CEO on a full-time basis and he relinquished his other employment and took up the position in May 2001. At that time, ATC staff consisted of VCC as CEO and his personal assistant.
42. VCA, VCC and VCD each gave evidence regarding their dissatisfaction with FCSAS's administration of the ASF. No evidence was given by any person on behalf of FCSAS and we are mindful that it is unfair to make findings of fact adverse to a person, even if it is a body corporate, without giving that person an opportunity to address the adverse evidence. In light of that, we frame this passage of our reasons in terms of the perception that VCA, VCC and VCD had of FCSAS and its work. Each was in a position to have, and had, an understanding of what was required of FCSAS as ASF's administrator, its work and to assess that work. We accept that the other members of ATC's Board shared the views of VCA, VCC and VCD.
43. We find that it was the perception of VCA, VCC and VCD as well of of ATC's Board members generally that FCSAS's performance was unacceptable. It continually failed to comply with the service standards mandated in the Administration Agreement between ASF and FCSAS.
44. During the late 1990s, ATC and its Administration Committee became increasingly dissatisfied with FCSAS as it was their view that it was not providing the standard of service necessary for the proper administration of ASF. On a number of occasions, FCSAS made a number of significant mistakes. It was late in preparing papers for the Board or for the committees or did not prepare them at all. Despite these matters, FCSAS continually sought additional fees. The Board members felt that FCSAS was not giving ASF the attention it deserved and was, instead, focusing on some of its other clients who had significantly greater assets. ATC and FCSAS engaged in correspondence about ATC's concerns as did the Administration Committee about its. Although promises were made by FCSAS to rectify the problems, ATC's Board members were not satisfied with its performance.
45. The Administration Committee considered the problems at various meetings. We will return to those meetings later in these reasons but, for the moment, set out the time line of the main events that occurred in relation to its consideration and ultimate decision to transfer the administration of ASF from FCSAS to the Administration Company. In doing so, we will refer to the presence of APRA's officers at one of the meetings and to their being given information regarding the administration of ASF. We will also refer to the lease, to which we will return below, and to associated matters. Included in italics are entries relating to APRA's enquiries that led to their undertaking an investigation of the administration of ASF. Although not strictly relevant under this heading, we have included it to maintain the integrity of the chronology.
The Administration Committee discusses options available for the administration of ASF should it not continue to engage the services of FCSAS after the expiration of its contract on 1 July 2000. It agrees to seek a short term extension of its contract with FCSAS for about six months and to look at other options in the meantime.[27]
VCC presents to the ATC's Board a paper setting out alternative options for ASF's administration.[28]
FCSAS agrees to a six month extension of its contract with ATC.
The minutes of the Administration Committee meeting note that:
"A new proposal has been received from ...[FCSAS] for the next 5 years. It includes a yearly increase for the membership fee plus additional contribution fee per member. The contribution fee is set to rise to 18c per member per week for the life of the contract.
In addition they have advised that they will be charging Member Investment Choice fees which is an annual charge of $20,000 and for letters sent with regard to contributions and annual statements the charge is $3000 for each mailout.
Regarding alternative quotes, the Company Secretary advised that we have received an indicative quote from a software provider, at $4 per year per member + $400,000 upfront fee. Having completed the analysis, the Company Secretary advised that it seemed feasible to establish our own self-administration company."[29]
The Administration Committee requests a paper on self-administration. VCC explains the difference between self administration and external administration based on discussions that he had with VS. It notes that VCC would be an integral part of any development.[30]
VCC reports to ATC's Board that he hopes that ASF will be self-administered by 1 October 2001. He advises of steps taken towards achieving goal.[33]
ATC engaged independent contractors to assist in establishing an administration company and in moving the administration from FCSAS to that company.[34]
ATC extended FCSAS's contract for a further three months ending on 31 December 2001. ATC and FCSAS agreed on a timeline regarding review of the contract.[35]
In a letter, the Firm advises it unaware of any circumstances that would lead to APRA's not treating ASF as a complying fund and that it was not aware of any circumstances that would cause ATC to be in breach of its IOA.[36]
ATC resolved to enter a contract for an administration software package with a company, which we will call Software Company, in the name of what was to become the name of the administration company. We will refer to it as Administration Company Pty Ltd or AC.[37] This is the first occasion on which there is a reference to AC in the minutes.
File note by APRA records meeting between its officers, Mr Julian Marks and Mr Steven Blinco, with VCC and a person who is an accountant with significant information technology experience whom we will call Mr Asit. ATC advised that there had been a due diligence exercise examining the feasibility of transferring administration to another party and of internally administering ASF. ATC would be relocating to new premises in suburban Melbourne. We will refer to the new location as Location B. ATC had agreed with Software Company for the provision and service of superannuation software that will permit data conversion and migration from FCSAS's software. ATC forecast reduced costs to ASF members and believed that internal administration would provide the platform for continued growth and expansion. ATC indicated that it was likely that the changes would require amendment of the IOA to reflect internal administration.[38]
Mr Asit sends email to Mr Blinco and Mr Marks, who are APRA officers, advising that, further to their discussions, "we" had met with ATC's auditors who had agreed to being involved in reviewing the transition of fund data along the lines that had been discussed in the meeting.[39]
VS attends a meeting of the Administration Committee and recommended that ATC approach APRA to confirm it still complies with IOA and to review the administration contract with AC to ensure compliance. The Administration Committee noted the ownership of AC and suggested that, in order to increase prudential management, ATC's co-chairs become directors of AC. To the same end, the CEO suggested that the co-chairs and the CEO be directors of AC. It resolved to:
ATC advised FCSAS of termination of the contract on 31 December 2001
VCC writes as CEO of ATC to ASF members advising that ATC was about to transfer fund administration from the current provider to Administration Company Pty Ltd. Some of the objectives of the transfer were described as being to achieve higher levels of service and efficiency. VCC advised that ATC's office continued to "... manage all aspects of the fund including the administrator."[42]
Board of ATC resolves at meeting to endorse the recommendations of the Administration Committee "on the appointment of ... [AC] and initial payments" of $160,000, which became $176,000 when GST was taken into account. It also noted that, at the request of the Administration Committee, the co-chairpersons had agreed to take positions on the Board of AC.[43]
Note for File prepared on APRA masthead showing that Mr Efthymiou and Mr Khor had attended a meeting on that day with VCC and Mr Asit. It was headed "Meeting about the change of administrator of ... [ASF]".[44] VCC had requested the meeting in order to provide APRA with a progress report on the changeover of administration arrangements. The note spoke about the progress of the transmission of data from FCSAS to ASF and observed that FCSAS's administration role had effectively ceased as at 31 December 2001. The new administrator was named as was the licensing agreement with the Software Company to assist with data transfer and migration. Arthur Andersen was also involved and were attending steering committee meetings, reviewing the migration plan, the timetable and its progress and checking reconciliation and testing of data and balances performed by the Software Company and ATC. At the conclusion of the process, Arthur Andersen would issue ATC with a report on the project. It would conduct testing on the annual financial statements for the 2002 year in respect of the second half of the operations of ASF from 1 January 2002. VCC made some candid comments regarding ATC's reasons for ending the arrangement with FCSAS. Mr Efthymiou asked for copies of the Data Conversion/Migration Plan showing critical tasks and dates, a due diligence report about the selection of AC as administrator, Arthur Andersen's report on the completion of the conversion and a copy of the administration agreement with AC.
Arthur Andersen writes to ATC setting out the audit work it would perform on the transition of the administration data base from FCSAS to AC at 31 December 2001.[45]
ATC enters agreement with the Bank to provide retail guarantee for the lease of the AC premises.
AC receives its first monthly administration payment.
VS writes to ATC regarding financial requirements affecting the new administrative arrangements between ATC and AC in respect of ASF.[46]
The Firm reviewed the administration arrangements with AC commencing on 1 January 2002. They issued a Certificate of Compliance in which they advised ATC that they were satisfied that they met all current legal requirements including ASF and APR Best Practice Guidelines, the SIS Act, APRA's Cross-Industry Requirements for Custodians and the IOA.[47] Attached to the letter was the Administration Agreement between ATC and AC. It was signed but not dated.[48]
VCC writes to Mr Kim Efthymiou of APRA inviting it to attend meetings of the Audit Committee and of the Administration Committee on 19 April 2002. The data transmission to AC and associated reconciliation and audit work would be reviewed at the meetings. VCC attached a copy of the Certificate of Compliance.[49]
Special Administration Committee meeting held with, among others, Mr Efthymiou and Mr Marks from APRA in attendance. The minutes of the meeting note that VCC presented a report on the transition with comments by Arthur Andersen[50] and the Firm detailing the reasoning behind, and the transition of, ATC from FCSAS to AC. The Firm's report on Due Diligence of Transition of Administration Services was circulated.[51]
Administration Agreement between ATC and AC signed.[52]
Ernst & Young produce interim audit report for ATC identifying that certain costs of fund administration incurred between 1 January 2002 and 30 April 2002 were paid by ATC and not by AC. From 1 January 2002, ATC paid administration fees to AC. Ernst & Young recommended that it was appropriate for ATC to recover from AC that part of the administration fee that related to the administration costs it had paid. VCC had indicated that he would make accounting entries to correct the situation. Ernst & Young's covering letter stated that their interim audit had not revealed any significant issues that would affect their ability to issue an unqualified audit opinion.[53]
The Firm conducted an audit for ATC to 30 June 2002. Among other matters, it reported that the Trust Deed for ASF complied with the SIS Act and the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Regulations 1994 (Regulations) and were unaware of any circumstances that would cause APRA not to treat it as a complying fund. It was also unaware of any circumstances that would cause ATC to be in breach of its IOA.[54]
Ernst & Young state that, in their opinion, the ATC as trustee for ASF has complied, in all material respects, with the requirements of the SIS Act, Corporations Act 2001 and Regulations and applied the Guidelines for preparing risk management statements issued by APRA (Guidelines) for the year ended 30 June 2002.[55]
VCC wrote a letter to VCA in response to VCA's enquiry regarding the control and operation of AC and his employment details. He drew attention to cl 6.2(c) of the Administration Agreement and noted that he continued to be bound by that clause not to assign, transfer or otherwise dispose of his share in AC without ATC's approval in accordance with the agreement. Other than in the normal course of business, he would not divest or assign assets of AC without ATC's approval.[56]
APRA wrote to ATC confirming its intention to review ASF during February/March 2003. The purpose of the review was to ascertain the directors' understanding of their legislative prudential obligations and to assess whether appropriate risk management policies were in place to protect members' benefits. They were asked to supply information sought in 38 paragraphs attached to the letter.[57]
Ernst & Young gave an audit report for the year ended 30 June 2002 stating that the audit had been conducted in accordance with Australian Auditing Standards. In their opinion, the financial report presented fairly in accordance with the accounting policies it described in the Notes. Those accounting policies had been approved by AC's Board which had determined that they are consistent with the financial reporting requirements of AC's constitution and are appropriate to the needs of members.[58]
Meeting of AC Board resolved that to issue share number 2 to VCA on trust for the Union and share number 3 to VCD on trust for various employer groups.[59]
VCA and VCD execute Declarations of Trust to that effect.[60]
Errnst & Young send ATC a draft interim audit report of AFS.
Visit by Mr Efthymiou and Mr Robert Khor of APRA to ATC's offices at Location B and discussions with VCC.[61]
Second visit by Mr Efthymiou and Mr Robert Khor of APRA to ATC's offices at Location B and discussions with VCC.[62]
VCC writes to Mr Efthmiou responding to his request for various documents regarding VS's advice to ATC regarding self-administration, transfer of lease liabilities from ATC to AC and ASCII Pty Ltd, business plan, shareholding in AC and VCC Enterprises Pty Ltd.[63]
VS, who has now moved to a new firm of solicitors whom we will refer to as the Partnership, writes to VCC as the CEO of AC. He is responding to VCC's request for advice regarding legal issues arising from ATC's deciding to self-administer ASF. He addresses issues such as the liability of the fund and the trustee, the prudent investment covenant, core business and APRA's requirements. He distinguishes between self-administration and outsourcing administration concluding that he had addressed the more significant and practical issues, which in most instances, dissuade a trustee from proceeding with self-administration.[64]
APRA had an "exit meeting" with representatives of ATC (including VCC, VCD, VS) and of the Union appointed directors. Mr Marks, Mr Efthymiou and Mr Khor were among those at the meeting on behalf of APRA. The purpose of the meeting was to inform ATC of APRA's concerns with the manner in which AC was appointed as "internal administrator", the ownership and structure of AC and various issues.[65]
Ernst & Young prepared an interim audit of AFS to June 2003.[66]
Letter from VCA and VCD advising APRA regarding the way in which APRA had conducted the exit interview.[67]
Letter from VS to AC clarifying his earlier letter dated 29 May 2003 to ATC. VS stated that he understood that, following his earlier advice, the Board had "determined not to proceed with self-administration of the Fund but to outsource administration to a third party." He confirmed that AC was appointed and remained the third party administrator. The third party arrangements between ASF and AC are evidenced by a formal administration agreement.[68]
APRA email in response to follow up by ATC on APRA's response to ATC's letter.
VCC signs a declaration of trust stating that he held his share in AC on behalf of ATC.
APRA email in response to follow up by ATC on APRA's response to ATC's letter.
APRA writes to ATC regarding the exit meeting and the letter by VCA and VCD to APRA on 10 July 2003. It stated that the issues raised in the meeting were serious in nature and remained outstanding concerns for it. Therefore, it transferred supervisory responsibility for ATC and ASF to APRA's Rehabilitation & Enforcement Unit within the Specialised Institutions Division.[69]
Notice that, "since it appears that a contravention of the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act 1993 or regulations may have occurred or be occurring in relation to ..." ASF a delegate of APRA advised that it "proposes to conduct an investigation of the whole of the affairs of the Fund."[70]
23 September 2003 - October 2003 - 23 November 2004
Notices to produce books given to various persons including VCC, VCA and VCD.
As part of its duties regarding governance of ASF, ATC writes to APRA requesting update on investigation.
APRA responds to letter advising nothing further required of ATC at this time.
AC obtains directors' and officers' professional indemnity insurance.
Ernst & Young prepare independent audit of the financial statements of AFS for the year ended 30 June 2004. They expressed the view that tey presented fairly in accordance with applicable Accounting Standards and other mandatory reporting requirements.[71]
46. At the meeting of the Administration Committee on 2 May 2001, VCA advised that he and VCD had met with VCC to discuss his involvement in ATC's progress towards self-administration. They went through a detailed job description and the responsibilities that would be involved were he to accept the position of CEO of ATC. VCA advised that they had all reached a satisfactory arrangement with regard to VCC's being appointed as CEO on a full time basis.[72]
47. For many years, ATC had administered ASF from certain premises. It became apparent during 2001 that they would not be large enough to accommodate the staff that would be necessary were it to part with FCSAS and move to self-administration or to a new external entity such as AC. Consequently, VCA, VCC and VCD visited a number of premises that VCC had identified as premises possibly suited to their needs. They decided to lease premises at Location B and, on 21 November 2001, ATC entered an agreement to lease the premises for three years with an option to renew for one year.[73] Clause 12.2 provided that the Lessor would not unreasonably withhold or delay consent to a sub-letting where the lessee was not in default under the lease and, in essence, the sub-lessee is, to the reasonable satisfaction of the lessor respectable, responsible and solvent and able to meet obligations of the sort imposed by the lease.
48. ATC and AC, as administrator, occupied the leased premises. As the Administration Committee had agreed at its meeting on 31 October 2001, part of the premises was occupied by five staff members of ASCII Pty Ltd. ASCII Pty Ltd is a not for profit company that is substantially funded by the Federal Government. VCA was the chair of the Board of directors of ASCII Pty Ltd. Clause 12.1(b) of the lease stated that "The Lessee must not, without the Lessor's prior consent ... transfer or sub-let part or all of its interest under this Lease."
49. Discussions took place between officers of ATC and AC and, on 5 December 2001, VCC wrote as the CEO of ATC to Mr Bisque, as we will call the Operations Manager of AC. VCC confirmed that the lease was now the sole responsibility of AC.[74] ASCII Pty Ltd meets costs and outgoings on the lease in proportion to the space that it occupies. The lessor and its agents have inspected the premises and seen the prominent signage for both AC and ASCII Pty Ltd on the premises. The lessor has renewed the lease.
50. Since APRA's delegate made his decisions in 2005 to disqualify the applicants and his decisions were confirmed in 2006 by a different delegate and since the hearing in the Tribunal, the SIS Act has been amended by five different Acts in 2007. The amendments they effected are of no significance to the issues we must decide. Of more significance, are the amendments made after the events that occurred between 2001 and 2003 and that lie at the heart of APRA's decisions to disqualify VCA, VCC and VCD. Those amendments repealed Part 2 of the SIS Act with effect from 1 July 2006.[75] With effect from 1 July 2004, they also added Part 2A, which is concerned with the licensing of trustees and groups of individual trustees,[76] and made consequential amendments to sections such as s 52.[77]
51. We will spend a moment on explaining why we will have regard to the law as in force at the time, rather than the law as amended. After all, the general rule is that the law that is applied is that in force at the date the decision is reviewed. That general rule may be altered by legislation either explicitly or implicitly but it is a rule that also has an exception. Whether the exception applies so that the decision must be reviewed at some earlier time depends on the nature of the decision. If it concerns accrued rights and liabilities, the law applicable at the date of accrual is the date to be applied. One of the earliest cases decided in the Tribunal, Re Costello and Secretary, Department of Transport.[78] The Tribunal decided that:
"... Where the relevant law at all material times is the same, no problem arises as to the law to be applied. But where, as in the present matter, the law has been changed between the date of the administrator's decision and the decision of this Tribunal, it seems to us that the question as to the law to be applied by the Tribunal must be resolved by having regard:
(i) to the nature of the decision under review; and
(ii) to the provisions of the legislation by which the change in the law is to be effected (cf Quilter v Mapelson (1882) 9 QBD 672).
The nature of the decision under review may require the Tribunal to consider the facts and circumstances before it in the light of the law at some anterior date in order to form an opinion as to the accrued rights or liabilities of the applicant (see, for example, s 132 of the Customs Act 1901 as to liability for customs duty). A subsequent change in the law will not affect the matter unless it is expressed to apply retrospectively (cf Quilter v Mapelson, ...) ...."[79]
52. In more recent times, the High Court considered the issue in Esber v Commonwealth of Australia and Another.[80] The Court was concerned with the applicability of redemption provisions in the Compensation (Commonwealth Government Employees) Act 1971 ("1971 Act") after they had been repealed by the Compensation Employees' Rehabilitation and Compensation Act 1988 ("1988 Act"). The majority considered first the transitional provisions of the 1988 Act and concluded that those provisions ensured that Mr Esber's entitlement to redemption was to be determined in accordance with the 1971 Act. Although it acknowledged that this was sufficient to decide the case, the majority went on to consider s 8 of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901 (AI Act) and whether or not Mr Esber had an accrued right under the 1971 Act. The delegate of the Commissioner for Compensation had disallowed Mr Esber's claim for redemption because he was not satisfied that certain requirements had been met. At the time of the repeal of the 1971 Act, Mr Esber's application to the Tribunal was out of time and the extension had not yet been granted. The majority said that he had, "... at the time of the repeal of the 1971 Act, a right to have his application to the tribunal determined pursuant to Part V of the 1971 Act."[81]
"_... at the least, the appellant had, at the time of the repeal of the 1971 Act, a right to have his application to the Tribunal determined pursuant to Pt V of the 1971 Act. It may not be possible to say of a person in the position of the appellant that he had a right to a favourable determination from the Tribunal. The Tribunal was required to stand in the shoes of the decision-maker (the delegate) and arrive at its own decision (_Drake v Minister for Immigration (1979) 24 ALR 577 at 589). ...
... If it be assumed that the appellant did not have a right to redemption in the sense first discussed, he had a right to have his claim to redemption determined in his favour if the delegate had wrongly refused his claim. ...
_Once the appellant lodged an application to the Tribunal to review the delegate's decision, he had a right to have the decision of the delegate reconsidered and determined by the Tribunal. It was not merely 'a power to take advantage of an enactment' (_Mathieson v Burton [1971] HCA 4; (1971) 124 CLR 1, per Gibbs J at 23; and see Robertson v City of Nunawading [1973] VicRp 81; [1973] VR 819). This was such a right. It was a right in existence at the time the 1971 Act was repealed. That being so, and in the absence of a contrary intention, the right was protected by s8 of the Acts Interpretation Act and was not affected by the repeal of the 1971 Act."[82]
54. The majority's judgement in Esber did not alter the matters that must be considered. The Tribunal must look to the repealing legislation in order to determine whether there are transitional provisions or whether it is intended to operate retrospectively. If there are no such provisions, there must still be a consideration of the repealed legislation to determine whether a right has accrued under that repealed legislation.
55. When we apply these principles in the context of the amendments to the SIS Act, it becomes clear that the Tribunal continues to have jurisdiction to review the decisions despite the amendments effected by the Financial Sector Legislation Amendment (Review of Prudential Decisions) Act 2008[83] (2008 Amendment Act). It repealed the provisions conferring jurisdiction on the Tribunal to review decisions under s 120A but Item 70(9)(b) of Schedule 1specifically provided that the amendments it made to the SIS Act did not affect proceedings already pending in the Tribunal.
56. The law that we apply is a different matter again. Taking the approach of the majority in Esber v Commonwealth of Australia and Another, we have looked to s 8 of the AI Act. It provides that:
"Where an Act repeals in whole or in part a former Act, then unless the contrary intention appears the repeal shall not:
(a) revive anything not in force or existing at the time at which the repeal takes effect;
(b) affect the previous operation of any Act so repealed, or anything duly done or suffered under any Act so repealed, or anything duly done or suffered under any Act so repealed; or
(c) affect any right privilege obligation or liability acquired accrued or incurred under any Act so repealed; or
(d) affect any investigation legal proceeding or remedy in respect of any such right privilege obligation liability penalty forfeiture or punishment as aforesaid;
and any such investigation legal proceeding or remedy may be instituted continued or enforced, and any such penalty forfeiture or punishment may be imposed, as if the repealing Act had not been passed."
58. Our summary is more extensive than we might ordinarily undertake but we have felt it necessary to deal with the wider scheme of the SIS Act in order to explain our reasoning in relation to some of the submissions made by Mr North SC in the course of the proceedings.
"... make provision for the prudent management of certain superannuation funds, approved deposit funds and pooled superannuation trusts and for their supervision by APRA, ASIC and the Commissioner of Taxation."[84]
The SIS Act makes provision for their prudent management by, for example, prescribing operating standards,[85] requiring trustees to lodge annual returns with the Regulator,[86] regulating the contents of their governing rules[87] and imposing duties upon their trustees and managers.[88] Those funds and trusts that come within the scope of the SIS Act and that comply with its regulatory scheme may be eligible for concessional taxation treatment.[89]
60. The "certain superannuation funds", to which the object refers, do not necessarily include all entities engaged in the superannuation industry. That is so because the Commonwealth's power to regulate matters relating to superannuation is limited to its powers to make laws with respect to corporations or pensions. [90] Therefore, the Parliament has limited itself to the regulation of "regulated superannuation funds", "approved deposit funds" and "pooled superannuation trusts". Together, they are known as "superannuation entities".[91]
61. We are concerned with a "regulated superannuation fund". That is a superannuation fund which has a trustee, which is either a constitutional corporation[92] or has as its sole or primary purpose the provision of old-age pensions and has elected that the SIS Act apply in relation to the fund.[93] A "superannuation fund" means a fund that is either an indefinitely continuing fund and is a provident, benefit, superannuation or retirement fund or a public sector superannuation fund.[94]
62. A superannuation fund may be an "employer-sponsored fund" for the purposes of the SIS Act. That will be so if it is a regulated superannuation fund and has at least one employer-sponsor.[95] An "employer-sponsor" of a regulated superannuation fund is an employer which contributes to the fund for the benefit of a member of the fund, who is its employee, its associate or a dependant of such an employee or associate.[96] An employer-sponsored fund may be a "standard employer-sponsored fund' or not. A "standard employer-sponsored fund' is a regulated superannuation fund to which an employer-sponsor contributes wholly or partly under an arrangement between it and the trustee of the regulated superannuation fund.[97]
Approval of the trustee where the trustee is a constitutional corporation
63. Part 2 of the SIS Act provides for the approval of a constitutional corporation as the trustee of a superannuation fund. Apart from any other requirements that must be met, approval of a superannuation fund's trustee is required if the superannuation fund is to be maintained as an approved deposit fund or if it has fewer than five members.[98] Only if the trustee of a public offer entity is an approved trustee may the trustee engage in issuing, offering or inviting applications for the issue of superannution interests in a public offer entity.[99]
64. When APRA receives an application for approval as a trustee, it must approve the applicant:
"... as a trustee for the purposes of this Act if, and only if:
(a) APRA is satisfied that the applicant can be relied on to perform, in a proper manner, the duties of trustee of any relevant entity of which the applicant is or becomes the trustee; and
(b) at least one of the following subparagraphs applies:
(i) APRA is satisfied that the value of the net tangible assets of the applicant is not less than the amount prescribed by the regulations;
(ii) APRA is satisfied that the applicant is entitled to the benefit of an approved guarantee of an amount not less than the amount prescribed by the regulations, being a guarantee in respect of the applicant's duties as trustee of each relevant entity of which the applicant is, or is proposing to become, the trustee;
(iia) APRA is satisfied that the applicant passes the test set out in subsection (1A);
(iii) the applicant has agreed to comply with the written requirements given to the applicant by APRA before the granting of the approval, being requirements relating to the custody of the assets of a relevant entity or relevant entities of which the applicant is or becomes the trustee."[100]
65. A reference to a "relevant entity" is a reference to a public offer entity or to an approved deposit fund.[101] The applicant passes the test referred to in s 26(1)(b)(iia) if:
"(a) the applicant is entitled to the benefit of an approved guarantee, being a guarantee in respect of the applicant's duties as trustee of each relevant entity of which the applicant is, or is proposing to become, the trustee; and
(b) the sum of the amount of the approved guarantee and the value of the net tangible assets of the applicant is not less than the amount prescribed by the regulations."[102]
66. The approval given by APRA under s 26(1) is subject to any conditions that are specified in the IOA[103] and it may be varied on the application of the approved trustee[104] or on the initiative of APRA.[105] The IOA must designate the sub-paragraph of s 26(1)(b) forming the basis on which the applicant was approved.[106] In this case, it the relevant sub-paragraph was s 26(1)(b)(iii).
67. APRA may revoke the approval of an approved trustee by written notice given to the trustee. Without limiting that power, which is given by s 28(1), APRA may revoke an approval under s 28(1) if it is "satisfied, on reasonable grounds" of one of the events specified in one or more of the seven paragraphs set out in s 28(2). Of relevance in this case are the events that:
"(a) there has been a contravention of any condition to which the approval is subject;
(e) if subparagraph 26(1)(b)(iii) is designated as the subparagraph on the basis of which the trustee is approved - the trustee has failed to comply with a requirement of APRA under that subparagraph."
Notification of change in circumstances or breach of conditions
68. If an event referred to in s 29(2) occurs, "An approved trustee must, as soon as practicable, and in any event within 30 days, after becoming aware of ... [that event], give APRA a written notice setting out particulars of the event."[107] The events are:
"(a) a contravention of a condition to which the approval of the trustee is subject;
(b) if subparagraph 26(1)(b)(i) is designated as the subparagraph on the basis of which the trustee is approved - that subparagraph ceasing to apply to the trustee;
(c) if subparagraph 26(1)(b)(ii) is designated as the subparagraph on the basis of which the trustee is approved - that subparagraph ceasing to apply to the trustee;
(ca) if subparagraph 26(1)(b)(iia) is designated as the subparagraph on the basis of which the trustee is approved - that subparagraph ceasing to apply to the trustee;
(d) if subparagraph 26(1)(b)(iii) is designated as the subparagraph on the basis of which the trustee is approved - that subparagraph ceasing to apply to the trustee."
A trustee must not contravene s 29(1) without reasonable excuse and to do so is an offence of strict liability.[108]
Equal representation of employer and member representatives
69. Part 9 of the SIS Act sets out rules regarding the representation of employers and members in relation to the management and control of standard employer-sponsored funds.[109] If a standard employer-sponsored fund is not a public offer superannuation fund and has more than 49 members, it must comply with what are called the "basic equal representation rules."[110] Section 89(1) provides that a fund complies with the "basic equal representation rules" if:
(i) the fund has a group of 2 or more individual trustees;
(ii) the group of trustees consists of equal numbers of employer representatives and member representatives; or
(b) both:
(i) the fund has a single corporate trustee;
(ii) the board of the corporate trustee consists of equal numbers of employer-representatives and member representatives."
"... in relation to a group of trustees of a fund, a policy committee of a fund or the board of directors of a corporate trustee of a fund, means a member of the group, committee or board, as the case may be, nominated by:
(a) the employer or employers of the members of the fund; or
(b) an organisation representing the interests of that employer or those employers."[111]
"... in relation to a group of trustees of a fund, a policy committee of a fund or the board of directors of a corporate trustee of a fund, means a member of the group, committee or board, as the case may be, nominated by:
(a) the members of the fund; or
(b) a trade union, or other organisation, representing the interests of those members."[112]
Standards of operation of a regulated superannuation fund
70. Part 3 of the SIS Act provides a system of prescribed standards applicable to the operation of superannuation entities. In so far as a regulated superannuation fund is concerned, regulations may prescribe standards for their operation (prescribed standards).[113] Examples of the matters that may be prescribed are set out in s 31(2). These matters include the actuarial standards that will apply to funds,[114] the level of benefits that may be provided by funds and the levels of assets that a fund may hold,[115] the financial and actuarial reports to be prepared in relation to funds,[116] the disclosure of information to beneficiaries in funds[117] and the financial position of funds.[118]
71. The trustee of a superannuation entity must ensure that the prescribed standards applicable to the operation of the entity are complied with at all times.[119] A person who does not comply with that obligation, is guilty of an offence[120] but a contravention of the obligation does not affect the validity of the transaction.[121]
72. Part 7 of the SIS Act sets out a number of provisions that apply only to regulated superannuation funds. Of interest in this case is s 62(1) which provides, in its barest form:
"The trustee of a regulated superannuation fund must ensure that the fund is maintained solely:
(a) for one or more of the following ... core purposes ...
(b) one or more of the core purposes and for one or more of the following ... ancillary purposes ...
73. The "core purposes" are those set out in s 62(1)(a) and all relate to the provision of benefits as defined in that paragraph. The "ancillary purposes" are those set out in s 62(1)(b) and are also defined in terms of benefits.
The covenants in the governing rules of a superannuation entity
74. The content of the governing rules of a superannuation entity are the subject of Part 6 of the SIS Act. Section 52(2) sets out a number of covenants. If the governing rules of a superannuation entity do not contain covenants to the same effect, its governing rules are taken to contain them.[122] Among the covenants set out in s 52(2) are:
(b) to exercise, in relation to all matters affecting the entity, the same degree of care, skill and diligence as an ordinary prudent person would exercise in dealing with property of another for whom the person felt morally bound to provide;
(c) to ensure that the trustee's duties and powers are performed and exercised in the best interests of the beneficiaries;
(e) not to enter into any contract, or do anything else, that would prevent the trustee from, or hinder the trustee in, properly performing or exercising the trustee's functions and powers;
The "... covenant referred to in s 52(2)(e) does not prevent the trustee from engaging or authorising persons to do acts or things on behalf of the trustee."[123]
75. The regulations may prescribe a covenant to be included in the governing rules of a superannuation entity.[124] Without limiting their generality, the regulations may prescribe a covenant that elaborates, supplements or otherwise deals with any aspect of a matter to which a covenant in s 52(2) relates or to a matter to which a provision of the SIS Act relates.[125]
"A covenant by a corporate trustee[[126]] of a superannuation entity that is to the effect of a covenant referred to in subsection (2), or to the effect of a covenant prescribed by regulations referred to in subsection (5), also operates as a covenant by each of the directors of the trustee to exercise a reasonable degree of care and diligence for the purposes of ensuring that the trustee carries out the first-mentioned covenant, and so operates as if the directors were parties to the governing rules."
The reference in this provision to "a reasonable degree of care and diligence" is:
"... a reference to the degree of care and diligence that a reasonable person in the position of director of the trustee would exercise in the trustee's circumstances."[127]
"A person must not contravene a covenant contained, or taken to be contained, in the governing rules of a superannuation entity."
78. Contravention, however, is not an offence and does not result in the invalidity of a transaction.[128] This does not mean that a person is without remedy after suffering loss or damage as a result of the conduct of a person in contravention of a covenant. Such a person may recover the amount of the loss or damage by action against any person involved in the contravention.[129] Defences to such an action are set out in ss 55(5) and (6). Both defences are based on the person's having acted in accordance with an investment strategy or reserve management that accords with the relevant covenant in s 52(f) or (g) of the SIS Act.
Accounts, statements and audits of superannuation entities
79. Part 13 of the SIS Act sets out rules about the accounts, statements and audits of superannuation entities.[130] Section 111 sets out those rules in relation to accounting records. Matters concerned with their retention, location and their ability to be read in English are the subject of s 111(2). Section 111(1) is concerned with the substance of the records and it provides:
(a) keep such accounting records as correctly record and explain the transactions and financial position of the entity; and
(b) so keep its accounting records so as to enable the following to be prepared:
(i) the accounts and statements of the entity mentioned in section 112;
(ii) the returns of the entity mentioned in section 36; and
(c) so keep its accounting records so as to enable those accounts statements and returns to be conveniently and properly audited in accordance with this Act."
80. Sections 111(3) and (4) both provide that the trustee is guilty of an offence if the trustee contravenes either ss 111(1) or 111(2). In the case of s 111(3), the maximum penalty is 100 penalty units but, in the case of s 111(4), which is designated an offence of strict liability, the maximum penalty is 50 penalty points.
81. Part 12 of the SIS Act imposes special duties on the trustees and investment managers of superannuation entities. Section 109 is directed to ensuring that the trustee or investment manager makes and maintains investments on a basis that is at arm's length from the other party to the relevant transaction. If they are not made or maintained on that basis, then the terms must be no more favourable to the other party than they would have been had the transaction been made at arm's length in the same circumstances. Of relevance in this case are the provisions of s 109(1), which provides that:
"The trustee or investment manager of a superannuation entity must not invest in that capacity unless:
(a) the trustee or investment manager, as the case may be, and the other party to the relevant transaction are dealing with each other at arm's length in respect of the transaction; or
(i) the trustee or investment manager, as the case may be, and the other party to the relevant transaction are not dealing with each other at arm's length in respect of the transaction; and
(ii) the terms and conditions of the transaction are no more favourable to the other party than those which it is reasonable to expect would apply if the trustee or investment manager, as the case may be, were dealing with the other party at arm's length in the same circumstances."
for the purpose of gaining interest, income, profit or gain."[131]
82. Subject only to the qualifications in s 58(2) of the SIS Act, the governing rules of a superannuation entity such as the Fund "... must not permit the trustee to be subject, in the exercise of any of the trustee's powers under those rules, to direction by any other person."[132] To the extent that the governing rules of a superannuation fund provide otherwise, they are invalid.[133] The qualifications permit a direction to be given to a trustee by a court, the Regulator, a direction payable by a beneficiary relating to benefits payable to that beneficiary and, in the case of an employer-sponsored fund, by an employer-sponsor in circumstances prescribed by the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Regulations 1994 (Regulations).
83. Regulation 4.03(1) provides for an exception relevant to this case. It provides that the governing rules may allow an employer-sponsor to give a direction to a trustee in certain circumstances. One of them occurs if, after the implementation of that direction, a defined benefit fund would not become technically insolvent as defined in r 9.06(3), the direction would not require the Trustee to breach a provision of the SIS Act, other than s 55 or the Regulations and if:
"(a) the contributions of the employer-sponsor to the fund include contributions that are not mandated employer contributions (within the meaning of Part 5) and the direction relates solely to either or both of the following:
(i) those non-mandated employer contributions; or
(ii) benefits related to those non-mandated employer contributions; or
(b) whether or not paragraph (a) applies - the direction relates solely to one or more of the following:
(i) the admission of the new members to the fund; or
(ii) the category of members into which a new member or existing member is to be placed; or
(iii) allowing a person to become an employer-sponsor of the fund; or
(iv) the termination of the fund; or
(v) the appointment of a trustee to an entity that does not have a trustee."[134]
84. Generally speaking, the governing rules of a superannuation entity (other than a self-managed superannuation fund) may not permit anyone other than a trustee to exercise discretions under the Trust Deed.[135] Again, there are exceptions. One arises if the governing rules require the Trustee's consent to the exercise of the discretion. Others arise if the entity is an employer-sponsored fund:
"(i) the exercise of the discretion relates to the contributions that an employer-sponsor will, after the discretion is exercised, be required or permitted to pay to the fund; or
(ii) the exercise of the discretion relates solely to a decision to terminate the fund; or
(iii) the circumstances in which the discretion was exercised are covered by regulations made for the purposes of this subparagraph."[136]
Regulation 4.04 is made for the purposes of s 59(1)(b)(iii) and mirrors the qualifications set out in r 4.03 in relation to an employer's giving a trustee a direction.
Standards for trustees, custodians and investment managers of superannuation entities
85. Standards for trustees, custodians and investment managers of superannuation entities is the subject of Part 15 of the SIS Act. In so far as it is relevant to this case, it does so by providing that a "... person must not intentionally be, or act as, a responsible officer of a body corporate that is a trustee of a superannuation entity if the person is, and knows that the person is, a disqualified person."[137] A disqualified person may not be an investment manager[138] or a custodian[139] of a superannuation entity or a responsible officer of a body corporate that holds such a position.
86. What is a "disqualified person"? The answer lies in ss 120 and 120A of the SIS Act. Only those provisions relating to individuals are relevant in this case. We will begin with s 120(1):
"(1) For the purposes of this Part, an individual is a disqualified person if:
(a) at any time (including a time before the commencement of this section):
(i) the individual was convicted of an offence against or arising out of a law of the Commonwealth, a State, a Territory or a foreign country, being an offence in respect of dishonest conduct; or
(ii) a civil penalty was made in relation to the person; or
(b) the person is an insolvent under administration; or
(c) the Regulator has disqualified the individual under section 120A.
87. Section 120A is also relevant. It provides for three ways in which the Regulator may disqualify an individual. The first is that it:
"... may disqualify an individual if satisfied that:
(a) the person has contravened this Act ... on one or more occasions ...; and
(b) the nature or seriousness of the contravention or contraventions, or the number of contraventions, provides grounds for disqualifying the individual."[140]
88. The second way in which the Regulator may disqualify an individual arises if the individual is a responsible officer of a trustee, investment manager or custodian. The Regulator may disqualify such an individual if:
(a) the body corporate has contravened this Act ... on one or more occasions (whether before or after the commencement of this section); and
(b) at the time of the contraventions, the individual was a responsible officer of the body corporate; and
(c) in respect of the contravention or contraventions that occurred while the individual was a responsible officer of the body corporate - the nature or seriousness of it or them, or the number of them, provides grounds for the disqualification of the individual."[141]
89. The third way is found in s 120A(3). It provides that:
"The Regulator may disqualify an individual if satisfied that the individual is otherwise not a fit and proper person to be a trustee, investment manager or custodian, or a responsible officer of a body corporate that is a trustee, investment manager or custodian."
90. The SIS Act provides for both revocation of the disqualification and waiver of the status of an individual as a disqualified person. Revocation is provided for in s 120A(5). The Regulator may revoke a disqualification either on application by the disqualified individual or on its own initiative. Waiver is provided for in s 126B. An individual may apply for waiver of the status of a disqualified person but only if disqualification has come about solely because of the operation of s 120(1)(a)(i) i.e. by having been convicted of an offence in respect of dishonest conduct within the meaning of s 120(1)(a)(i) and the offence did not involve serious dishonest misconduct.[142]
91. The SIS Act requires the Regulator to take certain matters into account in deciding whether or not to waive an individual's status as a disqualified person under s 126B. When the Regulator is APRA, the matters that it must take into account are set out in s 126D(1). That section provides:
"If APRA is satisfied, having regard to any of the following:
(a) the offence to which the application relates;
(b) the time that has passed since the applicant committed the offence;
(c) the applicant's age when the applicant committed the offence;
(d) the orders made by the court in relation to the offence;
(e) any other relevant matter;
that the applicant is highly unlikely to be a prudential risk to any superannuation entity, APRA must, by notice in writing given to the applicant, make a declaration waiving the applicant's status as a disqualified person for the purposes of this Part."
92. Section 126E deals with the effect of a person's applying for a declaration waiving his or her status as a disqualified person. Section 126E(1) applies if:
(b) the person is eligible to make application for a declaration waiving his or her status as a disqualified person; and
(c) the person makes application for such a declaration under subsection 126B(3) within the application period specified in that subsection;
"the person is treated, for the purposes of this Act, (other than the purpose of the application for the declaration) as not being, and as never having been, a disqualified person until that application is decided."[143]
93. If the Regulator decides to make a declaration in relation to a person meeting the description set out in ss 126E(1)(a), (b) and (c), the SIS Act applies as if the person had never been disqualified.[144] If the Regulator decides not to make a declaration, the person again becomes a disqualified person from the date of the decision.[145]
94. If the person is a disqualified person, who is eligible to make an application for a declaration waiving his or her status as a disqualified person, and makes an application for waiver under s 126B(4), the person continues to be a disqualified person for the purposes of the SIS Act pending the decision.[146] If the Regulator decides to make a declaration waiving the person's status as a disqualified person, the person is treated for the purposes of the SIS Act as if the person had never been a disqualified person.[147]
95. Section 109(1) is a civil penalty provision.[148] As such, the provisions of Part 21 apply to it. Section 196 applies:
"if the Court is satisfied that a person has contravened a civil penalty provision, whether or not the contravention also constitutes an offence because of section 202."[149]
96. If so satisfied, the Court, which is either the Federal Court or a State or Territory Supreme Court,[150] must declare that the person has, by a specified act or omission, contravened the provision concerned in relation to the specified superannuation entity.[151] Provided "it is satisfied that the contravention is a serious one",[152] the Court may generally also make an order that the person pay the Commonwealth a monetary penalty of an amount not exceeding 2,000 penalty units.[153] It may not make such an order if satisfied that an Australian court has order the person to pay damages in the nature of punitive damages because of the act or omission constituting the contravention.[154]
97. On an application for a civil penalty order, the Court may order that the person pay the trustee of the superannuation entity or, if the person is the trustee, that it pay the entity, compensation. It may only do so if it is satisfied that the person has committed the contravention and the superannuation entity has suffered loss or damage as a result.[155] The order may be made in addition to any monetary penalty imposed under s 196(3).[156]
"In hearing and determining an application for a civil penalty order, the Court is to apply the rules of evidence and procedure that it applies in hearing and determining civil matters."[159]
99. A certificate signed by the Registrar of other proper officer of an Australian court stating, among other matters, that the court has declared that a specified person has contravened a civil penalty provision in relation to a specified superannuation entity, that certificate is conclusive evidence of the contravention unless the finding has been set aside.[160]
Institution of criminal proceedings against a person in respect of the contravention of a civil penalty provision
100. Section 195 provides that, for the purposes of Part 21:
"... an Australian court is taken to find a person guilty of an offence if, and only if:
(a) the court convicts the person of the offence; or
(b) the person is charged before the court with the offence and is found by the court to have committed the offence, but the court does not proceed to convict the person of the offence."
101. A contravention of a civil penalty provision may be an offence punishable on conviction by imprisonment for not more than five years but only if the person did so:
(i) dishonestly and intending to gain, whether directly or indirectly, an advantage for that or any other person; or
(ii) intending to deceive or defraud someone; ..."[161]
Section 202(1) makes it clear that a person who contravenes a civil penalty provision is not otherwise guilty of an offence.
102. If a person has already applied for a civil penalty order, criminal proceedings may not be begun in relation to the same contravention even if the application has been finally determined or otherwise disposed of.[162]
103. Where a person is convicted of any offence under the Act or the offence is found to have been proved but a conviction was not recorded, a certificate signed by the Registrar of the relevant court to that effect is conclusive evidence of one or other of two matters. The first is the conviction, if there was such a conviction. The second is the fact that there was a contravention of the law where the court did not proceed to a conviction but found the offence to have been committed by contravention of a provision of a law. That is the effect of s 324.
The relationship between criminal proceedings and proceedings for a civil penalty order
104. If criminal proceedings are begun against a person for an offence constituted by a contravention of a civil penalty provision, an application for a civil penalty order against a person may be made in relation to the same contravention.[163] A reading of ss 203, 205 and 206 make it clear that an application for a civil penalty order may be made before the criminal proceedings are completed or after they are completed so long as it is not made before the criminal proceedings are begun in the first place. If the application is made before the criminal proceedings, no criminal proceedings may be begun at all. When an application for a civil penalty order is made after criminal proceedings have been begun but before they are concluded, on appeal or otherwise, that application is stayed by virtue of s 205(2).
105. The outcome of an application that is made after criminal proceedings have been concluded or of an application that has been instituted during them but that has been stayed, is determined according to s 206. The application can only be made in accordance with Division 4 of Part 21 or the application that has been stayed is dismissed if the criminal proceedings result in one of the eight outcomes specified in s 206.[164] The practical effect is found in s 207 when it provides that:
"If the result of the criminal proceedings, appeals and applications for review being finally determined or otherwise disposed of is:
(a) a declaration by a court (other than the Court) that the person committed the contravention; or
(b) none of the results referred to in section 206;
(c) if an application for a civil penalty order in relation to the contravention was stayed because of subsection 205(2) - the application may proceed; or
(d) otherwise - such an application may be made and may proceed;
106. In certain circumstances, s 298 of the SIS Act authorises the Regulator, in this case APRA, to begin and carry on a proceeding for:
"(a) the recovery of damages for fraud, negligence, default, breach of duty, or other misconduct, committed in connection with a matter to which the investigation or examination related; or
It may do so if, as a result of an investigation or from a record of an examination conducted under Part 25, it appears to it to be in the public interest to do so.[165] The Regulator brings such an action in the name of the person provided it has, in the case of an individual, the person's consent.
107. The Regulator also has authority to begin other civil proceedings under the SIS Act[166] as may other interested persons in certain circumstances.[167] The Regulator may intervene in any proceedings relating to a matter arising under the SIS Act.[168] Section 321 provides that no civil proceedings are stayed merely because the proceeding discloses or arises out of the commission of an offence.
Standard of proof in the Court in proceedings other than for an offence
108. Section 322 is concerned with the standard of proof in proceedings in the Court shen those proceedings are not for an offence. It applies when it is necessary to establish or for the Court to be satisfied for any purpose relating to a matter under this Act that, among other issues, a person has contravened a provision of the SIS Act.[169] It is sufficient to establish it or if the Court is satisfied of it on the balance of probabilities.[170]
109. During the course of both the hearing and the submissions, the parties raised a number of issues. Some took the form of objections to evidence or submissions as to the course of the hearing. We made rulings on them during the course of the hearing. Normally, we would think that oral reasons would suffice but, given the nature of the issues and the detail of the submissions that were made were such that they warrant our giving considered reasons for our rulings. The parties agreed that this was the appropriate course as it ensured the proceedings could continue without interruption.
110. We will do that first and then turn to several other issues on which we did not make formal rulings but which were raised during the course of the hearing. In some instances, they are related to the issues raised by the rulings and, in others, relate to the way in which we have weighed the evidence, made our findings of fact and reached our decisions.
Ruling re the call for APRA's investigation files: the issues and the submissions
111. In his opening, Mr North SC submitted that the documents relating to the investigation conducted by APRA after it issued its Notice of Investigation on 15 September 2003[171] should be produced by APRA. That notice is addressed to the ATC as trustee of ASF and is signed by Mr Roger Brown as the Senior Manager of the Rehabilitation and Enforcement (SW Region). It began by reciting that it appeared to Mr Brown:
"... a contravention of the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act 1993 or regulations may have occurred or be occurring in relation to the ... [ASF] ...".[172]
The notice then stated that Mr Brown, a delegate of APRA under s 263(1) of the SIS Act advised the ATC that APRA "proposes to conduct and investigation of the whole of the affairs of the Fund."[173]
112. At that time the hearing was held, the inspector had not completed his investigation. As it was continuing, Mr North submitted, the inspector was not obliged to produce a report. Section 284 of the SIS Act only requires the production of a report after the completion or termination of an investigation. Had ATC contravened any provision of the SIS Act, that fact would have been well and truly announced by now. That was not to the point, though, for the fact of the incomplete investigation left APRA open to the charge that it could not decide whether ATC was in contravention as a result of its own investigations but expected us to conclude that it was when reviewing the decisions it had made to disqualify VCA, VCC and VCD. Each of the applicants had been examined under the SIS Act as part of that investigation and it could be that, even while these proceedings were continuing or subsequently, another arm of APRA decided that ATC was not in breach of the SIS Act.
113. Mr North also submitted that the information gathered during APRA's ongoing investigation might be pertinent to the review of the three disqualification decisions. It is not the task of the Tribunal to investigate but to make a decision on the material presented to it. That material should be presented by APRA as it must establish the contraventions to the necessary degree of satisfaction. As APRA did not give any appearance of intending to do so, the Tribunal should use its own powers to require APRA to produce the information it had gathered in the course of its investigations.
114. On behalf of VCC, Mr Santamaria SC initially joined with Mr North in seeking production of all relevant files held by the Rehabilitation and Enforcement branch or area of APRA (R and E Branch). On receiving Ms McLeod's SC assurance that all relevant documents had been disclosed to the Tribunal, he did not press his application but we have considered his initial submissions for they assist us in understanding Mr North's position more fully. Mr Santamaria particularly sought production of the material to aid his cross-examination of Mr Kim Efthymiou. Mr Efthymiou appended to his affidavit notes of a number of conversations that he said that he had with VCC. Mr Santamaria submitted that he would be assisted in his cross-examination of Mr Efthymiou were he to have access to the records of the R and E Branch. Access to the records would also reveal the time at which any alleged contraventions were discovered and acted upon. The length of time taken to act would reflect on APRA's view of the seriousness or otherwise of the alleged contraventions.
115. Ms McLeod rejected the call for the production of the files of the R and E Branch. The applicants had been given copies of all documents relating to the involvement of Mr Efthymiou. His affidavit relates to the period up to the referral to the R and E Branch. APRA has also produced all relevant material that went to the delegate who made the decisions. It is sheer speculation to suggest that there may be a clash of cultures or views within APRA regarding issues relating to whether ATC is or is not in contravention of its obligations under the SIS Act. Ms McLeod was prepared, however, to speculate on the reasons why there is no report under s 284 of the SIS Act regarding the investigation. One reason for there being no such report may be, she said, that the interests of the members are already being met in that the ASF is managed and compliant on an ongoing basis.
116. Ms McLeod referred also to the provisions of s 37(1)(b) of the Administrative Appeals Tribunal Act 1975 (AAT Act) and said that all documents relevant to the disqualification decision had been produced.
Ruling re the call for APRA's investigation files: our ruling and reasons
117. At the conclusion of the submissions, we ruled that we would not order APRA to produce further material from the R and E Branch or otherwise. We will now set out our reasons for our ruling.
118. Our power to order APRA to produce documents is clearly found in
s 40 of the AAT Act and we will return to that. It is enough to note for the moment that it is a power exercised by means of the issue of a summons. This is not a case in which a summons has been issued. There are no other powers relating specifically to the production of documents.
119. We are left, therefore, with the general proposition found in s 33(1)(a) that "In a proceeding before the Tribunal ...the procedure of the Tribunal is, subject to this Act and the regulations and to any other enactment, within the discretion of the Tribunal". That has to be read with the stricture that the proceeding must be conducted with as little formality and technicality and with as much expedition as a proper consideration of the matter permits.[174] It also has to be read with s 33(1)(c) which provides, in part, that the Tribunal "... may inform itself on any matter in such manner as it thinks appropriate." In order to fulfil these purposes, the Tribunal may "... give directions as to the procedure to be followed at or in connection with the hearing of a proceeding before the Tribunal ...".[175]
120. If we were to have regard only to those two sections, we might be perplexed as to whether we may issue directions only to parties or whether we may issue them to third parties. The fact that the power is given for the purposes in s 33(1) including those in s 33(1)(c) could lead to the conclusion that they might be directed to third parties when information or documents were sought from them. Such a reading, though, would be contrary both to the fact that each of the paragraphs in s 33(1) is directed to the "proceeding before the Tribunal". That suggests that the power should be limited to the power to give directions to the parties. It is a suggestion that is supported by the fact that there already exists in s 40 the power to issue a summons to third parties. The suggestion finds further support in s 33(2A) when it specifies some of the directions that the Tribunal might give. Each is directed to a party to the proceeding and not to a third party. Indeed, when the whole of ss 33 and 40 are read together, it would seem that the summons power in s 40 is intended to be used to obtain documents and evidence from third persons and, apart from the particular obligations placed on the decision-maker under s 37, the directions power to obtain it from one or other of the parties. Section 33(2A) provides:
"Without limiting the operation of this section, a direction as to the procedure to be followed at or in connection with the hearing of a proceeding before the Tribunal may:
(a) require any person who is a party to the proceeding to provide further information in relation to the proceeding; or
(b) require the person who made the decision to provide a statement of the grounds on which the application will be resisted at the hearing; or
(c) require any person who is a party to the proceeding to provide a statement of matters or contentions upon which reliance is intended to be placed at the hearing."
121. As we have said, the power to make directions as to the Tribunal's discretion is within its discretion. That discretion is not, however, without its limits and those limits are found in the context in which the power is given. Its immediate context is that of s 33 and it immediately imposes a practical limit to the effect that the discretion to give directions must bear upon the Tribunal's procedure. That the provision of information is regarded as having the necessary bearing is clear from
122. There are, however, other limits that arise from the role of the Tribunal for its role is an essential element in circumscribing what will and will not be relevant to its deliberations. That has been addressed by Bowen CJ and Deane J in Drake v Minister for Immigration and Ethnic Affairs[176] when they distinguished its role from that of a court:
" The function of the Tribunal is ... an administrative one. It is to review the administrative decision that is under attack before it. In that review, the Tribunal is not restricted to consideration of the questions which are relevant to a judicial determination of whether a discretionary power allowed by statute has been validly exercised. Except in a case where only one decision can lawfully be made, it is not ordinarily part of the function of a court either to determine what decision should be made in the exercise of an administrative decision in a given case or, where a decision has been lawfully made in pursuance of permissible policy, to adjudicate upon the merits of the decision or the propriety of the policy. That is primarily an administrative rather than a judicial function. It is the function which has been entrusted to the Tribunal.
The question for the determination of the Tribunal is not whether the decision which the decision-maker made was the correct or preferable one on the material before him. The question for the determination of the Tribunal is whether that decision was the correct or preferable one on the material before the Tribunal. The Act offers little general guidance on the criteria and rules which the Tribunal is to apply in the performance of its task of reviewing administrative decisions which are subjected to its surveillance. Even in a case such as the present where the legislation under which the relevant decision was made fails to specify that particular criteria or considerations which are relevant to the decision, the Tribunal is not, however, at large. In its proceedings, it is obliged to act judicially, that is to say, with judicial fairness and detachment. In its review of an administrative decision, it is subject to the general constraints to which an administrative officer whose decision is under review was subject, namely, that the relevant power must not be exercised for a purpose other than that for which it exists ..., that regard must be had to the relevant considerations, and that matters 'absolutely apart from the matters which by law ought to be taken into consideration' must be ignored ..."[177]
123. We would emphasise two of the points made by their Honours. The first is that the Tribunal must determine the correct or preferable decision on the material before it and not on the material before the decision-maker.[178] The second is that it is not the Tribunal's role to attempt to usurp that of the courts under the Administrative Decisions (Judicial Review) Act 1977 (ADJR Act) or under s 39B of the Judiciary Act 1903 by enquiring into whether the decision-maker made an error in making the decision. That is the task of the courts; not that of the Tribunal.
124. The third point we would make is not expressly made in the passage from the judgment of Bowen CJ and Deane J but it is implicit in it. The Tribunal is not placed in the position of an adjudicator required to form a view on which of two competing views it prefers: that of the person aggrieved by the decision or that of the decision-maker. In deciding the correct or preferable decision, its decision may reflect neither of the competing views. That aspect of the Tribunal's task necessarily shapes the task of the parties. That of the decision-maker, for example, is not to adjudicate upon whether it is able to defend the decision it made but to assist the Tribunal to reach the correct or preferable decision.[179] The same is no less true of the task of the person aggrieved by the decison.
125. Bearing all of these matters in mind, the task of the Tribunal is that as was described in VCA, VCC and VCD and Australian Prudential Regulation Authority:[180]
"... The task of the Tribunal is to determine the correct process it should follow, follow it, ascertain the law that is applicable and the issues that are relevant, consider the probative material that is available to it and make findings of fact that are based on that material and relevant to the issues, ascertain the decision or range of decisions that can correctly be made in light of the law and the facts and, if more than one, choose the decision that is the preferable decision."[181]
126. The material that is relevant to the review of the decision may be lodged with the Tribunal at three stages. Initially, it may be lodged when the decision-maker complies with its obligations under s 37(1) of the AAT Act. During the parties' preparation for conferences conducted by the Tribunal, they are expected to lodge any further material that is relevant to the review of the decision together with statements of any witnesses they would propose to call should the matter proceed to a hearing.[182] Material, whether written, oral or visual and whether tangible or not may be offered during the hearing.
127. We have referred to material being "lodged" and "offered" as neutral words for the Tribunal need not receive, or admit, and so have regard to everything that is lodged or offered. It need only have regard to that which is probative of one or more of the factual issues it must decide or, in the case of material relevant to the exercise of a discretion that is relevant to the exercise of that discretion. That is so despite the fact that s 33(1)(c) of the AAT Act provides that:
"The Tribunal is not bound by the rules of evidence but may inform itself on any matter in such manner as it thinks appropriate."[183]
128. The statement that the Tribunal is not bound does not equate with a statement that the rules of evidence do not apply. As then Senior Member Todd said in Re Kevin and Minister for Capital Territory,[184] s 33(1)(c) should not be read independently of the other provision it contains i.e. that:
"the Tribunal ... may inform itself on any matter in such manner as it thinks appropriate'. The requirements of s 33 as a whole may thus lead the Tribunal in certain cases to consider that at least the principles underlying a rule of evidence, if not the strict rule itself, may offer clear guidance as to how it should inform itself. ..."[185]
Apart from any other relevant requirements of s 33, those in s 39 are also relevant. Their effect is to ensure that the Tribunal accords procedural fairness to the parties. That requirement also shapes the material to which the Tribunal will and must have regard.
129. The notion that the Tribunal must have regard to all relevant material underpins the requirement in s 37(1)(b) of the AAT Act that:
"Subject to this section, a person who has made a decision that is the subject of an application for a review by the Tribunal must, within 28 days after receiving notice of the application (or within such further period as the Tribunal allows), lodge with the Tribunal 2 copies of:
(b) every other document or part of a document that is in the person's possession or under the person's control and is relevant to the review of the decision by the Tribunal."
The importance of the Tribunal's being fully informed is recognised in the provision in s 37(3) that the section has effect notwithstanding any rule of law relating to privilege or the public interest in relation to the production of documents. No mention is made in s 37 of giving the documents to the party seeking review of the decision but, in recognition of its obligations under s 39, the Tribunal invariably makes the documents available to it[186] unless there is a claim for legal professional privilege, public interest immunity or some other legitimate ground of confidentiality.
130. What is clear from these provisions is that the obligation placed upon the decision-maker in the first instance by s 37(1)(b) is not limited to the documents relied on by the decision-maker in making the decision under review. It extends to every document that "is relevant to the review of the decision" (emphasis added). If it were left at that, it could be thought that what "may" be relevant is of no interest. That would not be correct for it is clear from s 37(2) that the Tribunal has power in certain circumstances to issue a notice to the decision-maker requiring it to produce further documents if they "may be relevant to the review of the decision". The existence of that power will no doubt be in decision-maker's mind when acting as a model litigant and determining what "is relevant" for the purpose of complying with s 37(1)(b).
131. What "is relevant to the review of the decision" is an absolute standard in the sense that a document is relevant to the review of a decision, whether or not the decision-maker relied on it and whether or not it was in existence when it made its decision. Whether or not it is relevant is to be determined objectively. Although it was open to argue that the previous formulation of s 37(1)(b) [187]was to the same effect when read with the obligation of the decision-maker to be a model litigant, that this is the correct interpretation is confirmed by the Explanatory Memorandum that accompanied the Administrative Appeals Tribunal Amendment Act 2005 when it said:
"It is intended that under new paragraph 37(1)(b) of the Act, a decision-maker must give the Tribunal a document in his or her possession if a hypothetical decision-maker would consider the document is relevant to the decision under review. In other words, the test for a document's relevance to the review of a decision is changed from a subjective one based on the views of the decision-maker to a test that is objective."[188]
132. When is a document "relevant to the review of the decision"? The word "relevant" is an adjective meaning "...directly connected with or related to the matter in hand; pertinent ...".[189] If it is to have the requisite connection with or relationship to the review of the decision, it must relate to the issues that must be decided. Otherwise it serves no purpose. That is not to say that the decision-maker assesses the weight that the Tribunal is likely to accord to the document or that it assesses whether it would be admissible were the rules of evidence to apply. Relevance to the review can be ascertained by reference to the subject matter of the documents and whether they would throw any light at all on the issues to be considered by the Tribunal in reviewing the merits of the decision. The decision-maker is given the task of lodging all such documents but not in weighing and sifting them to select only those it considers probative of the issues. That is a task that it will undertake later should the matter proceed through the conference stages and, later, to a hearing. It is a task that the person affected by the decision will also undertake and that person may reach a view about them different from that of the decision-maker. The purpose of s 37(1)(b) is to ensure that such a person and the Tribunal can undertake that task for themselves.
133. What is relevant to the review of the decision? The answer to that question will depend on the substantive issues raised by the relevant legislative framework within which the decision was made. The documents that meet that description will not be limited to those bearing upon the factual issues to be decided but will extend to legal advice bearing on the legal issues which the original decision-maker had to resolve in arriving at a decision and which it considered or took into account. Provided the legal advice meets those two criteria, it matters not whether the decision-maker acted on the legal advice or not.[190] Documents that are relevant to the review of the decision would also extend to documents reflecting on the credit of a witness but only in so far as the decision-maker considered it or took it into account. We make the qualification in view of the qualification made by Ryan J in relation to legal advice when deciding the extent of the obligation under s 37(1)(b) in Australian Prudential Regulation Authority v VBN. To adopt and adapt his Honour's reasoning, we are of the view that to hold otherwise would be to oblige the decision-maker to search out and lodge with the Tribunal every document pertinent to a witness's credit even though the document was not considered by the decision-maker in making the decision and it could not reasonably be expected that it would have searched out the document in order to do so.
134. What s 37(1)(b) does not do is to traverse on the terrain of a subpoena, as it is called in the courts, or a summons to produce documents as it is described in ss 40(1A) to (1E) of the AAT Act. Subject to qualifications that are not relevant, s 40(1A) provides that, for the purposes of a hearing before the Tribunal, a summons may be issued to a person:
"to produce any books, documents or things in the possession, custody or control of the person or persons named in the summons that are mentioned in the summons."[191]
135. The scope of a summons has been explored more fully in Re VBN and Australian Prudential Regulation Authority and Ors[192] and Re Radge and Ors and Commissioner of Taxation.[193] We adopt what was said there but will highlight one or two matters. The first is that the principles developed by the courts in relation to subpoenas is relevant. This was the approach taken by Bennett J in Comcare v Maganga[194] and he is following in the footsteps of, for example, Spender J in Cosco Holdings Pty Ltd v Commissioner for Taxation & Anor.[195]
136. It is clear from those authorities that it is relevant to ask whether the material sought by the summons has:
"... an apparent relevance to the issues in the principal proceedings, ie, is adjectival, as distinct from substantive, relevance established? ..."[196]
In Trade Practices Commission v Arnotts Ltd and Others,[197] Beaumont J had said:
"The test of adjectival relevance is satisfied if the material has apparent relevance. In my opinion, the documentation called for here could possibly throw light on the issues in the main case. In my opinion, adjectival relevance is established."[198]
137. Spender J explained the passage from Beaumont J's judgment in Trade Practices Commission v Arnotts Ltd and Others in his judgment in Cosco Holdings Pty Ltd v Commissioner for Taxation & Anor[199] when he said:
Notwithstanding the use of the word 'possibly' in this paragraph, in my opinion, that word is not used in any speculative sense. I take his Honour's conclusion expressed in that paragraph as an acquiescence to the correctness of the submission that the material sought could reasonably be expected to throw light on some of the issues in the principal proceedings. It is not a question of looking at the documents to see if the documents might permit a case to be made.
Discovery should be controlled, and may be limited to documents relevant to particular issues, but it is a valuable weapon in the armoury of justice. The real objection which, in some cases, justifies discovery being limited to particular issues is the objection of oppression.
138. Spender J referred to a judgement by the Full Court of the Federal Court in Treasurer of the Commonwealth of Australia v Canwest Global Communications Corp[201] in which it had said:
"A modern statement of the principle which has been repeatedly followed is that made by Brennan J (with whom Bowen CJ agreed) in W.A. Pynes Pty Ltd v Bannerman [1980] FCA 79; (1980) 41 FLR 175 at 181, where what is required to obtain a discovery order in a doubtful case was expressed as follows:
sufficient is shown to ground a suspicion that the party applying for discovery has a good case proof of which is likely to be aided by discovery."[202]
139. It is clear from these passages that the relevance of the documents sought does not have to be established on the balance of probabilities. As Bennett J said in Comcare v Maganga:
"... the test of relevance is whether the documents relate to the proceedings such that there is a real possibility that they may assist in the resolution of issues in the proceedings ...
Further, the test of relevance for the purpose of inspection is not confined to whether the documents in question will or may establish an inconsistent statement by a witness giving evidence in the proceedings or whether the documents themselves will prove a fact in issue. The Court may allow documents to be inspected if they are apparently relevant or are on the subject matter of the litigation ... or if they might be used for a legitimate forensic purpose in cross-examination ... ".[203]
140. Also relevant in considering whether a summons should be issued or whether it, or aspects of it, should be set aside is whether compliance with it would be oppressive but we need do no more than mention it in this case. What is important is from our analysis of the Tribunal's powers under ss 37 and 40 is that they are directed to what is relevant in the case of s 37(1)(b), what may be relevant in the case of s 37(2) and to what could possibly, but not necessarily will, throw light on the issues in the case of s 40.
141. It seems to us that the purposes to which these powers are directed should inform our understanding of our power to give directions under s 33(2A)(a). That is the power to require the provision of "further information in relation to the proceeding". The words "in relation to" require a connection or association between two things of such a nature that one can be said to have some bearing on the other. In this case, the information must have some bearing on the proceeding.[204] That is apparent from the passage from the judgment of McHugh, Gummow, Kirby and Hayne JJ in Project Blue Sky Inc v Australian Broadcasting Authority[205] when considering whether a standard "relates to" the Australian content of programmes:
"... No doubt the association or connection must be a relevant one in the sense that it cannot be accidental or so remote that the Standard has no real effect or bearing on the Australian content of programs."[206]
142. This interpretation of "in relation to" does not require a finding that one matter is relevant to the determination of another in order to be relevant to it. We do not think that we should interpret s 33(2A)(a) to require such a finding. Instead, it should be read as requiring no more than that the information sought to have some effect or bearing on the proceeding. When the proceeding involves the review of the merits of the decision, the information directed to be provided must be able to be characterised as having some effect or bearing on one or more of the issues that must be resolved in reaching the correct or preferable decision. Could the information possibly throw light on the issues that must be considered in reviewing the merits of the decision? We do not need to be able to take the further step at that time and decide the weight, if any, that it should be accorded to any documents that might be produced. We do not need to decide whether, in light of the principles underlying the rules of evidence in relation to probity and in light of notions of procedural fairness, regard should be had to any such documents at all. This is not to say that the Tribunal would always make a direction to the full extent of its power. We are simply exploring the limits of our power in this section of our reasons. When the party to whom any direction is given is the decision-maker, we must also bear in mind the extent to which it has already complied with its obligations under s 37. It would be contrary to notions of economy let alone of justice, fairness and speed[207] were we to direct the decision-maker to produce material that it has already produced.
143. The issues that we must decide in this case necessarily require us to consider at the outset whether ATC has contravened the SIS Act and, if VCA, VCC or VCD was a responsible officer of ATC at the time of one or more of those contraventions, the nature or seriousness of those contraventions at that time or those times. If the outcome of the determination of those issues is as APRA contends, it will be relevant to consider whether VCA, VCC and VCD are fit and proper persons to be, among others, responsible officers of a body corporate that is a trustee and how the discretions should be exercised under s 120A of the SIS Act. What would be relevant would be any material that is directly connected with or related to, or is possibly connected with or related to any of the issues we have identified.
144. The material sought on behalf of VCA and VCD is directed to what APRA may or may not be deciding or have decided in its R and E Branch. What the R and E Branch has or may decide is not relevant to the review of the merits of the decision that APRA's delegate has in fact made. What the R and E Branch has or has not investigated is not relevant as such. Whether it would come to a conclusion different from that of the delegate who did make the decision and whether there may or may not be a difference of view within APRA is not relevant to our review of the merits. Whether it decides at some future time, as a result of its investigations, institute a civil proceeding, proceeding for a breach of a civil penalty provision or criminal proceedings has no bearing on our task. We will return to this aspect later in our reasons when considering the submission that the task that we are required to undertake involves an impermissible exercise of the judicial power.
145. Ms McLeod has assured us that APRA has lodged all material that is relevant to the review of the decisions. As we have said, what "is relevant" and what "may be relevant" are two different things but, in this case, we understood her to mean that all material that could possibly be relevant has been lodged. We accept her word given, as it is, by counsel. Quite apart from that consideration, Mr North was only able to point to the investigations as being relevant. In our view, the investigations as such throw no light on the merits of the decisions we must review. We are not engaged in a review of the way in which they were conducted. That is the province of judicial review. We are not concerned with their outcome but only with the material and information that they reveal. Having had regard to the material that has been lodged, we have no reason to think that we do not have everything that they have revealed to date and that is relevant to our review. Mr North was not able to point to anything of substance that had been omitted or to a subject area that could be expected to have been covered in the material already lodged.
Ruling re the order of proceedings: the issues and submissions
146. Mr North submitted that we must not start with the preconceived notion that APRA is correct in its decisions. Instead, we must start by resolving the question whether ATC is in contravention of the SIS Act. In those circumstances, the applicants cannot be asked to go into the witness box to fight a case when neither they nor we know what the contravention is about or the grounds on which they are alleged not to be fit and proper persons within the meaning of s 120A(3) of the SIS Act. Fairness requires that APRA's witnesses be asked to give evidence first. If we do not reach the required degree of satisfaction, then there is no need to go any further and the hearing can be very short.
147. Relying on the reasons in Re Spoolder and Secretary, Department of Social Security[208], Ms McLeod submitted that it was appropriate that VCA, VCC and VCD should present their cases first.
Ruling re the order of proceedings: our ruling and reasons
148. We ruled that the applicants should present their cases first followed by APRA and we now set out our reasons for that ruling. In doing so, we have first looked to the courts in order to determine principles that have assisted them to determine such questions. This is consistent with the ruling that has already been given at an earlier stage of these proceedings in relation to the order in which the parties should lodge their Statements of Facts and Contentions[209] but we have considered the matter afresh from first principles rather than feeling bound to reach a conclusion consistent with the earlier ruling.
149. In doing that, we begin with what is the usual procedure adopted in the Tribunal. This was explained in Re Spoolder and Secretary, Department of Social Security:[210]
" The usual procedure is that the applicant, after outlining its case will present any evidence, written and oral, in support of that case. The respondent may cross-examine any witnesses. The respondent will then outline its case and present any evidence. The applicant may cross-examine the respondent's witnesses. The applicant may lead evidence in rebuttal to answer points made in the respondent's case in certain instances. At the conclusion of the evidence, each party then has an opportunity to make submissions."[211]
150. This is a procedure that reflects that adopted in the courts in civil cases. Whether the person commencing the proceeding is described as a plaintiff, applicant, claimant or by some other name, that person generally carries the burden of proving that he or she is entitled to the relief claimed. The same is true in criminal proceedings when the person prosecuting carries the burden of proof presents his or her case before the defendant is invited to do so. It may be that the defendant in a criminal proceeding chooses to call no evidence just as a respondent in a civil proceeding may not. Each may decide to rely on what they hope will be the inability of the person claiming relief or prosecuting the charges to discharge the burden of proof he or she carries.
151. When the nature of that burden is understood, it is understandable that the person commencing the proceeding in a court must generally produce all of his or her case before the person defending the proceeding, however described, present his or her case. If he or she does not discharge the burden of proof, he or she may be met with a submission to the court that the defendant or respondent has no case to answer. It may be that the judge decides that the plaintiff has not discharged the burden of proof and does not call upon the defendant or respondent.
152. The nature of such a burden of proof was described by Barwick CJ, Kitto and Taylor JJ in Purkess v Crittenden[212] in the context of an appeal against the quantum of damages awarded to Ms Purkess for personal injuries. The trial judge had assessed damages on the basis of her condition being the result of the accident and not of any pre-existing condition. In doing so, he had referred to Watts v Rake,[213] which:
"... it was said, contains dicta suggesting that where a plaintiff asserts that he has become permanently disabled as a result of the negligent act on the part of the defendant and the defendant sets up a case that by reason of a pre-existing condition the plaintiff would in any event have become permanently disabled within an ascertainable period, the onus of proof on this aspect of the case rests upon the defendant."[214]
153. Their Honours rejected any such suggestion saying that:
"... The expression 'burden' or 'onus' of proof, 'As applied to judicial proceedings ... has two distinct and frequently confused meanings: (1) the burden of proof as a matter of law and pleading - the burden, as it has been called, of establishing a case, whether by preponderance of evidence or beyond reasonable doubt; and (2) the burden of proof in the sense of introducing evidence' (Phipson on Evidence, 10th ed. (1963) par. 92). This is a proposition which has been frequently acknowledged .... The position is, we think, correctly stated by the learned author of the work to which we have referred when he says: 'the burden of proof in the first sense is always stable, the burden of proof in the second sense may shift constantly, according as one scale of evidence or the other preponderates' (ibid. par. 95) and it was with the meaning of this expression in its secondary sense that the case mentioned was concerned. ..."[215]
154. In practical terms, that meant that the case would:
"... proceed upon the basis that where a plaintiff has, by direct or circumstantial evidence, made out a prima facie case that incapacity has resulted from the defendant's negligence, the onus of adducing evidence that his incapacity is wholly or partly the result of some pre-existing condition or that incapacity, either total or partial, would, in any event, have resulted from a pre-existing condition, rests upon the defendant. In other words, in the absence of such evidence the plaintiff, if his evidence be accepted, will be entitled to succeed on the issues of damages and no issue will arise as to the existence of any pre-existing abnormality or its prospective results, or as to the relationship of any such abnormality to the disabilities of which he complains at the trial. It was, we think, with the character and quality of the evidence required to displace a plaintiff's prima facie case that Watts v Rake ... was essentially concerned. ..."[216]
155. Usually it is the case in the Tribunal that neither party bears a burden of proof. In a limited number of cases in the Tribunal, one or other of the parties carries a burden of proof. During the course of the hearing, Mr North could be understood as suggesting that APRA carries such a burden. We do not agree and have expanded upon this below. For the moment, we will refer to examples in which the decision-maker does carry a burden. One is found in s 61(1) of the Freedom of Information Act 1982 when it provides that the agency or Minister to which the request for access to documents was made "has the onus of establishing that a decision given in respect of the request was justified or that the Tribunal should give a decision adverse to the applicant." When hearing an application for review of such a decision under the FOI Act, the decision-maker always presents the case in support of the decision before the person seeking its review does so.
156. The same is true when review is sought of an assessment made by the Commissioner of Taxation under, for example, the Income Tax Assessment Act 1936. Section 190(b) of that legislation provides that "the burden of proving that the assessment is excessive shall lie upon the taxpayer." In Federal Commissioner for Taxation v Dalco,[217] Brennan J said that:
" The manner in which a taxpayer can discharge the burden varies with the circumstances. If the Commissioner and a taxpayer agree to confine an appeal to a specific point of law or fact on which the amount of the assessment depends, it will suffice for the taxpayer to show that he is entitled to succeed on that point. Absent such confining of the issues for determination, the Commissioner is entitled to rely upon any deficiency in the proof of the excessiveness of the amount assessed to uphold the assessment, though the taxpayer is limited to the grounds of his objection. ..."[218]
157. His Honour was speaking of the taxpayer's appeal to the Supreme Court of New South Wales but the principle is no less applicable to this Tribunal. Nor is the comment that he made about the variations to the normal pattern of the presentation of the Commissioner's case on the basis of the exigencies of litigation. He said:
" Although the Commissioner is entitled to rely on any deficiency in proof of the excessiveness of the amount assessed, the exigencies of litigation may justify on occasions an order that the Commissioner furnish particulars of the basis on which he proposes to support an assessment: Bailey v FCT [1977] HCA 11; (1977) 136 CLR 214; 13 ALR 41; 7 ATR 251. In that case, the assessment was based on s 260. Although the Commissioner was ordered to furnish particulars of the application of s 260 on which he proposed to support the assessment, Aickin J (with whom the other justices agreed) observed (CLR at 228) that if, in the course of evidence, facts emerged which were not previously known to the Commissioner and which suggested a different or additional application of s 260 from the application of which particulars had been given, the Commissioner would be permitted to amend the particulars."[219]
158. In what we would describe as the "usual case", neither party carries a burden of proof. This is apparent from the opening words of s 43(1) of the AAT Act that "For the purpose of reviewing a decision, the Tribunal may exercise all the powers and discretions that are conferred by any relevant enactment on the person who made the decision ...". The task of the decision-maker is described in a passage from the judgment of Jenkinson J in McDonald v Director-General of Social Security[220] in the context of an appeal regarding Ms McDonald's entitlement or otherwise to an Invalid Pension:
"... The Director-General is not a party to claims for pensions under Part III of the Act. Under that Part, persons who come within specified criteria are 'qualified to receive' an age pension, an invalid pension or a wife's pension respectively; ... A person makes a claim for a pension and that claim is determined by the Director-General or his delegate. The Director-General, or his delegate, determines a claim on all the relevant material in his possession. Parties do not appear before him. There are no adversary procedures. In one sense it is true to say that a claimant has an onus of proof, but the use of that expression obscures the true nature of the duty imposed on the Director-General, or his delegate, to determine the matter. A pension is paid only so long as the pensioner is qualified to receive the pension. The rate of pension may vary depending upon what facts are known by the Director-General or his delegate. If a change in circumstances occurs, it is unreal to suggest that the Director-General or his delegate, has an onus of proof, whether evidentiary or not, to be satisfied before varying a pension entitlement. The ultimate question is whether the person is qualified to receive the pension and, if so, at what rate. Those questions must be decided after a consideration of all the material before the Director-General, or his delegate, when the decisions are made. The question of whether a pensioner is 'permanently incapacitated for work' has to be decided in accordance with the opinions expressed above."[221]
159. In referring to the task of the Tribunal in the same case, Woodward J expressed the same principles underpinning its approach.[222] The Tribunal must reach a proper interpretation of the legislation and act on the material before it in reaching a decision. To distinguish its role from that of the courts, it is said that:
"... it must always be remembered that its role is fundamentally administrative. Its task is to inquire. By way of contrast, the task of a court of law is, in general, to decide which of two opposed cases is to be preferred. ...".[223]
160. We agree with Mr North that there is no general presumption that a decision-maker's decisions are correct. As Woodward J noted in McDonald v Director-General of Social Security:
"... The AAT itself, in a series of cases beginning with Re Ladybird Children's Wear Pty Ltd (1976) 1 ALD 1 has taken the view that there is no presumption that the administrator's decision is correct. This is clearly the right approach to the matter."[224]
161. We would go further and say that, even in those few instances in which the decision-maker carries a burden of proof, not only is there no presumption, but the decision-maker may contend that a decision different altogether from that being reviewed should be determined to be the correct or preferable decision. That follows from the Tribunal's duty to reach the decision that is both correct in fact and law as well as the preferable decision should the decision-making process entail the exercise of a discretion. The fact that the decision has been made is vital to enable an application to be made to the Tribunal and, unless stayed, affects the rights and liabilities of the person subject to that decision. To the Tribunal, however, its significance is generally[225] limited to the fact that it has been made and so has enabled the application for review to be lodged.
162. In both the courts and this Tribunal, the imposition of a burden of proof on one party or the other necessitates that party's presenting its case first. In the courts that will be the applicant or plaintiff. The fact that neither party carries a burden of proof in the Tribunal is a difference between it and the courts. It is not, though, a reason to require the decision-maker to the proceedings present its case before the applicant. The fact that the Tribunal may use its power to require one or other of the parties to produce further material or even, provided it observes the rules of procedural fairness, gather its own material, is a further difference between it and the courts. Again, that difference is not a reason to require a decision-maker to present its case before the applicant. The differences between the two do not resolve which party should present its case first.
163. What does resolve that issue is the fact that merits review depends on having all of the relevant and probative material before it so that it can be assessed against the applicable law and the correct or preferable decision determined. Adversarial proceedings in the courts do not depend upon having all of the relevant and probative material. They decide matters upon that which the parties choose to present to it. The consequences of this difference, between the courts and the Tribunal, is illustrated by this passage in the previous decision relating to these parties:
"107. There are substantial differences between those in the Tribunal and those in the Federal Court in which a regulatory body, such as the successor to the TPC the Australian Competition and Consumer Commission (ACCC), seeks the imposition of pecuniary penalties under legislation such as the TP Act against a respondent. The ACCC carries a burden of proof in adversarial proceedings. The judgment of the Full Court of the Federal Court in Australian Competition and Consumer Commission v FFE Building Services_[226]_ illustrates, in brief, the factors that influence a court:
' By requiring an individual respondent, prior to the closure of an applicant's case, to file statements of evidence proposed to be given by the witnesses to be called by that respondent, such a respondent would be exposed to the risk that indirect or derivative evidence, being evidence obtained by using the material disclosed in the statement as a basis of investigation, could be tendered against the respondent. The provisional disclosure of information may set in train a process that may lead to the imposition of a penalty or may lead to the discovery of real evidence in support of the imposition of a penalty: Reid v Howard[[227]] at 6.'[228]
108. The concern expressed in this passage is inapplicable to a merits review of an administrative decision imposing a penalty in the exercise of a power that is given as part of a regulatory scheme intended to ensure the prudent management of superannuation entities and so protect the public. Concern about limiting relevant enquiries and so the information that is made available to the Tribunal is inconsistent with its role even though that is a legitimate concern in a court considering the imposition of a penalty in an adversarial context."[229]
164. What we regard as the normal course of events is based on our view that, whether it is a case of a person claiming a pension or, as in this case, of a person's being the subject of decisions to disqualify them from carrying out certain activities, the person whose personal situation, be it health or age or responsibilities, or whose activities are at the heart of the decision are those of the person. They are not those of the decision-maker. Certainly, in a case concerning worker's compensation, for example, the decision-maker will generally have gathered together its own material be it related to medical issues, the facts relating to the accident or the activities of the worker. So too will the worker but, in most cases, the evidence that will be central to the resolution of the case will radiate from the evidence given by the injured worker. It will, for example, be that evidence that will have been put to the medical witnesses appearing both for the worker and the decision-maker. Pragmatic considerations require that the applicant in such a matter present his or her evidence to lay the ground both for his or her case and that of the decision-maker. Unless that is done, there are difficulties in exploring the medical evidence.
165. Similar considerations arise in this case. All of the issues that have to be determined turn on events and understandings that are peculiarly within the knowledge of, or accessible to, the applicants or of ATC, of which they are either a director or a Chief Executive Officer. It is their knowledge that is central to all of the other evidence. All of the other evidence, whether called by them or by APRA, turns to a large extent on matters that are either within the applicants' knowledge or accessible to them. It makes sense that they should give evidence first. Logic then dictates that they should call any other witnesses they wish to support their case before APRA calls its witnesses. It is imperative that all relevant material is placed before the Tribunal and not simply that which advances one party's cause or another's.
166. In this context of the completeness of the relevant material, we turn to the fact that the investigator has not completed the investigation of which it gave notice to ASF under s 263. This was of great concern to Mr North but we do not share his concern. The notice issued under s 265 on 15 September 2003 advised ATC that APRA proposed "...to conduct an investigation of the whole of the affairs of the Fund" since it appeared to it "...that a contravention of the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act 1993 or regulations may have occurred or be occurring in relation to ..." ASF.[230]
167. APRA is entitled to appoint a member of its staff to be an inspector[231] but it may also exercise the powers of an inspector.[232] Under ss 268 to 275, an investigator has wide powers to gather information in various forms including written documents and records. The investigator may also take oral evidence from relevant persons, who include a responsible officer of a body corporate that is a trustee or investment manager of a superannuation entity,[233] as well as from other persons whom the inspector, on reasonable grounds, believes or suspects can give information relevant to the investigation of the superannuation entity. The oral evidence is a taken under an examination conducted in accordance with Division 5 of Part 25 of the SIS Act. APRA must give the examinee a copy of the record of the examination.[234] On completion or termination of an investigation, the inspector must prepare a report setting out the findings about the matters investigated, the evidence on which the findings were based and such other matters arising out of the investigation as the investigator thinks fit.[235]
168. There have been examinations of VCA, VCC and VCD as well as of others such as VS. Documents and records have been produced as required. In the hearings of the applications for review of APRA's decisions, reference has been made to some of the material that has been gathered as part of the investigation. There is nothing in the SIS Act to suggest that the results of the investigations are necessarily quarantined from APRA's other activities. Indeed, subject to certain qualifications, Division 8 of Part 25 makes it clear that the evidence obtained at the examinations and the records obtained during the investigation can be used in other proceedings.
169. Documents and records obtained by the investigator are not subject to the same protections as the examinations. They are not exempt from the provisions of s 37 of the AAT Act and must, if relevant to the review of the decision, be included in the T documents. In view of Ms McLeod's statement that all relevant material had been included in the T documents, we accept that this includes all material gathered on the investigation.
170. The examinations are different and they were considered in a previous decision involving the parties engaged in this proceeding. It was decided in each of the applications to:
"1. direct that in the proceedings relating to each of the applicants, the respondent is required to lodge as part of the documents lodged under s 37(1) of the AAT Act:
(a) the record of those parts of the examination of that applicant that:
(i) do not meet both of the criteria specified in s 287(2) of the SIS Act; and
(ii) that are relevant to the review of the reviewable decision; and
(b) the records of those parts of the examinations of the other two applicants that are relevant to the review of the reviewable decision;..."[236]
Transcripts of the examinations have been lodged as required.
171. Our view is based on the assumption that the normal processes have occurred in the Tribunal as indeed they have. It could not be said that VCA, VCC and VCD did not have sufficient knowledge of APRA's contentions or that they could be disadvantaged by being required to present their cases first. They began with APRA's statement of reasons made in accordance with s 37(1)(a) of the AAT Act and dealt with in previous reasons.[237] Knowing its reasons and knowing the issues raised by the relevant provisions of the SIS Act, VCA, VCC and VCD could prepare their Statements of Facts and Contentions. APRA prepared its own and the issues are clear. All parties have lodged all of the relevant material and set out their contentions in Statements of Facts and Contentions. Those processes are intended to ensure that they have all had an opportunity to examine all of the relevant material and arguments before the hearing. It often happens that other material will appear during the hearing or other arguments come to mind during the hearing. They can be addressed by giving either or both parties an opportunity to address it or them. As they do the order of presentation will become a little untidy to the outside observer but that does not upset what should be the normal course of events. The order may also be varied to suit the needs of witnesses or scheduling difficulties and is generally changed by consent. Again, such considerations do not provide any reason to change the principles determining the order in which the parties should present their cases.
172. For these reasons, we decided that VCA and VCD as well as Mr Santamaria's client, VCC, should present their cases before APRA was called upon to do so.
Ruling re legal professional privilege: the issue and the submissions
173. The issue of legal professional privilege arose in the context of Mr Santamaria's cross-examination of an accountant whom we will call Mr Austin. A conversation that he had with Mr Efthymiou at the premises of ATC in May 2003 was touched upon and Mr Santamaria called for the notes of that conversation.[238] It also arose in the context of the notes made by the APRA officers, Ms Limperis and Mr Jarosz, of their discussions with Mr Austin preceding his signing a statement that was admitted in evidence.[239] Those discussions extended over some six hours and Mr Santamaria called for a copy of the notes.[240] Mr Austin gave evidence to the effect that there had been more than one draft of his statement. Mr Santamaria also required the production of the drafts preceding the final version. Consideration of the issues was deferred until a later day to enable the parties to prepare their submissions.[241]
174. In making her submissions, Ms McLeod said that there was an overriding matter to be considered. That is whether the notes or the drafts are of any relevance or assistance in deciding the issues. If they are, she claimed that, except to the extent that it had already been waived, all were protected from disclosure by legal professional privilege. Ms McLeod supported her submission by reference to the principles stated in Waterford v Commonwealth of Australia[242] (Waterford) and AWB Ltd v Cole[243] (AWB). The judgment of Bergin J in Ingot Capital Investments v Macquarie Equity Capital Markets[244] (Ingot) to the effect that there was no proper basis on which legal professional privilege applies in the Tribunal, stands apart from the principles established in Waterford and in AWB and they bind us. Ms McLeod acknowledged that, up until the time of the ruling, there had been no waiver of the privilege but that she had made no objection to questions to that time regarding the subject of the notes and the contents of the drafts.
175. On behalf of VCA and VCD, Mr Broadfoot submitted that the preponderance of authority favours a finding that legal professional privilege does not apply. He relied on Ingot but did not consider it necessary to develop his argument in view of his primary submissions. They were that the privilege does not attach to the notes themselves and that, even if it does apply, it has been waived. He referred to the judgment of Kenny J in Commissioner of Taxation(Cth) v Pratt Holdings Pty Ltd[245] and of Gleeson CJ, Gaudron, Gummow and Callinan JJ in Mann v Carnell[246] regarding waiver. In so far as Mr Austin's own file was concerned and the documents it contained, Mr Broadfoot found it difficult to see how that could record communications between the client and the witness. No affidavit evidence has been proffered by APRA to support any argument that it does.
176. As to relevance, Mr Broadfoot submitted that the notes were relevant in testing Mr Austin's recollection of the communications he had with officers of APRA. He had been questioned on those communications without objection and it was only fair that his recollection be tested. In so far as any of the notes concerned his statement and whether it was prepared by a process of persuasion or putting words into his mouth, they were also relevant.
177. On behalf of VCC, Mr Santamaria supported the submissions made on behalf of VCA and VCD. Mr Austin is a person who wanted to assist the Tribunal and so volunteered that he had emphasised certain matters to the APRA officers. He had called for the notes of the conversations because they provide:
"... a measuring stick, as it were, to test the extent to which his own affidavit properly reflects his own memory and understanding of the events as they occurred on the one hand or whether, in fact, his affidavit, in fact, is the result of some prompting by APRA officers who sought to squeeze the orange to get as much juice out of it, doing the best they could for their client, to assist their case in the knowledge that the affidavit was to be filed in order to resist the applicant's application to set aside the disqualification. I'll be corrected if I'm wrong but I did understand the evidence to be that this discussion took place after the disqualification decisions were made."[247]
178. Acting as a model litigant, Ms McLeod produced the drafts of Mr Austin's affidavits to the Tribunal and the bar table. Mr Austin had produced them in the first instance to complete the picture and, as a matter of fairness, the notes should be produced.
Ruling re legal professional privilege: a brief outline of the general principles
179. Legal professional privilege is a rule of substantive law and so is to be distinguished from rules of evidence that do not bind the Tribunal.[248] The rule has been stated in various ways but, however stated, it is clear that there are two limbs to it. With one qualification introduced by the majority in Esso Australia Resources Ltd v Commissioner of Taxation,[249] both were described by McHugh J in Commissioner Australian Federal Police v Propend Finance Ltd[250] when he said:
"The privilege attaches whenever the communication or material is made or recorded for the purpose of confidential use in litigation or the obtaining of confidential legal advice. The protected communication or material may be a telephone conversation between a solicitor and client, a research memo of the legal adviser on an issue pertinent to the client's affairs or, as in the present case, the collection and collation of material and documents for the purpose of litigation or obtaining legal advice. As long as the communication was made or the material recorded for the sole purpose of legal advice or pending litigation and was intended to be confidential, the actual form of the communication or recording is irrelevant."[251]
The qualification is that the purpose need only be the dominant purpose and not the sole purpose.[252]
180. Young J focused on the second of the two limbs in AWB Ltd v Cole:[253]
" A traditional formulation of the second limb of legal professional privilege is that it applies to confidential communications passing between a client, the client's legal adviser and third parties for the dominant purpose of use in or in relation to litigation which is either pending or in contemplation: see FCT v Pratt Holdings[[254]] at 284 [39] per Kenny J. This formulation was referred to, with apparent approval, by Finn J in the Full Court in Pratt Holdings[[255]] at 360 [6]; see also Grant v Downs[[256]] at 677 per Barwick CJ.
The crucial difference between the first and second limbs of the privilege is that the second limb is not limited to communications whose dominant purpose is the giving or obtaining the legal advice. Communications lacking this advice element, such a communications between a solicitor and a prospective expert witness, will attract privilege where they occur in a litigation context ..."...[257]
181. The reason for legal professional privilege was explained by Advocate General Sir Gordon Glynn:
"Whether it is described as the right of the client or the duty of the lawyer, this principle has nothing to do with the protection or privilege of the lawyer. It springs essentially from the basic need of a man in a civilised society to be able to turn to his lawyer for advice and help, and if the proceedings begin, for representation; it springs no less from the advantages to a society which evolves complex law reaching into all the business affairs of persons, real and legal, that they should be able to know what they can do under the law, what is forbidden, where they must tread circumspectly, where they run risks."[258]
It was explained further by Gleeson CJ, Gaudron and Gummow JJ in Esso Australia Resources Ltd v Commissioner of Taxation:[259]
"... The rationale of the privilege has been explained in a number of cases, including Baker v Campbell_,[[260]] and Grant v Downs[[261]] itself. The privilege exists to serve the public interest in the administration of justice by encouraging full and frank disclosure by clients to their lawyers. In Waterford v The Commonwealth, Mason and Wilson JJ explained that legal professional privilege is itself the product of a balancing exercise between competing public interests and that, given the application of the privilege, no further balancing exercise is required. As Deane J expressed it in_ Baker v Campbell_, a person should be entitled to seek and obtain legal advice in the conduct of his or her affairs, and legal assistance in and for the purposes of the conduct of actual or anticipated litigation, without the apprehension of being prejudiced by subsequent disclosure of the communication._"[262]
182. The party claiming legal professional privilege must establish it on the balance of probabilities and may do so:
"... by pointing to the nature of the documents or by evidence describing the circumstances in which they were brought into existence. But it should not be thought that the privilege is necessarily or conclusively established by reference to any verbal formula or ritual. The court has power to examine the documents for itself, a power which has perhaps been exercised too sparingly in the past, springing possibly from a misplaced reluctance to go behind the formal claim of privilege. It should not be forgotten that in many instances the character of the documents the subject of the claim will illuminate the purpose for which they were brought into existence."[263]
183. As a rule of substantive law, it has application beyond legal proceedings.[264] It is not a rule that permits a court or Tribunal to weigh a person's interest in resisting the production of the information or documents either against another's interest in seeing that information or those documents or against a background of the behaviour of the person claiming legal professional privilege. If information or a document is subject to legal professional privilege, a court or Tribunal cannot order its production. The person claiming it may waive the privilege, either intentionally or by implication.[265] As Gibbs CJ said:
"... where there is no intentional waiver the question whether a waiver should be implied depends on whether it would be unfair or misleading to allow a party to refer to or use material and yet assert that that material, or material associated with it, is privileged from production."[266]
184. It is the use that is made of the document by the person who is claiming legal professional privilege and notions of fairness that are relevant in deciding waiver. Except in one limited area, the authorities do not pay any regard to the person's behaviour with regard to the other party in a proceeding or regard to other matters. That limited exception arises in relation to communications in furtherance of a fraud or crime. Where the communications are of that nature, they do not attract legal professional privilege in the first place. It is not a case of legal professional privilege's being waived.[267]
Ruling re legal professional privilege: does it apply in relation to advice sought from and given by a lawyer employed by the government and to communications between a lawyer and third parties?
185. In Waterford v The Commonwealth of Australia,[268] the High Court considered the documents containing advice that had passed between the Attorney-General and the Treasurer and between officers of the Crown Solicitor's Office and the Treasury. There were two categories of communications. The first related to communications passed between officers of the Department or between an officer of the Department and the Treasurer but not in connection with any actual or pending litigation. The second related to communications between them in connection with proceedings in the Tribunal.
186. Although couched in terms of the sole purpose test, the majority comprising Mason, Wilson and Brennan JJ decided that the doctrine of legal professional privilege could apply to communications in the first category provided they met the, at the time, sole purpose test. So too did Deane J and Dawson JJ. They acknowledge that matters of policy and legal advice might have been intermingled in one or more of the communications. That was a matter to be taken into account in deciding the purpose for which the documents concerned were brought into existence but that was a question of fact. "The doctrine of legal professional privilege allows room for questions of fact and degree such as these to fall for decision."[269] Mason, Wilson and Brennan JJ disagreed with Deane and Dawson JJ only as to the way in which the Tribunal had applied the sole purpose test but not with the availability of legal professional privilege.[270]
187. The second category of communications raised the issue whether they had been made between the Treasurer and his legal adviser in connection with legal proceedings as reference was also made to policy. Mason and Wilson JJ said that:
"... If a communication satisfies the description of a document brought into existence for the sole purpose of enabling a professional communication between a client and his legal adviser in connexion with pending or anticipated legal proceedings then in our opinion it follows that it is an exempt document within the meaning of s. 42 of the [Freedom of Information] Act. In such a case it is not the point that the document may contain advice which relates to matters of policy as well as of law. It is the connexion between the document and legal proceedings that establishes its character and thus attracts the privilege. ..."[271]
188. Earlier in their judgment, their Honours had expressly considered whether the privilege could apply to legal advice sought by agencies from their salaried legal officers for the sole purpose of giving legal advice or in connection with anticipated or pending litigation. In doing so, they drew no distinction between legal proceedings in a court and proceedings of an administrative character in the Tribunal. They said:
"... The common law, in the view that we have taken, recognizes that legal professional privilege attaches to confidential, professional communications between government agencies and their salaried legal officers undertaken for the sole purpose of seeking or giving legal advice or in connexion with anticipated or pending litigation. Provided that the sole purpose test enunciated in Grant v Downs is satisfied, there is no warrant to draw an arbitrary line through the functions of government in order to exclude the privilege from those described as of an administrative nature. All the functions of the executive government may be so described. No distinction can be drawn between a decision to grant a pension and a decision whether to defend a claim in tort or contract. The growing complexity of the legal framework within which government must be carried on renders the rationale of the privilege, as expressed in Grant v Downs_, increasingly compelling when applied to decision-makers in the public sector. The wisdom of the centuries is that the existence of the privilege encourages resort to those skilled in the law and that this makes for a better legal system. Government officers need that encouragement, albeit, perhaps, for reasons different to those which might be expected to motivate the citizen._
Then, of course, there is s. 42(1) of the Act. That sub-section reads:
'A document is an exempt document if it is of such a nature that it would be privileged from production in legal proceedings on the ground of legal professional privilege.'
The plain reading of this provision would suggest that Parliament has acknowledged expressly that legal advice tendered in connexion with the process of administrative decision-making will attract the privilege. Furthermore, the nature of the proceedings on an application for review cannot affect the matter. The relevant question is whether the document to which access is sought is an exempt document. If the privilege attaches, it will have the character from the beginning, regardless of whether or not the decision to refuse access is reviewed."[272]
189. The principles underpinning this conclusion are:
"... there is no reason to place legal officers in government employment outside the bounds of legal professional privilege. The proper functioning of the legal system is facilitated by freedom of consultation between the client and the legal adviser. ... To our minds it is clearly in the public interest that those in government who bear the responsibility of making decisions should have free and ready confidential access to their legal advisers. Whether in any particular case the relationship is such as to give rise to the privilege will be a question of fact. It must be a professional relationship which secures to the advice an independent character notwithstanding the employment."[273]
190. Brennan J reached the same conclusion but expressed it not in terms of advice sought in relation to anticipated or pending proceedings in the Tribunal. He expressed it instead in terms of the principles identified by Mason and Wilson JJ regarding the exercise of administrative powers, functions and duties. He said:
" In any event, I should think that the public interest is well and truly served by according legal professional privilege to communications brought into existence by a government department for the purpose of seeking or giving legal advice as to the nature, extent and manner in which the powers, functions and duties of government officers are required to be exercised or performed. If the repository of a power does not know the nature or extent of the power or if he does not appreciate the legal restraints on the manner in which he is required to exercise it, there is a significant risk that a purported exercise of the power will miscarry. The same may be said of the performance of functions and duties. The public interest in minimizing the by encouraging resort to legal advice is greater, perhaps, than the public interest in minimizing the risk that individuals may act without proper appreciation of their legal rights and obligations. In the case of governments no less than in the case of individuals, legal and professional privilege tends to enhance application of the law, and the public has a substantial interest in the maintenance of the rule of law over public administration. Provided the sole purpose for which a document is brought into existence is the seeking or giving of legal advice as to the performance of a statutory power or the performance of a statutory function or duty, there is no reason why it should not be the subject of legal professional privilege."[274]
191. Remembering that the second category of documents under consideration comprised communications in connection with proceedings in the Tribunal, it is clear from the following passage that his Honour considered that, provided it met the other criteria, legal professional privilege applied to advice given in relation to anticipated or pending proceedings in the Tribunal:
" It follows that the documents to which the appellant sought access did not lose their status as exempt documents under s. 42(1) of the Act by reason of the source from which the legal advice was to be sought or by which the advice was given nor by reason of the subject-matter on which the legal advice was to be sought or given. That leaves another, more particular, ground on which the claim for exemption was attacked."[275]
192. Dawson J did not concur on the outcome but did expressly agree that proceedings in the Tribunal come within the doctrine of legal professional privilege. His Honour said:
""The concept of litigation for the purpose of the doctrine of legal professional privilege is, I think, wide enough to embrace the proceedings before the Tribunal which were conducted upon adversary lines and contemplated legal representation. Communications for the purpose of giving and receiving legal advice in relation to those proceedings fell, in my view, within the privilege."[276]
193. Deane J expressed it in this way linking the rationale of the doctrine of legal professional privilege in relation to private individuals with that in relation to public officials:
"... An important part of the rationale of the principle of legal professional privilege is the protection and preservation of the rights, dignity and freedom of the ordinary citizen under the law (cf. Attorney-General (NT) v Maurice ...[277]) and it is not self-evident that those particular objectives will be served by the preservation of the confidentiality of legal professional advice furnished to a department of government. Another aspect of the rationale of the principle of legal professional privilege is, however, that the ready availability of confidential legal advice and of skilled and adequate legal representation is in the public interest in that it promotes both the observance of the law generally and the administration of justice in particular. That aspect of the rationale of the principle applies with as much force to a public official as it does to a private individual ... It is in that context that it is not surprising that the weight of authority, both in this country and elsewhere, supports a conclusion that the principle of legal professional privilege applies in relation to the seeking and giving of professional legal advice within and between the various branches or departments of the Executive Government."[278]
194. In AWB v Cole, Young J considered the rationale of legal professional privilege and whether it should be extended to a commission of enquiry. He referred to the rationale of the second limb of the doctrine and emphasised the need to recognise its origins and the distinctive scope of the second limb when compared with the first:
"... In my view, the authorities establish that the reason why litigation privilege has been recognised as a substantive rule of law and as a fundamental right, is that it operates to secure a fair civil or criminal trial within our adversarial system of justice. The rationale for litigation privilege does not support its extension to a commission of inquiry."[279]
195. Young J also referred to the statement by Dawson J in Waterford, to which I have referred before distinguishing proceedings in the commission of inquiry with which he was concerned:
" In my opinion, it is one thing to extend litigation privilege to adversarial proceedings before the Administrative Appeals Tribunal. The Administrative Appeals Tribunal is vested with statutory authority to determine issues with legally binding consequences. A Royal Commission is not in that position. A Commissioner simply carries out investigations, determines the facts and prepares a report and recommendations. A Commission does not finally determine any rights or obligations.
It must also be recognised that legal advice privilege applies in its full extent to legal work undertaken in connection with the Inquiry. Provided the dominant purpose test is satisfied, legal advice provided in connection with the preparation of evidence for possible use at the Inquiry will attract privilege. In the context of the provision of legal advice and the preparation of evidence for a commission of inquiry, the question must be asked whether any communications, falling within the margin between legal advice privilege which is available, and litigation privilege which historically has not been available, justifies the extension of litigation privilege beyond adversarial court proceedings so as to include a commission of inquiry. The location and retention of witnesses, expert or otherwise, is really an adjunct of adversarial litigation and, in my view, does not warrant such an extension.
Given the applicability of legal advice privilege in the context of a commission of inquiry, I am not persuaded that the broad rationale for legal professional privilege justifies the extension of the litigation limb so as to include a commission of inquiry."[280]
196. Justice Young's judgment cannot be said to have answered the question we have posed in the heading to this section of our reasons. His Honour did not need to decide it and his views must be regarded as obiter dicta but it would seem from his judgment that he clearly accepted that the High Court had determined that proceedings in the Tribunal came within the concept of legal proceedings for the purpose of the application of the doctrine of legal professional privilege.
197. In Ingot Capital Investments Pty Limited & Ors v Macquarie Equity Capital Markets Limited & Ors,[281] Bergin J took a different view of both Waterford and Young J's view of it. Her Honour delivered her judgment in that case some three weeks after that in AWB v Cole and received written submissions in relation to that judgment.[282] She was required to consider a submission that certain documents were protected by litigation privilege under s 119 of the Evidence Act 1995 (NSW) (Evidence Act). In summary, that section provides evidence is not to be adduced if to do so would result in disclosure of a confidential communication between a client or that client's lawyer and another person made, or a confidential document prepared, for the dominant purpose of the client's being provided with professional legal services relating to an actual or anticipated "Australian or overseas proceeding". If they were not protected by s 119, Bergin J had to consider whether communications and documents of that nature were protected from disclosure under the doctrine of legal professional privilege as it is understood at common law.
198. In considering first the doctrine of legal professional privilege as it is understood at common law, her Honour regarded Young J as having accepted the statement made by Dawson J in Waterford "... as correct for the purpose of drawing the distinction between the AAT and the Royal Commission and in doing so identified an attribute of the AAT that was not available to the Royal Commission."[283] She looked to various aspects of the Tribunal's functions and procedures including:
"_... (1) the fact that the AAT proceedings contemplated legal representation (_Waterford _per Dawson J at 101); (2) the fact that the AAT is 'vested with statutory authority to determine issues with legally binding consequences (_AWB _at [161]); and (3) the statement that the AAT proceedings were 'conducted on adversary lines' (_Waterford per Dawson J at 101)."[284]
She considered that none was determinative of whether the second limb of the doctrine, which she described as litigation privilege, extends to the AAT. Each was simply a matter to be taken into account.[285]
199. Section 37(3) of the AAT Act and Ryan J's interpretation of it in APRA v VBN,[286] Bergin J said in Ingot:
"... makes clear that a claim for legal professional privilege is not available to resist the production of documents ordered to be produced pursuant to s 37(2) of the AAT Act. The express exclusion of that common law right or immunity is confined to that aspect of the AAT's powers. It does not affect the existence of the right in relation to other aspects of the AAT's powers. On one view of it, the limit of s 37(3) of the AAT Act and the absence of any other express exclusions, confirms the availability of the common law privilege in relation to review proceedings. However that does not mean that both limbs of the common law privilege are available. It is necessary to analyse the nature of the review 'proceedings' to decide whether litigation privilege is available.'[287]
200. Having regard to passages from the judgments of Northrop J in McDonald v Director-General of Social Security[288] and Brennan J in Bushell v Repatriation Commission,[289] Bergin J considered that their "... observations are at odds with what Dawson J said in Waterford ...".[290] Section 33(1AA) of the AAT Act was of some significance as it requires the decision-maker to use his or her best endeavours to assist the Tribunal. So too was the fact that the Tribunal can inform itself in any manner that it deems fit and that it is not a court and its powers to review decisions do not involve the exercise of the judicial power. Her Honour concluded that:
" For all these reasons I am satisfied that the AAT stands outside what Young J referred to in AWB as the "adversarial system of justice" (at [158]). I am satisfied that the AAT proceedings are not "proceedings" within the meaning of that term in the Act nor is there a proper basis upon which the common law litigation privilege should be extended to them. The dictates of fairness are served by the availability of common law advice privilege and litigation privilege does not apply to the administrative processes and proceedings in the AAT."[291]
201. The judgment of Bergin J in Ingot has placed us in somewhat of a dilemma. It is a judgment of a superior court regarding a provision of a State Act, the Evidence Act, which is in the same terms as the Evidence Act 1995 (Cth). We would normally consider ourselves bound by it even though her attention was not drawn to authorities such as Re Becker and Minister for Immigration and Ethnic Affairs[292] to the effect that:
202. Other than the adversarial qualities normally attributed to legal proceedings, her Honour's attention was not drawn to two other hallmarks of the judicial model. The first is the requirement that their proceedings be conducted in public and in open view. This was a hallmark regarded by Gibbs CJ in Russell v Russell[294] as having:
"... _the virtue that the proceedings of every court are fully exposed to public and professional scrutiny and criticism, without which abuses may flourish undetected. Further, the public administration of justice tends to maintain confidence in the integrity and independence of the courts. The fact that courts of law are held openly and not in secret is an essential aspect of their character. It distinguishes their activities from those of administrative officials, for 'publicity is the authentic hall-mark of judicial as distinct from administrative procedure' (_McPherson v McPherson [1936] AC 177 at p. 200). To require a court invariably to sit in closed court is to alter the nature of the court. ..."[295]
This is a hallmark imposed on the Tribunal by s 35 of the AAT Act and subject only to exceptions and qualifications that are consistent with those applied from time to time in judicial proceedings.
203. The second hallmark to which Bergin J's attention was not drawn was the requirement in s 43(2) of the AAT Act that the Tribunal give reasons. Reasons enable the parties and the public to scrutinise the outcome and the reasons for it to ensure, and be reassured, that the Tribunal has acted appropriately on the evidence and the law both as to process and to substantive rights. Reasons and the rationale for giving them are fundamental concepts in judicial proceedings. This is clear from the judgment of McHugh JA in Soulemezis v Dudley (Holdings) Pty Ltd[296] when he said:
" When the parties submit their dispute to a tribunal for adjudication, they do so on the assumption that the dispute will be decided in accordance with rules. They assume that the adjudicator will decide the dispute according to the rules or principles which govern their conduct and that he will ascertain, so far as he reasonably can, what are the facts of the dispute. To give effect to these assumptions a judicial decision must be a recent decision arrived at by finding the relevant facts and then applying the relevant rules or principles. A decision which is made arbitrarily cannot be a judicial decision; for the hallmark of a judicial decision is the quality of rationalities ... However, without the articulation of reasons, a judicial decision cannot be distinguished from an arbitrary decision. In my opinion the giving or reasons is correctly perceived as a 'necessary incident of the judicial process' because it enables the basis of the decision to be seen and understood both for the instant case and for the future direction of the law."[297]
204. Despite the omissions from the matters that were drawn to Bergin J's attention, we would normally regard ourselves as being bound by it unless we were to find contrary authority or a factor to distinguish this case from that in Ingot. The judgment of Young J in AWB v Cole is not contrary authority for his views were clearly obiter dicta as he did not need to form a view on the application of either limb of legal professional privilege in the Tribunal to reach his decision. Waterford is, on our view, a contrary authority but it has not been interpreted as such by Bergin J. Re Farnaby and Military Rehabilitation and Compensation Commission[298] analyses the issues by reference to the statutory characteristics of review in the Tribunal[299] before expressing an opinion that Waterford requires the conclusion that litigation privilege applies generally in the Tribunal.[300] In doing so, it declines to follow Ingot. The Tribunal in that case summarised its conclusion at the beginning of its reasons when it stated that:
"... litigation privilege does apply in the Administrative Appeals Tribunal, unless there is a clearly expressed abrogation of the privilege in legislation governing the application. We regret that we do not agree with the conclusion or reasoning of Bergin J. Claims for litigation privilege in the Tribunal should be dealt with in accordance with these reasons."[301]
Unfortunately, that statement does not solve our dilemma for even though it is a decision of a Tribunal over which the President, Downes J, has presided, it does not fall within the category of contrary authority. Only courts may declare the law; tribunals must merely attempt to ascertain and follow it.
205. Having considered the authorities, we consider that we are bound by the High Court's judgment in Waterford. On our analysis of it, the issue that it had to decide is on all fours with that concerning us: may the second limb of legal professional privilege, or litigation privilege, be claimed when the actual or anticipated proceedings are not proceedings in a court but in the Tribunal. Although only Dawson J expressly dealt with the point, Mason, Brennan and Wilson JJ necessarily had to accept that it did in order to reach the conclusion that they did. Had they not accepted that proposition, they would have found that the Tribunal had committed an error of law and they did not. In reaching this conclusion, we do not consider that we can be bound by Bergin J's view of Waterford. If we were to do that, we would be upsetting the doctrine of stare decisis[302] by preferring the view of an intermediate appellate court to that of the final appellate court in Australia, the High Court. That cannot be so.
Ruling re legal professional privilege: are the notes subject to legal professional privilege?
206. In the normal course of events, we would require evidence to support a claim for legal professional privilege. We decided that we did not require it in this case as the parties proceeded on the basis that the notes had been prepared by employees of APRA in the course of their discussions with Mr Austin regarding the preparation of his affidavit. That affidavit was being prepared for the purpose of the current proceedings in the Tribunal. As that was the basis of the submissions, we consider that we may accept that the notes were indeed prepared in that context and for that purpose. In light of that and in light of our conclusion regarding Waterford, we consider that those notes can be and are subject to the second limb of the doctrine of legal professional privilege (or litigation privilege) unless that privilege has been waived by APRA. Waiver may be express or implicit but it must be the action of the person in whom the privilege vests. In this case, that is APRA and there is nothing in its actions or behaviour that lead us to find that it has waived its privilege. As we have already said, notions of what would be fair for VCA, VCC and VCD to know about the conversation are not relevant.[303]
Ruling re expert evidence - Dr Nicholson: his qualifications and the brief for his report
207. Dr Gavin John Nicholson is a Senior Lecturer in the School of Accountancy at the Queensland University of Technology. He was awarded his Doctor of Philosophy in Corporate Governance from the University of Queensland in May 2007 and also has a Bachelor of Laws, Bachelor of Economics and Masters of Business Administration (Advanced) from the same University. Dr Nicholson also has a Diploma, Company Directors Course and Advanced Diploma, Company Directors Course from the Australian Institute of Company Directors. He has published widely in the area of directors' responsibilities and issues relating to corporate governance. In addition, he has been the lead consultant on a range of consulting reports prepared for some 20 companies and government or private agencies in relation to various management issues.
208. Dr Nicholson was asked to provide a report answering the following questions:
"1 What if anything can you say about the adequacy or inadequacy from the corporate governance perspective of how VCA and VCD (addressing each separately) discharged their functions as (non-executive) directors of the Board of ... ATC which was the trustee of ... [AFS]?
has or does not have the attributes described by you in your answer to question 3 above? Please explain why you are of the view that you express.
209. In his report dated 1 May 2007, Dr Nicholson wrote that:
"... to draw my conclusions I have drawn inferences and assumptions based on my experience of almost a decade, of working intimately with and studying boards of directors across a range of company types and industries. ..."[305]
Ruling re expert evidence - Dr Nicholson: the issue and the submissions
210. Ms McLeod submitted that we should admit evidence only if we require it. If it is to be admitted on the basis that it is expert evidence, Dr Nicholson must possess the necessary skill in relation to the subject of the particular area of enquiry. On whatever basis it is admitted, regard must be had to the weight to be accorded it.
211. In relation to the first aspect, she submitted the process of decision-making in APRA does not contemplate referral to an expert but requires APRA's delegate to draw upon his or her own expert knowledge in weighing the evidence. That is why the Tribunal does not interfere with APRA's decision without good reason. The Tribunal's task is to examine the transactions for itself and to form its own views about possible breaches of the SIS Act. That requires consideration of issues relating to corporate governance. Whether or not VCA and VCD were entitled to rely on the advice of external experts is ultimately a legal question to be determined by applying the covenants in the SIS Act. An expert in a particular area of domestic law is not entitled to be called as a witness to give expert evidence on that area of the law.
212. Even if expert evidence were relevant, Ms McLeod questioned Dr Nicholson's specialist knowledge as it pertains to the issues in this case. He is not an expert in the field of superannuation business or accounting treatments. His practical experience as a company director is limited. He makes significant qualifications to his report from time to time. She referred, for example, to a passage of his report in which he addressed whether the board should ensure that risks facing the entity have been identified and assessed and that the risks were being properly managed. Although Ms McLeod referred only to the first sentence of the following paragraph, we will reproduce the whole of it:
"While there is a different contention from APRA around this issue ..., my understanding that much of this concern relies on the issue of ... [AC] being the carrying on of a business by ... [ATC], which is beyond my expertise. Thus, in terms of the insurance issue surrounding ... [AC], this does not appear to bear a relationship to the function of the board with respect to its role at ... [ATC] to ensure that risks facing it were well managed."[306]
213. Ms McLeod referred to a second qualification appearing under the general heading "Payment of invoice to ... [AC]" in Dr Nicholson's report. Under the sub-heading of "General opinion on performance of board and directors", Dr Nicholson had written:
"I am not an expert in the field of superannuation business nor accounting treatments, so I can comment generally on the conduct of VCA and VCD from a governance and business perspective. ..."[307]
214. Ms McLeod also submitted that Dr Nicholson's report is argumentative. The danger of admitting expert evidence that is argumentative, she continued, is that the Tribunal will give it greater weight than it should by virtue of Dr Nicholson's qualifications or its character as expert evidence. She referred to two examples. The first comes at the end of a passage under the heading "General opinion on performance of board and directors":
"The main issue arising from the decision to change administrators relates to compliance with APRA requirements. This is the classic compliance-performance tension outlined in smy [sic] response to question one. I can see no reason to doubt the decision to firstly shore up the performance of the organisation and then move to rectify compliance issues at a later date. Of course, it must be remembered that there was no question of a conscious decision of the directors not to comply - in fact they had verbal and written advice from an expert that they would be compliant. I would consider it commercially reasonable to give priority to addressing issues affecting the immediate performance of the organisation."[308]
Ms McLeod submitted that the substance of this passage would be made more appropriately as a submission rather than as expert evidence.
215. The second passage to which Ms McLeod referred is a lengthy passage dealing with the ownership of AC and the decision to pay it $160,000. She characterised it as Dr Nicholson's analysis of the evidence culminating in his view of the appropriateness of their conduct. That is the very task that the Tribunal must undertake.
216. On behalf of VCA and VCD, Mr Broadfoot submitted that we should not, as a matter of law, give deference to the delegate's decision. Ms McLeod's submission, he submitted, amounted to no more than this: APRA relies on the decision of a delegate who has relevant expertise but the Tribunal is not allowed to have the benefit of evidence from experts put forward by the applicants. APRA has, in any event, gone beyond the terms of the decision its delegate made. It relied for the first time in the Tribunal on the ground that they are not fit and proper persons within the meaning of s 120A(3) of the SIS Act. An assessment of what is fit and proper requires the Tribunal first to make an evaluation or a value judgment of what is encompassed in that term and then to make an evaluation of the conduct of the applicants by reference to what it finds to be encompassed.
217. Dr Nicholson's report, Mr Broadfoot submitted, provides insight, as a matter of theory and as a result of his research, into the standards and norms that assist boards to act in the best interests of their stakeholders, be they shareholders in the case of listed public companies or members in the case of trustee boards. By applying those standards, he can venture an expert opinion on whether a particular board is performing well and in accordance with best practice in corporate governance theory or poorly. Dr Nicholson does this by identifying the standards and then assessing the board's performance on the basis of facts he has been asked to assume. Mr Broadfoot was quick to dispel any suggestion that VCA and VCD were putting Dr Nicholson forward as an expert on the law or on the application of the law to the facts; they were not.
218. If Dr Nicholson did appear to deal with the ultimate issue that we must decide, that was not a fatal flaw, Mr Broadfoot submitted. He relied on the judgment of the Full Court of the Federal Court in Arnotts Ltd v Trade Practices Commission.[309] If Dr Nicholson's report is to be understood as expressing opinions on the law in some instances, that was not a basis for rejecting it. He relied on the judgment of Sackville J in Australian Rugby Union Ltd v Hospitality Group Pty Ltd,[310] which referred in turn to the judgment of Lindgren J in All State Life Insurance Co v Australia and New Zealand Banking Group Ltd (No 33).[311] Mr Broadfoot relied also on the judgment of French J in Sampi v Western Australia,[312] which referred to the judgment of Allsop J in Australian Competition and Consumer Commission v Liquorland (Australia) Pty Ltd.[313] In light of these authorities, he submitted that the theory of governance, in which Dr Nicholson is an expert, provides a technique of thinking or an analytical tool or basis for comparison which may inform and assist the Tribunal in its evaluative task. His report should not be criticised for putting an argument as opposed to giving an opinion for its subject matter is not about a technical matter such as the nature of a chemical reaction but is more akin to an analysis from the perspective of a social science. Such an analysis is essentially argumentative but not less attended with intellectual rigour, honesty and a willingness to engage in discourse.
219. Although the report did not address his client's part in the matters, Mr Santamaria submitted that Dr Nicholson's report was not couched in terms of argument and satisfied the rule in Clark v Ryan.[314] It is a useful document because it introduces prudential standards and describes the standards that must be met by a properly functioning board. In doing so, Dr Nicholson provides the norm against which we may assess the conduct of VCA and VCD. In her closing submissions, Ms McLeod described Dr Nicholson's evidence with regard to prudential standards as abstract and unhelpful.
Ruling re expert evidence - Dr Nicholson: an outline of the general principles
220. A disqualification decision of the sort made by APRA in this case is a grave and important matter. Unless its merits are challenged, as the applicants have done, or it is challenged in the courts on judicial review, it is final. It affects the person who is the subject of the decision in any number of ways, not the least of which is in being unable to act as a responsible officer of a body corporate that is a trustee of a superannuation entity. APRA must have made such a decision and it must have been confirmed or varied under s 344(4) of the SIS Act on internal review before an application may be made to the Tribunal for its review.
221. Clearly, APRA's decision is important and plays one of the pivotal roles. It will have been made after serious consideration but, once it has been made, its importance is no greater than this. That is to say, its importance is limited to the fact that it has been made. The consequences and rights that follow arise from the fact of its having been made. If Ms McLeod's submission that the Tribunal does not interfere with APRA's decision without good reason was meant to give the delegate's decision some role beyond that which we have given it, we are unable to accept it. As the Full Court of the Federal Court made clear in Collins v Minister for Immigration and Ethnic Affairs[315] with regard to a Ministerial decision under review by the Tribunal:
"... There is, however, no presumption that the Minister's decision is correct and the Tribunal is neither required nor entitled to place weight, in the ultimate weighing process, upon the fact that the Minister has decided the issue before him, on the material before him, in a particular way. Putting to one side the position where the decision-maker is a person or Tribunal having special expertise where the position may conceivably be different, the actual decision does not, in itself, carry any weight."[316]
222. We have considered whether Ms McLeod was intending us to place APRA's delegate in the position of a decision-maker having special expertise to whom the Full Court referred in this passage. If she was, we would not accept that Parliament has done that in the case of the APRA and its powers under the SIS Act. Certainly, it is to be expected that those to whom APRA delegates its decision-making powers will be persons with appropriate experience and qualifications. It is not to be expected, however, that each one will possess all of the knowledge and expertise necessary to make a decision in every situation. Surely, they will be informing themselves from their day to day experience in the work of APRA and also in their wider reading on relevant subjects if not by formal study. There is nothing in the SIS Act that gives their decisions any weight beyond that to which we have referred. To give them more would be to walk away from our statutory responsibility to review the merits of the decision.
223. As originally conceived, the Tribunal constituted to hear any particular matter would be made up of members with expertise to consider the issues raised by each application. Every effort is made to maintain that policy and it is now embedded in s 23B(f) of the Administrative Appeals Tribunal Act 1975. Where members do have relevant expertise, they may rely on that expertise to frame their questions of witnesses to test that evidence and to raise issues with the parties. Additionally, the members may choose to refer to their own expertise but, should they take that course, they must ensure they disclose that fact to the parties so that parties may lead evidence or address the issues raised. To do otherwise is to leave them vulnerable to an argument that they have not accorded procedural fairness to the parties.[317]
224. Although every effort is made to constitute appropriately, there is nothing in the SIS Act or in the AAT Act that requires that matters arising under the SIS Act be heard by members with particular expertise. Whether possessing relevant expertise or not, those who are constituted must draw upon their own knowledge. That knowledge is often gathered in the same way as it is gathered by delegates of APRA, but to think that is all that we may draw upon could leave us with very lean pickings in some circumstances. Section 33(1)(c) of the AAT Act ensures that some of us have rather more to pick over for it effectively provides that we may draw upon sources of knowledge other than our own when it provides that:
"the Tribunal is not bound by the rules of evidence but may inform itself on any matter in such manner as it thinks appropriate."[318]
225. The fact that the SIS Act has not modified the operation of s 33(1)(c) of the AAT Act suggests to us that it did not intend that we rely on our own knowledge and expertise. An examination of the way the Tribunal goes about its task suggest that also for it has not been modified. The way it goes about its task has its roots in the statement made by Bowen CJ and Deane J in Drake v Minister for Immigration and Ethnic Affairs[319] when they said that the Tribunal's task is to decide:
"... whether the decision which the decision-maker made was the correct or preferable one on the material before him. The question for determination of the Tribunal is whether that decision was the correct or preferable one on the material before the Tribunal."[320]
226. When the Tribunal carries out its function to determine the correct or preferable decision, it does so by first identifying the correct decision or the range of correct decisions. It does that by identifying the relevant law and the issues that must be determined under that law before receiving and examining and then weighing the evidence to make the findings of fact relevant to those issues. That evidence is not limited to the evidence that was considered by the person who made the decision under review.[321] If the Tribunal determines that more than one decision can be regarded as the correct decision, it must exercise its discretion to identify which of the correct decisions is the preferable decision. That discretion is exercised within boundaries that are either expressly stated in the legislation conferring the power to review on the Tribunal or implicitly by reference to that power and the context in which the decision was made and the power must be exercised.
227. There is no room in this process to prefer the decision that is under review and no room for a proposition that the Tribunal does not interfere with APRA's decision without good reason. We refer below to a judgment of Kirby P in Golosky and Anor v Golosky[322] when he spoke of the need for appellate courts to show restraint in disturbing evaluative determinations of primary decision-makers. It must be remembered, however, that his Honour was speaking of appellate courts engaged in judicial review and not of merits review bodies given the task of making the decision and so of exercising discretions again.
228. There is also no room for it when regard is had to the requirement that the Tribunal must act lawfully. It will make an error of law unless "... there is evidence rationally and legally capable of supporting a finding of fact, then the finding of fact does not involve an error of law."[323] The Tribunal's decisions must be based firmly in evidence and the findings of fact must be those that are supported by that evidence and pertinent to the question that is raised by the statutory framework and that must be answered if the decision made in that framework is to be reviewed.
229. Our conclusion is consistent with the rejection by the Australian courts of any doctrine of deference to the decisions of administrative bodies when reviewing those decisions. In so far as the law is concerned, that is clear from the judgment of the majority of the High Court in Corporation of the City of Enfield v Development Assessment Commission.[324] The majority of the High Court considered the doctrine of deference that has developed in the United States of America following a case of Chevron USA Inc v Natural Resources Defense Council Inc.[325] Chevron was a case concerned with competing interpretation of statutory provisions and gave agencies, and not the courts, the dominant role in interpreting legislation.
230. In Corporation of the City of Enfield, the majority of the High Court drew a clear distinction between whether an administrative body acts within its jurisdiction and the merits of administrative action in so far as they do not raise questions of legality. If called upon, the former is a matter for a court to determine. In determining the latter, the court may have regard to the opinion of the administrative body if it thinks it appropriate by reason of, for example, the field in which it operates, the criteria for appointment of its members, the materials on which it acts in exercising its functions and the extent to which its decisions are supported by disclosed processes of reasoning. That does not mean it defers in any way to the decision of the administrative decision-maker and this is clear from the judgment of Kirby J in the later case of NAIS v Minister for Immigration and Multicultural and Indigenous Affairs.[326] Citing Corporation of the City of Enfield, he said:
"... The separation of each of the three branches of government in the United States has produced a doctrine of deference to administrative decision-making that has never been accepted in Australia or other Commonwealth countries. ...
In Australia, at least in respect of officers of the Commonwealth, we embarked in a constitutional direction different from that of deference to administrators. It is one that affords to the courts the jurisdiction and the power to ensure compliance with the law by federal office-holders, including, relevantly, members of the tribunal. This is a distinctive feature of our constitutional arrangements. It is reflected in the provisions of the Judiciary Act. This court should not in any way diminish it."[327]
231. The fact that we may inform ourselves on any matter in such manner as we think fit does not mean that we should do so without setting some boundaries. Section 33(1)(c) provides that we are "not bound by the rules of evidence" but not being bound by them is a very different matter from not being able to have regard to them. We do have regard to them for they often provide clear guidance as to the manner in which the Tribunal should inform itself.[328] That guidance may be important in distinguishing between evidence that may be regarded as carrying sufficient weight to be relied on, and so safe, and that which is not. They have been developed in the civil and criminal courts to assist them in making findings of fact on the basis of logically probative evidence.
232. Does it make any difference to our conclusion that we are sitting as a Tribunal, which is not bound by the rules of evidence, and not as a court, which is bound? Does it make any difference that the members of the Tribunal, constituted in accordance with the principles to which we have referred, may or may not have some relevant expertise? Even if it has expertise, we are of the view that the members of the Tribunal are not in the position of a court appointed assessor whose function is to inform the court. It may use its expertise in the way we have described[329] but a role that focuses in the main on testing the evidence that is presented to the Tribunal and then assessing that evidence in light of the law is a very different role from that of an assessor. The role of an assessor is to inform the court but not then to adopt a different role of decision-maker or one of the decision-makers. The latter is the role played by the members of the Tribunal. That its members, with or without expertise, must weigh the evidence and reach a decision in a way that accords with the judicial model is reason enough to conclude that we should follow the rules of evidence regarding expert evidence.
"... the opinion of witnesses possessing peculiar skill is admissible whenever the subject matter of inquiry is such that inexperienced persons are unlikely to prove capable of forming a correct judgment upon it without such assistance, in other words, when it so far partakes of the nature of a science as to require a course of previous habit, or study, in order to obtain knowledge of it."[332]
234. In more modern times, Gaudron J, quoting from a judgment of King J in R v Bonython,[333] expressed the principles in this way:
"The position at common law is that, if the relevant, expert or opinion evidence is admissible with respect to matters about which ordinary persons are unable 'to form a sound judgment ... without the assistance of [those] possessing special knowledge or experience ... which is sufficiently organised or recognised to be accepted as a reliable body of knowledge or experience'."[334]
235. We adopt the summary made by the Tribunal in VBN and others and APRA[335] regarding the special knowledge or skill required by an expert and the basis on which an expert must formulate his or her evidence:
"260. On some occasions, there may be no question that a witness possesses such special knowledge or skill or, indeed, that there is an area of knowledge in which that special knowledge or skill has been accepted as reliable. On others, there may be a question about one or the other and the issue will have to be tested. Even if there is no question on those matters, there may be questions on issues such as whether the expert's knowledge will assist the court to find the facts in issue. All of these questions presuppose that the party or parties not calling the witness know that the witness is being called on the basis of that witness's special knowledge or skill and not simply as a witness who can attest to the facts in issue. They also presuppose that the witness understands the boundaries of the evidence that an expert witness may give. So, for example, an expert witness may not generally give evidence as to the ultimate issue that a court must decide[336] and should state the assumptions of fact that underpin the opinion given to the court.[337] Parties themselves have been permitted to give expert evidence but only if their evidence meets the standards expected of independent expert witnesses.[338]"[339]
236. We would, however, expand a little on the boundaries that an expert's expert evidence must observe for they assume greater relevance in this case than they did in VBN. The first boundary is that the witness called as an expert must possess what is recognised as a special knowledge or skill before that witness's evidence will be accepted as expert witness. It is a boundary whose limits have broadened considerably over the years and that was apparent even in the 1990s when Bingham LJ said in R v Robb:[340]
"The old-established, academically-based sciences such as medicine, geology or metallurgy, and the established professions such as architecture, quantity surveying or engineering, present no problem. The field will be regarded as one in which expertise may exist and any properly qualified member will be accepted without question as expert. Expert evidence is not, however, limited to these core areas. Expert evidence of finger-prints, hand-writing and accident reconstruction is regularly given. Opinions may be given of the market value of land, ships, pictures or rights. Expert opinions may be given of the quality of commodities, or on the literary, artistic, scientific or other merit of works alleged to be obscene ...
Some of the fields are far removed from anything which could be called a formal scientific discipline. Yet while receiving this evidence the courts would not accept the evidence of an astrologer, a soothsayer, a witch-doctor or an amateur psychologist."[341]
237. What is also apparent is that the "... categories of expert evidence are unlimited ..."[342] and that they are not limited to areas in which a person's special knowledge or skill is derived from scholastic studies. As Thomas JA, with whom McPherson JA and Chesterman J agreed, said in R v Lam:[343]
"There are many fields in which an expert's skill does not derive from scholastic studies. Examples include the practical experience of an Aboriginal tracker ..., a mechanic with much practical experience of engines ... and even the capacity of a heroin addict to identify a substance as heroin ...".[344]
238. In R v Lam, evidence had been given by Mr Tough regarding the game of baccarat. On appeal, Mr Tough's evidence was characterised as opinion evidence and not simply as an aid to the jury.[345] Mr Tough was regarded as an expert in the rules and procedures of the game of baccarat and in the video surveillance of games of baccarat. He had extensive experience in both. The trial judge was found to have incorrectly instructed the jury to act only on the evidence that they could see for themselves in the video tapes of the games. Thomas JA said:
"... In my view a jury could be considerably assisted in interpreting the videotapes of a game with which they were not particularly familiar by evidence from a person familiar with both its basic rules and the subtleties of play. Without assistance of this kind, a layperson would have little chance of knowing from the colour of chips or the size of their pile how much had been bet, or even the markings on the table which designate the object of the bet. Mr Tough was inter alia able to point out how the false shuffles were done ..."[346]
"In determining whether or not there is, or is not, a field of knowledge which requires expert assistance, the judge is to a large extent involved in an exercise of personal judgment, for which authority provides little help: see per Blackburn J in Millirrpum v Nabalco Pty Ltd (1971) 17 FLR 141 at 160."[347]
239. Authority does, however, provide some assistance in isolating the questions that must be asked in exercising that personal judgment. In R v Bonython,[348] King CJ observed that:
"Before admitting the opinion of a witness into evidence as expert testimony, the judge must consider and decide two questions. The first is whether the subject matter of opinion falls within the class of subjects upon which expert testimony is permissible. The first question may be divided into two parts: (a) whether the subject matter of the opinion is such that a person without instruction or experience in the area of knowledge or human experience would be able to form a sound judgment on the matter without the assistance of witnesses possessing special knowledge or experience in the area, and (b) whether the subject matter of the opinion forms part of a body of knowledge or experience which is sufficiently organised or recognised to be accepted as a reliable body of knowledge or experience, a special acquaintance with which by the witness would render his opinion of assistance to the court. The second question is whether the witness has acquired by study or experience sufficient knowledge of the subject to render his opinion of value in resolving the issues the court."[349]
240. The second boundary that requires further exploration is that of whether an expert witness can give evidence as to the ultimate issue that must be decided. That transgresses into the third and that requires a consideration of the extent to which an expert witness must state the assumptions on which the evidence is given.
241. In Arnotts Ltd v Trade Practices Commission,[350] the Full Court of the Federal Court specifically approved passages from the work of Sir Richard Eggleston, Evidence, Proof and Probability[351] regarding four functions of expert witnesses: "generalising from experience, acting as a librarian, acting as a statistician and acting as an advocate."[352] The generalisation engaged in by expert witnesses when expressing an opinion in their field of expertise is based on their experience and calls in aid all their training and professional experience. In doing so, Sir Richard said:
"... It is often said that an expert cannot give an opinion as to the ultimate fact that the court has to decide. This is inaccurate, as experts, especially valuers, often give evidence as to the ultimate fact, and in many cases the question whether that fact exists can be answered only by experts ... What the rule really means is that an expert must not express an opinion if to do so would involve unstated assumptions as to either to either disputed facts or propositions of law. ..."[353]
242. He went on to give examples, as did the Full Court when it concluded that:
"... What does matter - the point emphasised by Sir Richard - is that the assumptions upon which the opinion is based are identified and articulated. Of course, if the assumptions made by the witness turned out to be different to those ultimately found by the Court, the opinion might have little relevance. ..."[354]
243. Although the Full Court in Arnotts contemplated an expert's making assumptions about propositions of law, it is clear from the judgment of French J in Woodside Energy Ltd v Commissioner of Taxation[355] and the cases to which he referred that:
"generally, it is not for an expert to give evidence as to the application of a legislative provision, as opposed to furnishing evidence from the view point of an economist with respect to what factors can or should be taken into account into consideration or ignored."[356]
244. Whether there is sufficient parity between the assumptions and the findings of fact made by the trier of fact is ultimately a question of fact as explained by the High Court in Paric v John Holland (Constructions) Pty Ltd:[357]
" It is trite law that for an expert medical opinion to be of any value the facts upon which it is based must be proved by admissible evidence ... But that does not mean that the facts so proved must correspond with complete precision to the proposition on which the opinion is based. The passages from Wigmore on Evidence cited by Samuels JA in the Court of Appeal ... to the effect that it is a question of fact whether the case supposed is sufficiently like the one under consideration to render the opinion of the expert of any value are in accordance with both principle and common sense.
As Wigmore states ..., 'the failure which justifies rejection must be a failure in some one or more important data, not merely in a trifling respect'. ..."[358]
245. Just how does an expert witness state the assumptions underpinning the expert evidence given to the trier of fact? The simple answer is "clearly" and without giving in to the temptation to take on the role of an advocate addressing the findings of fact that the trier of fact should make and in addressing what facts have and have not been established by the evidence. The Full Court of the Federal Court has specifically rejected an approach that permits an expert witness not to disclose the underlying assumptions in his or her evidence and to review the evidence in this way. They did so on the ground that it would unnecessarily prolong a trial but, more importantly, on the basis of:
"... the difficulty in predicting the 'permutations and combinations necessary to cover all possible findings by the Court'. If an economist were permitted to express opinions upon the effect of the evidence given, without identifying the facts which he or she assumed for the purpose of those opinions, it would be impossible for the Court to know how to apply that evidence. One of the permutations or combinations may have rendered the opinion inapplicable in the expert's eyes but the Court would never know."[359]
246. If evidence given as expert evidence should transgress one or more of these boundaries from time to time, those transgressions do not necessarily render the whole of the evidence inadmissible in a court. That which does not transgress may properly be regarded as admissible.[360]
Ruling re expert evidence - Dr Nicholson: is corporate governance a matter capable of being the subject of expert evidence?
247. The heading raises the issues set out by Gaudron J in HG v The Queen. It requires us to consider whether corporate governance is:
248. In answering this question, we have looked not just to corporate governance as a general subject but also to the questions that we must answer under the SIS Act. In addition to the submission that VCC, VCA and VCD are not fit and proper persons to be a responsible officer of a trustee, investment manager or custodian, APRA relies on the alleged contraventions under the SIS Act. Those contraventions related to five main subject categories. In one sense, it could be said these matters are specific to the operation and management of a superannuation entity, whether managed by a corporation or not. In another sense, they could be said to be simply aspects of matters that are pertinent to the operation and management of a corporation whether or not it is acting as a trustee of a superannuation entity. We refer, for example, to the requirement under s 109 to make investments at arm's length and to s 111 requiring proper accounting records to be kept.
249. When regard is had to matters such as the covenants, which could be thought to relate more specifically to the management of a superannuation entity, it can be seen that they have a foundation in the law of trusts. This was canvassed at length in Re VBN and Australian Prudential and Regulation Authority[361] and we adopt it without repeating it. We concluded in that case that, in the case of the SIS Act itself and:
" ... in light of the explanatory material to which we may have regard, we consider that the SIS Act cannot be regarded as a restatement of the previous law relating to regulated superannuation funds. We have already observed that it changed, modified or complemented some of the existing law... That is consistent with the legislation's stated intention to supervise certain entities engaged in the superannuation industry and with the Second Reading Speech. Supervision suggests something more than merely restating the existing law. We do not need to rely on a suggestion, though, for it is clear from the words of the SIS Act itself, when read with the general law applying to trustees, that it has changed the law in several respects."[362]
250. The reasons for decision in Re VBN and Australian Prudential Regulation Authority also canvassed the covenants themselves. Were they meant to be a restatement of the whole law on trusts in relation to superannuation entities? Again, there was a lengthy consideration of this question in that case and we adopt the whole of it.[363] We will return to the meaning of the covenants below[364] but, we need to touch on some of the issues in coming to our conclusion regarding Dr Nicholson's evidence.
251. We begin by referring to the conclusion in Re VBN and Australian Prudential Regulation Authority that:
"328. For these reasons, we consider that Parliament intended to base the covenants in the SIS Act on those under the general law but to extend their ambit and to do so in an entirely new context. It is a context that is intended to ensure that the covenants are met and not merely that the trustee is able to establish that it exercised its discretion in good faith, upon real and genuine consideration and in accordance with the purposes for which the discretion was given.
329. In deciding whether a trustee has been in contravention, it is not a case of APRA's, or of the Tribunal's, standing in the shoes of the trustee and deciding which decision it would have regarded as the correct or preferable decision as in merits review. Determining whether there has been a contravention is about whether the decision is within the range of decisions that could have been made in compliance with the covenants. Given that many of the decisions of a trustee are discretionary, it will rarely be the case that there will ever be only one decision that does not contravene the covenants. It is more likely that there will be a range. Although expressed in the context of an appellate court's reviewing the discretionary decisions of an executor, the views of Kirby P in Golosky and Anor v Golosky suggest that we should be cautious in undertaking our task:[365]
_'_Unless appellate courts show restraint in disturbing the evaluative determinations of primary decision-makers they will inevitably invite appeals to a different evaluation which, objectively speaking, may be no better than the first. Second opinions in such cases would be bought at the cost of diminishing the finality of litigation in a troublesome area and, sometimes at least, with a burden of costs upon the estate which should not be encouraged.'"[366]
252. Re VBN and Australian Prudential Regulation Authority used ss 52(2)(b) and (c) as examples of the variations between the general law and the requirements of the SIS Act. It was said:
"325. Take s 52(2)(b) as an example. Its wording is not consistent with the way in which the obligation was expressed in authorities such as Speight v Gaunt as explained in In re Whiteley; Whiteley v Learoyd and, more recently, by the High Court in Breen v Williams, Austin v Austin and Fouche v Superannuation Fund Board_. The differences are small but significant. Whereas s 52(2)(b) refers to the care, skill and diligence exercised by an 'ordinary person' dealing with property of another for whom that person felt morally bound to provide, the general law refers to an 'ordinary prudent person of business'[367] who is engaged in a business making '...an investment for the benefit of other people for whom he felt morally bound to provide'. While s 52(2)(b) refers to the duty 'in relation to all matters affecting the entity',[368] the general law refers to it in authorities such as_ Speight v Gaunt as applying in 'managing trust affairs'[369] Whether 'managing trust affairs' extends to the whole gamut of matters that may have an impression on the management of a trust's affairs would be a matter of debate. By providing that the duty extends to all matters affecting the entity, s 52(2)(b) must be incorporating a reference to the management of its business, and so to the management of the trust affairs as part of its business, as well as those matters that affect it as the entity and so as a corporate body. Drummond J made a similar point in Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Parker_:[370]_
' Because the QLSS' business was acting as trustee of the LES Fund with the particular membership that it had and was subject to the statutory covenants, QLSS was bound in conducting its business to conform to the higher standard of care referred to in Wilkinson v Feldworth Financial Services Pty Limited (1999) 17 ACLC 220 at 234; (1998) 29 ACSR 642 at 693 than that of the ordinary prudent business person which commonly applies to trustees. Each of its directors was in their turn bound to ensure that QLSS satisfied this higher standard of care to which it was subject.'[371]
326. A consideration of s 52(2)(c) leads us to the same conclusion. It requires a trustee to ensure that its '... duties and powers are performed and exercised in the best interests of the beneficiaries'. The duty was identified in similar terms by Sir Robert Megarry VC in Cowan v Scargill_[372]_ but in a context in which the court had a very limited basis on which it could intervene. The Court of Appeal in Edge v Pensions Ombudsman picked up Sir Robert Megarry's elaboration of the duty as a duty to act impartially and said that it required no more of a trustee than that he '... exercises the power for the purpose for which it is given, giving proper consideration to the matters which are relevant and excluding from consideration matters which are irrelevant. ...'[373] This expression of the duty differs from that in s 52(2)(c). It requires that the trustee ensure that its duties and powers are performed and exercised in the best interests of the beneficiaries. In doing so, it encompasses, but goes beyond, requiring it to exercise those duties and powers for the purpose for which they are given, giving proper consideration to the matters which are relevant and excluding from consideration matters which are irrelevant."[374]
253. Re VBN and Australian Prudential Regulation Authority concluded that s 52 of the SIS Act did not merely restate the general law:
" That leads us to the further difference between the covenants in s 52 of the SIS Act and those provided in the general law. The cases in which the trustee's duties were developed at general law was that of judicial supervision and so that of administrative law. It was not developed in the context of supervision by a regulatory authority. What Parliament has done is to place standards, that have their genesis in the general law, in s 52(2) and from there into the Trust Deed. It has then made contravention of those standards essential matter of which APRA must be satisfied before it may exercise its regulatory powers under s 120A(2). It is the contravention which is essential and not whether a court would intervene in its supervisory role and set aside a decision of a trustee in the circumstances. The distinction between the two is very real and was highlighted in the passage from the judgment of Hayne J in Esso Australia Ltd v Australian Petroleum Agents' & Distributors' Association_, to which we have referred above. If a court were required to consider whether a trustee contravened its duties, that court would be sitting on 'general appeal from the decisions of the trustee'.[375] The approach taken by the courts does not permit it to consider whether the trustee has contravened its duties unless it has stated its reasons for the way in which it has exercised its discretion. If it has not stated its reasons, they can look only to whether the discretion has been exercised in good faith, upon real and genuine consideration and in accordance with the purposes for which the discretion was given. To adopt the words of Hayne J in_ Esso Australia Ltd v Australian Petroleum Agents' & Distributors' Association_, that approach 'is not inconsistent with the kind of approach taken in administrative law cases.'[376] It is not consistent with the decision by Parliament to require an initial determination to be made as to whether the trustee has contravened a duty._"[377]
255. There are two areas in which knowledge of the general law is relevant in answering the questions we have posed. One is the covenant in s 52(2)(b). It sets standards that must be determined by reference to something other than the subjective views of the applicants, APRA or the Tribunal. Instead, s 52(2)(b) is expressly determined by reference to what another person with a particular attribute of being an ordinary prudent person would do for another for whom he or she felt morally bound. It goes beyond an objective test. The requirements in s 111 to keep accounting records are also matters that may require determination by reference to something other than knowledge possessed by an ordinary person. Some of the requirements are set out in the section itself but whether, for example, accounting records correctly record and explain transactions and the financial position of the entity often requires a greater knowledge.
256. The requirements of ss 29, 52(2)(e), 62 and 109 of the SIS Act are not in the same vein. They are matters that must also be decided objectively but that decision can be reached without the need for expert evidence.
257. That is not to say that expert evidence cannot be received in evidence. Malcolm AJA considered that issue in Heydon and Ors v NRMA Ltd and Ors[378] in the context of considering the limits of the duty of care owed by a lawyer. He canvassed authorities including Boland v Yates Property Corporation Pty Ltd[379] and Waimond Pty Ltd v Byrne[380] in which Kirby P, as he then was, said:
"In default of any evidence as to professional standards or common practice in a situation such as the present, it falls to the court itself to provide its definition of the scope of the duty of care owed by reference to general principles."[381]
258. In Heydon v NRMA Limited,[382]Malcolm AJA noted that, at first instance in Boland v Yates Property Corporation Pty Ltd, Branson J had relied on evidence from expert valuers and from senior counsel experienced in valuation law and practice. On appeal in the High Court, Gleeson CJ, with whom Gaudron and Gummow JJ concurred, noted that Branson J had "... relied upon that evidence, and upon her own opinions and judgment, in reaching her conclusions." [383] In the case he was considering, Malcolm AJA said that no evidence had been given to give content to the standard of care required and so it fell"... to the Court itself to provide that content." His Honour analysed the judgments of the High Court and concluded:
152 In the light of these authorities, I consider that expert evidence would have been both relevant and admissible in the present case, but it remains for the Court to determine what is the appropriate standard of care and whether, in the instant case, the relevant advice was given consistently with or in breach of that standard.
153 The judgment of Branson J and the consideration of it by Gleeson CJ (with whom Gaudron and Gummow JJ agreed in Boland), to which I have referred, assumes both the admissibility and relevance of the evidence to the determination to be made by the Court."[384]
Ruling re expert evidence - Dr Nicholson: do we accept his evidence as expert evidence and, if so, is it relevant?
259. At the hearing, we indicated that we would give our reasons for our ruling when we prepared these reasons and ruled that we proposed to:
"... admit it, there will be the question of weight to be considered and in considering that weight, one of the aspects will be what Dr Nicholson's qualifications more fully explored, and his experience more fully explored are."[385]
260. Having considered the matter further, we would have preferred to have deferred our ruling regarding its admissibility until we had heard from him. As it is, we did reserve our view regarding what weight we would give his evidence and, for reasons that are expressed in terms of admissibility, we would give it no weight in these proceedings. That conclusion is not intended to denigrate Dr Nicholson's expertise in any sense just as we do not intend any denigrate Professor Ramsay's expertise when we consider his report later in these reasons.
261. As a general proposition, we are satisfied that, in so far as this case raises issues relating to corporate governance, those are issues that are matters that are not within the normal areas of knowledge or human experience. They are matters that are determined by reference to the Corporations Act but often also by reference to the particular circumstances. Take, as an example, s 232(4) of the then Corporations
"In the exercise of his or her powers and the discharge of his or her duties, an officer of a corporation must exercise the degree of care and diligence that a reasonable person in a like position in the corporation would exercise in the corporation's circumstances."[386]
This is a standard that has been understood to encompass:
"... an objective standard measured by reference to what a reasonable man of ordinary prudence would do, enhanced where the directorial appointment is based on special skill by an objective standard of skill referable to the circumstances."[387]
It was so understood by Austin J in Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Vines[388] during a detailed analysis of the authorities at the time. Its application in the modern corporate world was the subject of a joint judgment by Clarke and Sheller JJA in Daniels v Anderson,[389] to which reference was made by Austin J before he expressed the conclusion I have just set out. His Honour said, in part:
" Their Honours made some observations about the standard of skill for company directors: at 501-2. After noting that claims by commentators, that the modern public company director should be treated as having acquired a professional status, should be balanced against difficulties deriving from one variety of businesses with which companies may be concerned, and the tradition that non-executive directors may be appointed for perceived commercial advantage, their Honours noted that in Deloitte Haskins and Sells v National Mutual Life Nominees Ltd (1991) 5 NZCLC 67,442-3 ... the New Zealand Court of Appeal rejected the argument that a lower standard of care should be applied to non-executive than to executive directors. They recognised that directors must be allowed to make business judgments in an entrepreneurial spirit, and they are not required to behave like conservative investment trustees. They expressed the opinion that the concept of negligence can be adapted to measure appropriately whether the acts of or omissions of entrepreneurs are negligent.
... In my opinion, however, nothing in their Honours' judgments is inconsistent with the view that there are different standards for directors qua their directorships, on the one hand, and executive directors qua their executive positions on the other. ..."[390]
262. This is both a standard and a context that is very different from a standard such as that found in s 52(2)(b) of the SIS Act or the context of a superannuation entity. The difference in context is highlighted by the following passage from the judgment of Clarke and Sheller JJA in Daniels v Anderson:
"While the duty of a trustee is to exercise a degree of restraint and conservatism in investment judgments, the duty of a director may be to display entrepreneurial flair and accept commercial risks to produce a sufficient return on the capital invested."[391]
The difference in standard is highlighted by the fact that the statutory standard is not formulated by reference to the special skill and knowledge of the individual concerned but by reference to an ordinary person finding him or herself in a position of dealing with the property of another for whom he or she feels morally bound to provide.
263. We have already found that corporate governance is an area that is capable of being the subject of expert evidence. We would also conclude that prudential regulation is also capable of being the subject of expert evidence. It is an area that is the subject of careful regulation and has long been engaged in by trustees if not on the current scale. Like corporate governance, it is an area in which we have no doubt that there is a significant depth of practical experience as well as a significant knowledge of the regulatory provisions.
264. We have no doubt that Dr Nicholson has the necessary knowledge and expertise in the subject of corporate governance. That is the area in which he was asked to write his report. The difficulty that we have is we think the issues that we must decide are not related to the questions that Dr Nicholson was asked to answer in this case. They are directed at how VCA and VCB discharged their functions as directors but the issues relate to prudential management and whether they met the standards that s 52(8) imposes on them personally.
Ruling re expert evidence - Professor Ian Ramsay: do we accept his evidence as expert evidence?
265. On behalf of VCA and VCD, Mr North and Mr Broadfoot submitted that Professor Ian Ramsay's affidavit with his report exhibited to it should not be admitted in evidence. Professor Ramsay is the Harold Ford Professor of Commercial Law at the University of Melbourne. He is also the Director of the Centre for Corporate Law and Securities Regulation. APRA gave him a copy of the Federal Court's Guidelines for Expert Witnesses in Proceedings in the Federal Court dated 11 April 2007 to provide an understanding of the way in which to approach the role of being an expert witness. It also gave him copies of the parties' Statements of Facts and Contentions and sought his opinion in respect of a number of specific matters regarding the conduct of ATC in engaging AC as the new administrator of ASF. Particular reference was made to AC's structure on incorporation, the nature of VCC's shareholding and the funding of the initial expenses in setting up AC. APRA went on to ask whether VCA, VCC and VCD, in their capacities as responsible officers of ATC, properly carried out their functions, discharged their obligations and ensured compliance with, among others, ss 52(2)(b) and (c) of the SIS Act.
266. Professor Ramsay prepared a report dated 25 June 2007. In that report, he set out the questions he had been asked and his qualifications. There can be no doubting that his qualifications are impeccable. He has published extensively on corporate law and on corporate governance issues generally. In fact, we refer to one of his many books and essays in these reasons: Ford's Principles of Corporations Law. He has participated in law reform projects for the Commonwealth and is, or has been, a member of numerous bodies concerned with corporate regulation, governance or associated disciplines.
267. At the beginning of the substantive part of his report, Professor Ramsay gave a summary of the eleven opinions that he had formed. One was to the effect that there had been no breach and another to the effect that he was not qualified to express an opinion. I will set out Professor Ramsay's first summary for it represents the remaining nine and indicative of the approach taken in his report:
"In my opinion, in relation to the process and extent of the due diligence investigation undertaken prior to the decision to appoint ... [AC] as the provider of the administration services to ... [ATC], each of VCA, VCD and VCC, in their capacity as responsible officers of ... [ATC], failed to properly carry out their functions, discharge their obligations and ensure compliance with sections 52(2)(b) and (c) of the SIS Act."[392]
268. Mr North and Mr Broadfoot submitted that there are two reasons for our not having regard to Professor Ramsay's report. First, APRA had expressly asked him to provide an opinion on the application of the law to limited facts in circumstances in which the facts are for the Tribunal to find. Second, the material provided to Professor Ramsay included material such as an affidavit of Mr Efthymiou and a memorandum relating to the administration function of a trustee that had never been made available to the applicants. Furthermore, the report fails to set out the factual assumptions that Professor Ramsay made or the factual matters that he took into account. Mr North and Mr Booth developed these points during oral submissions.
269. In separate submissions on behalf of VCC, Mr Booth developed similar points. He added that Professor Ramsay's report should have been given before Dr Nicholson gave his evidence so that Dr Nicholson could have addressed it. Furthermore, Dr Nicholson had not given evidence on behalf of VCC, who had chosen not to call evidence of corporate governance. Despite that, Professor Ramsay had been asked to address evidence regarding VCC and it would be unfair and too late to allow him to do so. Together with Mr North and Mr Broadfoot, Mr Booth made the point that APRA could use Professor Ramsay's report in developing their submissions which would include submissions both as to law and fact.
270. Ms McLeod began by noting that APRA had approached Professor Ramsay on 18 May 2007 and so as soon as practicable after receiving Dr Nicholson's report on 9 May 2007. That was before there had been any argument about the admissibility of Dr Nicholson's evidence. APRA had then sent him the relevant material. Ms McLeod submitted that we should admit Professor Ramsay's report and reserve questions of the weight we should accord to it as we did at the hearing. She canvassed the issues extensively referring to instances in which expert evidence had been given regarding the law.
271. At the conclusion of the submissions, we ruled that we would not admit Professor Ramsay's report except to the extent that of its Appendix.[393] That Appendix summarised various principles found in reports of the Committee on Financial Aspects of Corporate Governance (Cadbury Committee Report) established by a number of London financial bodies including the Financial Reporting Council and the London Stock Exchange, the booklet entitled Corporate Practices and Conduct prepared by a committee chaired by Henry Bosch AO, the report released by the government in the United Kingdom and entitled Review of the Role and Effectiveness of Non-Executive Directors by Derek Higgs and a report by the United States Conference Board's Commission on Public Trust and Private Enterprise recommending improvements to corporate governance, auditing and accounting practices. Each of the reports addressed issues relating to corporate governance. Issues addressed matters arising from the board structure, board functions, board committees and the role and effectiveness of non-executive directors.
272. Reference is also made in the Appendix to Professor Ramsay's report to the United States Conference Board's Commission on Public Trust and Private Enterprise. This is addressed to similar issues but, adapting Professor Ramsay's description of it, with an eye to establishing an appropriate balance between managing the corporation and providing independent directors on the board with the powers and resources they need to oversight management and its compliance with legal and ethical standards. Finally, Professor Ramsay referred to the OECD Corporate Governance Principles approved by 30 OECD countries and revised in April 2004. They are used in those countries and elsewhere as one of the 12 key standards by the Financial Stability Forum to ensure international financial stability and by the World Bank in its work to improve the corporate governance in emerging markets. In relation to boards, Professor Ramsay summarised them as providing that the "... the corporate governance framework should ensure the strategic guidance of the company, the effective monitoring of management by the board, and the board's accountability to the company and the shareholders. ..."[394]
273. For the reasons that we have given in relation to Dr Nicholson, we do not consider that evidence regarding corporate governance is relevant in this case. As can be seen from the barest summary that we have given of the reports to which Professor Ramsay drew our attention, they are very much directed to the management of the corporation and its internal relationships and the development of procedures and practices to monitor and manage those relationships while achieving the corporate goal in a manner that ensures accountability to both the company and it shareholders. This case is not concerned with the management of those relationships and whether what was done met the prevailing standards of corporate governance in a general sense but with an assessment of whether what was done met the standards prescribed under the SIS Act. When a corporation is also a trustee of a superannuation entity, it is to be hoped that application of the two standards would lead to the same outcome but it is not to the point to compare whether they in fact do. We must assess what was done by reference to the standards set out in the SIS Act and expert evidence regarding corporate governance cannot assist us in this regard.
274. At the hearing, we ruled that the body of Professor Ramsay's report addressed the issues that we must determine. We remain of that view. It seems to us that he has examined the material that he was sent, formed a view as to what happened, considered the standards that are prescribed in the SIS Act and come to a conclusion whether ATC was in contravention of them. This is our task. It is not a task envisaged by cl 2.2 of the Guidelines for Expert Witnesses in Proceedings in the Federal Court. That clause speaks of the expert's clearly and fully stating "All assumptions of fact made by the expert ..." but not in finding facts. There is, in our view, a significant difference between the two and there is a further difference between assumptions of facts and conclusions taking into account findings of fact and determination of the law.
275. Just as we are not bound by the rules of evidence, we are not bound by the Evidence Act 1995 and, in particular, not bound by s 80 of that legislation. That section provides that evidence of an opinion is not inadmissible "only because it is about ... a fact in issue or an ultimate issue ...".[395] Even if we were bound by this provision, we note that Lindgren J, referring to this provision as it appears in s 80(a), concluded in All State Life Insurance Co v Australia & New Zealand Banking Group Ltd (No 6)[396] that:
"... In my view, those words are not apt to refer to expert legal opinion which impinges upon the essential curial function of applying the law, whether domestic or foreign, to facts. ...
I find it convenient at the outset to state some principles of the general law against which, in my view, the effect of par 80(a) is to be determined. It is fundamental that the ascertainment of the law relevant to a matter before a court and its proper application to the facts of the particular case are of the essence of the judicial function and duty. Although those processes are properly the subject of submission, evidence of opinion, whether as to the identification of the relevant law or as to its proper application, is not admissible. The rationale underlying this fundamental principle may be expressed in various closely related ways: to admit such evidence would be to permit abdication of the judicial duty and usurpation of the judicial function; such evidence cannot be allowed to be probative or to rise higher than a submission; such evidence is necessarily irrelevant."[397]
276. We think that this passage from his Honour's reasons encapsulates our reasons for reaching the decision that we have in refusing to admit the body of Professor Ramsay's report.
Ruling re admissibility of passages of affirmation of Mr Austin: the issues, submissions and rulings
277. On behalf of VCC and VCD, Mr Broadfoot objected to passages in the affirmation of Mr Austin. His first objection is indicative of one category of objection. That is an objection to the third sentence in [11] of Mr Austin's affirmation on the basis that it is opinion evidence and Mr Austin was not called as an expert witness:
"At the time I started, I noticed that some of the staff of the Trustee were performing duties for ... [AC]. For example, they were establishing and confirming the accuracy of the database, processing contributions and benefit payments in a test environment. These staff should have been ... [AC] employees. Around ..., a process commenced whereby staff of the Trustee formally became employees of ... [AC]. After this occurred, ... [VCC] was the only remaining employee of the Trustee."[398]
278. Ms McLeod submitted that the rules of evidence provide guidance even though they do not bind the Tribunal. Objections of this sort should more appropriately made at the conclusion of all of the evidence and be framed in terms of the weight that should be accorded to them. Mr Austin is, in any event, entitled to express an opinion on a topic such as this given that he was an employee at various times of both ATC and of AC. Other witnesses such as VS and the applicants themselves have been asked about their opinions concerning compliance issues.
279. We considered that objections of this sort should be ruled on at the conclusion of the hearing. At that time, we would have all of the evidence and the sentence objected to would be able to be ruled upon in its context. As it stands, it could be understood as an opinion that, as a matter of practical administrative common sense, staff doing work for the AC should have been its own staff or in more general terms as an opinion on the propriety of having ATC staff perform work for the AC. It could be regarded as an opinion that has been expressed by Mr Austin but that, in context, is necessary for us to obtain an adequate account or understanding of his perception of the events that were taking place regarding the ATC and the AC. In a federal court in which the Evidence Act 1995 (Cth) applies, evidence to that effect would not be excluded.
280. We can understand that there are occasions when objections of this sort need to be made but we do not think that it is necessary for us to do so in this case. In the circumstances of this case, assessing each of the objections made to Mr Austin's affirmation on that basis is inconsistent with the requirement of s 2A of the AAT Act that the Tribunal must, in "carrying out its functions ... pursue the objective of providing a mechanism of review that is fair, just, economical, informal and quick" They are best dealt with in submissions when our attention can be drawn to the weight they should or should not be accorded.
281. If we were sitting with a jury, different considerations would influence our approach. Quite apart from considerations of admissibility, we would, for example be considering in a criminal proceeding whether we would be required to refuse to admit it on the basis that it has been led by the prosecutor and "... its probative value is outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice to the defendant."[399] That could be the case if it were liable to so influence a jury as to distract it from making its own assessment of the evidence. We would hope that we have our role firmly in mind and would seek to distinguish between another's opinion and the need to reach our own in the form of findings of fact.
282. Mr Broadfoot's second objection related to [22] of Mr Austin's affirmation when he stated that VCC had told him that the sum of $176,000 he found in the bank statements of the AC "was his money".[400] In light of VCC's direct oral evidence that this statement was untrue, matters of credit are in issue. The Tribunal would be better assisted if evidence on that point were led in evidence-in-chief rather than simply tendered in an affirmation or affidavit. It is very easy to say things on paper when the hearing is three months in the future.
283. We agree with Mr Broadfoot that this was a very important issue in this case. It is an issue that was addressed with VCC and that we expected would be examined closely in cross-examination by his counsel and the counsel for VCA and VCD. That would be so regardless of whether Ms McLeod chose to lead oral evidence from him. Mr Austin and his evidence and credit would be under as much scrutiny whether the passage remained in his affirmation or it did not.
284. Paragraph [32] of Mr Austin's affirmation was an example of the passages to which Mr Broadfoot directed his third objection. It reads, in part:
"I have been shown by Tom Jarosz of APRA a copy of a document entitled '... [AC] Large and Unusuals, Testing performed 06.02.2002_' which is undated. The document appears to have been prepared by the auditors as part of the audit of_ ... [AC] that they conducted in 2002. The document contains, amongst other information, the following:
There also appears on the document a handwritten annotation which reads '... [AC] consulting' which I believe is my handwriting. I cannot explain why this amount has been recorded by the auditors in this way but the handwritten note is my explanation.
285. Mr Broadfoot submitted that a passage such as this cannot assist the Tribunal. It is included in a document that has been produced by a third party after receiving a Notice to Produce and the third party has not been called. It was not adequately identified. Having examined the document, to which Mr Austin referred, we are satisfied that it is a document produced by the Trustee to APRA after receiving a Notice to Produce. As we said at the time, we did not allow the objection because there was nothing on its face that appeared prejudicial or unfair to VCC or to any of the applicants. Just where the document fitted into the scheme of things was not clear from its face but each of the parties would have an opportunity to question Mr Austin about it and, if minded to, challenge him as to his evidence about it.
286. The fourth objection made by Mr Broadfoot to Mr Austin's affirmation was directed to [43], which reads:
"Around the time of my arrival at the Trustee and throughout my period of employment with the Trustee and ...[AC], I saw that the Trustee had entered and continued to enter into written agreements with third parties for various services to be provided to ... [AC]. On several occasions, I told both ... [Mr Bisque] and ...[VCC] that ...[AC] should be the contracting party for any services to be provided to it. Some subsequent agreements reflected the correct situation, others continued as before. I believe that this was due in part to representations made to external service providers about who the contracting party was, and in part to soft administrative discipline in correcting the situation."[402]
287. Mr Broadfoot submitted that this was purely an attempt to make a point of prejudice. Mr Austin has deposed in terms that may only be described as so vague as to be meaningless. The agreements, the parties with whom the AC entered the agreements, the services to which they relate and the time of their making are all unidentified. In stating that subsequent agreements reflected the correct position, Mr Austin has suggested that there was something incorrect about the earlier agreements. His opinion as to why the earlier agreements had been done in that way is prejudical.
288. Again, we did not allow the objection. As the paragraph stood, we formed the view that it carried very little weight and so could not be regarded as prejudicial to the applicants. Looking at the matter again, we remain of that view. It should not be struck out on the basis of opinion evidence for it might, after we heard from Mr Austin, gain some weight as evidence of his opinion when that opinion is based on what he saw and observed; and it is necessary to obtain an adequate account or understanding of his perception of what was happening in relation to the ATC and the AC.
Are disqualification decisions an exercise of judicial power: the submissions of VCA and VCD
289. On behalf of VCA and VCD, Mr North submitted that a finding as to the existence of a contravention of the SIS Act by ASF would be the exercise of judicial power. That would particularly be the case where the contraventions amount to criminal offences and where APRA relies on the alleged contraventions to support the imposition of a penalty. Mr North referred us to his opening submissions and he also addressed the issue in his closing submissions. He submitted that it is the function of a court to determine that there has been a contravention of the SIS Act. That is the proper function of a judicial officer. Once such a determination has been made and evidenced by a certificate in terms of s 324, APRA, and so the Tribunal, may exercise its discretion to decide whether or not to disqualify the person who is in contravention. Mr North read the opening words in s 120A(1) that the Regulator may disqualify an individual if satisfied that "the person has contravened this Act ...":
"... in the sense of a contravention as properly understood of a civil contravention, for instance, in section 55, or alternatively a criminal contravention, as in section 29. Contravened, used in this Act, means both things and there are evidentiary provisions which deal with offences, which are under the heading Contraventions and for the proof of civil contraventions, which I'll come to when I go through the Act, for the purposes of civil contraventions, being established in the same way by the same certificates.
So that with respect we would wish you to reflect upon this issue, because the scheme which we propose we respectfully say works, whereas what has been assumed in the past, is this is an administrative function and determination, it's going to be taking into account where you give to the very regulator the power to determine contravention in circumstances where you may find a court later on says, what are you talking about, this was never contravened.'[403]
Are disqualification decisions an exercise of judicial power: the principles
290 What is judicial power? Section 71 of the Commonwealth of Australia Constitution Act (Constitution) provides that it shall be vested in the High Court and in such other federal courts as Parliament creates and in such other courts as it invests with federal jurisdiction. The nature of the judicial power was explored by the High Court in Huddart Parker & Co Pty Ltd v Moorehead.[404] Griffith CJ said:
"...'Judicial power' as used in s 71 must mean the power which every sovereign authority must of necessity have to decide controversies between its subjects or between itself and its subjects, whether the rights relate to life, liberty or property. The exercise of this power does not begin until some tribunal which has power to give a binding and authoritative decision, whether subject to appeal or not, is called upon to take action."[405]
291. In R v Davison,[406] Dixon CJ and McTiernan J said that:
"...the ascertainment of existing rights by the judicial determination of issues of fact or law falls exclusively within judicial power. ..."[407]
Their Honours' reference to "judicial determination" was explained by Mason CJ, Brennan and Toohey JJ in Brandy v Human Rights and Equal Opportunity Commission[408] as meaning "... an authoritative determination by means of the judicial method, that is, an enforceable decision reached by applying the relevant principles of law to the facts as found."[409] They went on to give examples of judicial determination amounting to the exercise of judicial power:
" Thus, it has always been accepted that the punishment of criminal offences and the trial of actions for breach of contract and for wrongs are inalienable exercises of judicial power. ... So, when A alleges that he or she has suffered loss or damage as a result of B's unlawful conduct and a court determines that B is to pay a sum of money to A by way of compensation, here is an exercise of judicial power. The determination involves an exercise of such power not simply because it is made by a court but because the determination is made by reference to the application of principles and standards 'supposed already to exist'. And the determination is binding and authoritative in the sense that there is what has been described as an immediate enforceable liability of B to pay A the sum in question. ..."[410]
292. In Rola Co (Australia) Pty Ltd v Commonwealth,[411] the High Court considered whether a power vested in the Women's Employment Board (WEB) to decide whether females might be employed in certain classes of work and to decide matters such as their conditions of work and rates of pay was an exercise of judicial power. Starke J, who together with Latham CJ and McTiernan JJ formed the majority, said of the judicial power:
" The limits of the legislative, the executive and the judicial powers of the Commonwealth are nowhere defined. A strict division is, as I have said before, impossible, and we find more and more, as a matter of practical government, a mingling of functions ... 'The authorities ... show,' said the Judicial Committee in Shell Co of Australia Ltd v Federal Commissioner of Taxation ...[[412]], 'that there are tribunals with many of the trappings of a court which, nevertheless, are not courts in the strict sense of exercising judicial power.' Some negative propositions were enumerated. Affirmatively, however, it may be said that the character of the act depends upon substance and not upon form. 'The words "judicial power" as used in s. 71 of the Constitution mean the power which every sovereign authority must of necessity have to decide controversies between its subjects, or between itself and its subjects, whether the rights relate to life, liberty or property. ... 'A judicial inquiry investigates, declares, and enforces liabilities as they stand on present or past facts and under laws supposed already to exist. That is its purpose and end' (Prentis v Atlantic Coast Line Co ...[[413]] per Holmes J). But, nevertheless, administrative authorities have been created for the purpose of ascertaining facts, supplementing the courts, and entrusted with power to make at least initial determinations in matters within, and not outside, ordinary judicial power. The Commissioner of Taxation, Boards of Review under the Income Tax Acts, the Commissioner of Patents, the Registrar of Trade Marks, and so forth, are but a few illustrations of such administrative authorities. Consequently it is not an exclusive attribute of judicial power that all determinations of fact in matters affecting public or private rights shall be made by some court in which judicial power has been vested. No one doubts that the ascertainment or determination of facts is part of the judicial process, but that the function does not belong exclusively to the judicial power ... [I]t is a matter for the consideration of the legislative body how and to what extent facts should be submitted to the administrative tribunals in aid of or to supplement judicial power. The true function of judicial power is, as already indicated, to investigate, declare and enforce rights and obligations on present or past facts, by whatever authority such facts are ascertained or determined, and under laws supposed already to exist (Prentis v Atlantic Coast Line Co...[[414]]"[415]
293. Latham CJ, with whose judgment McTiernan J agreed, reached the same conclusion regarding WEB's power to decide dispute questions of fact. His Honour referred also to the binding nature of an award made by WEB. That binding nature does not mean that its decisions involved an exercise of judicial power. Only if the Board was able to take action to enforce that decision would, according to the principles expressed by Griffith CJ in Huddart Parker v Moorhead, all the attributes of judicial power be plainly present.[416]
294. The notion that judicial power includes enforcement or the capacity to give a decision enforceable by execution was referred to by Isaacs J in Federal Commissioner of Taxation v Munro; British Imperial Oil Co Ltd v Federal Commissioner of Taxation.[417] Deane, Dawson, Gaudron and McHugh JJ pointed out in Brandy v Human Rights and Equal Opportunity Commission that "... it is not essential to the exercise of judicial power that the tribunal should be called upon to execute its own decision."[418]
295. When considering a related power to make an industrial award, Latham CJ made the point that:
"... An industrial award lays down rules of conduct for the future. It does not purport to ascertain and enforce existing rights; it is directed to the creation of new rights. ..."[419]
296. The fact that a power creates new rights may be indicative of its not being a judicial power but it is not determinative of the issue. In Precision Data Holdings Ltd v Wills,[420] the High Court said:
" In some situations, the fact that the object of the determination is to bring into existence by that determination a new set of rights and obligations is not an answer to the claim that the function is one which entails the exercise of judicial power ... However, where, as here, the function of making orders creating new rights and obligations is reposed in a tribunal which is not a court and considerations of policy have an important part to play in the determination to be made by the tribunal, there is no acceptable foundation for the contention that the tribunal, in this case the Panel, is entrusted with the exercise of judicial power."[421]
297. This was a passage to which Gleeson CJ referred with approval in Attorney-General of the Commonwealth of Australia v Alinta Limited[422] in concluding that the Takeovers Panel does not exercise judicial power. Not only does the Takeovers Panel create new rights, which are enforced by a court in the exercise of its independent judicial power, but it is required to make its decision taking into account considerations and interests to which the judicial process is ill-adapted. Where Parliament intends the exercise of power to be made upon a consideration of general policy and expediency alien to the judicial method, there is a long history, Gleeson CJ noted, of treating the power as non-judicial.[423] Gummow J counselled the need for caution, however, as the requirement that regard be had to policy is not necessarily determinative of whether a power is not a judicial power. He said:
"... It needs to be emphasised that matters of policy may enter permissibly (and necessarily) into the exercise of judicial power in various ways, as was indicated by Gummow and Crennan JJ in Thomas v Mowbray ...[[424]]. The legislative mandating of consideration by the Panel of matters of policy thus is not necessarily a sufficient indicator of conferral of non-judicial power. Rather, a significant pointer against invalidity of the legislation under consideration here, as with that upheld in Precision Data Holdings Ltd v Wills ..., is the entrusting to the Panel of authority to alter (subject to collateral attack under s 75(v) of the Constitution) the law otherwise applying in the particular case, to create new rights and obligations, and to do so with regard to considerations of policy which are identified only by reference to the subject, scope and purpose of the legislation."[425]
298. It is clear from the substance of Gleeson CJ's judgment that he too took the view that the requirement that the decision-maker have regard to policy did not necessarily characterise the power as a non-judicial exercise of power. Speaking of the place of policy in characterising a power, Gleeson CJ said:
"... The breadth of the concept of policy sometimes creates difficulty in its use as a criterion for distinguishing between legitimate judicial action on the one hand and legislative or executive action on the other. For the purpose of such a distinction, it may be necessary to be more specific as to the nature of the policy involved. It also may be necessary to relate the considerations of wisdom or expediency involved in the formulation of a certain kind of policy to the constraints inherent in the judicial method, including the way in which issues are defined, and the rules of procedure and evidence according to which a court receives the information upon which it is to base its decision."[426]
299. The way in which the judicial power is exercised in order to ascertain existing rights was explained by Kitto J in The Queen v Trade Practices Tribunal; Ex parte Tasmanian Breweries Pty Ltd:[427]
"... Thus a judicial power involves, as a general rule, a decision settling for the future, as between defined persons or classes of persons, a question as to the existence of a right or obligation, so that an exercise of the power creates a new charter by reference to which that question is in future to be decided as between those persons or classes of persons. In other words, the process to be followed must generally be an inquiry concerning the law as it is and the facts as they are, followed by an application of the law as determined to the facts as determined; and the end to be reached must be an act which, so long as it stands, entitles and obliges the persons between whom it intervenes, to observance of the rights and obligations that the application of the law to facts has shown to exist. ...".[428]
300. The way in which policy plays a role in the judicial method was explained by Gleeson CJ in Attorney-General of the Commonwealth of Australia v Alinta Limited:
"...The common law is judge-made, and its development and rationalisation necessarily involve attention to such questions. Furthermore, many of its settled principles, in their application to changing circumstances and social conditions, require judgment about what is wise and expedient. Statutes commonly confer upon judges discretionary powers which raise such matters for decision. ..."[429]
301. Decision-making as an exercise of administrative power may be unsuited to a strict application of the judicial process. Gleeson CJ commented that:
"... The matters to which the Panel may have regard in deciding whether, and in what way, it should exercise its powers, and the information and judgment it brings to bear upon the likely consequences of intervention, understood in the light of the purposes stated in s 602 [of the Corporations Act], are aspects of a decision-making process of an order quite different from that which may be involved where a litigant seeks from a court is asked to penalise a contravention. The constitution of the Panel, the way in which it is intended to go about its business, the way in which it informs itself about matters that arise for its consideration, and the nature of the considerations according to which it acts or declines to act, all point against a conclusion that this is a judicial process."[430]
302. Section 49 of the Trade Practices Act 1965, which the High Court considered in The Queen v Trade Practices Tribunal; Ex parte Tasmanian Breweries Pty Ltd, provided that, if the Tribunal is satisfied that an examinable agreement or practice existed, it shall make a determination whether that agreement or practice was contrary to the public interest. Kitto J observed that:
"... The determination does not resolve any question as between opposed interests. It merely records whether the Tribunal has satisfied itself, first, that an agreement or practice has the characteristics which the Act comprehends in the word 'examinable', and, secondly, that the restriction or practice, if examinable, is contrary to the public interest. Such determinations as these have quite often to be made in the exercise of administrative power. The fact that an official is given a power conditionally upon being satisfied of a particular state of facts - and so authorized to determine un-examinably 'the jurisdictional fact' upon which his power depends ... - is no indication that in deciding whether he is so satisfied he is exercising judicial power. ... We are here concerned with a power which depends upon nothing but the Tribunal's own satisfaction that certain conditions exist. The determination of the Tribunal that it is so satisfied - the making of its 'findings' (as s. 49 calls them) - ... does not conclude for all purposes any question as to which the Tribunal declares itself satisfied. It answers only the question whether the Tribunal is in fact so satisfied - and does not answer even that question conclusively, for if the Tribunal were to record that it was so satisfied when in fact it was not, the next step, which the Tribunal is authorized to take only if it is so satisfied, could be set aside by this Court in exercise of the jurisdictions which s. 102(2) acknowledges. ..."[431]
303. We have already referred to the general acceptance of the principle that punishment of criminal offences entails the exercise of the judicial power. That raises the question whether certain actions that might be described more as disciplinary or as directed to maintaining appropriate standards in designated professions amount to the exercise of judicial power. This was a question that arose in more recent times when the High Court has considered whether the Companies Auditors and Liquidators Disciplinary Board (CALDB), continued in existence by s 261 of the Australian Securities and Investments Commission Act 2001 (ASIC Act), exercised judicial power. Provisions of the Corporations Act 2001 (Corporations Act) prohibit a person from acting as a liquidator or as an administrator of a company unless registered. The CALDB may suspend or cancel that registration and its decisions are reviewable by the Tribunal. It lacks power to enforce its decisions and it does not settle disputes about existing rights and liabilities. The CALDB did not determine whether the appellants had committed any offence under the Corporations Act or otherwise. It has a disciplinary function but the majority, Gleeson CJ, Gummow, Hayne, Callinan, Heydon and Crennan JJ, said in Albarran v Members of the Companies Auditors and Liquidators Disciplinary Board:[432]
"... In White [R v White; Ex parte Byrnes [1963] HCA 58; (1963) 109 CLR 665] this Court dealt with the disciplinary structure created by the Public Service Act 1922 (Cth) and emphasised the distinction between disciplinary proceedings and criminal proceedings; in the former category no offence was specified and no declaration of guilt made. Subsequently, when delivering the advice of the Judicial Committee in Kariapper v Wijesinha [[1968] AC 717 at 737], Sir Douglas Menzies remarked:
' Speaking generally, however, their Lordships would observe that it is not readily to be assumed that disciplinary action, however much it may hurt the individual concerned, is personal and retributive rather than corporate and self-respecting.'"[433]
304. Later in their judgment, their Honours emphasised that the decisions of the CALDB to cancel Mr Albarran's registration and to suspend Mr Gould's does not amount to "'punishment' in the sense of the authorities dealing with the judicial power of the Commonwealth ...".[434] Kirby J was of the same view and explained it in this way:
" When other disciplinary legislation in the federal context accepted by this Court is remembered..., the character of s 1292(2) may be even better understood. Whilst it is true, from the point of view of persons such as the appellants, that an order by the Board suspending their registration as a liquidator for a specified period would doubtless seem to be a kind of public punishment for past conduct judged by the Board to be in breach of the sub-section, on analysis, that is not the true legal character and function of that order .... Legally and functionally, the purpose of the provision is to uphold the standards of registered liquidators; to ensure their compliance with an adequate and proper performance of the duties imposed on company liquidators; to protect company shareholders, creditors, officers and employees, and the public; and to uphold professional and business expectations in that regard. I agree with the analysis in the joint reasons both as to the function which the Board performs and as to the interpretation of s 1292(2)[119]. I also agree with what is said there concerning intramural or domestic disciplinary arrangements ....
It follows that the Board is not engaged in the adjudication or determination of guilt, still less of criminal guilt, or in the imposition of punishment, as such. Nor, having regard to the broad terms of s 1292(2) and the composition of the Board, is it apt to say that the Board is engaged in the enforcement of existing legal rights and duties .... On the contrary, the broad language of the Board's remit invokes the exercise of statutory powers expressed in wide, and deliberately expansive, terms. Doubtless those terms were chosen in the knowledge that the Board, to which the evaluative determination and action was committed, was constituted so as to include members with particular backgrounds and experience, and was not confined to generalist judges. All of these considerations combine to support the rejection of the appellants' arguments that the functions of the Board were such that the Constitution required that they be vested in a Ch III court."[435]
305. The majority in Albarran v Members of the Companies Auditors and Liquidators Disciplinary Board expressly declined to canvass the line of authorities, such as Pasini v United Mexican States[436] "... which establish that there are some powers which appropriately may be treated as administrative when conferred on an administrative body and as judicial when conferred on a federal court or court exercising federal jurisdiction."[437] They did so as the appellants had based their argument on the power's having an essentially judicial character and had not sought to argue that the Corporations Act had conferred on the CALDB "... a power of a chameleon-like nature which would take its colour from the administrative nature of the Board ...".[438] The same approach was taken in the later case of Attorney-General of the Commonwealth of Australia v Alinta Limited[439] in which the High Court decided that the Takeovers Panel does not exercise judicial power. Gummow J commented on the chameleon argument that "Where it applies, the 'chameleon' analogy supports a case for validity and not the opposite."[440] Hayne J emphasised that "... no single combination of necessary or sufficient factors identifies what is judicial power. So much is made plain by the so called chameleon-doctrine ... and the cases in which that doctrine has been engaged."[441]
306. Considerations relating to the enforcement of a decision made in the exercise of a power are also relevant. Indeed, in Brandy v Human Rights and Equal Opportunity Commission, they were determinative. The High Court decided that the Human Rights and Equal Opportunity Commission (HREOC) had not exercised judicial power simply by determining that a complaint under the Racial Discrimination Act 1975 (RD Act) was substantiated. HREOC had made that determination under s 25Z. An HREOC determination was not binding on the parties it stood as s 25Z(2) of the RD Act provided that it was "not binding or conclusive between any of the parties to the determination."[442] Mr Brandy and another sought review of the determination in the Federal Court. Under s 25ZAC, the Federal Court could review all issues of fact and law in reviewing the determination and make such orders as it thought fit. A party could not adduce new evidence unless given leave. Provision was made in the RD Act for enforcement of an HREOC determination. Upon registration in the Federal Court under s 15 ZAB, it became binding on the parties and had effect as if it were an order of that court. Once the time for any review had passed, it could be enforced.
307. After analysing all three sections, Mason CJ, Brennan and Toohey JJ decided that s 15ZAB goes beyond the machinery for the enforcement of a determination. Instead, it purported to give a registered determination effect "as if it were an order of the Federal Court." A judicial order made by the Federal Court, they said, takes effect as an exercise of judicial power. An HREOC determination is neither made nor registered in the exercise of judicial power and the act of registration by the Registrar of the Federal Court could not create an order that took effect as an exercise of judicial power.[443] Therefore, the RD Act was invalid in so far as it provided for the registration process. As the review process in the Federal Court depended on registration it too must be regarded as invalid.[444]
308. In identifying the true nature of a power as judicial or administrative, any consideration must allude to the manner of its exercise as well as to the character of the power itself. This follows from what was acknowledged by the High Court in Precision Data Holdings Ltd v Wills to be:
"The acknowledged difficulty, if not impossibility, of framing a definition of judicial power that is at once exclusive and exhaustive arises from the circumstance that many positive features which are essential to the exercise of the power are not by themselves conclusive of it. Thus, although the finding of facts and the making of value judgments, even the formation of an opinion as to the legal rights and obligations of parties are common ingredients in the exercise of judicial power, they may also be elements in the exercise of administrative and legislative power ... Again, functions which are ordinary ingredients in the exercise of administrative or legislative power can, in some circumstances, be elements in the exercise of what is truly judicial power.
It follows that functions may be classified as either judicial or administrative according to the way in which they are to be exercised ... "[445]
Are disqualification decisions an exercise of judicial power: our decision
309. If Mr North is correct in his submission and we are being asked to exercise the judicial power of the Commonwealth, we must decline to do so. As Latham CJ said in State of South Australia v Commonwealth[446]:
"A pretended law made in excess of power is not and never has been
a law at all. Anybody in the country is entitled to disregard it. Naturally he will feel safer if he has a decision of a court in his favour - but such a decision is not an element which produces invalidity in any law. The law is not valid until a court pronounces against it - and thereafter invalid. If it is beyond
power it is invalid ab initio_._"[447]
310. In deciding whether we have been asked to do what we are not permitted to do, it seems to us from the authorities that we must have regard to the nature of the power that is given to us under the SIS Act. That entails an examination of its essential characterisation and an examination of the manner in which we are required to exercise it. We will begin with an examination of the manner of its exercise.
311. In providing for review of the Regulator's decision that has been confirmed or varied under s 344(4) of the SIS Act, Parliament has varied certain procedural matters.[448] It has not, however, varied the powers that are given to the Tribunal by the AAT Act to review the decision or the manner in which those powers are exercised. With regard to the latter, we have already referred to the fact that the Tribunal is not bound by the rules of evidence and the effect of that upon the way in which it will assess and weigh the evidence that is given to it.
312. With regard to the former, we note that s 43(1) of the AAT Act provides, in part, that "For the purpose of reviewing a decision, the Tribunal may exercise all the powers and discretions that are conferred by ...", in this case, the SIS Act. We have already examined what is entailed in reviewing a decision on its merits when we considered the call for APRA to produce documents.[449] The nature of the Tribunal's powers was also considered in Drake v Minister for Immigration and Ethnic Affairs where Bowen CJ and Deane J said:
"The general functions conferred upon the Tribunal are plainly administrative in character. ... Neither the fact that the Tribunal possesses certain procedural powers ordinarily enjoyed by courts nor the fact that the Tribunal is authorized to decide questions of law arising in proceedings before it means that, in performing these administrative functions, it is exercising judicial power: ... Such procedural powers and the power to decide such incidental questions of law are commonly conferred on administrative tribunals. The fact that the Tribunal for the hearing of the review in the present matter was constituted by a single presidential member whose qualifications happened to be that he was a judge of this court may perhaps be thought to add to the Tribunal a superficial 'trapping' of curial decision making. The trappings of judicial decision making are not however necessarily indicative of the existence of judicial, as distinct from administrative, power ... Many tribunals whose functions are purely administrative are under a duty to act judicially, that is to say, with judicial detachment and fairness. The trappings of judicial decision making are, in some cases, no less appropriate to such a tribunal than they are to a court concerned with the exercise of the judicial power of the Commonwealth."[450]
313. In essence, then, the power to review APRA's decisions to disqualify VCA, VCC and VCD has been given to a body whose general functions are generally administrative in character. It is a body that is not bound by the rules of evidence but which will often pay regard to them in weighing the probative value of the evidence and material that it is given to consider. Each decision must be reviewed in the context of the law and it must ascertain that law. It is under a duty to act with judicial detachment and fairness. Those duties, together with a need for the evidence and material to be given in an orderly and logical manner, often means that the Tribunal will appear to be treading precisely the same path as a court in the way in which it receives it from the parties. Although it is always aware that it may inform itself on any matter in such manner as it thinks fit and it has a power to summons documents and persons, budgetary considerations mean that it can rarely use its power to make its own enquiries. Even then, it cannot do so in any sense that would justify its being described as an inquisitorial body. Indeed, it is clear that it was not the course chosen for it when the view was taken that "... the Tribunal, though exercising administrative power, should be constituted upon the judicial model, separate from, and independent of, the Executive ..."[451]
314. What of the power itself? When regard is had to s 120A(2), it appears the power to disqualify given to APRA, and so to this Tribunal, is dependent upon its being satisfied of three matters. If not satisfied of them, it has no power. Read alone, this seems to be a power analogous with that considered by the High Court in The Queen v Trade Practices Tribunal; Ex parte Tasmanian Breweries Pty Ltd.[452] Satisfaction of the requisite matters appears to be a jurisdictional fact that must exist before APRA, and so this Tribunal, can decide whether it will exercise its discretion to disqualify the person. Satisfaction will only be achieved after APRA's delegate and, later, the Tribunal weighs up all the relevant and probative material and makes findings of fact.
315. It could be thought the argument that the requirement in s 120A(2) to be satisfied amounts to no more than a jurisdictional fact could be undermined by the fact that the SIS Act requires the court to be "satisfied" of a contravention when making civil penalty orders. Courts exercise judicial power and so, it could be said, the use of the same language indicates that APRA and this Tribunal on the one hand and the courts on the other are being asked to exercise judicial power. It seems to us that there is an answer to this.
316. That is that courts do not necessarily exercise power that can only be characterised as judicial power. It is apparent from the authorities to which we have referred that they may exercise powers that would be characterised as administrative powers in another context if those powers are necessarily incidental to the exercise of judicial power. The imposition of a monetary penalty of the sort envisaged by s 196 of the SIS Act is clearly an exercise of the judicial power. The requirement of
s 196(1) that the court be satisfied that a person has contravened a civil penalty provision could be argued to be a jurisdictional fact on which the exercise of the judicial power depends. On that argument, the finding of satisfaction is not an exercise of judicial power whether made in a court in a proceeding relating to the imposition of a civil penalty order or by APRA or the Tribunal in a proceeding relating to disqualification.
317. Even if we are incorrect and the requirement that APRA and the Tribunal be satisfied of a contravention is something more than the determination of a jurisdictional fact, we remain of the view that neither APRA nor the Tribunal is called upon to exercise a judicial power. The context in which it must be exercised is relevant. It is a context which provides for a disciplinary regimen intended to ensure that those with responsibility for the management and administration of superannuation entities are only those who meet appropriate standards. It is a disciplinary regimen in which a person can be disqualified but disqualification does not amount to the imposition of a penalty. In this regard, we adopt the reasons in Re Howarth and Australian Securities and Investments Commission[453] and note that they are consistent with the conclusion expressed in Albarran v Members of the Companies Auditors and Liquidators Disciplinary Board to the effect that decisions of a disciplinary body, including decisions to cancel or suspend a person's registration and so entitlement to provide services in a particular area do not amount to "'punishment' in the sense of the authorities dealing with the judicial power of the Commonwealth ...".[454] When exercising its jurisdiction to review a decision made under s 120A of the SIS Act, the Tribunal is making a decision, in effect, as a disciplinary body. When regard is had to its being confined to the powers of APRA and to its not being bound by the rules of evidence as well as to the discretionary nature of the power, we conclude that the power under s 120A cannot in any way be regarded as a judicial power.
318. In reaching this conclusion, we note that we are not unsympathetic to Mr North's submission in so far as he states that different findings can be made on the same issue in the courts and in this Tribunal. This is not the forum in which to explore that issue. We note only that both the courts and this Tribunal must carry out their tasks according to law and, in doing so, must not be swayed by the other except to the extent required by the law.[455]
319. In his opening, Mr North could be understood at times as wanting to make a submission that the state of the evidence was such that there was no case to answer. Such a submission only has a place if one or other of the parties carries a burden of proof and cannot succeed in a proceeding unless it discharges that burden by producing, or by producing and relying on the other party's evidence, sufficient evidence to establish its case. We have already discussed the general position in the Tribunal and it seems to us that this remains the position in these proceedings.
320. That brings us to the standard of proof that we are to apply. The powers given by s 120A are predicated upon our being "satisfied" of the specified matters. In Re VBN and Ors and Australian Prudential Regulation Authority,[456] reliance was placed on a judgment by Branson J in Blount Inc v Registrar of Trade Marks[457] to support a conclusion that the Tribunal will be "satisfied" of a contravention of the SIS Act if it is satisfied on the balance of probabilities.[458] Although we reach the same conclusion, we would like to revisit that matter and to do so in the light of s 322 of the SIS Act. It applies when, in proceedings other than those for an offence, it is necessary to establish or for a Court to be satisfied of one or other of the four matters specified in s 322(1). Those matters must be established, or the Court satisfied of them, on the balance of probabilities.[459] Those matters include a contravention of a provision of the SIS Act, a default in complying with a provision, an act or omission that is unlawful under it and a person's being directly or indirectly knowingly concerned in a contravention or default.
321. No similar provision is made in relation to APRA or the Tribunal. Does the specification for one and not the other lead to a different standard of proof? Does the fact that a contravention of a provision such as s 109 is a contravention of a civil penalty provision require a different standard of proof on the basis that contravention is, in certain instances, a criminal offence?
322. We will begin with Blount Inc v Registrar of Trade Marks in which Branson J decided that the requirement that the Registrar of Trade Marks be "satisfied" that application for the registration of a trade mark had not been made in accordance with the relevant legislation or that there were grounds for rejecting it:
"_... is to be understood as requiring that he or she be persuaded of the matter according to the balance of probabilities (_Rejfek v McElroy [1965] HCA 46; (1965) 112 CLR 517 at 521). That is, that the Registrar be persuaded, having given proper consideration to those circumstances and that the Act requires him or her to give consideration to, that such matters be more probable than not."[460]
323. The matters of which the Registrar of Trade Marks had to be satisfied might be non-compliance with certain legislative provisions but any non-compliance could not be described as contravention of them of a sort that amounted to a criminal offence. The case to which Branson J referred, Rejfek v McElroy, was concerned with the standard of proof required when civil proceedings required proof of facts amounting to the commission of a crime. That is a case that has been approved in more recent cases by the High Court including Chief Executive Officer of Customs v Labrador Liquor Wholesale Pty Limited and Others.[461] The High Court considered provisions of the Customs Act 1901 and the Excise Act 1901 prohibiting certain conduct and making contravention of them punishable on conviction by penalty. Provision was made for the recovery of penalties in specified courts and for the proceedings to be conducted in accordance with any rules of practice established by the court for Crown suits in revenue matters or in accordance with its usual practice and procedure in civil cases.
324. Hayne J, with whom Gleeson CJ and McHugh J agreed, rejected:
" Arguments founded on classification of the proceedings as 'civil' or 'criminal' as determinative of the standard of proof ... [T]he classification proposed is, at best, unstable. It seeks to divide the litigious world into only two parts when, in truth, that world is more complex and varied than such a classification acknowledges. There are proceedings with both civil and criminal characteristics: for example proceedings for a civil penalty under companies ... and trade practices ... legislation. The purposes of those proceedings include the purposes of deterrence, and the consequences can be large and punishing.
In any event, this chain of reasoning, from an a priori classification to a conclusion about standard of proof, treats the relevant Acts as providing no more than background information when, in truth, it is with the terms of the Acts that the inquiry must begin. ..."[462]
325. Having canvassed previous authority turning in part on the requirement that the practice and procedure in civil proceedings was to be followed, Hayne J noted that the requirement had led some courts to apply a civil standard in some prosecutions for offences. At the relevant time, s 4(1) of the Crimes Act 1914 provided that "the principles of the common law with respect to criminal liability apply in relation to offences against laws of the Commonwealth". His Honour said:
" What does the common law require? Where what is sought is conviction of the defendant for an offence against a law of the Commonwealth, it must be strongly arguable that nothing short of proof beyond reasonable doubt will do. If no conviction is sought, but other relief is (as, for example, a declaration that the defendant contravened identified provisions of the relevant Act coupled with orders for payment of monetary penalties), it must be strongly arguable that, in proceedings conducted according to civil procedures, proof to the civil standard will suffice. No doubt, in accordance with the well-established principle ..., if the civil standard were to be applied, 'the nature of the issue [would] necessarily [affect] the process by which reasonable satisfaction is attained' and 'exactness of proof [would be] expected' ...
Those tentative conclusions do not depend upon attributing a description of 'civil' or 'criminal' to the proceedings as a whole or seeking to identify some 'essential character' of the proceedings. ... Rather, the conclusions proposed focus upon, and attach significance to, the kinds of orders which the proceedings seek. In particular, proceedings are distinguished according to whether or not they seek the conviction of the defendant for an offence."[463]
326. Adopting the approach of Hayne J in relation to a provision such as
s 109 of the SIS Act, we find the proceedings with which we are concerned are not seeking the conviction of a person as a result of a contravention or non-compliance with a provision of the SIS Act. What they are concerned with is the imposition of a consequence as a result of its alleged contravention or non-compliance. That is a consequence of disqualification and, although the proceedings may be described as those for the imposition of a penalty,[464] they cannot be described as proceedings seeking a conviction for an offence. It follows that we should apply the civil standard of proof or that of reasonable satisfaction in making our findings of fact on the evidence.
327. In applying that civil standard, we must have regard to the nature of the issue as it would affect the process by which reasonable satisfaction is achieved and the exactness of proof expected, Hayne J referred to, among others, Rejfek and McElroy and the earlier case of Briginshaw v Briginshaw[465] Reasonable satisfaction is also referred to as proof on the balance of probabilities and is a standard generally applicable in civil proceedings in the courts as well as in the Tribunal.[466] That standard is not an absolute standard and regard must be had to the principles set out by Dixon J in Briginshaw v Briginshaw:[467]
"... [R]easonable satisfaction is not a state of mind that is attained or established independently of the nature and consequence of the fact or facts to be proved.
The seriousness of an allegation made, the inherent unlikelihood of an occurrence of a given description, or the gravity of the consequences flowing from a particular finding are considerations which must affect the answer to the question whether the issue has been proved to the reasonable satisfaction of the tribunal. In such matters 'reasonable satisfaction' should not be produced by inexact proofs, indefinite testimony, or indirect inferences. Everyone must feel that, when, for instance, the issue is on which of two dates an admitted occurrence took place, a satisfactory conclusion may be reached on materials of a kind that would not satisfy any sound and prudent judgment if the question was whether some act had been done involving grave moral delinquency. ..."[468]
328. As we have said, the purpose of these proceedings is to decide whether one or more of VCA, VCC and VCD should be disqualified under s 120A. The consequences of such a decision, should it be made, are in the nature of a penalty in that the person disqualified may not act as a trustee of a superannuation entity or as a responsible officer of a body corporate that is a trustee of a superannuation entity.[469] They are serious consequences. Therefore, we should take care in deciding whether we are satisfied that the facts justifying the exercise of the disqualification power have been made out. We should examine all of the evidence, explore all of the pathways it reveals and not be persuaded, one way or the other, by inexact proofs, indefinite testimony, or indirect inferences.[470]
Are the covenants in ss 52(2)(b) and (c) restatements of the general law?
329. We have set out the provisions of ss 52(2)(b) and (c) above.[471] At the outset, there is an initial question whether s 52 is intended to codify the duties and responsibilities of trustees at common law. This is a question that was looked at in Re VBN and Australian Prudential Regulation Authority[472] when a consideration of the common law, the differences in wording between the covenants in s 52, previous authorities and the Second Reading Speeches led to the conclusion reproduced at [327] above. In essence, it was decided that Parliament intended to base the covenants on obligations already existing in the general law but to extend their ambit to a new context.
330. Mr Santamaria sought to persuade us that the general law and the covenants were even more closely aligned than this conclusion would suggest. He referred to the statement by Mr Gary Johns, the then Parliamentary Secretary to the Treasurer in delivering the Second Reading Speech to the effect that the Bill would provide "clear delineation of the basic duties and responsibilities of trustees".[473] This suggests, Mr Santamaria contended, an intention to clarify pre-existing duties and responsibilities rather than to create or modify them.
331. He drew further support for his submission from passages taken from the debates in the House of Representatives during the passage of the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Bill 1993. That is material to which reference is made in s 15AB(2)(h) of the AI Act but for the purposes referred to in s 15(1). Those purposes are limited to, in summary, confirming the meaning of a provision or determining the meaning of a provision that is ambiguous or obscure. The question that we face in interpreting s 52 does not fit neatly into either category of s 15AB and the statutory imprimatur for our looking to the parliamentary debates seems a little shaky.
332. We should not ignore s 15AA(1) of the AI Act which exhorts us to prefer a construction that promotes the purpose or object of the provision under consideration to one that would not do so. An authority such as CIC Insurance Ltd v Bankstown Football Club Ltd[474] reflects that approach. It refers to resort to "legitimate means" quite apart from s 15AB and those that the High Court specifically had in mind at the time were reports of law reform bodies. In Mitchell v Bailey,[475] Tracey J understood the "legitimate means" to extend to parliamentary debates. That would be a position consistent with the law as stated by Kirby J in Barwick v Law Society of New South Wales when looking to the development of the Legal Profession Act 1987 (NSW):
" The deletion of this provision following earlier consideration of the exposure draft bill, and the substitution of the general power in the Commissioner to accept a complaint made after three years following the conduct complained of, indicate clearly enough a changed purpose to which effect should be given. By reference to a number of old authorities Sheller JA expressed doubt that a court should, or would, pay regard to such a consideration. However, with respect, paying such regard does not involve calling into question the internal proceedings of a parliament; simply deriving instruction from the course of law-making. It does not involve the use of illicit materials; solely public records readily available and referred to in the parliamentary debates. Formerly courts were unconcerned with pre-legislative materials or debates in parliament or explanations there of the suggested purposes of legislation. However, the tendency both of general legislative provisions and of the common law itself has, in recent years, been to receive relevant pre-legislative and legislative materials to an extent that was previously forbidden. This tendency is part of a contemporary endeavour by the courts to avoid the excessively literalist construction of statutes, to prevent the misfiring of the parliamentary purpose and to promote a purposive interpretation of the legislative text. The consideration of an obviously relevant change to a proposed bill or its amendment during its passage through parliament, which helps to resolve an ambiguity or to explain parliament's purpose more clearly, is consonant with such developments. ..."[476]
333. The particular passage to which Mr Santamaria referred us is that from Mr Leo Price when he said:
"There will be clearer trustee obligations. Members of trustee boards cannot be bankrupts and they cannot have convictions involving dishonesty and, I presume, fraud. Trustees will have a range of duties spelt out for them - for example, to act honestly at all times in the best interests of the beneficiaries; to keep the fund's assets separate from the trustee's own assets or the employer sponsor's own assets; to exercise the same degree of care, skill and diligence as an ordinary prudent person would in dealing with the property of another for whom the person felt morally bound to provide; and, lastly, in formulating an investment strategy, to have regard to liabilities, risk return, diversification and liquidity considerations.
A codification of these duties will represent a significant milestone for trustees and fund members. For trustees, it will mean that their basic duties and fiduciary responsibilities are spelt out clearly. Any member who suffers a loss or damage due to a breach of these covenants will have a statutory right of action against the trustee."[477]
334. In Australian Securities Commission v AS Nominees,[478] North J said in concluding that the SIS act could properly be used in conjunction with other sources to identify the public interest that could underlie the Australian and Securities Commission's decision to take certain action. His Honour said of sections of the SIS
"... These provisions either reflect, or are emanations of, established common law rules. In those circumstances where statute and the common law point in the same direction, it is, in my view, entirely appropriate to use such legislation to assist in illuminating the public interest in this matter. That interest is to protect investors from abuses of trust by ensuring proper standards are maintained in trust management and in trustee behaviour."[479]
He did not go on to decide whether s 52 and the other provisions were reflections or, if we understand him correctly, to have emerged or had their origins in the general law.[480]
335. Mr Santamaria also drew comparisons between the duty as expressed in s 52(2)(b) and the duty regarding the management and investment of trust property in cases such as Cowan v Scargill,[481] Australian Securities and Investment Commission v AS Nominees and QLS Superannuation Pty Ltd v Parker.[482] He submitted that the duty in s 52(2)(b) is intended to be confined to the law as stated in those cases and relied on a further extract from Mr Price's speech during the debate in the House of Representatives on the SIS Bill. Mr Price said that one of the principles underpinning the supervisory scheme of the SIS Act was to:
"... base the legal framework on traditional trust law principles, trustees will continue to be under fiduciary obligations to manage the assets of a fund in a way that an ordinary prudent person would in dealing with the property of another for whom the person felt morally bound to provide."[483]
336. We have carefully considered what Mr Price said and have no doubt that he has carefully researched and considered his speech. It may be that his understanding is correct but it is difficult to give to a speech by a back bencher, however eminent and, in this instance, a member of the government, greater weight than we give to the Second Reading Speeches given by Ministers. The Second Reading Speech of the Minister with responsibility for the development of the policy underpinning the Bill, guiding its passage through Cabinet approval and then through Parliament must be regarded as knowing what is intended to be achieved by it.
337. In Re VBN and Australian Prudential Regulation Authority, the Tribunal looked to the Second Reading Speeches in some detail saying:[484]
307. The Second Reading Speech given in the House of Representatives by Mr Johns, the then Parliamentary Secretary to the Treasurer described the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Bill (Bill) and six cognate bills as giving effect to new prudential arrangements for superannuation announced by the then Treasurer, Mr Dawkins, on 21 October 1992 (Treasurer's Statement). Mr Johns said that the government was introducing the legislation in order to give added protection to superannuation savings and to promote an efficient superannuation industry. The long term benefits of those measures would significantly outweigh the costs of their implementation. The Bill provided for:
'... effective supervisory arrangements involving direct enforcement powers for the Insurance and Superannuation Commission, enabling effective enforcement of the prudential requirements and obligations placed on funds and trustees; for trustees and investment managers to be made subject to adequate legislative sanctions for the proper performance of their fiduciary responsibilities and increasing their accountability to their members; clear delineation of the basic duties and responsibilities of trustees, and indicating that trustees have primary responsibility for the operation of funds; that trustees and investment managers must be suitable to act as fund trustees and to manage fund moneys respectively ...'[485]
308. During the Second Reading debate in the House of Representatives, Mr Rocher advised that the Bill and the six cognate bills had, subject to some concerns and reservations that could be addressed, the coalition's support.[486] He continued:
'... far-reaching changes to the regulation and prudential supervision of superannuation funds, approved deposit funds and pooled superannuation trusts in Australia. Measures contained in the bills reflect the government's objective of ensuring that Australians increasingly provide for their own retirement, and also reflect a conviction on the part of government that superannuation is the preferred savings vehicle by which such provision is to be made.
The legislation represents a major change to the legal basis for the regulation and prudential supervision of superannuation funds in this country. To date, superannuation funds have relied largely on trust law and common law precedents to guide them in their operations. There have been relatively few statutory requirements, despite the mass of superannuation legislation in recent years which has largely been concerned with defining the tax treatment of superannuation savings.
Most of the considerable uncertainty that has plagued superannuation in recent years has emanated from those often changing statutory requirements and taxation measures. The legislation largely overturns the existing legal basis for superannuation fund operations and replaces it with the type of black letter law that now characterises the new corporation law that has been introduced with mixed success.
The new black letter law will be administered by a better resourced and more powerful Insurance and Superannuation Commission, ...'[487]
309. These passages suggest that the Bill was intended to go beyond a mere attempt to restate the law. It was intended to change the law and to impose standards that might or might not reflect the existing law. The Treasurer's Statement reinforces this impression. In the section entitled "Outline of the Government's policy approach', Mr Dawkins said, in part:
_'_Prime responsibility for the viability and prudent operation of the superannuation industry rests with trustees (and through them investment managers), and this role will be enhanced under the prudential arrangements to be established by the Government. This will be achieved through clearly defining the basic duties and responsibilities of trustees, and ensuring that they have adequate powers to carry out these responsibilities.
Effective supervisory arrangements will also involve, however, more direct enforcement powers and improved audit resources ... They also require making trustees and fund managers subject to adequate legislative sanctions for the proper performance of their fiduciary responsibilities in addition to increasing their accountability to their members.'[488]
310. Speaking of the obligations of trustees, Mr Dawkins had noted that 'Trust law imposes a substantial discipline on trustees, but it has some deficiencies in practice ...'.[489] He went on to refer to beneficiaries' difficulty in enforcing their rights, the limited nature of the penalties that could be imposed on trustees following a successful action by the beneficiaries and the ability of the directors of a corporate trustee to escape liability in some instances. Recognising these deficiencies, the government would:
'... introduce legislation to impose specific obligations on responsible entities which are individual trustees, and directors of companies which act as trustees. These obligations will essentially be a clarification of the obligations already imposed by trust law. Delineation of these obligations is intended to set out clearly the responsibilities of responsible entities and assist members in pursuing their interests under trust law.'[490]
Mr Dawkins then went on to describe the '... essential trustee duties, which represent fundamental obligations to beneficiaries and which will not be able to be excluded or modified by governing documents (generally trust deeds) ...'.[491] These are found in s 52 of the SIS Act."
338. In VBN and Australian Prudential Regulation Authority, there was also a lengthy analysis of Discussion Paper No. 50 issued on January 1992 before the enactment of the SIS Act. It was issued by the Companies and Securities Advisory Committee of the Law Reform Commission (LRC). It expressed the opinion that some of a responsible entity's responsibilities "could be codified" (emphasis added) and noted that no "thorough examination of the potential for codification" had been undertaken.[492] The Discussion Paper led to the LRC's publishing Collective Investments: Superannuation, which is Report No 59. That was also the subject of analysis[493] and at [323], we concluded:
" Returning to the words of the SIS Act in light of the explanatory material to which we may have regard, we consider that the SIS Act cannot be regarded as a restatement of the previous law relating to regulated superannuation funds. We have already observed that it changed, modified or complemented some of the existing law.[494] That is consistent with the legislation's stated intention to supervise certain entities engaged in the superannuation industry and with the Second Reading Speech. Supervision suggests something more than merely restating the existing law. We do not need to rely on a suggestion, though, for it is clear from the words of the SIS Act itself, when read with the general law applying to trustees, that it has changed the law in several respects."
339. Although we will not set it out, we adopt that analysis at [324]-[327] in VBN and Australian Prudential Regulation Authority regarding the differences that we perceive to exist between the statement of the general law and the provisions set out in ss 52(2)(b) and (c) and that led to our reaching the conclusion in [328]-[329] as set out at [....] above.
What is the proper interpretation of s 52(2)(b)?
340. Section 52(2)(b) centres on the trustee's exercising "care, skill and diligence" in all matters affecting the entity. As we have said, we consider that the covenants set out in s 52 have their basis in those under the general law but that their ambit is extended and they are applied in a new context. The context remains that of a trust but what is new is that it is a type of trust whose establishment is not only encouraged by the fact that a taxpayer is given certain taxation relief for making contributions to a trust of that type but that, for many, contributions are compulsory. The combined effect of tax deductions and compulsion is intended to ensure that Australians have adequate means of support when they leave the workforce and has led to a multitude of superannuation entities.
341. Consistent with our view, we have drawn upon the general law in coming to an understanding of s 52(2)(b). The trustee must exercise "care, skill and diligence" in all matters affecting the entity. The degree of care, skill and diligence must be that which an "ordinary prudent person" would have exercised in dealing with the property of another for whom the person felt morally bound to provide.
342. The "ordinary prudent person" is part of a term that is known to the general law in relation to trustees' duties. The full term is an "ordinary prudent person experienced in business". That term was explained by Dixon, McTiernan and Fullagar JJ in Fouche v The Superannuation Fund Board[495] as:
" We regard to the nature of the duty, we are of the opinion that it does not differ materially from the duty which rests on trustees in relation to investments. The duty is not so onerous as it once was. In modern times it is regarded as defined by Speight v Gaunt ... and In re Whiteley; Whiteley v Learoyd .... It is the duty of reasonable care - the care which an ordinary prudent man of business would take. ...
... [T]he standard to be applied is the standard of the reasonably prudent man of business, and it is nothing to the point that they were not men of business at all. ..."[496]
343. More recently, Rolfe J considered the standard in relation to advice sought from an investment company and its managing director. An investment was made as a result of the advice. His Honour did so in Wilkinson v Feldworth Financial Services Pty Ltd[497] when he said that:
"... the court must look to all the circumstances of the case and, in particular, to the form of investment being made, the security being given for it and the position of the trustee. PTWA and PT held themselves out as trustee companies, which were competent to carry on business as such for a fee. The care and skill expected from such trustees may well be higher.
In Australian Securities Commission v AS Nominees Ltd [1995] FCA 1663; (1995) 62 FCR 504; 133 ALR 1; 18 ACSR 459 Finn J, at FCR 516, dealt, inter alia, with the standard of care to be expected of trustee companies and their directors in the conduct of trust business. His Honour accepted the test laid down in Speight v Gaunt ..., and a gloss on that being the 'requirement of caution'. He emphasised that requirement which he said was 'often enough' used to differentiate the expectations properly to be had of trustees and of directors respectively': p 517.
His Honour emphasised, at 517, that the requirements of care and caution are in no way diminished because the trustee is a company and, at 517-18, he continued:
The standard of trustee care and caution of which I have been speaking so far does not differentiate between types of trustee. It is of general application. That standard, moreover, was settled a century ago and during a period when trust corporations were not used for the trading and investment purposes that are commonplace in this country today. There is, in my view, a substantial question now to be answered as to whether a higher standard is not to be exacted from at least corporate or professional trustees (a) which hold themselves out as having a special or particular knowledge, skill and experience, and (b) which, directly or indirectly, invite reliance upon themselves by members of the public in virtue of the knowledge etc they appear so to have.
If it were in fact necessary for me so to do (which it is not), I would be prepared to apply to the trustee companies in these proceedings a standard of care higher than that of the ordinary prudent business person.'
344. As we have indicated earlier in these reasons, we do not think that there is room for a varying standard of this type in the context of s 52(2)(b). It is a standard that is self-contained in the section. That does not, though, make it particularly easy for us to identify an "ordinary person" let alone an "ordinary prudent person". Identification of the former has concerned the courts in the law of provocation where the:
" The question ... comes increasingly to the fore as presenting a general problem in Australia's pluralistic society: how to balance individualised justice and cultural pluralism with the need to create a broad sense of community common purpose, and commonly-shared values. While Aboriginal communities in the Territory remain as distinct communities possessing a separate culture and identity and a degree of physical separation from the wider community, so the standard of the 'ordinary person' will vary in its application in the Territory."[499]
345. It might be thought that this problem does not arise in the context of s 52(2)(b) but there is no reason why it should not. That is particularly so when s 52(2)(b) appears to mix notions of responsibility for dealing with another's property with notions of feeling morally bound to provide for that person. If a person felt morally bound to provide for another, it is conceivable that the person might show the degree of care that he or she shows for his or her own property but no more. After all, he or she feels morally bound to provide for the other whatever the outcome. We do not think that Parliament intended the covenant to be read in this way. Rather, it seems to us in light of the scheme and purpose of the SIS Act and of the extrinsic material to which we have referred, to refer to what an ordinary prudent person would do in dealing with the property of another in circumstances in which the person feels morally bound to provide in the sense of preserving and caring for their property rather than in the more usual sense of supporting or keeping them.
346. Although the emphasis of s 52(2)(b) would seem to be on property, we note that the duty it prescribes is in relation to "all matters affecting the entity". Given the breadth of that expression, it must relate not only to matters relating directly to the trust property but also to matters affecting its administration and management or the entity itself. It must extend to matters such as investment and preservation of assets and to the way in which the trustee administers and manages the entity itself.
347. Regard must also be had to the word "prudent" in the expression
"ordinary prudent person". Its ordinary meanings are:
"... 1 wise or careful in conduct. 2 shrewd or thrifty in planning ahead. 3 wary; discreet ..."[500]
That is a meaning that supports our understanding of the intent and meaning of s 52(2)(b). A person must exercise, in relation to all matters affecting the entity, care, skill and diligence of the sort that an ordinary person who is careful, astute and exercises sound judgment would show in dealing with property, which is not his or her own but which belongs to another and which the person feels morally bound to preserve.
What is the proper interpretation of s 52(2)(c)?
" The expression 'best interests', taken literally, is apt to create a false impression that some absolute or superlative is in contemplation. Its true meaning emerges from a consideration of other contexts in which it is used."[503]
349. His Honour reviewed authorities considering the expression in the family law jurisdiction in which decisions with respect to children's best interests "necessarily involves looking to the future and all the uncertainties that that involves ...".[504] Authorities concerned with trusts formulate the fiduciary duty in terms of requiring the fiduciary to act in the best interests of the party to whom the duty is owed. Formulations of the duties of a company director are to like effect. Cases concerned with unconscionability and undue influence require a consideration of whether a person is able to make a worthwhile judgment as to what is in that person's best interests.[505] From such authorities, Barrett J concluded:
" 'Best interests' is thus an expression concerned with a person's separate and independent welfare. Where the concern to which the 'best interests' assessment is relevant centres upon possibilities of undue influence and, perhaps, improper purpose, the task is to consider what the putative victim would have done in seeking to protect his or her own position and promote his or her own advantages with such a degree of selfishness as the circumstances will admit."[506]
350. These principles seem to us to be equally applicable to the interpretation and application of the covenant in s 52(2)(c) of the SIS Act. The question becomes: What would ASF's beneficiaries have done in seeking to protect their own positions and to promote their own advantages with as much selfishness as the circumstances would permit? The reference to the circumstances grounds the principles firmly in realism. Regard must be had not only to what the beneficiaries would have done in the circumstances to protect their position. What they would have done must be weighed with what others would have, or be likely to have, done as a result of their action together with the effect that would have on them and on the circumstances in which they would then find themselves.
What is the proper interpretation of s 52(2)(e)?
351. This covenant requires only a consideration of what amounts to "properly performing or exercising the trustee's functions and powers". Given the content of the provision and the juxtaposition of the words, the word "properly" must be read as qualifying both the performance of the trustee's functions and the exercise of its power. The word "properly" means:
"... 1 suitably; appropriately; correctly. 2 with strict accuracy. 3 fully; thoroughly; completely ..."[507]
352. The expression "proper, genuine and realistic consideration" was examined by the Full Court of the Federal Court in Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs v Anthonypillai.[508] Of the word "proper", their Honours said:
" To say that consideration is or is not 'proper' necessarily assumes some pre-existing standard of propriety against which the consideration under review can be measured. But what is the content of such a standard? It must be something other than the procedures prescribed by the Act or regulations. ..."[509]
353. That would seem to be the case in relation to s 52(2)(e). It assumes a standard of propriety that is not specified. It must be a standard that has regard to matters other than breach of the other covenants in s 52 or the other provisions of the SIS Act. Breach of them already exposes the trustee and its responsible officers to sanctions.
354. Some guidance comes from other contexts. In In the matter of Moustafa El Moustafa,[510] Marshall J considered the role of a controlling trustee under s 188 for the purposes of Part X of the Bankruptcy Act 1966. After examining the powers conferred on the controlling trustee and the purpose of their being exercised, his Honour concluded that the controlling trustee had to prepare a report to appraise the creditors fully of the debtor's affairs so that they could make an informed decision whether it was in their interests to accept the debtor's proposal. At the same time, he or she had to rule on the entitlement of any person to vote that the Part X meeting. Marshall J observed:
"... A controlling trustee must discharge this function with proprietary having regard to the merits of a creditor's claim and without regard to extraneous considerations.
Both these roles point to a fundamental duty of a controlling trustee, a duty to act in an impartial and independent manner. Anything else would undermine public confidence in the administration of Part X of the Act. ... If a controlling trustee is to properly perform his/her role or functions , he or she must be impartial to the wishes of the debtor. ...."[511]
355. Applying these notions to s 52(2)(e), it seems to us that we must have regard to the role of a trustee charged with responsibility for other persons' assets intended to secure their future when they cease to be part of the Australian workforce. We should also have regard to the fact that the role discourages the entrepreneurial spirit referred to by Clarke and Sheller JJA in Daniels v Anderson[512] and encourages a conservative approach. Their Honours were referring to a conservative approach to investments but we would extend that to a conservative approach to all matters including those of administration generally. For all that it is a conservative approach, it contains an interesting tension for a modern superannuation trustee is not expected merely to preserve the funds but there is pressure to earn a return that is healthy but not one achieved with unacceptable risk to the funds.
356. In this section of our reasons, we will set out our findings of fact by reference to the particular actions and events that APRA alleges amount to contraventions of the SIS Act by VCA, VCC and VCD. We will begin by making our findings regarding the events said to amount to a contravention of the covenants taken to be contained in AC's governing rules for they lie at the heart of matters. We will then turn our attention to the other allegations and the statutory standards.
Maintaining eligible assets and liquid assets at a minimum of $100,000: IOA Specific Condition 4 applying General Condition D.1 to AC
357. As we have said, ATC was obliged under s 29 of the SIS Act to notify APRA as soon as practicable and, in any event within 30 days, after becoming aware of, among other matters, a contravention of a condition to which its approval was subject. Of particular concern under this heading is Condition D.1 of the IOA, which "... applies to the fund administrator and must be reflected in the contractual arrangements." In essence, it requires the administrator to have eligible assets and liquid assets in the minimum sum of $100,000. Specific Condition 4 requires ATC to obtain an annual audit certificate stating that the $100,000 eligible assets have been maintained by administrator during each year.
358. APRA submitted that there can be no dispute that ATC was aware of the requirements of Condition D.1 at all times. We agree. The minutes of the Administration Committee meeting on 31 October 2001 record that VCC advised that ATC was required "to have a custodian, to have an administration agreement with an administrator and that administrator maintains an amount of $100,000 NTA" [513] i.e. $100,000 in net tangible assets (NTA). VS, who also attended that meeting, said in cross-examination that he advised the committee that the funds administrator had to maintain eligible and liquid assets of at least $100,000, that the NTA could not be sourced from the fund and that they had to come from AC's own money.[514] VS confirmed this opinion in a letter to ATC dated 29 May 2003.[515]
359. We have had some difficulty with Condition D.1. It is clear from Specific Condition 3 that Condition D.1 does not apply to ATC. Specific Condition 4 makes it clear that Condition D.1 applies to the fund administrator which, in this case, was first FCSAS or later AC. The obligations that Specific Condition 4 places on ATC are:
360. The obligation is to have the contract in place and to obtain the necessary audit certificate. We will return to the contractual arrangements between ATC and AC but, for the moment, find that we are satisfied that they included the requirement in Specific Condition 4 that AC maintain eligible and liquid assets as defined in Condition D.1 of a minimum of $100,000. We are also satisfied that ATC obtained the annual audit certificate as described in Specific Condition 4 of the IOA. Therefore, we are satisfied that ATC was not in breach of Specific Condition 4 and so was not in contravention of s 29(1) of the SIS Act.
361. APRA seeks to bring home to ATC a wider obligation than that which appears in Specific Condition 4. It seems to us that it seeks to make ATC responsible for the fund administrator's compliance with its contractual obligation to maintain the eligible and liquid assets at the minimum level. Under the law of contract, ATC would, in appropriate circumstances, have remedies of specific performance or of damages were the fund administrator to fail to perform its duties. The fact that the remedies may exist in case of breach may well be a deterrent to a contractual party's being in breach at all but there is no means of which we are aware that would enable a ATC to ensure that the fund administrator will always comply. In light of that, it seems to us that Specific Condition 4 goes as far as it can in imposing an obligation on ATC.
362. It could have been that s 29 of the SIS Act could have been drafted in terms that specified as an event the fund administrator's breach of the contractual arrangements imposing on it the obligation to comply with Condition D.1. If it had and if ATC had, without reasonable excuse, failed to give notice of that event in accordance with s 29(1), ATC would have been in breach of s 29(1). As it is, s 29 does not impose that obligation on ATC and so it cannot be said to be in breach of Specific Condition 4 applying Condition D.1.
363. We note that our understanding of Specific Condition 4 seems to underpin the advice given by Ernst & Young in its letter to VCC at AC dated 10 March 2002. It dealt specifically with Condition D.1 referring to AC's obligation to maintain a minimum level of eligible assets and liquid assets of at least $100,000. That obligation, Ernst & Young wrote, was imposed by AC's contractual arrangements with ASF, upon which APRA had imposed certain conditions under the IOA. It had audited AC's statutory financial report for the year ended 30 June 2002 and would issue an unqualified annual audit certificate.[516]
364. Although we are of the view that ATC was not in breach of Specific Condition 4 for the reason that we have given, we have considered the matter on the basis that APRA is correct and that the condition imposes an obligation on ATC to ensure that AC maintained eligible assets and liquid assets of a minimum of $100,000. Whether it complied with that obligation, APRA submits, depends on whether the payment by ATC of $176,000 in December 2001 to AC was an appropriate payment made for services provided by AC. According APRA, that amount was not owed by ATC to AC in December 2001 and therefore the payment should not have been made by ATC.
365. We find that the Board of ATC met on 28 September 2001.[517] VCC said that it was at this meeting that the Board finally determined it would cease external administration of the ATC fund by FCSAS and would move to establishing its own fund administrator. His evidence was uncontroverted and also supported by other events that had or were about to transpire. At that time, AC had not been incorporated but the Board had decided upon its name.[518] At a meeting held on 2 October 2001, ATC advised APRA of its decision to proceed to self administration or to transfer administration to another party.[519] VCC and the ATC Board relied on the advice of ATC's solicitor, VS. VS's advice was that in his experience, it was preferable, so far as APRA was concerned, to ensure that the administrator of the fund be independent of the Trustee.[520]
366. In about October or November 2001, VCC had discussions with Mr Asit and with Mr Bisque regarding the work which needed to be done to complete the migration of data from FCSAS to AC so that AC could commence operation. An implementation plan was drawn.[521] VCC said his discussion with Mr Asit and Mr Bisque included the cost of the work set out in the implementation plan and the time it would take to complete that work by AC staff. VCC said it was on that basis that the value of work already done and that which had to be done in order to complete the migration of data to AC to enable it to commence operations as the ATC fund administrator would be $160,000 exclusive of GST. An invoice was raised by AC to cover those expenses.[522] It was written on AC masthead and dated 12 December 2001. The invoice was headed "Memorandum of Costs and Disbursements" and "Member Administration" and invoiced the amount of $160,000 and an additional $16,000 for GST for:
"Professional costs of an incidental to the movement of Member administration services comprising all necessary and sundry attendances, skill care and attention as agreed".[523]
367. VCC said that when he received the invoice from AC, he took it to the ATC Board for approval.[524] Having regard to the minutes of the meeting of the Board on 14 December 2001, we find that he did so. The Board discussed the implementation plan and it is clear from the minutes, as well as from the evidence of VCC, that it was aware that the Board that the first payment of $160,000 was due from ATC to AC.
368. In giving evidence, VCC denied any suggestion that the invoice was raised to enable AC to meet its net tangible and eligible asset requirement.[525] APRA submits that VCC's evidence is not consistent with other evidence. First, APRA pointed to the fact that the invoice issued by AC referred to the costs described as being "as agreed". APRA submitted that there was no evidence of any such agreement and that VCC, VCA and VCD must have been aware of that. Second, APRA contended, the payment should not have been made because, despite AC's providing ATC with an invoice, the amount, or a significant portion of it, was not owed by ATC to AC. At the time of payment in December 2001, AC had rendered services approximately to value of $10,000 - $15,000.[526] AC was not operational at the time, employed no staff, had received no telephone enquiries from fund members and had only existed as a legal entity for six weeks or so. The evidence of Mr Bisque was that AC's equipment, including its office furniture and computers, was purchased by ATC.[527] Furthermore, Mr Bisque said, the wages of people involved in establishing its operations, VCC, Mr Asit, Ms Jemimah and himself, were being paid by ATC. AC's initial establishment expenses were paid by the ATC.[528] Therefore, APRA submitted, ATC saw the payment of this invoice as a means of ensuring that AC satisfied Condition D.1.
369. APRA also referred to one version of the minutes of the Board meeting 14 December 2001 which referred to the payment of $176,000 to AC and recorded: "this allows our administrator to maintain surplus liquid assets and thereby comply with our instrument of approval issued by APRA". VCC explained that the version of the minutes recording this statement was a draft and not the final version. VCC and VCD gave evidence that the contents of that statement were raised at the Board meeting.[529] VCC said that one of the consequences of the payment was that it allowed AC to comply with ATC's IOA but that was not the reason the payment was made. VCC said he advised the directors at the 14 December 2001 meeting that the consequence of the payment to AC was it ensured AC's NTA was achieved at the time it became the funded administrator.[530]
370. VCA's evidence was that he understood the payment by ATC to AC was made for establishment costs associated with transferring membership data from FCSAS to AC. He said he believed the payment to be for work already carried out and for work intended to be carried out in the future.[531] VCD was of a similar opinion and said the benefit of that payment was that it ensured AC was capable of maintaining its NTA position.[532] VCD said that he and other directors of ATC had been involved in Government contracts where the standard practice was to provide upfront payments to permit commencement of a project or an initiative.[533] VCD also said in his witness statement that approval of the invoice took place in the context of VCC informing the Board that the payment was for work performed by AC and he saw the value of the work that had been performed at the date of the invoice as worth the amount that was approved.[534]
371. Despite some variations in the witnesses' accounts regarding the purpose for which the payment was made, our view is that those differences are not significant. In essence, the evidence discloses that AC, as the nominated new fund administrator, had to incur substantial expenses in establishing its operation. That involved, amongst other things, the migration of data from FCSAS to its own computer system and developing the functions and reporting capabilities which were required under the Administration Agreement with ATC. Further, as Mr Bisque said in cross-examination, FCSAS stopped doing anything as of 31 December 2001. He said that the data that came across from FCSAS did not balance and it took two and a half months to reconcile. Mr Bisque described it as an ongoing nightmare in those first two and a half, three months.
372. Mr Austin, is an accountant who was employed initially by ATC and subsequently by AC. He said that the provision of administrative services to ATC was happening in parallel with the establishment of the infrastructure to support those administrative services so that in the early part of 2002, the administrative structure was yet to be put in place and everything needed to be tested. Mr Austrin's evidence was that if AC's invoice for $176,000 included payment for services yet to be performed by AC, and had he been aware of it at that time, he would have recorded it in the accounts differently. If future services were identified, Mr Austin said he would have recorded the future component in the books of account of AC as a prepayment and the liability as services to be performed. According to APRA, if the correct entries were made at the time the payment was received by AC, it could not have had NTA to the value of $100,000 at the time it commenced as the ATC fund administrator. APRA also pointed to a letter signed by VCA and VCD dated 10 July 2003 in which those persons stated, on behalf of ATC, that ATC had not paid administration fees in advance to AC. According to that letter, ATC said it recognised that relying on the payment of fees in advance would have no effect on AC's NTA.
373. VCC was cross-examined about the fact that if only $10,000 or $15,000 had been paid for work done, the payment of $176,000 to AC by ATC would have included an element of prepayment.[535] VCC said that it would not because the payment did not go across accounting periods. We understood VCC to be saying that, as AC had completed the work before the end of June 2002, no component of the $176,000 should have been recorded as prepayment.
374. APRA also contended that prior to 1 January 2002, ATC had paid substantial amounts of AC's establishment costs. APRA submitted that those expenses should have been recorded by AC in its financial records as debts owing to ATC and, had it done so, it would not have met the requirement that the fund administrator maintain the required NTA. The applicants did not deny that there were costs of fund administration during the AC start up period which were paid by ATC. This was first brought to the attention of the Audit Committee at a meeting on 6 August 2002 when VCC informed the committee that an interim audit of ATC and AC by Ernst & Young had been completed. The report identified that some costs of fund administration during the period 1 January 2002 to 30 April 2002 were allocated and paid by ATC, not by AC.
375. VCC's evidence was that the auditors recommended accounting entries be made to correct the situation and this was done after extensive checking and itemisation of costs incurred in the establishment of AC. According to VCC, part of this process also involved identifying costs that fell within the terms of the Administration Agreement between ATC and AC which, in previous years under FCSAS, would have been paid by ATC. As a result of adjusting entries made to the accounts for the period ended 30 June 2002, Ernst & Young reported that no significant contraventions of the SIS Act were noted. At a Board meeting on 27 September 2002 Ernst and Young tabled the closing report to the directors of ATC.[536] The auditors indicated that an unqualified audit opinion was expected to be issued for the year ended 30 June 2002 subject to the completion of two items: completion of the members' funds reconciliation and receipt of a bank confirmation. After those two items were addressed the auditors provided an unqualified audit report.[537] On 30 October 2002 the auditors also certified that AC had maintained eligible and liquid assets in excess of $100,000.[538]
376. In our view, the establishment of AC as administrator of the ATC fund was unremarkable. ATC, having decided to discontinue the fund administration contract with FCSAS, initially decided that the fund would become self administering. This could have been achieved by either ATC's acquiring hardware, software and office equipment required to administer the fund and engaging additional staff to carry out the administration function or, as it has, by establishing an entity in the nature of a service company to provide administration services to ATC. On the evidence, we find that it chose the latter course because of the advice the directors received fromVS. Although we find that there continued to be references to the second option as self-administration, strictly speaking, it was not. The advice from VS was that the administrator should be kept separate from ATC. In his evidence VS said that this was because APRA did not welcome or encourage self-administration. There is, nevertheless, no legal impediment to a regulated superannuation fund's being self-administered.
377. Whether ATC established a discrete entity to conduct the administration function, or it elected to administer the fund itself, it would nevertheless have incurred substantial outlays by way of establishment costs. It is therefore unremarkable that in late 2001, although AC had by that time been incorporated, ATC engaged the services of consultants to assist in establishing the administration function which was to be carried out by AC. It is also unremarkable that ATC funded a number of initial expenses in the course of establishing of AC. It was, according to the applicants, to be its wholly owned entity set up solely for the purpose of administering the ATC fund. As hardware and software was acquired by AC and the process of migrating data from FCSAS to AC commenced, AC began to incur costs. It was at that point in time that AC raised an invoice to ATC in the sum of $160,000 plus $16,000 GST. That payment was for costs incurred by AC and for work to be completed in the very near future to bring AC up to operational status. In our opinion, payment of an invoice in advance of receiving either goods or services is not an uncommon commercial practice. Clearly, because it was intended that AC be operational by early January 2002, a payment for anticipated expenditure made in December 2001 is entirely consistent with ordinary commercial practice. While it is true that the payment in advance enabled Condition D.1 of ATC's IOA to be met, we are satisfied it was not the sole purpose of the payment. The underlying reality was that AC needed to do substantial work in order to be operational by 1 January 2002. In any event, as was submitted by Mr Santamaria, if the purpose of the payment was to enable AC to meet the requirements of Condition D.1 of ATC's IOA, we would find there was nothing improper about ATC's making a payment for that purpose because the establishment of the fund administrator could be described as an activity undertaken by ATC as trustee of the fund and it was therefore reasonably incidental to its activities as trustee.
378. APRA submitted that, in any event, AC did not meet the requirement of Condition D.1 because it did not meet the requirement to have both eligible and liquid assets of at least $100,000. Although AC had the sum of $176,000 in its bank account when it commenced operating as the fund administrator, and that would satisfy the liquid assets requirement, it did not meet the eligible assets requirement. We have set out the definitions of the terms "liquid assets" and "eligible assets" above.[539]
379. Although Condition D.1 falls under the heading Custodian Conditions, it has nothing to do with the Custodian. The reference in Condition D.1 is to the Trustee. Specific Condition 4, however, provides that Condition D.1 does not apply to the trustee but rather to the fund administrator. Further, the requirements set out in Condition D.1 must be reflected in the Administration Agreement. It is therefore tolerably clear that the meaning of the term eligible assets set out in Attachment 3 should be applied in the case of the fund administrator.
380. The first point made by APRA is that upon receipt of the $176,000 payment from ATC, AC should have recorded that receipt in its accounts in such a way as to note that it was a prepayment for services to be provided and, on the other side of the ledger, as a liability described as services to be performed. According to Ms McLeod, this would have resulted in the proportion of the monies received for which services had not been provided becoming a debt owing to the Trustee. With respect, that cannot be correct. Even if it were correct to record the future component of services to be provided as a liability in AC's accounts, that would not mean that the future component should be characterised as a debt. ATC did not become a creditor of AC as a result of the payment. Items recorded on the liability side of a balance sheet can take a variety of forms, and need not necessarily be debts. It seems to us that as a matter of law, if AC did not perform the services for which it had been paid, ATC's remedy would be to sue for damages. That, of course, is hypothetical because AC was at all times wholly owned by ATC and under the control of common directors and an employee of ATC.
381. In any event, we do not agree that the correct accounting treatment of the $176,000 payment in December 2001 is as described by APRA. The recording of prepayments in the books of accounts of an entity is, as VCC said in evidence, appropriate where the service is not to be provided in the accounting period in which the payment is made. It is a fundamental accounting principle that expenses are matched against income in the accounting period to which any particular financial report relates. For most entities, the accounting period is a period of 12 months between 1 July and 30 June. Given that AC's accounting period ended on 30 June 2002, if the work for which it was paid was not completed by that date, then its accounts should record a prepayment. That would accurately match income against expenses for that accounting period.
382. If that is the correct accounting approach, then it seems to us that no part of the $176,000 payment should have been recorded as a prepayment. That is because AC was operational from 1 January 2002 even if all transitioning work had not been completed. VCC envisaged that the accounting and finance area of AC would be operational by about March 2002. As VCC said in his evidence, he employed Mr Austin on a full-time basis for three months in about January 2002 and he intended to move him to a part time position when the accounting and finance area of AC was up and running.[540] VCC said that Mr Austin's full time employment was extended in 2002. Although there was no direct evidence about when the transitioning tasks had been completed, there was evidence that the first fee paid by ATC to AC for administration expenses was paid on 25 January 2002. That was in the amount of $137,249.20. On 15 February 2002 there was a further payment for administration fees in the sum of $120,654.37. Therefore, it seems safe to infer that the transition process was completed or least substantially completed by about the end of January 2002 or mid February 2002. In our opinion, it was not appropriate to record the payment of $176,000, or at least that portion of the amount relating to work yet to be done, in a liability account. There was no dispute about the fact that all of the work required to be completed by AC in relation to the transition from FCSAS as fund administrator was completed well before 30 June 2002.
383. APRA was also critical of the fact that prior to 1 January 2002, ATC had paid a number of expenses in relation to the establishment of AC. According to APRA, those expenses should have been recorded by AC as debts owing to the Trustee. Again, we cannot agree with that submission. The allocation of costs relating to the establishment of AC was a matter for agreement between AC and ATC. Given that the agreement took some time to finalise, and despite the fact that it was based principally on the former agreement with FCSAS, there were a number of significant differences. Therefore, until such time as a proper allocation of expenses between the two entities was agreed upon, it would seem there would be no purpose served in making any adjustment to the financial statements.
384. In any event, as is common practice when finalising the accounts for the end of a reporting period, adjusting entries are made either prior to audit, if one is required, or upon review by the auditors of the proper allocation of income and expenditure of the entity being audited. At the Board meeting on 27 September 2002, the auditors of AC and ATC recommended a number of adjusting entries before the accounts were closed off for that financial year. Those adjusting entries were made in accordance with the auditors' recommendations and the accounts signed off. On that basis, the auditors provided an unqualified report.
385. From APRA's perspective, the problem in determining whether AC held the requisite eligible assets under the IOA, is that account should have been taken of all liabilities at all times in order to arrive at the eligible assets figure. That is accordance with the IOA and the definition of eligible assets set out in that document. Strict compliance with the requirement to maintain, at all times, eligible assets to the value of $100,000, would require adjusting entries to be made on a daily basis to arrive at the eligible assets figure. That would involve adjusting income entries which reflected prepayments of administration expenses, if there were any, and the prepayments of liabilities, such as insurance, which is generally prepaid 12 months in advance. Quite clearly, such an exercise is impractical. In fact that task was even more complicated by the fact that some establishment costs were borne by ATC and some by AC despite the fact that the Administration Agreement had not been finalised at that time. It was quite clear that further adjusting entries would have to be made at the end of the financial year to take into account that situation. For that reason, according to VCC, the simplest way to ensure AC maintained $100,000 worth of net assets was to simply monitor the bank account and make sure it did not fall below $100,000.[541] Although monitoring the bank account balance should enable the liquid assets requirement to be maintained, it might not be indicative of the eligible asset position on a daily basis. The practical answer to this problem seems to be that the fund administrator should maintain liquid assets in an amount exceeding $100,000. In fact VCC said that in early 2002, he required Mr Austin to inform him if the bank balance dropped below $160,000 so as to be sure it did not drop below $100,000.[542] Mr Austin confirmed that AC had a policy requiring its bank balance to remain above $160,000.[543] That was a reasonably prudent way of overcoming the problem posed by the way in which eligible assets are defined.
386. The need for ATC to obtain an annual audit certificate stating that eligible assets had been maintained to the level of $100,000 required the auditors to state, retrospectively, that the required level of assets had been maintained during the year. It should be reasonably obvious that the auditors could not establish whether the requisite eligible assets value had been maintained on a daily basis. The auditors were concerned with the state of the accounts at the end of a reporting period. It is, in our view, unrealistic to expect the auditors to go through the accounts for a 12 month period, making notional adjusting entries on a daily basis to arrive at the eligible assets figure on each day. Necessarily, the auditor's certificate will reflect the state of the accounts at the end of the accounting period and therefore it is possible that, if eligible assets have dropped below the requisite figure during the course of the year, it would not be detected on audit. However, if the administrator maintained liquid assets in excess of $160,000, that would appear provide it with a sufficient buffer to ensure compliance with the eligible assets requirement.
387. The evidence was that AC did maintain $100,000 in its bank account at all relevant times, save for two very brief periods in March 2002. The later period consisted of possibly three days between 15 March 2002 and 18 March 2002 when the credit balance in the bank account dropped to $74,278.94. That situation was rectified on 18 March 2002 with a deposit in the sum of $494,329.83. [544] The earlier period also extended over some three days from 1 March 2002 to 5 March 2002 when it dropped to $38,411.22 and $26,211.22. It was rectified on 5 March 2002 with the deposit of $394,147.01.[545] VCC said of the later period that he believed that payment to be a reimbursement of claims and expenses or administration fees. Therefore, if that event is regarded as a breach of Condition D.1, it can only be described as minor and of no particular significance.
388. The earlier period was not a period that seems to have been identified by any of the parties in this case. It was not addressed in evidence and we have only the bank statements showing that it occurred. From them, all that we can glean is that it appears to have been identified and rectified in very short compass as was the later one.
389. If it were the case that, contrary to our view, Condition D.1 should be interpreted as making ATC responsible for the actions of the fund administrator, AC, we would find that except for the six days in March 2002, ATC did not breach Condition D.1 of its IOA.
390. Furthermore, we do not consider that ATC was in breach of ss 52(2)(b) or 52(2)(c). Certainly, the fund administrator that it had chosen did not maintain its NTA at the required level for two separate periods of three days or so. We do not consider that a prudent person of the sort referred to in s 52(2)(b) would consider it necessary to check each day, or even each couple of days, that its fund administrator had maintained the appropriate level of NTA. As it was, the two periods of non-compliance were short and quickly remedied.
391. Even if we are incorrect and ATC is responsible for the failure of AC to maintain its NTA at all times, we would not conclude that it is in breach of s 52(2)(b). Even when dealing with the property of another, an ordinary prudent person is not called upon to exhibit a standard of perfection. Errors should not happen but the fact is that they do even for the most prudent. What is important is what is done about them to rectify them and to ensure that they are not repeated. They are relevant matters in determining what the ordinary prudent person in the circumstances set out in s 52(2)(b) would do. Having regard to our findings of fact, we consider that ATC met the appropriate standard in relation to the NTA.
392. We have some difficulty in understanding just how s 52(2)(c) is relevant in this circumstance. Perhaps we should consider the matter from the point of view of whether it was in the best interests of the beneficiaries for ATC to exercise its power to appoint a fund administrator who permitted the NTA to fall below the permissible level. Again, those two instances of breach need to be looked at in the overall context of AC's behaviour and ATC's decision to engage it. The decision to engage them was a decision taken very much with the best interests of the beneficiaries in mind and very much in their best interests. Apart from the two failures occurring in the first three months of its being established and despite all of the difficulties it encountered in obtaining the relevant data, ATC's decision to engage it could not be said to have contravened s 52(2)(c). Even if ATC were directly responsible for AC's contravention, we would reach the same conclusion. Paraphrasing Barrett J's words in Charlton v Baber, exercising a power in the best interests of the beneficiaries does not require the trustee to meet some absolute or superlative standard and so a standard that the beneficiaries would not have done in seeking to protect his or her own position and promote his or her own advantages with such a degree of selfishness as the circumstances will admit.
Whether ATC in breach of covenants in ss 52(2)(b) and (c) in authorising payment of AC invoice
393. Ms McLeod submitted that the Board's authorisation of the payment of AC's invoice dated 12 December 2001 constituted a breach of the covenants in sections 52(2)(b) and (c) of the SIS Act. The invoice had sought payment of an amount of $160,000 and an additional $16,000 for GST for, in essence, services it had provided to ATC for the administration of ASF.[546] By authorising payment of the invoice without making due enquiries in relation to the services that AC had provided in relation to that administration, Ms McLeod submitted, ATC failed to act with requisite care, skill and diligence. In that way, it had contravened ss 52(2)(b) and (c).
394. We have difficulty with this submission. The invoice has to be seen in the context in which it was presented to and considered by the Board. That context was one in which the Board was well aware of the administrative costs it had paid to FCSAS in the past and was well aware of the work that was being undertaken by AC. After all, two of its directors had agreed to be directors of it and its CEO was already a director of AC. Both entities were working from the same premises and the Board knew that there were problems with the data held by FCSAS and with its transmission to AC. Given its knowledge and its past experience with FCSAS, the Board was in the best position to know whether the sum for which ATC had been invoiced was appropriate. We were not given any evidence that the going rate for administrative services of the sort provided by AC would have been any cheaper elsewhere. Indeed, we find on the evidence that we were given, that they were significantly cheaper. Having regard to all these matters, we find that ATC acted with requisite care, skill and diligence in authorising the payment of AC's invoice.
Whether ATC involved in impermissible activity as result of establishment of AC
395. APRA contended that ATC's role in the set up and establishment of AC indicated it was engaged in a business or commercial activity not permitted by Condition A.15(a) of its IOA because it was not necessary or reasonably incidental to its activities as trustee of the fund. We have set out Condition A.15(a) above but note that, in general terms, it provides that the Trustee must not engage in any business or commercial activity unless it has been approved by APRA or unless it is necessary or reasonably incidental to the Trustee's activity as a Trustee of one or more regulated superannuation entities.
396. The expressions business and commercial activities are not defined in the IOA. APRA submitted that there are two independent reasons why ATC's involvement in AC gives rise to the breach. First, it was submitted, it was ATC's intention that AC would provide administrative services to funds and entities other than ASF. Although conceding it may be reasonably incidental to ATC's activities to set up an administration company owned and run by ATC which provides its services solely to ATC, APRA submitted it was not permissible to set up what was effectively a commercial enterprise. Second, it was submitted, between 2 November 2001 and 14 August 2003, AC was owned beneficially by VCC. The establishment of a company owned by VCC was not something that was reasonably incidental to ATC's activities as trustee.
397. We are not entirely clear about APRA's use of the expressions "set up" and "establish" in its submission as, in the context with which we are dealing, they would seem to mean the same thing.[547] Our understanding of APRA's submission is that it is referring to all of the steps that brought AC into being. Those steps include the incorporation of AC, the purchase by ATC of the office equipment, computers, software and the initial hiring of staff. We have already found that ATC undertook all of these activities.
398. The first issue that arises in considering this submission is what activity is encompassed within the notion of "engage in any business or commercial activity". Only if ATC is so engaging will the second question arise regarding whether those activities come within the exceptions included in Condition A.15. We will begin by looking at the word "engage" and then at "business or commercial activity". In doing so, we are mindful that the meaning to be attributed to a word or expression can be affected by its context and that, as Lord Halsbury said in Mersey Docks and Harbour Board v Henderson Bros:[548]
"It certainly is not a satisfactory mode of arriving at the meaning of a compound phrase to sever it into its several parts and to construe it by the separate meaning of each of such parts when severed."[549]
Even so, it is useful to have regard to the meanings of the individual words and to the meanings attributed to the expression in other contexts before turning to its meaning in the context of the 1936 Act.
399. The word "engage" is used as a verb in the sense of "... to involve or occupy ..."[550] themselves in any business or commercial activity. The word "business" has among its ordinary meanings that of:
"... 1 the buying and selling of goods and services. Also called COMMERCE, TRADE. 2 a shop, firm or commercial company, etc. 3 a regular occupation, trade or profession ..."[551]
Those of "commercial" hark back to those of "commerce":
"... a. the buying and selling of commodities and services; b trade, including banking, insurance, etc ..."[552]
"... 1 relating to, engaged in or used for commerce. 2 profitable; having profit as the main goal ..."[553]
400. Each of the words has been considered in various authorities as have various combinations of the words. Mason CJ and Gaudron and McHugh JJ said in Re Australian Industrial Relations Commission; ex parte Australian Transport Officers Federation[554] "... Of all the words, the word 'business' is notorious for taking its colour and content from its surroundings ...".[555] In Ferguson v Federal Commissioner of Taxation,[556] the Full Court of the Federal Court considered some of the factors that are relevant in considering whether a person is carrying on business. It did so in the context of ss 6(1) and 51(1) of the Income Tax Assesment Act 1936 (ITA Act). Bowen CJ and Franki J summarised the effect of the authorities at the time:
"... There are many elements to be considered. The nature of the activities, particularly whether they have the purpose of profit-making, may be important. However, an immediate purpose of profit-making in a particular income year does not appear to be essential. Certainly it may be held a person is carrying on business notwithstanding his profit is small or even where he is making a loss. Repetition and regularity of the activities is also important. However, every business has to begin, and even isolated activities may in the circumstances be held to be the commencement of carrying on business. Again, organization of activities in a business-like manner, the keeping of books, records and the use of system may all serve to indicate that a business is being carried on. The fact that, concurrently with the activities in question, the taxpayer carries on the practice of a profession or another business, does not preclude a finding that his additional activities constitute the carrying on of a business. The volume of his operations and the amount of capital employed by him may be significant. However, if what he is doing is more properly described as the pursuit of a hobby or recreation or an addiction to a sport, he will not be held to be carrying on a business, even though his operations are fairly substantial. ..."[557]
401. Their Honour's approach is consistent with that adopted by the High Court a little later in Hope v The Council of the City of Bathurst.[558] The High Court considered whether the occupier of land was "carrying on the business of grazing" within the meaning of s 118(1) of the Local Government Act 1919 (NSW). Mason J, with whom Gibbs, Stephen, Murphy and Aickin JJ agreed, accepted that:
"... 'business' in the sub-section has the ordinary or popular meaning which it would be given in the expression 'carrying on the business of grazing'. It denotes grazing activities undertaken as a commercial enterprise in the nature of a going concern, that is, activities engaged in for the purpose of profit on a continuous and repetitive basis. ..."[559]
402. More recently, in Commissioner of Taxation of the Commonwealth of Australia v Murry,[560] the High Court determined whether the sale of shares and a taxi licence constituted the disposal of a business. The taxpayer contended that the shares and licence were the business. The Court, Gaudron, McHugh, Gummow and Hayne JJ said in rejecting a statement made in evidence that the shares and licence were regarded as a business:
"... A business is not a thing or things. It is a course of conduct carried on for the purpose of profit and involves notions of continuity and repetition of actions."[561]
403. The establishment of AC was a single event which took the form of its incorporation on the instructions of ATC through its CEO, VCC. After its incorporation, ATC did not engage in AC's activities be they described as business or commercial activities. It did not involve any of the indicia referred to by Bowen CJ and Franki J in Ferguson v Federal Commissioner of Taxation. So, for example, it did not involve ATC in any activity that was directed, if not in the short term, at least in the longer term to generating a profit. There was no buying and selling, no exchange of merchandise, no provision of services and, indeed, no activity of any sort by ATC. In summary, the establishment of AC did not involve ATC in the continuity or repetition of any actions once it had done all that was necessary to incorporate and establish AC. Therefore, the establishment of AC could not, in our opinion, be said to involve ATC engaging in a business or commercial activity. ATC could not be said to have breached Condition A.15 and there is no need to go on to consider the qualifications set out in the condition.
404. Despite our conclusion, we have also considered whether it could be said that ATC was in breach of Condition A.15 by reason of its being a beneficial shareholder. We do not think that it can be. The holding of a share, legally or beneficially, does not confer on ATC any right to be involved in the business or commercial activities of AC. A share is personal property.[562] It confers on the legal owner, who is the registered holder, certain rights set out in the company's constitution and the replaceable rules set out in the Corporations Act. A company is a legal entity separate from the legal persons who become associated for its formation or those who become its members and its directors.[563]
"... Between the investor, who participates as a shareholder, and the undertaking carried on, the law interposes another person, real though artificial, the company itself, and the business carried on is the business of that company, and the capital employed is its capital and not in either case the business or the capital of the shareholders. ..."[566]
"being a separate legal entity means that the company can have legal rights, privileges, duties or liabilities without them being rights, privileges, duties or liabilities of its members or directors."[567]
407. In a limited liability company such as AC, each shareholder's liability is limited under the Corporation Act 2001 to the amount that they, or earlier holders of their shares, agreed to pay the company for the issue of their shares. [568] Furthermore, a company's property is not the property of its members.[569] The company holds its property separately from the property of its members. Although directors direct and management manages a company's affairs, they do so as agents of the artificial legal entity. If a company commits a breach of contract made with third parties who knew they were negotiating with agents acting for a company, it is the company that is liable to the other parties for the breach rather than any agent, director or member who acts in good faith and who has not assumed personal liability by providing a guarantee or an indemnity of some sort.[570] Even where a wholly owned subsidiary company is controlled by a parent company, control by the parent company will not make the company an agent of the parent so as to make its acts those of the parent company.[571] As the learned authors of Ford's Principles of Corporations Law state, at paragraph 4.270:
"Although a group of companies is an economic unit, the initial position in law is that each member company is a separate legal entity with its own rights, privileges, duties and liabilities separate from those of other member companies."
408. There are, of course, exceptions to the separate entity doctrine and these most often arise from the perpetration of a fraud or the establishment of a company for the purpose of a sham.[572] Nevertheless, a person cannot be said to be involved in the business or commercial activities of a company merely because they hold shares. VCA, VCD and VCC's involvement as directors of AC could not give rise to a claim that ATC engaged in AC's business.
409. Condition A.15(a) only enjoins ATC from engaging in business or commercial activities not reasonably incidental to its activities as trustee of the fund. It does not apply to related bodies corporate or associated entities as those terms are defined in ss 50 and 50AAA if the Corporations Act.
410. Having come to the conclusion that ATC was not engaged in the business or commercial activities of AC, it is unnecessary for us to deal in detail with the evidence APRA contends establishes it was always AC's intention to provide administration services to other businesses and entities. Suffice to say we agree that AC was not obliged to provide its services exclusively to ATC and that VCC had discussions with other funds whether they might merge with ATC's fund. The Administration Agreement at clause 12.2(e) provides that AC is not obliged to provide its services exclusively to ATC and may provide similar services to third parties.
411. VCC said he did not think that was contemplated in any great detail. Nevertheless, VCA said it did occur to him and to others that once a functioning administration company was established, it would be able to provide administration services to other funds organisations if they wished to use AC. VCD said his view was that if the provision of administration services to other funds or organisations arose, a major consideration would be the impact it had on ATC, the fund, and the requirements under its IOA. VCC said although it was not initially contemplated AC would provide administration services to any entity other than ATC, or superannuation funds which merged with ATC, a couple of discussions had taken place with other funds. However, up until the time that he was stood down as the CEO of ATC, AC did not provide administration services to any superannuation fund other than AC.
412. AC did, however, operate administration services for redundancy trusts and he mentioned one that we will call the Redundancy Trust. That service is provided under contract and AC charges for it. VCC also said that AC provides services to ASCII Pty Ltd for a fee. That service was the provision of a receptionist which it shared with AC. VCC also said AC provided services to another entity, which we will call the ASCII Pty Ltd, for a fee. He said any profits accrued to AC for these external services provided were distributed via rebates on fees charged to ATC.
413. There was no evidence that VCC personally benefited from any external contracts and, on that basis, we are satisfied that he did not. Strictly speaking, it is unnecessary for us to determine the second ground on which the claimed breach of Condition A15.(a) was based. That ground calls into question VCC's conduct as an officer of ATC and it is precisely because it was called into question that makes us think it is important that we deal with it. The basis of the second ground was the submission that he had a conflict of interest as a result of his shareholding in AC. Therefore, in that context, we need to determine the nature of his interest in AC.
414. AC was incorporated in November 2001. This followed an Administration Committee meeting on 31 October 2001 at which VS, amongst others, was present. VS's evidence was that, at that meeting, a decision was made to incorporate AC. He said it was one of the outcomes from the discussions of the committee at the meeting.[573] The minutes of that meeting record that "The Committee noted the ownership of the new administrator and regarding directors of the new Administrator, it was suggested to increase prudential management, the Co-chairs request it to become directors of that company."[574] VS said that he understood ATC would own AC. That is, ATC was to be the legal and beneficial owner of the new entity. There was never any suggestion that AC was to be established to provide any form of benefit to VCC. VS also said the decision that ATC be the legal and beneficial owner of the shares in AC was consistent with his advice to VCC that the administrator should be at arm's length, or external, to the Trustee. The reasons for this separation were set out in his letter to VCC dated 29 May 2003 which was confirmation of oral advice given to the Administration Committee meeting in October 2001.[575] VS advised VCC that self-administration exposed the fund to liability for the acts or omissions of the trustee in the discharge of its administration duties, whereas outsourced administration provided the fund with a level of protection. Under self-administration, the trustee's indemnity from the fund would be rendered ineffective. He also advised that APRA has always attempted to dissuade trustees from the conduct of a business due to the liability and business risks of doing so. VS explained that self-administration required the diversion of management time and effort on the trustee's part. He advised against any self-administration arrangements. That advice was accepted by VCC.
415. After the decision was made to use a discrete entity as ATC's fund administrator, VCC wanted matters to move quickly. VS confirmed that VCC made him aware it was necessary to incorporate AC as quickly as possible after the 31 October 2001 meeting. VS noted that action had to be taken within two months and, in fact, more quickly than that because of the Christmas/New Year break.[576] According VCC, when he asked VS about the best way to quickly incorporate AC, he was told by VS that new regulations allowed the establishment of single shareholder companies so that registration was a simpler process. VS told VCC that the company could be registered with him as the sole director and shareholder, and if that needed to be changed later, it could. According to VS, the fact that VCC was to be listed as the sole shareholder in ATC, was nevertheless consistent with the share being beneficially owned by ATC. He said he did not turn his mind to the possibility of the nominated shareholder's being ATC. Had that decision been taken, it was a decision which the Board could have ratified at a later stage but he was concerned that such a course might take more time because of the very fact that approval would be required from the Board of ATC. The Board of ATC was next due to meet in December 2001. He said he had a person available who was authorised to incorporate AC and so he acted on that. That person was VCC. VS also said he was uncertain whether VCC would continue to hold the share or whether it would be transferred to ATC.[577] For that reason, he considered any permanent record, such as a Declaration of Trust, unnecessary.
416. VCC's evidence was that at all times he held the share in AC on trust for ATC and the fund.[578] VCA's evidence was that VCC would be the initial shareholder, and it was not his to deal with as he wished. VCC could not sell or transfer the share.[579] VCD said his understanding was that VCC held the share but he did not have the ability to trade, to receive any dividends or obtain a financial benefit. In fact, VCD said, when he was previously in a similar position in another entity, its establishment proceeded in exactly the same way.[580]
417. In late February 2002 VCC and VCD were also appointed directors of AC. This was in accordance with the decision of the ATC Board on 14 December 2001 that VCC and VCD become directors of AC.[581]
418. VS provided VCC with a written opinion dated 10 March 2002 in which he stated ATC held no shares in AC. He also expressed the opinion that ATC remained compliant with its IOA. In his written statement of evidence VS said the statement regarding the holding of shares was not relevant to the opinion in his letter and it was an unfortunate choice of words. In cross-examination, VS said his letter generally addressed whether AC could be construed as a custodian. Therefore, in stating there was compliance with the IOA, he was referring only to compliance in terms of the custodial arrangements. VS confirmed it was true ATC held no shares in the administrator at that time or subsequently. However, he said ATC certainly held a beneficial interest in the share issued to VCC. He said with benefit of hindsight, he would have expressed the position more accurately his 10 March 2002 letter.
419. It is significant, in our opinion, that VCC never received any dividend from profits made by AC. There was no dispute that AC had been profitable since its inception. Its financial statements disclose surpluses for the 2002 and 2003 financial years. Despite that, there was no evidence that VCC obtained any financial advantage by way of distribution of any surplus. In fact, VCC said the surplus was returned to ATC by way of annual rebates of administration fees. This was confirmed by Mr Bisque who said in evidence that to date, AC had rebated ATC's fees to a total of $432,120.00. This was not disputed by APRA. In our opinion, that supports what VCC said in evidence about ATC always being the beneficial owner of AC.
420. APRA also referred a letter which had been signed by VCA and VCD and was dated 10 July 2003 wherein ATC stated:
"To remove all doubt, the CEO will move to now no longer beneficially hold the share in ... [AC]. The Trustee believes this unequivocally demonstrates its position in this regard, which it believes was unnecessary, given the strict nature of the above controls."[582]
421. VCA said the statement regarding VCC's share was made in order to reaffirm that it had been the Board's intention that a share be issued to VCC. In that way, there could be no misunderstanding in the future that the share was held by him on behalf of ATC without any prospect of his receiving personal gain. According to VCA, it was made in response to the inference drawn by APRA at the meeting held on 30 June 2003 that, because of the way the share had been described, there might be a perception that there was a beneficial outcome potentially to be achieved by VCC.[583] VCD also confirmed in evidence his understanding that VCC never beneficially owned the AC share.
422. VCD said that, upon reflection, he did not consider it optimal for AC to have a single shareholder. He had discussions with VS, VCC and VCA at a conference in Queensland in early March 2002. As a result of those discussions, it was agreed that an additional share in AC would be issued to each of VCA and VCD. VCD's share was issued and held on trust for the employer bodies as participants in the ATC fund. Similarly, VCA's share was held on trust for the employee body which was also a member of the ATC fund. Formal declarations of trust were drawn and executed. On 14 August 2003, VCC formally recorded that he held his share in AC on trust for ATC.
423. APRA pointed to the fact that the formal documents relating to the establishment of AC did not reveal that, prior to August 2003, VCC's share in AC was held in trust for ATC. APRA also referred to the fact that the Minutes of the ATC Board meeting held on 14 December 2001 did not refer to a resolution that ATC move formally to self administration. The Board Minutes of 28 September 2001 recorded that ATC resolved to accept the due diligence undertaken in choosing the appropriate administration system for ATC and to enter into a contract with Software Company through AC for the provision of suitable software. The Minutes of the meeting of the Administration Committee on 31 October 2001 record the committee's resolution to recommend to the ATC Board that it enter into an approved contract with AC. APRA referred to the fact that ATC's letter to its members and employer sponsors dated 12 December 2001 did not indicate ATC intended to own, or own an interest, in AC despite the fact it informed members of the imminent transfer of the funds administration to AC. Similarly, APRA noted there was no mention in the Trustee's letter to its members dated 22 February 2002 that it owned or controlled AC. The purpose of the letter was to inform its members that it had outsourced its administration to an external organisation. APRA also noted that ownership of AC by ATC was not recorded in its financial statements nor was AC described as a related entity. In fact, in the financial statements, VCC is referred to as the equity holder of AC and the shareholder of AC on another occasion.
424. APRA also referred to the evidence of Mr Austin that VCC told him the $176,000 deposit in AC's accounts was his money. Mr Austin said when he was employed by AC, it did not have accounting software to enable the accounts to be established. Therefore, he conducted a bank reconciliation using an Excel spreadsheet. When AC purchased an MYOB accounting package, he re-entered the data onto that system. When doing so, Mr Austin needed to identify the deposits and withdrawals from his bank reconciliation. He was unable to identify the $176,000 deposit and so he approached VCC and asked him what that deposit represented. He said VCC told him it was his money. He said he was not surprised by that statement because VCC was a shareholder and director of AC. VCC denied he said that to Mr Austin. When cross examined about his recollection regarding what was said by VCC, the following exchange occurred between Mr Santamaria, on behalf of VCC, and Mr Austin:
"The statement which you say Mr ... [VCC] said, that 'the 176,000 was mine' or 'my money,' caused you to surmise, in your mind, that this was, indeed, shareholders' equity?---At that point it did.
Leading up to that conversation, had you formed the view that the 176 was probably shareholders' equity?---Prior to talking to ... [VCC]?
Yes?---No, I had no idea what it was. I wanted to know what the opening balance was, what the opening transaction was.
There was no other statement of ... [VCC] which caused you to surmise that the $176,000 represented shareholders' equity, was there?---No.
There was no discussion that you had with any of ... [Mr Bisque], ...[Mr Asit] or anyone else which caused you to surmise that the 176,000 was shareholders' equity either?---No, I didn't discuss that with them at that time.
You see, the words - the phrase, 'It's mine' or 'My money,' would you agree, is capable of meaning different things in the context in which you were working?---Yes, I agree with that. If I may say, that in my - - -
Let's consider the possibilities of the meaning of that expression, 'It's mine' or 'My money'?---Yes.
You knew that ... [VCC] was the CEO of ... [ATC]?---Yes.
He says, 'It's mine,' doesn't say anything else apart from 'Yeah,' when you put it to him again. It could be meaning, as you say, that it was shareholders' equity; that's one meaning?---Mm.
Another meaning could be payments owing to him as representing ... [ATC] or ... [AC]?---Yes.
Another meaning could be 'mine' in the sense of ... [ATC] and not ... [AC]?---Yes.
And it could also be meaning 'mine' in the sense of ... [AC] and not ... [ATC], because he holds the only share in ... [AC]?---Yes.
But not necessarily in the sense that it was his own personal money, but it belonged to ... [AC]?---It's interesting you should say that. If I may make a comment, in one of the versions of my statement, I wrote exactly that as my interpretation.
All right. Can I just - I have no doubt that that is what you wrote in the version of the statement, and that's exactly what you thought at the time?---I wrote a couple of things in my statement, which I had in italics, which were reflecting on the situations we are discussing. One related to the tearing up of the invoice, and the other thing that I wrote related to my subsequent discovery of - my discovery of the invoice and my then interpretation of that invoice in the context of ... [VCC's] 'Where's my money' statement. And I wrote those things in italics because, when I was reflecting on what I was writing, I was trying to see, well, why - you know, looking back, why did these things happen; why did I think along those lines. What I wrote in the context of discovering the invoice and explaining to ... [VCC] that I had made an error, was, perhaps, at that point, I had interpreted the fact that he is a single shareholder in the business and he was saying, 'This is my money because I'm the shareholder,' whereas I interpreted it, when he said, 'It's my money,' as the equity side of things. It wasn't until the invoice came to light later that I thought, 'Shit, he probably really' - beg your pardon.
THE WITNESS: I put this in italics to explain what I was thinking when I was reporting those occurrences, because I felt that I wanted to have some context to those.
THE WITNESS: May I make a statement at this point?
MR SANTAMARIA: Don't let me stop you?---I have to say that I insisted, with the statement that I made - that it took a long time before I was satisfied with what was there. I took it away and rewrote it myself because I didn't want people to be putting words down that weren't my words, and I spent a lot of time rewriting what was initially put to me because I didn't think it reflected what I wanted to say - and ultimately came to the document we're now looking at. As to the italics matters, that I was very strong on trying to leave in, I was ultimately persuaded that those sort of matters would come up in this forum, and they have."[584]
425. By April 2002 Mr Austin had made further enquires of FCSAS and he had obtained a copy of the invoice issued by AC to ATC. That caused him to alter AC's accounts to reflect the payment of $176,000 as income rather than as equity, which was where the payment was first entered. At first, Mr Austin said he entered the payment as equity because of what was said to him by VCC about it being his money. However, after reflecting on his evidence following a break in his cross examination, Mr Austin said that when he first entered the $176,000 payment into the MYOB accounts, he did not make a conscious decision to enter that sum in the equity account. Rather, and Mr Austin said he had demonstrated this to himself, the MYOB system made the entry by default because the entry was undetermined when he made it. The default entry simply ensured that the accounts balanced after the entry had been made. The entry in the equity account did not result from his first impression that the money belonged to VCC. In fact, VCC has never maintained it was his money and he has never sought to have the accounts altered to reflect that position. It is clear to us that that Mr Austin's evidence does not support APRA's contention that VCC had a beneficial interest in AC.
426. Mr Efthymiou, a principal analyst with APRA, attended a meeting with VCC, Mr Asit, and an accountant from the auditors, Arthur Andersen, on 25 January 2002. According to Mr Efthymiou's file note of that meeting, its purpose was to provide APRA with a progress report on the changeover of the administration arrangements for ATC. It is clear from the notes that Mr Efthymiou was told AC was the new administrator. It was noted that Mr Efthymiou asked for a due diligence report regarding the selection of AC to be the new administrator together with the new Administration Agreement. Mr Efthymiou's evidence was that, although not stated in his file note, his impression of AC was that it was a company owned by ATC and established for the purpose of performing the administrative services for ATC alone. Mr Efthymiou said the officers of ATC did not discuss independence or inherent conflicts of interest arising from the structure and operation of AC. In cross-examination, Mr Efthymiou agreed he did not raise those issues at the meeting.
427. Mr Efthymiou wrote to the Directors of ATC on 16 December 2002 advising that APRA intended to conduct a risk review of ATC in the period February/March 2003. He recalled reading a note to the annual financial statements of the fund in the course of APRA's review dealing with related party transactions. That note recorded VCA, VCC and VCD were directors of AC and that VCC was an equity holder in AC. Mr Efthymiou noted there was nothing in the financial statements which indicated VCC's share in AC was held on trust for ATC. The financial statements of ATC did not record AC's owner. Mr Efthymiou said this information surprised him because he understood from previous discussions (presumably with VCC) that the self-administration arrangement meant ATC was the beneficial owner of AC. Mr Efthymiou made a file note of the meeting held on 21 May 2003 and in it he noted that, upon enquiring about AC, VCC told him he was the sole shareholder of AC. He was also told that the co-chairs of ATC, VCA and VCD, were directors of AC. Mr Efthymiou's file note also records VCC told him there were silent investors in AC although he advised those investors were not currently in place. Apparently, VCC told Mr Efthymiou it was contemplated to introduce them by restructuring the shareholding of AC.
428. This was a matter that was addressed at some length in Mr Santamaria's cross-examination of Mr Efthymiou. We will set out a small part of it relating to Mr Efthymiou's understanding of why VCC had been given beneficial ownership of AC:
"And in the provision of additional financial benefits to the CEO of the fund through the beneficial ownership of ... [AC] what were these additional financial benefits?---This was from the conversation that I had with the CEO that he - the trustee couldn't afford to properly remunerate him and his package was supplemented through the equity shareholding of ... [AC].
I see, righto. Did you get a value of that benefit at any stage, Mr Efthymiou?---Sorry?
Could you put a value on that benefit at any stage?---Well, I was told the CEOs package was 180. His view was for that role the remuneration - the package should be 250 to 300. And therefore the additional moneys would supplement - compensate his package.
I see. Just as a matter of interest. The sworn evidence by ... [VCC] was that his salary was never 180,000 and that he didn't say that to you?---Well - - -
Is it possible that you - - -?---I have a very clear recollection of the conversation because it was a conversation that I haven't had in my experience supervising a range of ..... there. I have had opportunity to interact with trustees who has similar arrangements, let us put it this way, so this wasn't something that I heard often and I would have been confused. I have a very - fairly - clear recollection of the conversation.
And that he overstated his - I withdraw that. He said to you 180,000 when his sworn evidence before the Tribunal was that it was never anything like 180,000?---That is what I was told.
I see, now, these additional financial benefits had been provided to ... [VCC] by the trustee?---Well - - -
Or its provision of additional financial benefits to the CEO of the fund?---Well, he said to me that the trustee agreed to that arrangement.
I see?---So this was an arrangement that he arrive by himself.
I see, that is an extraordinary arrangement on anyone's terms, is it not?---Yes, it is.
And so extraordinary that surely you would have gone off to any one of the other directors of the trustee in order to clarify or enquire about it?---What I said at the time, I recollect, is that I questioned it and I said, ... [VCC], if that was the case, why couldn't you negotiate an increased salary or package rather than have this arrangement in place.
Yes, when did you say that to him?---At the time.
Is that in your statement?---I would have said that on the 23rd when the discussion came about the numbers.
Did you say it to him; did you say it in your statement?---I don't recall whether it is in my statement.
You put it in your affidavit?---I put it in my affidavit, sorry?
It is not in your affidavit; it is not in your notes either, is it?
This bit about ... [VCC], why didn't you do X, Y and Z, it is not in your notes, it is not in your affidavit; it is not in your statement, is it?---Well, that is my recollection."[585]
429. According to APRA, there is a plain and inexplicable contradiction in the evidence. If the Trustee did not intend the business of AC to benefit VCC personally, why did it hold out that this was the case? Apart from the evidence of Mr Efthymiou, APRA appears to have based its contention that the first issued share in AC was held beneficially by VCC on the advice given by VS to ATC on 29 May 2003. In effect, VS's advice was ATC would minimise the risks involved if its administration was conducted by a third party, independent of ATC. VS cautioned against any self administration. From this, APRA apprehended that if ATC held the share in AC beneficially, this would mean ATC had implemented self-administration against VS's advice and AC would not be truly independent of ATC.
430. In our view, however, this discloses a serious misunderstanding of the distinction drawn by VS between self-administration and the establishment of a discrete entity to act as ATC's administrator. Self-administration of the fund meant ATC would establish that function within its own structure. The establishment of a discrete legal entity, irrespective of who might be its members or shareholders, or who may have a beneficial interest in its shares, cannot be properly described as self-administration. The establishment of a discrete legal entity results in a separation of its liabilities and property from its shareholders and any other entity. Its business is not the business of ATC. This is precisely in accordance with VS's advice. Even if ATC were registered as the sole shareholder of AC, that would not, in the ordinary conduct of the business of AC, result in any exposure to liability by the trust fund. It probably accounts for the reason that, following the administration committee meeting of 31 October 2001, VS's understanding was the committee intended ATC would be the owner of AC, in both the legal and beneficial sense, and it did not cause him any concern.[586]
431. It appears it was only after the concerns raised by APRA about the ownership of shares in AC that VCC took steps to make it clear the share he held was held on trust for ATC. Prior to that, VCC, and in fact VS, seemed content to say to APRA that ATC did not hold any shares in AC. Although this was strictly correct as the single issued share was registered in VCC's name, no thought was apparently given to the possibility that beneficial ownership of the share by VCC might give rise to conflict of interest concerns.
432. The thrust of APRA's submissions regarding share ownership seems to be that the purpose of VCC's becoming the registered shareholder of AC was for his personal benefit. However, there was no evidence that VCC benefited personally from his shareholding. Although AC did make a profit in an accounting sense, the evidence clearly disclosed that before declaring a profit, substantial surplus funds generated by the activities of AC were used to rebate administration fees charged to ATC. There is nothing in the Administration Agreement which would suggest AC was required to act in that manner. It seems to us that the only explanation can be that AC's initially issued share, and the later issued shares, were held on trust for ATC. Also, the Administration Agreement did provide in Schedule D that, from time to time, AC could review the amount of fees paid for the purpose of equity adjustments as agreed between the parties. That term also strongly suggests ATC was the equitable holder of all interests in AC.
433. APRA raised its concerns about conflicts of interest in the course of the 23 May 2003 meeting. It expressed concern about the fact that VCC gave evidence he was the CEO of both ATC and AC but said he did not work for AC.[587] Be that as it may, there was no evidence that satisfies us that VCC was ever in a position of conflict of interest.
434. APRA also submitted that VCC's ownership of the share in AC was consistent with the reference in his written offer of employment from ATC dated 5 May 2000 in which it was said that ATC: will consider ATC directorship/share option/criteria. VS said in cross-examination he thought when it was contemplated in May 2001 that VCC would take up duties as CEO of ATC on a full time basis, it was contemplated he would have a directorship role in any new administrator. However, the minutes of the Administration Committee meeting of 31 October 2001 also indicate VCC suggested that to increase prudential management, the co-chairs and CEO become directors of the new administrator. The committee resolved that in addition to the CEO, the two co-chairs, VCA and VCD, apply for directorships in AC. Given both VCA and VCD agreed that VCC's share in AC was held on trust for ATC, and VCC agreed that those two directors should also become directors of AC, unless there was a conspiracy among the three applicants (and we hasten to say there was no such allegation), to ensure that VCC personally benefited from his shareholding and directorship in AC, that evidence seems to support VCC's claim that his shareholding in AC was never intended for personal benefit. This is further strengthened by reason of clause 6.2(c) of the Administration Agreement. That clause restricts the rights of any shareholder in AC to transfer legal ownership of their shares in AC other than to a person agreed between ATC and AC without the prior consent of ATC. It ensures control of AC remains, effectively, in the hands of ATC.
435. It follows from our findings and conclusions that we do not consider that ATC was in breach of Condition A.15(a) of the IOA.
Was there an undocumented lending arrangement between ATC and AC?
436. The only evidence before us about the purpose of the establishment of AC was to provide administrative services to ATC. There was no evidence of any other purpose. It was submitted that there was an undocumented lending arrangement between ATC and AC. In the absence of a written administration agreement between ATC and AC, Ms McLeod submitted, ATC expended funds for the benefit of AC without any contractual clarity that it would be able to recoup its expenditure.
437. We do not accept that this submission reflects the true position. Taking first the issue of whether there was a loan between ATC and AC, we find that there was none. Had ATC decided to administer ASF internally, it would have faced similar establishment costs although it would not have had to pay for the incorporation of AC. Putting aside issues relating to the wisdom of ATC's embarking on a course of self-administration, its incurring the costs would have been regarded as unexceptional. Its decision to incur those costs in arranging for administration through a separate corporate vehicle can be no less unexceptional. This is a common occurrence in the corporate world. True it is that the accounts of ATC and AC were adjusted to attribute the costs of AC's establishment to it rather than to ATC. This adjustment, however, cannot be interpreted as converting what was simply expenditure incurred to achieve ATC's intention to establish AC into a loan by ATC to AC. We find that there was no loan by ATC to AC let alone an undocumented loan.
438. Further adjusting entries were made to the accounts of both entities to take account of the proper distribution of costs where they were incurred. The fact that AC may have provided some services to third parties and earned income as a result of that activity, surplus funds accrued by AC were rebated to ATC. Therefore, even if one of the purposes of establishing AC was for it to provide its services to third parties for profit, that was not for the purpose of ATC obtaining interest, income, profit or gain. The only financial benefit received by ATC as a consequence of this activity was that it was able to reduce its administrative expenses for the benefit of its members. In any event, after adjusting entries had been made to the accounts of both entities following the first audit in 2002, it could not be said that the parties dealt with each other on anything but an arm's length basis. It follows we do not accept APRA's submission that this constituted a breach of s 109 of the SIS Act.
Did ATC fail to meet the sole purpose test in s 62?
439. Section 62 is set out above but, in essence, it requires that ATC ensure that ASF was maintained solely for one or more of the prescribed core purposes or for one or more of the prescribed core purposes and for one or more of the prescribed ancillary purposes. This provision requires us to look to the purposes for which ASF was "maintained" i.e. the purposes for which it was continued or kept in existence.[588]
440. Having examined the evidence, we find that it was maintained solely for the purpose of providing benefits to ASF's members. In doing so, it had to administer those funds and their distribution, when appropriate to the members. Administration is a task that it could have carried out itself but, as VS advised, it would have been unwise for it to do so. Initially, it chose to engage an outside administrator, FCSAS. It incurred expenses engaging FCSAS just as it would have incurred them had it undertaken them internally. ATC would have required personnel and, in today's office and with today's management systems, computers and associated hardware and software in addition to the desks and paper needed for the personnel. Administration of a superannuation fund such as ASF cannot be equated with the administration of an individual's affairs. It can be a complex task requiring, in one way or another, the expenditure of money.
441. When regard is had to these matters, it seems to us that the expenditure of funds from ASF must be for the purpose of the provision of benefits for its members. That is so even though no specific reference is made in s 62 to administration costs. Indeed, no reference is made to any costs and yet the SIS Act contemplates that a superannuation entity may have a custodian and executive officers who could reasonably be expected to be paid for their services and for whom the members of the fund would reasonably have the same expectation. That this is so reinforces our view that administrative costs must be seen as being incurred for one of the prescribed purposes or one of the ancillary purposes in s 62.
442. That brings us back to the incorporation and establishment of AC. We do not accept Ms McLeod's submission that ATC's using funds to incorporate and establish AC was not for one of the permitted purposes. In our view, those funds, which were subsequently recouped, were used to establish a body that was later used to provide it with administrative services and, as it turns out, a significantly reduced rate than charged by FCSAS. We have already found that AC was not owned by VCC in any sense. Consequently, we find that ATC was not in breach of s 62.
Did ATC give adequate consideration to the structure of AC before its incorporation?
443. On behalf of APRA, Ms McLeod submitted that ATC had failed to give adequate consideration to the structure of AC before it embarked on its incorporation and establishment. It did not, for example, give sufficient thought to those who should be its directors and how many there should be as well as its share ownership. Therefore, the submission continued, ATC had failed to act in the best interests of the beneficiaries of ASF.
444. Evidence regarding the decision to establish AC was consistently given by all involved. We find that considerable thought had been given over an extended period to the problems faced with the FCSAS administration of ASF. It had also been given to self administration in the true sense of that term and to the establishment of a corporate entity to administer ASF. There are occasions on which the Board and the Administration Committee referred to the latter as self administration but it cannot be described as such. The Board expressly rejected self administration after receiving advice from VS. We refer to that elsewhere in these reasons.
445. It expressly decided to form an administration company and it did so, we find, after taking into account the advice of VS and the recommendation of the Administration Committee. The advice of VS, which was that the co-chairs of ATC be directors of the new company. That was his recommendation to the Administration Committee at its meeting on 31 October 2001, which he attended. AC was registered as a company on 2 November 2001. We acknowledge that only VCC was appointed as its sole director and its sole shareholder at that time. The circumstances in which the Administration Committee's decision was implemented is apparent from the following exchange between Ms McLeod and VS:
"Were you aware of why it was necessary to incorporate the new company in the quickest way possible? --- Yes. Following the decisions made at the 13 October meeting, action had to b taken within two months; far quicker than that, because of the Christmas/New Year break.
Yes? --- So there was a very limited time frame within which to establish a company and gets [sic] its contractual arrangements and service providers and so forth organised. It was quite a narrow opportunity.
Okay. Had you spoken to ... [VCC], following the meeting of 31 October 2001 and prior to this occasion, when he walked into your office, about the potential for him to share in the profit of the administrator? --- No.
The day before, at the administration committee meeting, you said you understood the trustee would hold the share? --- Would own the share. Would own ... [AC].
Were you content that ... [VC] was acting in accordance with the wishes of the administration committee, or did you not turn your mind to that aspect? --- I thought he was acting in accordance with the actions and - the issues and actions that came out of that meeting: get this thing done.
Okay. In 2001, did you need any written consents before registering ... [AC] as a company with a single shareholder? --- I believe so.
The incorporation involved completing the form 201, ... for lodgement with ASIC? --- Yes.
... Do you say it would have required a formal resolution of the board for the trustee to become a shareholder? --- I think so, yes.
That was your belief at the time, as well? --- It was, yes.
Were you aware that the directors were convening for a board meeting in December 2001? --- I can't say.
You're aware that the directors met quarterly? --- Yes.
... Do you say the urgency was such that you couldn't wait until that December board meeting? --- Yes.
Did you understand that ... [VCC] was authorised by the board to proceed with the registration of the share in his name, as at 1 November 2001? --- I don't think there was any such board resolution to that effect, but the board hadn't met or - wasn't going to meet, as you suggested to me, until December. There was an admin committee meeting of 31 December [sic], which authorised that certain actions be taken.
Was there any reason - practical reason, from your point of view, why the shareholding in the trustee's name couldn't have been filled in on the form 201 and later ratified by the board? --- Possibly, but at that time, it was those immediately available. I don't think I turned my mind to that.
Okay? --- I had someone available who was authorised to incorporate the company. I understood the instructions and the time frame was very short, and so I acted on it.
Okay. Now, the name ... had been floating around the stand since at least September 2001, when the board resolved to enter into a contract with ... [Software Company]. As I understand it, you didn't actually formally reserve that name with ASIC? --- I didn't, no.
Did anyone, instructed by you, reserve the name before the application to incorporate the company? --- I don't believe so.
... At the time of lodging the form, 201, had you taken steps, or were you instructed to take steps to prepare a constitution for ... [AC]? --- Yes.
Had that been finalised? --- No, I don't believe so.
... As I understand it, before you lodge an application with ASIC to register a company, there has to be a decision about how the company will be internally managed. Does that accord with your understanding of the ASIC requirements? --- No.
Is that because, in this case, it was a sole-shareholder, sole-director company? --- No, I don't believe that there is that requirement.
Did you consider it prudent to have some documentation or safeguard in place to ensure that, to the outside world, it was clear ... [VCC] did not own the share in his own right? --- I thought it was clear, at law, to my satisfaction, that he didn't.
Yes, and what was the evidence of that satisfaction at law? --- The - his employment relationship with ... [ATC], the 31 October admin committee, where ... [ATC] - that ... [ATC] admin committee made it perfectly clear that it was to own ... [AC]. They're two principal reasons."[589]
446. This passage gives an insight into the sense of urgency surrounding the incorporation and clearly sets the scene in which the decision was taken that VCC be appointed the sole director and the sole shareholder at the time. He was the person who was on the ground, so to speak, and AC was incorporated with a mind to adding the co-chairs of ATC as directors of AC after the Board had given its imprimatur.
447. We do not interpret the haste surrounding the incorporation of AC as amounting to haste in the decision to incorporate it or as lack of thought about its structure and management or its role in administering ASF. Ms McLeod acknowledged that thought had been given to the practical tasks. We find that this was a task in which VCC and Mr Asit had been engaged in July 2001 and their efforts had led to the preparation of a detailed draft implementation plan.[590] On the basis of his evidence we also find that the Board undertook a due diligence assessment of the changes required to the administration arrangements. VCC and Mr Asit prepared a document whose purpose was to "... identify all the functional points required by the administration business to enable the prospective system provider to match them to the appropriate application functions."[591] It was a document addressing all aspects of fund administration from the receipt of contributions, their investment, preservation and distribution and the types of insurance cover that would be offered the tasks for which administration fees would be payable.
448. The actual corporate structure of AC was not among the issues that was addressed in these documents but we do not see the need to do so. If the standard was one of perfection, it would have been preferable for AC to have been incorporated with VCA, VCC and VCD as directors holding one share each. It would have been preferable not to wait until 20 February 2002 to appoint VCA and VCD as directors. ATC could have taken the decision to postpone implementation of its plans to change ASF's administration in order to do that but we are satisfied on the evidence that was given to us that it had serious concerns about FCSAS's administration. We have not set them out because it is not fair to do so when FCSAS was not a party to the proceedings and did not have an opportunity to put a contrary view. It is enough to say that we are satisfied that ATC was gravely dissatisfied with FCSAS's administration and that, from its point of view and uninformed by any contrary view FCSAS might have, it had grounds to be. ATC needed to move to another administrator.
449. At all times, it seems to us, it was clear that AC was a creation of ATC and a creature of ATC. It came into being at ATC's behest and, in return for a fee, to do its bidding. It was owned by ATC and, as we have found, not by VCC. Although the implementation of the Board's wishes to establish AC was achieved quickly, complete compliance with its wishes as its directors was delayed for a few weeks after AC had become operational. Certainly, the shareholding was changed at a later stage but, in our view, that did not alter ATC's ownership of AC. It owned it whether it had three shareholders or one. Although it could have been wished that all of these matters could have been attended to from the outset, we do not consider that what was done was in any way a breach of the covenants in ss 52(2)(b) and (c). The steps that were taken were sufficient to ensure that the funds in ASF were protected and preserved at all times. Given the difficulties that ATC faced at the time, their actions accorded with what we find ASF's beneficiaries would have done in seeking to protect their own positions and to promote their own advantages with as much selfishness as the circumstances would permit.
450. APRA decided that ATC had breached Conditions B.2, B.3 and B.4 of the IOA. In its final submissions, though, APRA stated that, because Condition B.2 is an obligation imposed on the trustee to maintain requisite levels of insurance against liabilities incurred as a result of a breach of its professional duty as a trustee, it did not urge the Tribunal to make a finding that ATC had breached Condition B.2. Nevertheless, it urged the Tribunal to find that ATC had breached Conditions B.3 and B.4. For the reasons set out below, we do not find that ATC breached any of Conditions B.2, B.3 or B.4.
451. We have already set out Conditions B.2, B.3 and B.4 of the IOA.[592] APRA's contention regarding insurance is based on the fact that, irrespective of the view we take of the shareholding in AC, the establishment of AC constituted a business or undertaking of ATC. Neither the word "business" nor the word "undertaking" is a defined term in the IOA. We have already dealt with the meaning of "business" above and concluded that the establishment of AC was not a business of ATC. The ordinary meanings of the word "undertaking", when used as a noun, include: "... a duty, responsibility or task undertaken. ..."[593] and "... An action, task, etc, undertaken or begun; an enterprise. ...".[594] We do not accept that AC was an enterprise of ATC. ATC's involvement in AC did not go beyond its establishment. Establishment involved expenditure that was limited and confined and that was soon recovered from AC. ATC's involvement did not expose ATC to financial risk or place ASF's funds at risk. The provision of administrative services was the responsibility of, or task undertaken by, AC. It was a responsibility of, or task undertaken by, a body separate from ATC and over which it had no control other than through its contractual arrangements with it. True it is that its CEO and two of its directors were directors of AC but, when acting in that role, their duty was to AC and not to ATC.
452. APRA accepts that, because Condition B.2 is an obligation imposed on ATC to maintain adequate levels of insurance against liabilities incurred as a result of a breach of its professional duty as trustee of an entity, a failure to ensure that AC had requisite levels of insurance would not cause Condition B.2 to be breached. We agree. Irrespective of our view regarding the shareholding in AC, Condition B.2 does not require ATC to maintain adequate insurance cover in respect of the operations of AC. If the ATC Fund were to suffer a loss due to the actions of AC in administering the fund, there can be little doubt that ATC, as the trustee, would become liable to its members for such losses in the event they could not be recovered from AC.
453. As for Condition B.3, APRA submitted ATC was required to maintain adequate levels of material damage and consequential loss insurance in respect of AC because it was its business or undertaking. We cannot accept that submission. Contrary to APRA's submission, we do not accept that AC was a business or undertaking of ATC. The requirement to maintain adequate levels of insurance under condition B.3 applies in respect of its business or undertaking as trustee of an entity, not merely in respect of any business or undertaking of the trustee, as was submitted.
454. APRA has sought some assistance for its contention from the second sentence in Condition B.3. In our view, that second sentence merely expands upon what is required by the first sentence i.e. to "maintain adequate levels of material damage and consequential loss insurance in respect of its business or undertaking as trustee of an entity." It cannot affect the way in which the "business or undertaking as trustee" is understood. In arriving at an adequate level of insurance, the trustee is required by the third sentence of Condition B.3 to take into account its assets, the assets of any entities and all circumstances of the trustee and its business or undertakings that are reasonably relevant to the risk for which the insurance concerned provides indemnity. No doubt ATC could claim its beneficially held shares in AC as one of its assets. That would have to be covered by the insurance taken out by ATC but the value of that share must be questionable in view of the conditions that are placed upon its transfer and that must necessarily limit its marketability.[595]
455. Condition B.3 refers to an "entity" and to "entities". In the first sentence, it refers to the insurance it must maintain "in respect of its business or undertaking as trustee of an entity". In the third sentence, the level of insurance must have regard to certain matters including the assets of the trustee and the "assets of any entities" that are reasonably relevant to the risk for which the insurance provides indemnity. The "entity", to which each refers appears to be the same and must be understood as a reference to "each superannuation entity of which the trustee is the trustee". That is the meaning given to the word by Condition J.1.
456. When this is understood, it becomes clear to us that AC is not a superannuation entity of which ATC is the trustee. Therefore, it cannot be regarded as an entity whose assets ATC must take into account in maintaining its material damage and consequential loss insurance as required by Condition B.3. We are reinforced in our view by our understanding that the obligation imposed on ATC by Condition B.3 is to maintain adequate insurance "in respect of its business or undertaking as trustee of an entity" (emphasis added) and so of a superannuation entity. The obligation is clearly directed to and limited to ATC's business as trustee of an entity. It does not extend to its ownership of assets that are a matter separate from its business or undertaking as such a trustee. Even if Condition B.3 were to be read as extending to the business of providing administrative services for a superannuation entity, we would reach the same conclusion. As we have found above, the single event of establishing AC does not amount to a business or undertaking of ATC in this case. Therefore, our view is that Condition B.3 imposes no obligation at all on ATC to ensure AC had adequate levels of insurance against material damage and consequential loss.
457. It was, of course, a condition of the Administration Agreement between ATC and AC that AC maintain insurance during its term of appointment. In fact cl 11 of the Administration Agreement provides:
"... [AC] must during the continuance of its term of appointment, at its own cost and expense, ensure that it is adequately covered by fidelity guarantee insurance cover, electronic and computer crime insurance cover and professional indemnity insurance cover."
458. APRA submitted that, despite the clear obligation set out in the Administration Agreement, AC did not have insurance in place to guard against the risks involved in the business that it was undertaking for the trustee until it took out Directors and Officers Liability Insurance on 30 June 2004. ATC was aware that its IOA required it to maintain adequate levels of insurance for material damage and consequential loss, the submission continued, and that AC had an obligation under the Administration Agreement to obtain the necessary levels of professional indemnity insurance. What ATC had done was to fail to monitor AC's compliance with cl 11 and to fail to enforce compliance. APRA took the view that this placed the ASF's assets at risk and constituted a contravention by the trustee of Condition B.3 of its IOA.
459. APRA did not identify which of ASF's assets were at risk or the nature of that risk. According to submissions made by Mr North, the principal risk to which ATC was exposed in connection with the acts or omissions of AC was the risk of loss of data, documents or membership records maintained by AC as ATC's fund administrator. As Mr North submitted, there was no evidence to contradict that assertion. In cross examination, VCC was taken to ATC's insurance policy with ACE Asia Pacific (ACE)[596] in force at the time of AC's commencing operations. That policy was effective from 20 March 2001 to 20 March 2002 and was renewed for the 2002-2003 year.[597] That insurance policy was generally described as "trustee liability insurance".
460. In summary, up to limits specified in the Schedule to the policy, ACE was liable to pay for losses the "insureds" were legally obligated to pay as a result of any court or tribunal process.[598] The "insureds" meant "either or both the Insured Trust and the Insured Trustees".[599] The term "insured trustees" also included "... all past, present and future Trustees and members of any Policy Committee of the Insured Trust including the Directors and Employees of the Insured Trustees."[600] The policy also provided that ACE would:
"... reimburse the Insured Trustees up to the limit of liability specified in the Schedule for all loss resulting from loss of Money or negotiable instruments or goods or other assets for which the Insured Trustees are responsible in their capacity as trustees of the Insured Trust are (or would, except for an Indemnity, be) legally liable directly resulting from any act of fraud or dishonesty first discovered by the Insured Trustees during the Policy Period and reported to the Company during such period and committed by one or more of the following:
(1) a trustee of the Insured Trust who is an individual;
(3) a Director of the corporation which is the Insured Trustee.
Provided that cover is not extended to those committing, assisting or condoning the fraud or dishonesty."[601]
461. Up to the limit of the liability specified in the Schedule, ACE would also be liable for and:
"... for costs an expenses of whatsoever nature incurred in replacing or restoring Documents:
(1) which are the property of one or more Insureds; and
(2) which are held for the purposes of the Insured Trust; and
(3) which are in the custody of one or more of the Insureds or in the custody of any other person to or with whom such Documents have been entrusted, lodged or deposited by one or more of the Insureds during the course of the administration of the Insured Trust; and
(5) the loss of which has been first discovered during the Policy Period and reported to ACE during such period."[602]
462. When regard is had to the definitions, we find that the insurance cover extended to the insured trust, which is ASF, and the insured trustees, which is ATC. VCC was asked whether he had formed the view that the operations of AC as administrator of ASF were covered by that clause, and he answered that he was. He said that he believed he had discussed that issue with VS. VCC also said he was unable to obtain Directors' and Officers' insurance for AC when it commenced as fund administrator. VCC said that he spoke to Heath Lambert/IFS Insurance Broking but was informed that insurance was unobtainable following industry changes resulting from the collapse of HIH Ltd. He also consulted the Insurance Broker, Mr Michael Griffiths, who, he said, told him that the Director's Liability Insurance Policy held by ATC covered liability of persons' acting as a director or officer of ATC. VCC said he was also told that ATC's officers would be covered in relation to ATC's dealings with AC because they were dealing with AC as directors and officers of ATC. VCC said that VS told him he was of the view that the insurance policy applicable to ATC applied equally to the operations of AC. He did not obtain written advice from VS. VCC accepted that AC did not have its own Professional Indemnity Insurance. He was of the view that those matters were covered by ATC's policy.
463. In early 2002, as the time for renewal of ATC's insurance policy approached, the issue of insurance was discussed by the Administration Committee on 6 March 2002.[603] VCC told the committee that, because of problems in the insurance industry, it might be difficult to obtain trustee liability insurance but Heath Lambert was confident that it would be obtained before 20 March 2002. In fact, VCC was able to obtain renewal of the trustee's liability insurance which was confirmed in a facsimile from ACE Asia Pacific on 19 March 2002. This policy remained in force until 20 March 2003. VCC said he retained the belief that the directors and officers of AC were included under ATC's policy. The policy was again renewed in January 2003 for the period ending 20 March 2004. On 30 June 2004 VCC managed to obtain Directors and Officers Liability Insurance and professional indemnity insurance (PII) for the directors of AC.
464. APRA submitted that, because AC acted as the fund administrator from commencement date in January 2002 until 30 June 2004 without obtaining any form of PII for its directors and officers, this placed ASF's assets at risk. Other than that bare statement, we are left to work out for ourselves how those assets were at risk in the event that AC's directors and officers were not covered by PII. Mr Santamaria and Mr North argued that the insurance policies held by ATC during the two and a half year period covered a loss of documents held by AC. We are not so sure that this is an arguable position. In order to be covered by the policy with ACE, the lost documents had to meet all five criteria specified in cl 1(c). It seems to us that it might have been difficult to argue that they met the criterion in cl 1(c)(i) i.e. that they were the property of one of the Insureds and so of either ATC or ASF. The Administration Agreement between ATC and AC refers to "Scheme Confidential Information" but cl 1.2 defines that expression to mean:
"... all information concerning or in respect of:
(c) service providers to the Trustee or the Scheme;
(d) members or former members and beneficiaries and former beneficiaries of [sic] which is not in the public domain other than because of any breach of this Agreement and includes:
465. Clause 8 obliges AC to maintain the confidentiality of that information except in so far as it is required by law to disclose it. Clause 9.2 provides that AC indemnifies ATC against all claims, demands or losses incurred by ATC through the negligence, default, fraud or dishonesty of AC, its delegates, officers, agents or employees. Under cl 4.2, AC agreed to maintain a system that would meet the requirements of ASF. AC was obliged to ensure that in addition to other requirements, records are maintained that will enable ATC to give a responsible authority, such as APRA, the information it requires. That is the effect of cl. 4.4. Nothing in the Administration Agreement suggests that documents generated by AC in any way belong to ATC or that AC is the custodian of ATC's documents.
466. It was also argued that the officers of AC were covered under the ATC policy but it is difficult to see how that is so. The policy covers ATC and ASF and the directors and employees of ATC. We are unable to read into it coverage for the acts of directors and employees of AC even if they happen also to be directors and employees of ATC.
467. If it should be the case that losses resulted to ASF as a consequence of the actions of the directors or officers of AC, there seems to be no reason why, as Mr Santamaria submitted, ATC's policy would not have covered the losses. Even though ATC had agreed with AC that it provide the administration services, it (ATC) remained liable to the beneficiaries of ASF for any loss. That was a loss that was covered by cl 1(b) of the policy with ACE quite apart from any contractual remedies that ATC might have had against AC. This accorded with the advice VCC obtained from the broker.
468. Although it is reasonably clear that, for the first two and a half years of operation. AC did not comply with cl 11 of the Administration Agreement, that failure cannot be construed as ATC's breach of Condition B.3 of the IOA. The obligations set out in Conditions B.2 and B.3 are imposed on the Trustee and not upon the administrator. True it is that ATC's policy did not cover the loss of documents or information by AC but any losses caused to ATC could have been the subject of a contractual remedy. If it led to a loss of money, that loss would have been covered by cl 1(b) of the policy which provided a limit of liability on any one claim in the aggregate at $20 million. Having regard to ATC's assets, AC's assets, the nature of the liabilities that could be incurred from a failure, we are satisfied that the level of insurance cover was reasonable and appropriate in the circumstances. There has been no breach of either of Conditions B.2 or B.3.
469. APRA also contended that ATC breached Condition B.4 of its IOA because it failed to review its insurance cover regularly to ensure that it complied with Conditions B.2 and B.3. In our view, the evidence does not support that contention. VCC said ATC was always examining the insurance issue.[605] He said ATC reviewed its trustee liability and other insurances at least once a year. Further, as a result of merger discussions with another fund, VCC received a letter from Mr Scott suggesting AC did not have appropriate liability insurance. When asked if that prompted a review of the adequacy of appropriate liability insurance, VCC said it did. He said it caused ATC to look at the insurance situation and the arrangements that were in place. VCC also said he attempted to obtain directors' and officers' insurance for AC but was unable to do so due to the collapse of HIH Ltd. It follows we do not find there was a breach of condition B.4.
470. As for the submission made on behalf of APRA that ATC had failed to act with the required care, skill and diligence or in the best interests of ASF's members, we do not accept it. The submission was not developed other than to rely on the matters in support of its submissions regarding s 29.[606] We rely on the reasons that we have already given in finding ATC was not in breach of its obligations under s 29.
471. According to VCC, in about August 2001, the rental on the offices which it then occupied at Location A was about to increase. VCC considered that if ATC were to move towards establishing its own administration company, larger premises would be required in order to accommodate the fund administrator. This was conveyed to APRA at the meeting held on 2 October 2001. VCC became aware at about that time that ASCII Pty Ltd was also searching for new premises. VCA and VCD were both directors of ASCII Pty Ltd. ASCII Pty Ltd is the national skills body for the industry and is involved in the development of training for that industry. It represents both employers and trade unions in the industry. On the basis of VCC's evidence, ASCII Pty Ltd receives funding from the Commonwealth Government and is a non-profit body. In August 2001, it had net tangible assets in excess of one million dollars.
472. VCD was of the opinion that ASCII Pty Ltd was financially sound and he was confident it could meet rental liabilities if it entered into a sharing of premises with ATC. VCD also believed there was some benefit to the industry of having its superannuation body and principal training body located at the one venue. It was clearly convenient for persons involved in the industry and savings would accrue to both entities by sharing common facilities such as a boardroom, reception staff and some general office equipment. Occupying larger office space, according to VCD, would also provide additional space for ATC should it expand. VCC prepared a proposal for ATC and ASCII Pty Ltd to jointly occupy suitable premises located at Location B.[607]
473. VCC made submissions to the Administration Committee meeting on 31 October 2001 regarding the advantages of taking up accommodation at Location B. He outlined the expenses involved and indicated that ASCII Pty Ltd had agreed to participate with ATC in the relocation of their offices to Location B. VCA and VCD said they had inspected the property and other properties. It was put to the committee meeting that ATC would be the party entering the lease and subletting the remainder of the premises to AC and ASCII Pty Ltd. VCC also told the committee that this may pose a potential risk if ASCII Pty Ltd were to withdraw from the tenancy. Nevertheless, it was suggested the additional space could be used or sublet over time and that would reduce costs. The Administration Committee resolved to recommend to the ATC Board to relocate to Location B. The committee also resolved that ATC enter into a commercial arrangement with AC and ASCII Pty Ltd regarding the leasing of premises at Location B.
474. On 25 October 2001, ATC made an offer to lease the ground floor of the premises at Location B. Agents for the landlord wrote to VCC on 2 November 2001 stating that the it had accepted ATC's offer to lease commencing 5 November 2001. The term of the lease was three years. ATC was required to provide a bank guarantee equivalent to three months' net rental which was to be held by the Landlord for the duration of the lease. A deposit equivalent to two months office and car parking rental was also required as security for the agreement. The deposit moneys were to be held in trust for the first two months after which they were taken to be rental payment for those first two months. At the time of acceptance of ATC's offer, AC had not been incorporated although VCC had lodged with ASIC an application to register AC. The lease of Location B was executed on 21 November 2001 and the commencement date was said to be 8 November 2001.
475. The lease contained the usual clause regarding restrictions on the transfer and subletting of the demised premises. It provided that ATC must not, without the landlord's prior consent, transfer or sublet part or all of its interests under the lease. It also provided that the landlord would not unreasonably withhold or delay consent to a transfer or subletting provided ATC was not in default under the lease. The clause dealing with restrictions on transfer and subletting also contained the usual provisions regarding the suitability and financial soundness of any proposed sublessee. VCC discussed the lease with VS who reviewed it and advised ATC in respect of it.
476. In accordance with the resolution of the Administration Committee on 31 October 2001, ATC entered into an agreement with AC to the effect that AC became responsible for ATC's liability under the lease. That was recorded in a letter dated 5 December 2001 from VCC to Mr Bisque, AC's Operations Manager.
477. As required by the lease, ATC obtained a bank guarantee from the Bank on 31 January 2002 in an amount equal to three months rent. At the end of that year, on 2 December 2002, VCC wrote to Mr Bisque reminding him that AC's obligation regarding the meeting of ATC's financial obligations under the lease included the provision of the bank guarantee for three months rent. AC paid all of the rent and recovered half of those moneys from ASCII Pty Ltd. There was no dispute about the fact that ATC failed to notify the Landlord about the arrangements with ASCII Pty Ltd or AC.
478. APRA submitted that another company, which we will call Elle Pty Ltd and ANG Entity also operated from the premises at Location B. We are not certain that is so. In cross-examination, VCC said that two persons who were part-time employees of AC also did work for ANG Entity. When asked where those staff were housed in terms of their operations, VCC said that, when they were working for AC, they were at Location B and when they were not, they were spread around. He said that those staff members also worked for a number of organisations.[608]
479. APRA contended that ATC entered into the lease agreement and provided security for the bank guarantee from the Bank in circumstances where it planned to occupy only a fraction of the leased premises, and where it knew its ability to sublease or provide a licence to others to occupy the premises was restricted. According to APRA, ATC then allowed others to occupy the premises in the absence of any agreement with them and without the landlord's consent. That, according to APRA, was a breach of the terms of the lease. APRA submitted that ATC contracted to fulfil its obligation under the lease and the bank guarantee in circumstances where the benefit it obtained under those agreements was minimal. Further, ATC's ability to recover expenses from AC and ASCII Pty Ltd depended largely on the goodwill and the financial survival of those entities. By entering into the lease, ATC placed itself in a position where it was legally liable for an amount which was disproportionate to the benefit it obtained from the agreements with AC and ASCII Pty Ltd. Therefore, APRA submitted ATC did not act with the requisite care, skill and attention and did not act in the best interest of the ASF's beneficiaries.
480. VCC accepted that the consent of the landlord had not been obtained but observed that the restriction regarding subletting or the grant of a licence was subject to the Landlord's not unreasonably withholding or delaying consent to such a course of action. According to Mr Santamaria, under s 144 of the Property Law Act 1958 (Vic) (Property Law Act), a landlord is not entitled to refuse a reasonable request for subletting. We note that s 144 goes a little beyond this, though, because it contains a proviso to the effect that the lease may contain an express provision to the contrary.
481. The lease entered into by ATC with the landlord, contained a clause which states that consent should not be unreasonably withheld but also makes consent subject to the proviso that the lessee is not in default under the lease. Therefore, as Ms McLeod submitted, because ATC had already entered into a sublease or licence in respect of part of the premises without the landlord's consent, it was in default under the lease. It follows that the landlord could, in its discretion, withhold consent to a sublease or licence. In our view, Ms McLeod's submissions are clearly correct. Further, Clause 16 of the lease provides that Clause 12 of the lease, which deals with transfer and subletting, is an essential term of the lease. Breach of an essential term of the lease provides the Landlord with the option of terminating the lease and re-entering and taking possession of the premises. That is the effect of cl 16.3 of the lease.
482. At the end of the three year term ATC sought to exercise the option to renew the lease for a period of one year. The landlord consented to renewal and agreed to grant to ATC a lease for the further term.[609] Given that the lease provides that the exercise of the option for the further term is subject to the tenant's not being in default of the lease at the date of the exercise of the option, and the landlord's agreement to the exercise of the option, we are satisfied that the landlord must be taken as not having regarded the breach as material. Had it done so, the effect of cl 24.1 of the lease was that it was not obliged to grant a new lease. It may also be that an inference can be drawn from the grant of renewal of the lease to the effect that the landlord did consent to the occupation of part of the premises by AC and ASCII Pty Ltd. It would be unusual for a landlord not to examine the premises prior to the grant of a further term under an option agreement and, as Mr Santamaria submitted, the names of the other occupants were clearly on the front door of the office. Indeed, we understood VCC to say that the landlord had inspected the premises while AC and ASCII Pty Ltd were in occupancy.
483. As to either AC's or ASCII Pty Ltd's not meeting its rental obligations, we find that it was a possibility but was, in our view, a remote possibility. ATC was in a position to know of AC's financial viability being the body paying for services and having two of its directors and its CEO as directors of it. As for ASCII Pty Ltd, VCA and VCD were directors of it. As such, they would have been aware of its financial position and its ability to pay its proportionate share of the rent. ATC was also in a position to have a good understanding of the future directions that ASCII Pty Ltd might take. It of course remains true that despite the detailed knowledge the directors of ATC had of ASCII Pty Ltd future directions and financial standing, an unanticipated event could have caused ASCII Pty Ltd to withdraw from the arrangement. However, in those circumstances, it would seem ATC was well placed to recover from ASCII Pty Ltd its proportionate share of the rent for the unexpired term of its occupancy.
484. In our view, it is not correct to say that the potential liabilities under the lease were wholly disproportionate to the benefit ATC obtained from the premises sharing arrangement. In fact, time has proven ATC to be correct in that there was no default by either AC or ASCII Pty Ltd under the occupancy arrangements. ATC was at all times aware of the potential risks and, after consideration by the Administration Committee, it was decided that those risks were sufficiently small to proceed with the arrangement. It is therefore our view that by entering into the shared occupancy arrangements with AC and ASCII Pty Ltd, ATC did not breach its obligations to act with care, skill and attention with regard to members' funds. It acted neither in contravention of s 52(2)(b) nor of s 52(2)(c).
485. No commercial transaction is without some risk and, in this case, that risk was minimised by ATC's choosing as co-tenants a wholly owned subsidiary and an entity on which two of its directors were board members. As for obtaining the Bank guarantee, although the guarantee was not in evidence, we are aware that banks charge a notional sum per annum for maintaining a bank guarantee. Other than that payment, although AC may have had to grant charge over its assets to the bank as security for the guarantee, no further financial obligations would arise unless the landlord presented the bank guarantee to the Bank as a consequence of default in payment of the rent.
486. APRA contended that at the time AC began to provide administration services to ATC, it did so in the absence of a written agreement between the two entities. APRA submitted this conduct breached Condition C.1 of ATC's IOA and should have been reported to APRA as soon as practicable and in any event within 30 days after becoming aware of the breach.
487. In our opinion, Condition C.1 demands that the appointment of a fund administrator be by a written agreement which is complete in its terms and signed by the parties to be bound by it. An unsigned draft document, as existed upon the appointment of AC as fund administrator, does not satisfy that Condition. The need for the agreement to be in force while the Fund Administrator provides any fund administration services means, in our opinion, that those services be provided only during the period of validity of the agreement. It is not to the point that the agreement is one which may be enforced by a court. It is, in our view, well arguable that an agreement existed between AC and ATC on 1 January 2002. The fact that AC took over the fund administration function from FCSAS and acted as ATC's fund administrator from 1 January 2002 is strong, and we would think sufficient, evidence of that. The fundamental terms of the agreement had been agreed to by the parties when they agreed that they would adopt the terms of the agreement between ATC and FRCSA. That was so even though some of the services which ATC required AC to perform were yet to be determined. None of those factors, however, would persuade us that the requirements of Condition C.1 of the IOA had been met. An unsigned draft of an agreement does not satisfy condition C.1.
488. When the decision was taken in October 2001 to establish AC as the fund administrator, VCC instructed VS to prepare an Administration Agreement. VS's evidence was that he first prepared a draft Administration Agreement in late 2001.[610] VS said following the meeting of 31 October 2001, he had a copy of the standard FCSAS contract and he placed it in his copy typing pool to be copy typed. VS said he also merged some of the previously excluded services under the FCSAS contract into services which were to be included on instructions from VCC. He said there were minimal changes to the substantive agreement except for the schedules setting out the services to be provided. VS agreed he produced a new draft agreement at around 17 April 2002.
489. VS said that it was necessary to revisit the FCSAS agreement about that time due to an alteration of the schedules which were being altered to include certain services which had not been provided by FCSAS.[611] On 18 April 2002 VS had a meeting with VCC during the course of which the agreement was reviewed and further amendments were made. On 10 March 2002, VS wrote to VCC stating that the Administration Agreement was being completed.[612] VS emailed a further draft of the Administration Agreement to VCC on 24 April 2002. Despite being aware by 22 March 2002 that a written Administration Agreement had not been executed by AC and ATC, he nevertheless he provided VCC with a certificate entitled Administration Arrangements with AC's Certificate of Compliance. According to the Certificate, the Firm certified it was satisfied that the administrative arrangements with the administrator satisfied relevant Best Practice Guidelines, the SIS Act and Regulations, APRA requirements and ATC's IOA. VS said that the nature of the agreement had been reduced to writing and, although it had not been signed, he considered the signing of the document was a mere formality. He said the certificate was prepared in anticipation of execution of the agreement.
490. The minutes of the ATC Board meeting held on 11 March 2002 record that a draft agreement was tabled and discussed and it awaits "legal sign off".[613] VCA, VCC and VCD were present at that meeting. It follows VCA, VCC and VCD were aware on 11 March 2002 that the Administration Agreement had not been executed. There appears to be no dispute between the parties that the Administration Agreement was executed by AC and ATC in June 2002, some six months after AC began providing administration services to ATC.
491. On the evidence before us, it is clear that ATC breached Condition C.1 of its IOA because it failed to ensure that a written Fund Administration Agreement in writing was in force before AC began to provide fund administration services to ATC. The fact that the agreement between the two entities may have been enforceable as at 1 January 2002 is not to the point. There was no written agreement at that point in time.
492. APRA contends that as a consequence of ATC's failure to ensure that there was a formal written agreement in place with AC at the time that AC commenced work as the administrator of the fund, there was uncertainty regarding the nature of AC's obligations and duties. This, according to APRA, led to uncertainties regarding the responsibilities of each entity in relation to the costs of AC being met by ATC. APRA referred to the report by Ernst & Young in August 2002 following its audit.[614] Ernst & Young noted that between 1 January 2002 and 30 April 2002 some costs of fund administration, including staff wages, stationery, printing and posting costs were paid by ATC and not by AC.[615] Ernst & Young recommended that adjusting entries be made to properly distribute costs were they were incurred. Ernst & Young recommended that ATC recover from AC the cost of fund administration costs which related to the administration services provided by AC, but which were initially paid by ATC. Nevertheless, in the covering letter attaching its report, Ernst & Young said:
"Our interim audit did not reveal any significant issues that would affect our ability to issue an unqualified audit opinion."[616]
493. It seems reasonably clear that Ernst & Young did not regard the consequences of ATC's failure to finalise the precise terms of the Administration Agreement, and so the liability of each party, to be of any great significance. We also accept VCC's evidence that, during the start-up period of the administration arrangements between AC and ATC, he experienced some difficulty in categorising which items should be paid for by which entity. With the assistance of the auditors, these issues were able to be resolved and changes made to the Administration Agreement to reflect that agreement. We venture to suggest that even if there was an executed written agreement in place on 1 January 2002, following the audit in 2002, amendments would have been made to the schedule of that agreement which reflected the opinions of the auditors.
494. We also accept Mr Santamaria's submission regarding the significance of ATC's breach of Condition C.1 of the IOA. Given ATC's beneficial ownership of AC and the commonality of directors between the two entities, the risk of a serious dispute between the two entities requiring court intervention can properly be described as remote. Further, the absence of an executed written agreement between the parties would not, in our opinion, necessarily affect the ability of either party to enforce the agreement. We have therefore formed the view that, while there was clearly a breach of Condition C.1 of the IOA, it did not expose ATC to any serious detriment.
495. We are fortified in our view about the effect of the breach of Condition C.1 of IOA because, on 19 April 2002, APRA also became aware that there was no executed written agreement between AC and ATC. It did so when Mr Efthymiou and Mr Marks, who are both APRA officers, attended a meeting of the Special Administration Committee.[617] VS was also present at that meeting and he tabled a report entitled "Due Diligence of Transition of Administration Services".[618] In his report, VS set out the legal requirements for compliance with Condition C.1, and he noted under the action and certification column: written agreement's being finalised. Clearly, as at the date of that meeting, APRA was on notice that ATC was in breach of Condition C.1 of its IOA.
496. There is, however, no evidence that APRA drew the breach to ATC's attention for rectification at any time after it became aware of the contravention. It appears that the first occasion this arose as an issue was when the applicants were confronted with possible disqualification. In our view, had APRA been concerned about the absence of an executed written agreement between the parties, it would have raised that as an issue on or shortly after the 19 April 2002 meeting. That was its role as a supervisor of regulated superannuation funds[619] and in monitoring superannuation entities as required by Division 2 of Part 25 of the SIS Act.
497. Therefore, while we are of the view that there was a breach of s 29 of the SIS Act in that ATC did not give APRA written notice setting out particulars of the breach or at all, its consequences are not serious. We are also of the view that failure to comply with Condition C.1 did not prevent the Trustee from, or hinder the Trustee in, properly performing or exercising its functions or powers. We are therefore not of the view that a breach of the condition constitutes a breach of s 52(2)(e) of the SIS Act.
Did ATC fail to record a beneficial interest in AC?
498. If the Tribunal accepted the applicants' claim that VCC's share in AC was held in his capacity of CEO of ATC, Ms McLeod submitted, ATC had failed to act in the best interest of its beneficiaries by failing to keep a record of its beneficial ownership of the asset. APRA has not explained what it means by the expression the "asset" in this context, which must be related to the covenant in s 52(2)(c) of the SIS Act. Reference is made to it in the s 52(2)(d) but that is concerned with separating assets of the entity from certain other person's assets. APRA submitted that the financial statements prepared by ATC, being general purpose financial accounts, required, among other things, that assets and liabilities be recorded at net market value. To fail to do so was to fail to perform its powers and duties in the best interests of the beneficiaries.
499. It seems to us that this submission fails to distinguish between the rights of the beneficial owner of a share and the owner of property of a company. As we have already discussed at paragraph [404]-[408], the property of AC is not the property of the beneficial owner of the share. A share is an item of property that entitles its owner to membership of a corporation. The terms on which a corporation allows a person to gain membership is, within any limits imposed by the Corporations Act, something for the corporation to determine. It may, for example, want to limit membership to a particular person or class of persons and it can do so by imposing limits on the transferability of its shares. What a share cannot bestow on its owner is ownership of the assets of the corporation or any part of them. Ownership is limited to the shares and the rights that share bestows unless the company is liquidated. If, after all creditors have been paid as well as all the expenses of liquidation and realisation of the corporation's assets, any surplus may be divided amongst its shareholders. This is a rare occurrence and is not a situation that is relevant for us to consider further.[620]
500. As ATC is not a self managed superannuation fund as that term is defined in the SIS Act, it was only required to keep accounting records that correctly record and explain the transactions and financial position of the entity.[621] The records must also be kept to enable the accounts, statements and returns to be conveniently and properly audited in accordance with the SIS Act. Mr Santamaria, correctly in our opinion, submitted there was no evidence showing how ATC's interest in AC should have been entered in its accounts. Nor was there evidence of any relevant accounting standards which might apply to a private company such as AC. In the absence of any evidence, we have considered whether we should accept Ms McLeod's submission that ATC's interest in AC should have been shown at net market value.
501. If we were to accept it, we would see considerable difficulty in attributing a market value to ATC's interest in the share or shares in which it held a beneficial interest. The "term market value", when applied to the valuation of businesses, shares or other equity, has a well accepted meaning. Wayne Lonergan, in his textbook, entitled Valuation of Businesses, Shares and other Equity, defines market value as:
"Market value is a price at which an asset can be realised and is based on the assumption that an asset can be sold to an arm's length purchaser as and when desired. Implicit in this definition is that there are always ready and willing buyers and sellers of the asset being valued and that there is sufficient time to properly market the asset being sold. Market value is then defined as the price that would be negotiated in an open and unrestricted market between a knowledgeable, willing but not anxious buyer and a knowledgeable, willing but not anxious seller acting at arm's length."[622]
502. There is usually little or no difficulty ascribing market value to a share for which there is a market as is the case for shares in listed public corporations. A private company, which has either one or three issued shares, is in a very different position. There was no evidence before us at all which indicates that there is a market for such shares. In fact, because of the restrictions that are, for all practical purposes, imposed under the Administration Agreement regarding the transfer of legal ownership in shares in AC to other than a person agreed between ATC and AC,[623] it is not possible, in our view, to provide a market value of AC's shares. One of the fundamental assumptions on which market value is based, that shares can be sold as and when desired, is simply not present when the pool of potential purchasers is so very limited.
503. There are methods of valuing shares apart from market value even where the share has limited transferability. They were set out by Dodds-Streeton J in Beevers & Anor v Port Phillip Sea Pilots Pty Ltd & Anor[624] as: an assets based method, a market based method or a discounted cash flow method. Her Honour described the first in this way:
"Asset based methods estimate the fair market value of a company's shares based on the realisable value of its identifiable net assets. Asset based methods include:
The orderly realisation of assets method estimates fair market value by determining the amount that would be distributed to shareholders, after payment of all liabilities, including realisation costs and taxation charges that arise, assuming the company is wound up in an orderly manner. The liquidation method is similar to the orderly realisation of assets method except the liquidation method assumes the assets are sold in a shorter time frame. Since wind up or liquidation of the company may not be contemplated, these methods in their strictest form may not necessarily be appropriate. The net assets on a going concern basis estimates the market values of the net assets of the entity but does not take account of realisation costs.
The replacement cost methodology is based on the concept of replacing or duplicating the assets of a business from scratch.
These approaches ignore the possibility that the company's value could exceed the realisable value of its assets. Asset based methods are appropriate when companies are not profitable or a significant proportion of a company's assets are liquid."[625]
"Market based methods estimate a company's fair market value by considering the market price of transactions in its shares or the market value of comparable companies. Market based methods include:
The capitalisation of maintainable earnings method estimates fair market value based upon the company's future maintainable earnings and an appropriate earnings multiple. An appropriate earnings multiple is derived from share market trading in, or market transactions involving, comparable companies. The capitalisation of maintainable earnings method is appropriate where the company's earnings are relatively stable or a reliable trend in earnings is evident.
The recent share trading history provides evidence on the fair market value of the shares in a company where they are publicly traded in an informed and liquid market.
Industry specific methods estimate fair market value using rules of thumb for a particular industry. Generally rules of thumb provide less persuasive evidence on market value of a company as they may not account for company specific factors."[626]
"The discounted cash flow method estimates fair market value by discounting a company's future cash flows to their present value. This method is appropriate where a projection of future cash flows can be made with a reasonable degree of confidence. The discounted cash flow method is commonly used to value early stage companies or projects with a finite life.
We have been advised that management only prepare forecasts for the following financial year. Accordingly, we have not been provided with sufficient information to enable the discounted cash flow methodology to be applied."[627]
506. APRA submitted that market value of AC was at all times greater than $100,000. That submission appears to be based on the requirement that AC at all times maintain NTA to that value. It is apparent from our summary of four methods of valuing shares that the value of net tangible assets do not necessarily equate with the value of the corporation's shares. Whatever method were used, we see that there is a very real problem in valuing AC's shares during the relevant years of 2002 and 2003. At the time and apart from the NTA it had to maintain, the only valuable asset of AC was its agreement with ATC to provide administrative services. Its other fixed assets comprise essentially of computers and office equipment which are heavily depreciated on an annual basis and unlikely to have any significant realisable value. There is no evidence of its liabilities in the form of, for example, rent and accrued staff entitlements.
507. The value of AC's shares may also be measured by the dividends which the company pays its shareholders and any capital appreciation. However, in AC's circumstances, it did not pay dividends and it was not intended that it pay dividends to its owner, ATC. In fact, any surpluses generated by its activities resulted in a rebate of administration fees received from ATC. That was provided for in the Administration Agreement.[628]
508. Given the nature of this asset and the paucity of the evidence, it is, in our view, difficult to ascribe any particular value to the shares other than their nominal value, being $1.00. It was a term of the Administration Agreement that it might be terminated by ATC if there were a transfer of legal ownership of voting shares in AC to any person or persons other than a permitted transferee; and where effective management and control of AC were transferred to any person other than a permitted transferee.
509. It could be said that, strictly speaking, there has been a breach of s 111 in failing to refer to the asset that is ATC's shareholding in AC. In view of the difficulties in valuing that share, the real possibility that it could be a very small figure and the absence of any comment by Arthur Andersen, ATC's auditors, about its omission, we consider that breach de minimis. This would amount to a breach of the SIS Act within the meaning of s 120A(2)(a).
510. We do not accept that ATC's non-compliance with s 111 in this regard can amount to a breach of the covenant to perform its duties and exercise its powers in the best interests of the beneficiaries. Although a breach of the IOA, we do not consider that the beneficiaries or their funds were exposed to any risk of any sort by ATC's failure to record the asset. Failure to record it did not result from any attempt to conceal it. There was no reason to and there was no attempt to do so.
511. APRA submitted that, when AC passed a resolution on 8 April 2003 to issue two further shares - one to VCA and one to VCD and with both shares held on trust for the respective employee and employer groups - ATC allowed its interest in AC to be diluted. The argument is that its interest was diluted because the shares were issued but no payment was made for them. According to APRA, AC had substantial equity as at June 2002 and June 2003, being $165,710 and $322,706.88 respectively.
512. While we have no doubt that AC was profitable from its inception, the evidence was that the surplus generated from administration fees paid by ATC to AC was returned to ATC by way of rebates on fees charged. Further, the shares were described as non-participatory which meant that those shares were not entitled to dividends if AC were inclined to make any dividend payments. However, given that the principal purpose of establishing AC was to provide administration services to ATC, and the two additional shares were held on trust for the employer and employee groups who also held shares in ATC, it is not possible to ascribe a discrete value to those shares. For the reasons we gave above, they have no market value because the limitations upon their transferability effectively limits their marketability. The surpluses generated by AC were remitted to ATC. Though the holders of those shares may have had the right to appoint directors to AC, no pecuniary advantage was able to be obtained by either of the holder groups. It follows we do not accept APRA's contention that the issue of the further two shares for no consideration other than their face value constitutes a failure to exercise its powers in the best interests of the beneficiaries.
Making an investment at other than arm's length
513. Although APRA's delegate did not make a finding that ATC had contravened s 109 of the SIS Act, APRA submitted the facts of this case reveal ATC has contravened s 109. Section 109 provides that a trustee or investment manager of a superannuation entity must not invest in that capacity unless the trustee or investment manager, as the case may be, and the other party to the relevant transaction, are dealing with each other at arm's length in respect of the transaction. The word "invest" means to apply assets or make a contract for the purpose of gaining interest, income, profit or gain.
514. It was submitted on APRA's behalf that ATC breached s 109 because it entered into undocumented lending arrangement with AC on non-commercial and uncertain terms in relation to the establishment and post-establishment costs of AC. The first thing to say about this submission is that there was no evidence of an undocumented lending arrangement with AC. The evidence was that following the auditors' report for the financial year ending 2002, adjustments were made between AC and ATC regarding establishment and post-establishment costs of AC. No loan was recorded in any of the books of account.
515. The second matter to note about the transaction is that, even if it were not at arm's length, it could not be said that the terms and conditions were no more favourable to AC than those it was reasonable to expect had ATC been dealing with another party at arm's length. Given that AC was receiving a significantly reduced fee for each service when compared with that ATC had paid to FCSAS, it is difficult to see how it could be said that the terms were more favourable to AC than would otherwise be the case within the meaning of s 109(b)(ii). There is no reason to suppose that the arrangement with AC was entered on anything other than an arm's length basis. Therefore, we do not consider that ATC was in breach of s 109.
516. During the course of these reasons, we have considered whether ATC breached ss 52(2)(b) or (c) in specific circumstances. We have also considered whether, when its actions are viewed overall, ATC, VCA, VCC and VCD, or any of them, could be said to have acted in a manner that was in breach those covenants. When we do that, we do so having come to the view that VCA, VCC and VCD each impressed us as men anxious to do the right thing by others. None of them wanted to use ATC or AC as a vehicle to enhance his personal wealth or status. We are satisfied that each intended to do what was the right thing to do and acted accordingly.
517. As we have said earlier, they did not always reach a state of perfection in all that they did but the flaws in their actions arose from the very real pressures that they felt from their dissatisfaction with FCSAS, from the fact that FCSAS was not prepared to agree to a short term extension of the contract after it expired on 31 December 2001 and for their need to have proper administration in place. At no time, on our view of the evidence, did those flaws have any impact on the administration of the fund or leave the members' funds in ASF in any way vulnerable. It did not lead to their exercising anything less than the care, skill and diligence required by s 52(2)(b) or to their exercising their powers and performing their duties in any way other than in the best interests of the beneficiaries as required by s 52(2)(c).
Identifying a fit and proper person and resolving the dichotomy between ss 120A(2) and (3)
518. Section 120A(3) permits the Regulator to disqualify VCC if satisfied that he is "otherwise not a fit and proper person to be a trustee, investment manager or custodian, or responsible officer of a body corporate that is a trustee, investment manager or custodian." We will first consider what is meant by the expression "fit and proper person" before considering whether the word "otherwise" imports a qualification of some sort to the expression and whether that qualification comes from the provisions of s 120A(2).
519. What is meant by the expression "a fit and proper person" has been considered in a variety of contexts including those of the licensing of tax agents under the ITA Act,[629] the licensing of persons to import certain drugs under the Customs (Prohibited Imports) Regulations 1956[630] and the licensing Air Navigation Regulations 1947.[631]
520. A related expression, "not a fit and proper person" was considered by the High Court in Hughes and Vale Pty Ltd and Anor v State of New South Wales and Ors [No.2].[632] It considered whether a person was not a fit and proper person to hold a licence granted under the State Transport (Co-ordination) Act 1931-1954 (NSW) for the purposes of inter-State trade. The following passage from its judgment shows the way in which it approached its task:
"The expression 'fit and proper person' is of course familiar enough as traditional words when used with reference to offices and perhaps vocations. But their very purpose is to give the widest scope for judgment and indeed for rejection. 'Fit' (or 'idoneus_') with respect to an office is said to involve three things, honesty knowledge and ability: 'honesty to execute it truly, without malice affection or partiality; knowledge to know what he ought duly to do; and ability as well in estate as in body, that he may intend and execute his office, when need is, diligently, and not for impotency or poverty neglect it._"[633]
521. In Stasos v Tax Agents' Board,[634] Hill J referred to the passage that we have set out above from Hughes and Vale and said:
" To this catalogue of what must be described as basic attributes I would, with respect add 'diligence' and in a case such as the present, 'professionalism', by which I intend to include the putting of the interests of one's client before one's own self interest.
The content of what is necessary to constitute a person a fit and proper person to occupy a particular office or pursue a particular vocation may vary having regard to the office or vocation under consideration. However, as was said by Hale J in Maxwell v Dixon (1965) WAR 167 at 169:
'...Clearly different qualifications are needed by eg
lawyers, transport operators, hotel keepers and land
agents, but, as is shown by the cases cited in the
_judgment referred to (_Hughes and Vale Pty Ltd v The
State of New South Wales (No 2) (supra)), it is not
necessary to confine oneself to the special provisions
of the Act in question in deciding whether a man is fit
provided one gives weight only to matters which can
522. The approach typified in this and subsequent cases is that regard must be had to the context in which the question of whether a person is a fit and proper person must be decided. An example appears in the judgment of the High Court in Australian Broadcasting Tribunal v Bond and Others[635] when it s 88(2) of the Broadcasting Act 1942 (Broadcasting Act). That section provided that the then Australian Broadcasting Tribunal might suspend or revoke a commercial licence if it were advisable in the public interest to do so having regard to, among other matters, that it was satisfied that the person was no longer a fit and proper person to hold the licence.
523. In considering what matters should be taken into account in considering what is meant by a "fit and proper person", Mason CJ said:
"... the statutory concept of 'fit and proper person to hold the licence', which is undefined, takes account of qualities and characteristics of the licensee apart from matters mentioned in s 88(2)(a), (b)(ii) and (c). Thus, the concept comprehends matters other than the financial, technical and management capabilities necessary to provide an adequate and comprehensive service, lack of which is a ground for suspension or revocation under s 88(2)(b)(ii). Thirdly, though fitness and propriety are necessarily related to the holding of the licensee's commercial licence and to the provision of a broadcasting service pursuant to that licence (see Re New Broadcasting Ltd (1987) 12 ALD 1 at 8-9), the concept should not be narrowly construed or confined. It must extend to any aspect of fitness and propriety that is relevant to the public interest, because the tribunal's power to suspend or revoke commercial licences is only exercisable 'if it appears to the tribunal that it is advisable in the public interest to do so, having regard only to the ... matters or circumstances' set out in paras (a), (b) and (c) of s 88(2).
Some indication of the breadth of the content of the concept may also be gathered from the fact that it is a purpose of the Act to ensure that commercial broadcasting is conducted in the interests of the public: R v Australian Broadcasting Tribunal; Ex parte 2HD Pty Ltd [1979] HCA 62; (1979) 144 CLR 45 at 53; [1979] HCA 62; 27 ALR 321. The provisions of the Act dealing with the grant, renewal, suspension and revocation of licences, the limitations on the ownership of shares, the determination of program standards and the extensive role given to the tribunal in connection with these matters are all designed to secure the attainment of that purpose. Commercial broadcasting is a very important medium in the communication of information and ideas. Moreover, a commercial broadcasting licence is a valuable privilege which confers on the licensee the capacity to influence public opinion and public values. For this reason, if for no other, a licensee has a responsibility to exercise the power conferred by the licence with a due regard to proper standards of conduct and a responsibility not to abuse the privilege which it enjoys. Possession of a licence or the exercise of the privilege which it confers has been described 'as in the nature of a public trust for the benefit of all members of our society': see the Australian Report of the Royal Commission on Television_, (1954), p144; second reading speech on the Broadcasting and Television Bill 1956 (Cth) by the Honourable C W Davidson, Postmaster-General, House of Representatives Parliamentary Debates (Hansard), 19 April 1956, p1536._
A licensee which is a fit and proper person in the context of
s 88(2)(b)(i) must have an appreciation of those responsibilities and must discharge them. Conversely, a licensee which lacks a proper appreciation of those responsibilities or does not discharge them is not, or may be adjudged to be, a fit and proper person."[636]
524. Both of these aspects were also considered at some length by Toohey and Gaudron JJ. In relation to what is a "fit and proper person", they said:
" The expression 'fit and proper person', standing alone, carries no precise meaning. It takes its meaning from its context, from the activities in which the person is or will be engaged and the ends to be served by those activities. The concept of 'fit and proper' cannot be entirely divorced from the conduct of the person who is or will be engaging in those activities. However, depending on the nature of the activities, the question may be whether improper conduct has occurred, whether it is likely to occur, whether it can be assumed that it will not occur, or whether the general community will have confidence that it will not occur. The list is not exhaustive but it does indicate that, in certain contexts, character (because it provides indication of likely future conduct) or reputation (because it provides indication of public perception as to likely future conduct) may be sufficient to ground a finding that a person is not fit and proper to undertake the activities in question."[637]
525. Even though the High Court in Bond was concerned with a different statutory framework from that with which we are concerned, its general principles remain applicable. Bearing that in mind, it becomes apparent that it is relevant to consider the role played by a person acting as trustee, investment manager or custodian or a responsible officer of a body corporate and the privileges, obligations and responsibilities that the person has in that role.
526. Occupations such as those of a registered tax agent or a legal practitioner with a practising certificate may be said to allow a person to enjoy certain privileges not enjoyed by others. In the examples we have given, registration or the practising certificate allows them to charge for their services in their chosen professions; a privilege otherwise denied to them. They may, perhaps, enjoy a status of some sort that may be attractive to them. Those privileges are balanced by duties and obligations to their clients and to their professional bodies as well as, in the case of legal practitioners, to the court.
527. The balance between privileges on the one hand and duties and obligations on the other is less obvious in the case of a trustee. There are certainly those, such as investment companies, who choose to carry on business by investing the money of others and holding the money and then the investments on trust for the investors. They choose acting as trustees of investments made by others and charging a fee for their doing so.
528. The focus of the SIS Act clearly has to be characterised as directed to duties. It places no emphasis on privileges or rights of the trustee. Instead, adapting the words of Finn J in Australian Securities Commission v AS Nominees Ltd, it can be said to directed to "... protect[ing] investors from abuses of trust by ensuring proper standards are maintained in trust management and in trustee behaviour."[638] This accords with the position under the general law in relation to trustees generally. It also accords with the statement made by the Minister, Mr Johns in his Second Reading Speech, that the SIS Act was intended to give added protection to superannuation savings and to promote an efficient superannuation industry. The notion of "added protection" emphasises that the SIS Act was imposing a scheme of regulation and not of permission.
529. If s 120A(3) gave the Regulator power to disqualify a person if satisfied that the person is not a "fit and proper person", we would say that what amounts to a fit and proper person must pay regard to the legislation's emphasis upon meeting the obligations and duties imposed by the SIS Act. It must be a person who has the skills, judgment and application to meet the obligations under the SIS Act. It must also be a person who has the skills, judgment and application to know what the "right thing to do" is when faced with situations that are not expressly regulated but which may affect the administration of a superannuation entity, the preservation of its funds or their investment or administration.
530. The difficulty that we have is that, when read together, ss 120A(2) and (3), appears to divide into two what we would understand to be encompassed by the notion of a fit and proper person. It achieves this by focusing the power to disqualify in s 120A(2) clearly upon the contravention and then referring in s 120A(3) to the Regulator's not being satisfied that the person is "otherwise" a fit and proper person. That interpretation is consistent with the meaning of "otherwise" when used as an adverb as it is in s 120A(3):
"... 1 in other respects He is good at languages but otherwise not very bright. 2 in a different way couldn't act otherwise than as she did. 3 under different circumstances might otherwise have been late. ..."[639]
It would seem that the word "otherwise" in s 120A(3) is suggesting that a conclusion under s 120A(2) that the disqualification power can be exercised is based on a finding that the person is not a fit and proper person. It also suggests that a conclusion regarding who is a fit and proper person raises different issues under ss 120A(2) and (3).
531. We have wondered whether it is correct to separate ss 120A(2) and (3) in this way. If it is, it seems to us that it may not permit the Regulator to disqualify the range of persons, who are not fit and proper persons and so unsuited to act as trustees responsible for the superannuation funds of others. That could occur because a consideration of the contraventions might lead to a conclusion that they do not come within s 120A(2)(c) and so the power of disqualification could not be exercised. At the same time, a consideration of the person's other qualities and other circumstances may not lead to the conclusion that the person is not a fit and proper person. That would mean that the power under s 120A(3) could not be exercised. If permitted to look to all of the relevant matters that inform of a person's fitness to perform certain duties and roles and to do so while informed of contraventions that do not by themselves warrant disqualification, a much more informed and balanced decision could be made.
532. As s 120A was inserted in the SIS Act by the Financial Sector Legislation Amendment Bill (No 1) 2000, we have sought guidance for its purpose of the provisions from the Second Reading Speeches and the Explanatory Memorandum as revised and supplemented. Unfortunately, we have found only the briefest of summaries of the provisions in s 120A and they do not assist us.
533. On further reflection, we think that it is incorrect to insist on such a strict division between ss 120A(2) and (3). Certainly, they give the Regulator, in this case APRA, two separate powers. In the case of s 120A(2), the reference to the contraventions is a reference to one of the three factors that must be satisfied before the Regulator is given the power to disqualify an individual. That is not to say that no regard can be had to other events, circumstances and personal qualities for they may be relevant in determining the nature or seriousness of the contraventions and in determining whether they provide grounds for disqualification of the individual.
534. The reference in s 120A(3) to the Regulator's being satisfied that the individual is not otherwise a fit and proper person to be, among others, a responsible officer of a body that is a body corporate, is again a reference to the factors that must be satisfied before the Regulator is given power to disqualify the individual. Rather than excluding the matters to which reference is made in s 120A(2), it seems to us that s 120A(3) is intended to focus on those instances in which there may be no contraventions or in which there may be contraventions but they do not provide grounds for disqualification as provided by s 120A(2)(c). It is not intended to exclude any regard to contraventions at all for, together with relevant events, circumstances and personal qualities of the individual, they will inform the Regulator in deciding whether the person is not a fit and proper person in circumstances in which the power does not arise under s 120A(2).
535. We have not lingered longer on the issue because we are aware that s 120A has been repealed and the power now found in s 126H appears in a different form and given to the Federal Court rather than the Tribunal.
536. Once the grounds are found to exist under either section, the Regulator is not directed to disqualify the individual. Instead, the Regulator is given the power to disqualify and it is a discretionary power rather than one that it is directed to exercise. That follows from the expression of the power in terms that the "Regulator may disqualify and individual" (emphasis added) and from the purpose of the SIS Act to provide added protection to those investing in superannuation funds. The word "may" is ordinarily a permissive or facultative word and, given that it is clear the Regulator needs to have flexibility to achieve the objects of the SIS Act, it should be given its ordinary meaning. Only by having a discretion can the Regulator ensure that proper regard is had to the particular circumstances in which the matters of concern have arisen.
537. In exercising the discretion under s 120A(2), regard would need to be had to the nature and seriousness of the contraventions and their number but regard would also need to be had to wider issues such as the circumstances in which the contraventions occurred, the steps that had been taken to prevent the contraventions' occurring at all or occurring in the future, the attitudes of those who were responsible for compliance either at the executive or Board level. Taking into account matters such as these, the discretion must be exercised with the purpose for which the SIS Act was enacted in mind. That purpose was to ensure that Australians increasingly provide for their own retirement. In doing so, Australians must have some assurance that their funds will be properly managed in order that they are both preserved and enhanced. Therefore, a further object of the SIS Act is to regulate superannuation entities and those associated with them, such as their trustees, in order to decrease the risk of Australian's losing their funds by imprudent management of them.
Should VCA, VCC and VCD, or any of them, be disqualified under either or both of ss 120A(2) or (3)?
538. As we have concluded that ATC was in breach of Condition C.1 in not having a written agreement with AC and so of s 29 when it did not advise APRA of that fact. It was in contravention of s 111 in failing to record in the accounts the asset that is ATC's shareholding in AC. Both, whether individually or together, mean that consideration can be given to disqualifying those who have, as in the case of VCA, VCC and VCD, been responsible officers of ATC.
539. We will begin with Ms McLeod's submission that we should have regard to the Tribunal's analysis of relevant authorities in Re Preuss and Australian Prudential Regulation Authority[640] in addressing the considerations that should be taken into account in deciding whether a decision disqualifying a person should be made. She submitted that:
"336. The cases in this area reveal that the considerations that a sentencing court takes into account in sentencing an offender are also relevant considerations to take into account when considering whether a disqualification order is justified, namely retribution, deterrence, reformation, contrition and protection of the public.[641] McHugh J in Rich v ASIC referred with approval to Santow J's comments in Re HIH Insurance Ltd (in liq) & ASIC v Adler_[642]_ where His Honour listed fifteen propositions he considered relevant to the exercise of the Court's discretion under sections 206C and 206E. Not all of these propositions are directly applicable to the Tribunal's discretion in this case. However, APRA contends that the following applicable principles can be gleaned from Santow's judgment:
337. It is clear, therefore, that the paramount consideration in making a disqualification order under the Corporations Act and, by analogy, under section 120A is the protection of the public. This was recognised by Senior Member Allen in Preuss_[643]_ and by Deputy President Forgie in VBJ and APRA.[644] Protection of the public is maintained not only by removing the individual from the industry concerned, but by acting as a deterrent both to the public at large and to the individual concerned. ..."
540. It will be apparent from the reasons in Re Howarth and Australian Securities and Investments Commission[645] that one of us has already expressed reservations about the application of the principles set out by McHugh J in Rich v ASIC referred with approval to Santow J's comments in Re HIH Insurance Ltd (in liq) & ASIC v Adler in reviewing a decision to make a banning order under the Corporations Act. Having considered the issue once more, we both have those reservations in relation to a consideration of whether to disqualify individuals under ss 120A(2) or (3) of the SIS Act.
541. As was found in Re Howarth and Australian Securities and Investments Commission in relation to the Corporations Act, there is nothing on the face of the SIS Act that suggests that purpose of a disqualification order is intended to be punitive. There are separate provisions in the SIS Act creating offences and they are found in Part 26. Other provisions, specified in s 193, have been designated as civil penalty provisions carrying the consequences set out in Part 21. As in the Corporations Act, there seems to be a clear separation between disqualification and the imposition of civil penalties or convictions for offences. That clear separation, together with the consequences of the making of a disqualification order, would seem to us to lead to the conclusion that a disqualification decision is reached after considering only what is required to carry out the purposes of the SIS Act.
542. Had we been considering either ss 120A(2) or (3) before McHugh's judgment in Rich v ASIC, we would have concluded that we needed to have regard to several matters. They would have included the nature and seriousness of the contraventions and their number but regard would also need to be had to wider issues. Those wider issues would have included the circumstances in which the contraventions occurred, the steps that had been taken to prevent the contraventions' occurring at all or occurring in the future and the attitudes of those who were responsible for compliance either at the executive or Board level. Taking into account matters such as these, the discretion must be exercised with the purpose for which the SIS Act was enacted in mind. That purpose was to ensure that Australians increasingly provide for their own retirement. In doing so, Australians must have some assurance that their funds will be properly managed in order that they are both preserved and enhanced. Therefore, a further object of the SIS Act is to regulate superannuation entities and those associated with them, such as their trustees, in order to decrease the risk of Australian's losing their funds by imprudent management of them.
543. Without repeating it, we adopt in its entirety the analysis of the authorities in Re Howarth and Australian Securities and Investments Commission[646] regarding the proposition that regard should be had to notions more traditionally associated with punitive aspects. We note, while relying on McHugh J's judgment in Rich v ASIC and the Tribunal's analysis in Re Preuss and Australian Prudential Regulation Authority, that Ms McLeod did not seek to contend that factors such as reformation and deterrence are relevant. With one correction, we repeat the conclusion on this point in Re Howarth and Australian Securities and Investments Commission:
"180. The weight of authority in the Federal and Supreme Courts to whose judgments we have referred seems to be to the effect that a disqualification order, and so a banning order, is made on the basis of what will protect the public. It is not made on the basis of what will punish the person concerned even though punishment or the imposition of a penalty may be the practical outcome of the making of an order. Deterrence is also a relevant concern. Deterrence may relate both to the person concerned and to others engaged or potentially engaged in the finance. If imposed, it is relevant in the case of the individual in that it protects the public from that person's being involved in the industry. Whether imposed or not, the possibility that an order might be made is itself a deterrent both to an individual and to all of those engaged in that industry. As was said in Re Donald and Australian Securities and Investments Commission_,[647] ...:_
_'_116. The imposition of a banning order against a dealers representative certainly achieves, in respect of at least one member of that profession, the second aspect of public protection for the period in respect of which it is imposed. That is, it ensures that the public can be certain that a particular person, who has been found to have breached a statutory standard applicable to him or her, is no longer entrusted with dealing in shares. At the same time, it informs both other dealers representatives and members of the general public that the behaviour is neither acceptable nor tolerated.
117. Whether it achieves the first aspect of public protection is more debateable. A period of prohibition may, rather like a retreat or a period of contemplation, lead a person to reflect upon his or her behaviour and to come to an understanding of why that behaviour has been regarded as inappropriate by others and, if it is necessary to do so, to take steps to improve his or her knowledge of what is an appropriate manner of behaviour. On the other hand, a period of prohibition may not result in such reflection or lead to a person's coming to any greater understanding than he or she had when it was imposed.'[648]"
544. Coming back to s 120A(2), it seems to us that considerations of this sort as well as the purpose of the SIS Act should inform our decision whether, having regard to the nature or seriousness of the contraventions, provide grounds for the disqualification of VCA, VCC and VCD or any of them. We have concluded that they do not. It would have been preferable if none of the contraventions had occurred but, having occurred, we do not regard them as serious. They are not indicative of systemic or deeper or more serious problems in ATC or in AC. Having listened to each of VCA, VCC and VCD, we are impressed by their conscientious approach to their work and their dedication to their task as, in the case of VCA and VCD, directors and, in the case of VCC, ATC's CEO. These contraventions arose in a particular set of circumstances and, on the evidence we were given, unlikely to be repeated.
Relevance of APRA's disqualifying two, but not all twelve, of the Trustee's directors involved in the decision-making
546. This is a question that arose in Re VBN and Australian Prudential Regulation Authority.[649] It caused consternation on that occasion and it causes consternation on this. In that case, the delegate of APRA had decided not to disqualify two of the Trustee's directors who were involved in the decision-making. Given that one was gravely ill, there was tacit acceptance that no action should have been taken against that director. The other, ND1, was not ill and, in so far as she was a member of the Board of Directors at the relevant times and played a part in making the decisions and taking the actions under consideration in this case, there was little, if anything, to distinguish the position of that director from that in which the rest of the directors found themselves. After following the usual procedures, the delegate decided, without any elaboration:
"I have reviewed the material and have decided that you should not be disqualified under s 120A(2) of the SIS Act."[650]
547. As far as we know to be the situation in this case, none of the directors other than VCA and VCD were sent letters to show cause why they should not be disqualified. None was the subject of a decision such as that made in relation to ND1. Yet, on our reading of the Board minutes, there were directors who attended those meetings besides VCA and VCD. True it is that VCA and VCD were the co-chairs and the respective chairs of the Administration Committee and of the Investment Committee but that does not absolve the other directors who were members of the Board and of one or other or both of the sub-committees of any responsibility. The comments of Clarke and Sheller JJA in Daniels v Anderson in a context other than that of prudential management would seem to be apt:
" The insolvent trading cases demonstrate that ignorance is no longer necessarily a defence to proceedings brought against a director. In some respects, at least, the director must inform himself or herself about the affairs of the company.
There is no reason for establishing a board which enjoys the varied wisdom of persons drawn from different commercial backgrounds. Even so a director, whatever his or her background, has a duty greater than that of simply representing a particular field of experience. That duty involves becoming familiar with the business of the company and how it is run and ensuring that the board has available means to order the management of the company so that it can satisfy itself that the company is being properly run. The board may be assisted by subcommittees consisting of its members including non-executive directors ...
In our opinion the responsibilities of directors require that they take reasonable steps to place themselves in a position to guide and monitor the management of the company. The board of AWA met only once a month for half a day. But to our mind the board should meet as often as it deems necessary to carry out its functions properly. The question is what in the particular circumstances are the duties and responsibilities of the directors and then what time is required of them as a board to carry out those duties and responsibilities. It is not a matter of tailoring the extent of the duty or function to pre-fixed intervals between board meetings."[651]
548. As we have said, we are concerned with prudential management and not with directors' duties. In a case in which a corporation is a trustee with the responsibilities of a trustee, the responsibilities of each director must include their familiarising themselves with the duties and responsibilities of a trustee of a superannuation entity regulated by the SIS Act. Putting aside casting votes, their votes carry the same weight as the co-chairs.
549. We understand that there may be a view that to disqualify the whole Board would have led to ASF's being placed in an impossible position. That may very well have been the case but the choice that was made was to put VCA and VCD, as well as VCC, carrying responsibility for decisions which had been made with collective responsibility by the whole Board. All three were left to face the imposition of a penalty by being disqualified. It is a penalty that carries with it professional and social ignominy and, except for those at the very end of their working life, severe restrictions on their abilities to carry on their professional careers or to generate their income as before. There are occasions on which one person is singled out from a group of many who all bore responsibility. That may be appropriate when actions are being lauded[652] but it seems entirely inappropriate to make some responsible without explanation of why others are not. It brings to mind the scapegoat that is asked to bear grief and sorrow but, unlike the goat written of by Isaiah,[653] without any acknowledgement that there is a burden to which others have contributed and for which they also bear responsibility.
550. We have alluded to this issue because it causes us grave discomfort to be part of a continuum of administrative decision-making that may, at its heart, be at least perceived to be unfair. Speaking in the context of taxation law in Inland Revenue Commissioners v National Federation of Self Employed and Small Business Ltd,[654] Lord Scarman was:
"... persuaded that the modern case law recognises a legal duty owed by the revenue to the general body of the taxpayers to treat taxpayers fairly; to use their discretionary powers so that, subject to the requirements of good management, discrimination between one group of taxpayers and another does not arise; to ensure that there are no favourites and no sacrificial victims."[655]
551. Perhaps the perception of unfairness is unwarranted but, in the absence of any reasons as to why two directors and VCC should be the subject of disqualification and not the other ten can only remain a mystery. It seems to us that consideration should be given to a requirement that APRA explain why it has taken action against some and not against others. Only in that way can it been seen that the law has been fairly administered. The duties to act fairly to all and to act fairly to the individual were spoken of by Lord Templeman in Re Preston:[656]
"Mr Brodie, on behalf of the appellant, submitted that if, as Lord Scarman announced in the Self-Employed case [1981] UKHL 2; [1982] AC 617, the commissioners owed a duty of fairness to the general body of taxpayers, the commissioners must equally owe a duty of fairness to each individual taxpayer. I agree, but a taxpayer cannot complain of unfairness, merely because the commissioners decide to perform their statutory duties including their duties under section 460 to make an assessment and to enforce a liability to tax. The commissioners may decide to abstain from exercising their powers and performing their duties on grounds of unfairness, but the commissioners themselves must bear in mind that their primary duty is to collect, not to forgive, taxes. And if the commissioners decide to proceed, the court cannot in the absence of exceptional circumstances decide to be unfair that which the commissioners by taking action against the taxpayer have determined to be fair. The commissioners possess unique knowledge of fiscal practices and policy. The commissioners are inhibited from presenting full reasons to the court for their decisions because of the duty of confidentiality owed by the commissioners to each and every taxpayer.
The court can only intervene by judicial review to direct the commissioners to abstain from performing their statutory duties or from exercising their statutory powers if the court is satisfied that the 'unfairness' of which the applicant complains renders the insistence by the commissioners on performing their duties or exercising their powers an abuse of power by the commissioners."[657]
552. We cannot let these feelings deter us from our statutory responsibility as stated by Spender J in Theo v Secretary, Department of Family and Community Services[658] that:
"... the proceedings in the Tribunal fall to be determined on the material before it, and not on the basis of whether that material was the same as, or different to, the material before other decision-makers in other applications. Generally there cannot be an estoppel against the terms of a statute."
553. Although we initially made a confidentiality order on the application of the applicants, all parties now agree that it should be vacated. We do so and include with these reasons a Legend so that our reasons, a substantial part of which had been written before the request to vacate our order was received, may be more readily understood.
(1) 9 December 2005 and confirmed by a decision of its delegate dated 10 February 2006 in respect of VCA;
(2) 20 January 2006 and confirmed by a decision of its delegate dated 17 February 2006 in respect of VCC; and
(3) 20 January 2006 and confirmed by a decision of its delegate dated 17 February 2006 in respect of VCD; and
s 35 of the Administrative Appeals Tribunal Act 1995.
I certify that the five hundred and fifty four preceding paragraphs are a true copy of the reasons for the decision herein of Deputy President S A Forgie and
Counsel for VCA and VCD Mr T. North SC with Mr A. Broadfoot
Counsel for the respondent Ms McLeod SC with Mr Lewis
Solicitor for the respondent Australian Prudential Regulation Authority
Administration Company Pty Ltd Super Benefits Administration Pty Ltd
ASCII Pty Ltd Forest and Furnishing Products Employments Skills Company Limited
Employers' Association Timber Merchants' Association
FCSAS Jacques Martin Pty Ltd (also known as Jacques Martin Industry Funds Administration or JMIFA and now known as Superpartners)
IR Committee Timber Merchants' Association Industrial Committee
Redundancy Trust Secure Employees Entitlements Trust
Trust Deed Trust Deed of Timber Industry Super Scheme as varied by Deed of Variation in 1998
Union Timber Workers' Union or the Construction, Forestry, Mining and Energy Union as determined by context
VCC Enterprises Pty Ltd Goodear Enterprises Pty Ltd
[1] VCA and VCD were directors and so responsible officers within the meaning of s 10(1) and VCC was "... a person by whatever name called and whether or not a director of the body, who is concerned, or takes part, in the management of the body" (s 10(1)) and so an "executive officer" and a responsible officer.
[21] Condition J.1(f), T documents, T108 at 1340
[25] General Conditions, cl C.1: T documents, T 108 at 1337
[26] Initially, the Administration Committee and the Audit and Compliance Committee were one Committee but their functions were separated.
[27] Administration Committee Minutes, 11 February 2000 at 4-5; Exhibit VCC-A; VCC4
[28] Statement of VCA, Exhibit VCC-A; VCC2
[30] Administration Committee Minutes, I March 2001 at 2-3; T documents, T118 at 1457-1458
[50] Mr Andrew Proebsti was noted as attending on behalf of Arthur Andersen: T documents, T314 at 2985
[52] T documents, T337 at 3243-3274 but copy still undated
[60] T documents, T437 and T439 at 4254-4257
[70] Statement of VCA, Exhibit VCA - E, Exhibit 44
[72] Statement of VCA, Exhibit VCA - E, Exhibit 18
[73] Statement of VCA, Exhibit VCA - E, Exhibit 42
[74] Statement of VCA, Exhibit VCA - E, Exhibit 43
[75] Superannuation Safety Amendment Act 2004, s 3 and Schedule 1, Part 2, item 71 and, for date of effect, see s 2(1), table, item 3.
[76] Superannuation Safety Amendment Act 2004, s 3 and Schedule 1, Part 1, item 29 and, for date of effect, see s 2(1), table, item 2.
[77] Superannuation Safety Amendment Act 2004, s 3 and Schedule 2 items 61 and 62 and, for date of effect, see s 2(1), table, item 4.
[78] (1979) 2 ALD 934 at 939-45, then Senior Member Hall and CCH Thompson and AH Marsh, Members
[79] (1979) 2 ALD 934 at 943
[80] [1992] HCA 20; (1992) 106 ALR 577, Mason CJ, Deane, Toohey and Gaudron JJ, Brennan J dissenting
[81] [1992] HCA 20; (1992) 106 ALR 577 at 583
[82] [1992] HCA 20; (1992) 106 ALR 577 at 583
[86] Part 4. The "Regulator" is defined in section in s 10(1). The "Regulator" means APRA, the Australian Securities and Investment Commission (ASIC) or the Commissioner of Taxation (Commissioner) according to whether the provision in which the word is used is administered by APRA, ASIC or the Commissioner.
[90] SIS Act, s 3(3) makes it clear that it does not regulate other entities engaged in the superannuation industry.
[91] The term "superannuation entity" is defined in s 10(1).
[92] A "constitutional corporation" is a body corporate that is a trading or financial corporation formed within the limits of the Commonwealth within the meaning of paragraph 51(xx) of the Commonwealth of Australia Constitution Act
[126] A "'corporate trustee_' in relation to a fund, scheme or trust means a body corporate that is a trustee of the fund, scheme or trust_": SIS Act, s 10(1)
[142] SIS Act, s 126B(1) and see also (2)
[166] e.g. SIS Act, ss 313(2), 314 and 315
[171] Statement of VCD, Exhibit VCD - E, Exhibit 44
[177] (1979) 24 ALR 577; 2 ALD 60 at 589; 68-69
[178] Drake v Minister for Immigration and Ethnic Affairs (1979) 24 ALR 577; 2 ALD 60 at 589; 68 per Bowen CJ and Deane J and 599; 77 per Smithers J
[179] Re Mann and Capital Territory Health Commission (No. 2) (1983) 5 ALN N368 as set out and adopted in Re Wertheim and Department of Health (1984) 7 ALD 121 at 154
[181] (2006) 92 ALD 724; [2006] AATA 873 at 753; [99]
[182] General Practice Direction, 26 March 2007 at [2.2]
[183] This is consistent with the fact that the Evidence Act 1995 (Cth) applies to, among others, a "federal court" which does not include the Tribunal (s 4 and Dictionary).
[185] (1979) 2 ALD 238 at 242
[186] More usually, the decision-maker sends the documents to the other party.
[187] As previously enacted, s 37(1)(b) read, in part, that the decision-maker must lodge with the Tribunal: "every other document or part of a document that is in the person's possession or under the person's control and is considered by the person to be relevant to the review of the decision by the Tribunal."
[188] Explanatory Memorandum, Items 124 and 125
[189] Chambers 21st Century Dictionary, 1999, reprinted 2004, Chambers
[190] Australian Prudential Regulation Authority v VBN [2005] FCA 1868; (2005) 88 ALD 403 at 412, [32]
[192] [2005] AATA 1060; (2005) 92 ALD 455; [2005] AATA 1060 at 465; [31]-[32]
[196] Trade Practices Commission v Arnotts Ltd and Others (No. 2) (1989) 88 ALR 90 per Beaumont J
[197] (No. 2) (1989) 88 ALR 90
[198] (No. 2) (1989) 88 ALR 90 at 103
[201] [1997] FCA 578, Beaumont, Burchett and Emmett JJ
[203] [2008] FCA 285 at [37]- [38]
[204] Section 3(1) of the AAT Act gives the word "proceeding" has a very wide definition and so it is apparent that the power to make a direction under s 33 to provide further information is not limited to a proceeding that is concerned with the review of the merits of the decision. It could, for example, be used to provide information in relation to an application for a costs certificate.
[206] [1998] HCA 28; (1998) 194 CLR 355; 153 ALR 490 at 514; [87]
[207] "In carrying out its functions, the Tribunal must pursue the objective of providing a mechanism of review that is fair, just, economical, informal and quick.": s 2A.
[209] See Re VCA and Ors and Australian Prudential Regulation Authority (2006) 92 ALD 724; [2006] AATA 873 per Deputy President Forgie
[211] (1991) 24 ALD 786 at 786-787
[214] (1965) 114 CLR 164; [1965] HCA 34 at 167; [3]
[215] (1965) 114 CLR 164; [1965] HCA 34 at 167-168; [4]
[216] (1965) 114 CLR 164; [1965] HCA 34 at 168; [4]
[218] [1990] HCA 3; (1990) 168 CLR 614; 90 ALR 341 at 624; 346
[219] [1990] HCA 3; (1990) 168 CLR 614; 90 ALR 341 at 625; 347
[220] [1984] FCA 57; (1984) 1 FCR 354; (1984) 6 ALD 6, Woodward, Northrop and Jenkinson JJ
[221] [1984] FCA 57; (1984) 1 FCR 354; (1984) 6 ALD 6 at 365-366; 18 per Northrop J
[222] [1984] FCA 57; (1984) 1 FCR 354; (1984) 6 ALD 6 at 358-359; 8-9
[223] Ladic v Capital Territory Health Commission (1982) 5 ALN No 45 at 61 per Fox J
[224] [1984] FCA 57; (1984) 1 FCR 354; (1984) 6 ALD 6 at 357; 10
[225] Assessment decisions under the Income Tax Assessment Act 1936 provide an example of an exception.
[229] (2006) 92 ALD 724; [2006] AATA 873 at 755-756; [107]- [108]
[230] Statement of VCA, Exhibit VCA - E, Exhibit 44
[236] (2006) 92 ALD 724; [2006] AATA 873 at 756; [110]
[237] (2006) 92 ALD 724; [2006] AATA 873 at 751-755; [94]-[105]
[241] Transcript at 888-923; Exhibit VCC-M: two draft affidavits of Mr Austin
[248] It is not a rule of evidence and so not the subject of s 33(1)(b) of the AAT Act.
[251] (1997) 188 CLR 501; 141 ALR 545; 91 A Crim R 451 at 553; 584; 491 see also The Daniels Corporation International Pty Ltd v Australian Competition and Consumer Commission [2002] HCA 49; (2002) 213 CLR 543; 192 ALR 561 at 552; 564 [9]
[252] Esso Australia Resources Ltd v Commissioner of Taxation (1999) 201 CLR 49; 168 ALR 123; [1999] HCA 67 at 73; 139; [61] per Gleeson CJ, Gaudron and Gummow JJ and at 107; 167; [172]-[173] per Callinan J, Kirby and McHugh JJ dissenting and see also Daniels Corporation International Pty Ltd v ACCC [2002] HCA 49; (2002) 213 CLR 543; 192 ALR 561 at 552; 564 per Gleeson CJ, Gaudron, Gummow and Hayne JJ.
[254] [2005] FCA 1247; (2005) 225 ALR 266 at 283-284
[255] [2005] FCA 1247; (2005) 225 ALR 266 at 221-222
[256] [1976] HCA 63; (1976) 135 CLR 674; 11 ALR 577 at 677; 579-580
[257] (2006) 232 ALR 743; 91 ALD 741; [2006] FCA 571 at 777; 80; [144]-[145]
[258] AM & S Europe Ltd v Commission of the European Communities [1983] QB 878; 1 All ER 705 approved in Carter v Managing Partner, Northmore Hale Davy and Leake (1995) 183 CLR 121; 129 ALR 593 at 127-128; 596 per Brennan J and 145; 610 per Toohey J
[262] [1999] HCA 67; (1999) 201 CLR 49; 168 ALR 123 at 64-65; 132-133
[263] Grant v Downs [1976] HCA 63; (1976) 135 CLR 674; 11 ALR 577 per Stephen, Mason and Murphy JJ at 689; 589
[264] Rich v Australian Securities and Investments Commission (2004) 209 ALR 271; [2004] HCA 42 at 278; [24] per Gleeson CJ, Gummow, Hayne, Callinan and Heydon JJ
[265] Attorney-General (NT) v Maurice [1986] HCA 80; (1986) 161 CLR 475; 69 ALR 31 at 481; 34 per Gibbs CJ and at 493; 43 per Deane J
[266] Attorney-General (NT) v Maurice [1986] HCA 80; (1986) 161 CLR 475; 69 ALR 31 at 481; 34 per Gibbs CJ and see also Director of Public Prosecutions (Commonwealth) v Kane (1997) 140 FLR 468 at 478-485 per Hunt CJ at CL
[267] Commissioner of the Australian Federal Police v Propend Finance Pty Ltd (1997) 188 CLR 501 at 556 per McHugh J
[268] [1987] HCA 25; (1987) 163 CLR 54; 71 ALR 673, Mason, Wilson and Brennan JJ and Deane and Dawson JJ dissenting
[269] [1987] HCA 25; (1987) 163 CLR 54; 71 ALR 673 at 66; 680 per Mason and Wilson JJ and see also 74-75; 684 per Brennan J
[270] [1987] HCA 25; (1987) 163 CLR 54; 71 ALR 673 at 86-92; 700-701 per Deane J
[271] [1987] HCA 25; (1987) 163 CLR 54; 71 ALR 673 at 67; 681
[272] [1987] HCA 25; (1987) 163 CLR 54; 71 ALR 673 at 63-64; 678-679
[273] [1987] HCA 25; (1987) 163 CLR 54; 71 ALR 673 at 62; 677 and see also 75; 685 per Brennan J
[274] [1987] HCA 25; (1987) 163 CLR 54; 71 ALR 673 at 74-75; 687
[275] [1987] HCA 25; (1987) 163 CLR 54; 71 ALR 673 at 75; 687
[276] [1987] HCA 25; (1987) 163 CLR 54; 71 ALR 673 at 101; 707
[277] [1986] HCA 80; (1986) 161 CLR 475 at 490
[278] [1987] HCA 25; (1987) 163 CLR 54; 71 ALR 673 at 82; 692
[279] (2006) 232 ALR 743; 91 ALD 741; [2006] FCA 571 at 781; 84; [160]
[280] (2006) 232 ALR 743; 91 ALD 741; [2006] FCA 571 at 781; 84-85; [161]-[163]
[282] (2006) 233 ALR 369; 91 ALD 118; [2006] NSWSC 530 at 371; 120; [6]
[283] (2006) 233 ALR 369; 91 ALD 118; [2006] NSWSC 530 at 383; 132; [37]
[284] (2006) 233 ALR 369; 91 ALD 118; [2006] NSWSC 530 at 384; 132; [38]
[285] (2006) 233 ALR 369; 91 ALD 118; [2006] NSWSC 530 at 384; 132-133; [39]-[40]
[287] (2006) 233 ALR 369; 91 ALD 118; [2006] NSWSC 530 at 386; 135; [50]
[288] [1984] FCA 57; (1984) 1 FCR 354 at 365-366
[289] [1992] HCA 47; (1992) 175 CLR 408 at 424-425
[290] (2006) 233 ALR 369; 91 ALD 118; [2006] NSWSC 530 at 387; 136; [53]
[291] (2006) 233 ALR 369; 91 ALD 118; [2006] NSWSC 530 at 388; 137; [55]
[293] [1977] AATA 12; (1977) 1 ALD 158; 15 ALR 696; at 161; 699 quoted with approval in Wilson v Minister for Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Affairs [1996] HCA 18; (1996) 189 CLR 1 at 18 per Brennan CJ, Dawson, Toohey, McHugh and Gummow JJ
[295] (1976) 134 CLR 495; 9 ALR 103 at 520; 122-123
[297] (1987) 10 NSWLR 247 at 278-279
[299] (2007) 97 ALD 788; [2007] AATA 1792 at 793-794 and 796; [20]-[24] and [35]
[300] (2007) 97 ALD 788; [2007] AATA 1792 at 795; [31]
[301] (2007) 97 ALD 788; [2007] AATA 1792 at 790; [3]
[302] A broad discussion of the doctrine of stare decisis is found in Telstra Corporation Ltd v Treloar [2000] FCA 1170; (2000) 102 FCR 595 at [23]- [28] per Branson and Finkelstein JJ and Repatriation Commission v Gorton [2001] FCA 1194 at [26]- [28] per Heerey, Emmett and Allsop JJ
[304] Exhibit VCA, VCD - L, Annexure GJN-1
[305] Exhibit VCA, VCD - L, Annexure GJN-3 at 6/53
[306] Exhibit VCA, VCD - L, Annexure GJN-3 at 17/53
[307] Exhibit VCA, VCD - L, Annexure GJN-3 at 36/53
[308] Exhibit VCA, VCD - L, Annexure GJN-3 at 31/53
[309] (1990) 24 FCR 31; 97 ALD 555 at 350; 589
[315] [1981] FCA 147; (1981) 36 ALR 598; 4 ALD 198, Fox, Deane and Morling JJ
[316] [1981] FCA 147; (1981) 36 ALR 598; 4 ALD 198 at 603; 202
[317] Winch v Repatriation Commission (1995) 55 ALD 351; [1995] FCA 408 at 356; [17]-[20]
[318] The Evidence Act 1995 is inapplicable to the Tribunal; s 4(5) and see Epeabaka v Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs (1997) 150 ALR 397; 47 ALD 555 at 408-409, 56-566 per Finkelstein J.
[320] (1979) 24 ALR 577; 2 ALD 60 at 589; 68 per Bowen CJ and Deane J and 599; 77 per Smithers J
[321] (1979) 24 ALR 577; 2 ALD 60 at 539; 68-69
[322] Unreported, NSW Court of Appeal, 5 October 1993 at [13]-[14]. See [251] below.
[323] Rana v Military Rehabilitation and Compensation Commission [2005] FCA 6 at [59] per Finn J and see also Re Pochi v Minister for Immigration and Ethnic Affairs [1979] AATA 64; (1979) 36 FLR 482; 26 ALR 247 at 492; 256 per Brennan J
[325] [1984] USSC 140; (1984) 467 US 837 (at 151-156)
[326] [2005] HCA 77; (2005) 223 ALR 171; 88 ALR 257
[327] [2005] HCA 77; (2005) 223 ALR 171; 88 ALR 257 at 194-195; 280-281, footnotes omitted
[328] Re Kevin and Minister for Capital Territory (1979) 2 ALD 238 at 241-242
[330] The provisions of Part 3.3 of the Evidence Act 2005 (Cth) are broadly consistent with the common law.
[332] [1960] HCA 42; (1960) 103 CLR 486 at 491
[333] (1984) 38 SASR 45 at 46-47
[334] HG v The Queen [1999] HCA 2; (1999) 197 CLR 414; 160 ALR 554 at 432, 566; [58]
[335] (2006) 92 ALD 259; [2006] AATA 710 per Deputy President Forgie and Senior Member Pascoe
[336] The prohibition is not absolute: Murphy v R [1989] HCA 28; (1989) 167 CLR 94 at 110 per Mason CJ and Toohey J and at 127 per Deane J
[337] R v J (1994) 75 A Crim R 522 (Vic CCA) at 531 per Brooking J and Trade Practices Commission v Arnotts (No 5) (1990) 21 FCR 324; 92 ALR 527 at 330; 353 per Beaumont J
[338] Shell Pensions Trust Ltd v Pell Rrischmann & Partners [1986] 2 All ER 911 (QBD)
[339] (2006) 92 ALD 259; [2006] AATA 710 at 339; [260]
[341] (1991) 93 Cr App R 161 at 164
[342] Weal v Bottom (1966) 40 ALJR 436 at 439
[346] [2001] QCA 279; (2001) 121 A Crim R 272 at 289-290
[347] R v Bartlett [1996] VICSC 47; [1996] 2 VR 687 at 695 (Vic CA) per Winneke P
[349] (1984) 38 SASR 45; 15 A Crim R 364 at 46; 366
[350] (1990) 24 FCR 313; 97 ALR 555 per Lockhart, Wilcox and Gummow JJ
[351] 2nd edition, 1983 at 145-158, (1990) 24 FCR 313; 97 ALR 555 at 351; 594
[352] (1990) 24 FCR 313; 97 ALR 555 at 350; 594
[353] Quoted in Arnotts Limited v Trade Practices Commission (1990) 24 FCR 313; 97 ALR 555 at 350; 594
[354] (1990) 24 FCR 313; 97 ALR 555 at 351; 595
[356] [2006] FCA 1303; (2006) 155 FCR 357; 233 ALR 710 at 374; 725-726
[358] [1985] HCA 58; (1985) 62 ALR 85 at 87-88
[359] (1990) 24 FCR 313; 97 ALR 555 at 352; 596
[360] Arnotts Limited v Trade Practices Commission (1990) 24 FCR 313; 97 ALR 555 at 353; 593
[362] (2006) 92 ALD 259; [2006] AATA 710 at 361; [323], Deputy President Forgie and Senior Member Pascoe
[363] (2006) 92 ALD 259; [2006] AATA 710 at 361-364; [324]- [330]
[365] Unreported, NSW Court of Appeal, 5 October 1993 Per Kirby P
[366] Unreported, NSW Court of Appeal, 5 October 1993 at [13]-[14] approved by Mason CJ and Deane and McHugh JJ in Singer v Berghouse [1994] HCA 40; (1994) 181 CLR 201; 123 ALR 481; 68 ALJR 653 at 212, 489, 658; [28]
[369] (1883) 9 App Cas 1 at 19 approved in Austin v Austin [1906] HCA 5; (1906) 3 CLR 516 at 525 per Griffith CJ and in Fouche v Superannuation Fund Board [1952] HCA 1; (1952) 88 CLR 609 at 641 per Dixon CJ, McTiernan and Fullagar JJ. Most recently, Gummow J has said in Breen v Williams (1996) 186 CLR 71 at 137:
"Where an express trust has been effectively constituted and under its terms the trustee is obliged to manage a trust business, the trustee is required both to observe the terms of the trust, and in doing so, to exercise the same care as an ordinary, prudent person of business would exercise in the conduct of that business were it his or her own."
[371] (2003) 21 ACLC 888; [2003] FCA 262 at 892;[7]
[372] [1985] Ch 270; [1984] 2 All ER 750 at 289; 762 as cited in (2006) 92 ALD 259; [2006] AATA 710 at 344; [273]- [274]
[373] [1999] EWCA Civ 2013; [2000] Ch 602; [1999] 4 All ER 546 at 627; 567
[374] (2006) 92 ALD 259; [2006] AATA 710 at 361-362; [325]- [326]
[375] [1999] 3 VR 642 at 653
[376] [1999] 3 VR 642 at 652
[377] (2006) 92 ALD 259; [2006] AATA 710 at 364; [327]
[378] [2000] NSWCA 374, 21 December, 2000 (Malcolm AJA McPherson AJA Ormiston AJA)
[381] (1989) 18 NSWLR 642 at 654
[382] [2000] NSWCA 374, Malcolm, McPherson and Ormiston AJJA
[383] [1999] HCA 64; (1999) 74 ALJR 209; 167 ALR 575 at 219, 587; [45]
[386] Re-enacted in substantively similar terms in Corporations Act 2001, s 180
[387] Australian Investments and Securities Commission v Vines [2003] NSWSC 1116; (2003) 48 ACSR 322 at 33 per Austin J
[390] (1995) 37 NSWLR 438; 329-330
[391] (1995) 37 NSWLR 438; 494
[392] Affidavit of Professor Ramsay sworn on 25 June 2007, Exhibit "IR4", 5 at [1.4.1]
[394] Professor Ramsay's report dated 25 June 2007 at 63
[397] (1996) 64 FCR 79 at 83
[405] [1909] HCA 36; (1909) 8 CLR 330 at 357 and see also 377-381 per O'Connor J and 387 per Isaacs J
[407] [1954] HCA 46; (1954) 90 CLR 353 at 369; [11]
[409] [1995] HCA 10; (1995) 183 CLR 245; 127 ALR 1; 37 ALD 340 at 258; 9; 346
[410] [1995] HCA 10; (1995) 183 CLR 245; 127 ALR 1; 37 ALD 340 at 258-259; 9-10; 346-347
[413] [1908] USSC 160; (1908) 211 US 210 at 226; [1908] USSC 160; 53 Law Ed 150 at 158
[415] [1944] HCA 17; (1944) 69 CLR 185 at 210-211
[416] [1944] HCA 17; (1944) 69 CLR 185 at 198 and 201
[417] [1926] HCA 58; (1926) 38 CLR 153 at 176
[418] [1995] HCA 10; (1995) 183 CLR 245; 127 ALR 1; 37 ALD 340 at 269; 18; 354 and see also Mason CJ, Brennan and Toohey JJ at 8
[419] [1944] HCA 17; (1944) 69 CLR 185 at 198
[420] [1992] HCA 28; (1991) 173 CLR 167; 104 ALR 317 (Mason CJ, Brennan, Deane, Dawson, Toohey, Gaudron and McHugh JJ)
[421] [1992] HCA 28; (1991) 173 CLR 167; 104 ALR 317 at 190-191; 327
[423] (2008) 242 ALR 1; [2008] HCA 2 at 2-3; [2] and [4]
[424] [2007] HCA 33; (2007) 81 ALJR 1414 at 1438-1439 [8-]- [82]; [2007] HCA 33; 237 ALR 194 at 222-223
[425] (2008) 242 ALR 1; [2008] HCA 2 at 5; [14]
[426] (2008) 242 ALR 1; [2008] HCA 2 at 3; [4]
[428] [1970] HCA 8; (1970) 123 CLR 361 at 374
[429] (2008) 242 ALR 1; [2008] HCA 2 at 3; [5]
[430] (2008) 242 ALR 1; [2008] HCA 2 at 4; [6]
[431] [1970] HCA 8; (1970) 123 CLR 361 at 375-376
[433] (2007) 234 ALR 618; 95 ALD 220; [2007] HCA 23 at 623; 225; [17] and see also Kirby J at 641; 243; [100]
[434] (2007) 234 ALR 618; 95 ALD 220; [2007] HCA 23 at 627; 229; [35]
[435] (2007) 234 ALR 618; 95 ALD 220; [2007] HCA 23 at 640; 242; [46]-[47] footnotes omitted
[436] (2002) 209 CLR 246; 187 ALR 409; [2002] HCA 3 at 253-254; 412-413; [12]
[437] (2007) 234 ALR 618; 95 ALD 220; [2007] HCA 23 at 627; 229; [36]
[438] (2007) 234 ALR 618; 95 ALD 220; [2007] HCA 23 at 627; 229; [36]
[440] (2008) 242 ALR 1; [2008] HCA 2 at 4-5; [10]
[441] (2008) 242 ALR 1; [2008] HCA 2 at 26; [93]
[442] [1995] HCA 10; (1995) 183 CLR 245; 127 ALR 1; 37 ALD 340 at 257; 8; 346 per Mason CJ, Brennan and
[443] [1995] HCA 10; (1995) 183 CLR 245; 127 ALR 1; 37 ALD 340 at 259-260; 10; 347
[444] [1995] HCA 10; (1995) 183 CLR 245; 127 ALR 1; 37 ALD 340 at 264; 14; 351
[445] [1992] HCA 28; (1991) 173 CLR 167; 104 ALR 317 at 188-189; 325 (footnotes omitted)
[447] [1942] HCA 14; (1942) 65 CLR 373 at 408
[448] SIS Act, ss 344(9), (10) and (11)
[450] (1979) 24 ALR 577; 2 ALD 60 at 584-585; 64-65 (citations omitted)
[451] Re Becker and Minister for Immigration and Ethnic Affairs [1977] AATA 12; (1977) 1 ALD 158; 15 ALR 696; at 161; 699 per Brennan J quoted with approval in Wilson v Minister for Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Affairs [1996] HCA 18; (1996) 189 CLR 1 at 18 per Brennan CJ, Dawson, Toohey, McHugh and Gummow JJ
[454] (2007) 234 ALR 618; 95 ALD 220; [2007] HCA 23 at 627; 229; [35] and see also Kirby J at 640; 242; [97]
[455] See, for example, the inter-relationship between convictions and the merits review of certain decisions under the Migration Act 1958: Re Ngu and Minister for Immigration and Citizenship [2007] AATA 1047 (Deputy President Forgie)
[456] (2006) 92 ALD 259; [2006] AATA 710 (Deputy President Forgie and Senior Member Pascoe)
[458] (2006) 92 ALD 259; [2006] AATA 710 at 330-331; [237]
[460] [1998] FCA 440; (1998) 83 FCR 50 at 56
[462] (2003) 216 CLR 161; 201 ALR 1; [2003] HCA 49 at 198-199; 28-29; [114]-[115] footnotes omitted
[463] (2003) 216 CLR 161; 201 ALR 1; [2003] HCA 49 at 205-206; 34; [135]-[136]footnotes omitted
[464] Rich v Australian Securities and Investments Commission [2004] HCA 42; (2004) 220 CLR 129; 209 ALR 271; 78 ALJR 1354
[465] [1938] HCA 34; (1938) 60 CLR 336 at 363
[466] See, for example, Repatriation Commission v Smith (1987) 74 ALR 537, Davies, Lockhart and Neaves JJ
[467] [1938] HCA 34; (1938) 60 CLR 336, Latham CJ, Rich, Starke, Dixon and McTiernan JJ
[468] [1938] HCA 34; (1938) 60 CLR 336 at 363 at 361-362. The same principles have been considered and applied in numerous cases in the Tribunal including Re Pochi v Minister for Immigration and Ethnic Affairs [1979] AATA 64; (1979) 26 ALR 247 at 255 (Brennan J) and Hardcastle v Commissioner of Police [1984] FCA 105; (1984) 53 ALR 593 (Bowen CJ, Gallop and Lockhart JJ).
[470] See also Vines v Australian Securities and Investments Commission (2007) 62 ACSR 1; [2007] NSWSC 75 at 113; [587] per Santow JA and at 169; [808]-[813] per Ipp JA.
[473] Hansard, House of Representatives, 27 May 1993 at 1101 and see statement to same effect by Senator Robert Ray, Minister for Defence, Hansard, Senate, 19 October 1993 at 2099
[474] (1997) 187 CLR 384; 141 ALR 618 at 408; 634-5 per Brennan CJ, Dawson, Toohey and
[476] [2000] HCA 2; (2000) 169 ALR 236 at 254-255
[477] Hansard, House of Representatives, 27 September 1993 at 1089-1090
[479] [1995] FCA 1663; (1995) 62 FCR 504 at 532
[480] Chambers 21st Century Dictionary, 1999, reprinted 2004, Chambers
[482] (2003) 21 ACLC 88; [2003] FCA 262
[483] Hansard, House of Representatives, 27 September 1993
[485] Hansard, House of Representatives, 27 May 1993 at 1101
[486] Hansard, House of Representatives, 27 September 1993 at 1068
[487] Hansard, House of Representatives, 27 September 1993 at 1966-1067
[492] Discussion Paper No. 50 at [5.25]. See (2006) 92 ALD 259; [2006] AATA 710 at 357-358;
[493] (2006) 92 ALD 259; [2006] AATA 710 at 358-361; [315]- [322]
[494] (2006) 92 ALD 259; [2006] AATA 710 at 354-355; [306]
[496] [1952] HCA 1; (1952) 88 CLR 609 at 641
[497] (1998) 29 ACSR 642 (NSW Supreme Court - Equity Division)
[498] (1998) 29 ACSR 642 at 692-693
[499] Jabarula v Poore (1989) 62 NTR 26 at 33-34 per Kearney J
[500] Chambers 21st Century Dictionary, 1999, reprinted 2004, Chambers
[501] (2006) 92 ALD 259; [2006] AATA 710 at 371; [356]- [359]
[503] [2003] NSWSC 745; (2003) 47 ACSR 31 at 43; [45] (SCNSW)
[504] [2003] NSWSC 745; (2003) 47 ACSR 31 at 44; [48]
[505] [2003] NSWSC 745; (2003) 47 ACSR 31 at 44; [49]- [51]
[506] [2003] NSWSC 745; (2003) 47 ACSR 31 at 44; [52]
[507] Chambers 21st Century Dictionary, 1999, reprinted 2004, Chambers
[508] [2001] FCA 274; (2001) 192 ALR 256, Heerey, Goldberg and Weinberg JJ
[509] [2001] FCA 274; (2001) 192 ALR 256 at 270
[511] [1998] FCA 838, unnumbered pages and paragraphs
[515] T documents, T453 at 4320-4321, Exhibit J at [6] - [8], Statement of VCC, Exhibit VCC-A at [179], Statement of VCA, Exhibit VCA-E at [75]-[77] and Statement of VCD, Exhibit VCD-D at [43]
[519] Statement of VCC, Exhibit VCC-A; [67] and T documents at T182, T261, T262, T313 and T314
[521] T documents, T201 at 2106 and 2111-2118
[524] Statement of VCA, Exhibit VCC-A; at [97]
[528] Exhibit VCC-K at [9], Statement of VCC at [109]-[113], Statement of Mr Austin at [11],
[531] Statement of VCA, Exhibit VCA-E at [84]-[85]
[532] Statement of VCD, Exhibit VCD-D at [51]-[52]
[534] Statement of VCD, Exhibit VCD-D at [52]
[536] Noted in the Board minutes at T documents, T381 at 3584 and Ernst & Young's "Closing Report to the Directors of ... [ATC]" at T378 at 3567-3578
[547] The ordinary meaning of "establish" include: "... to set up (eg a university or a business). ...". The expression "set something up" means, in so far as it is relevant in this context "... to bring it into being or operation; to establish it He set the company up by himself. ...". (Chambers 21st Century Dictionary, 1999, reprinted 2004, Chambers (Chambers))
[549] (1888) 13 AC 595 at 599-600, approved by Barton J in Lorimer v Smail [1911] HCA 44; (1911) 12 CLR 504 at 510
[550] Chambers 21st Century Dictionary, 1999, reprinted 2004, Chambers
[551] Chambers 21st Century Dictionary, 1999, reprinted 2004, Chambers
[552] Chambers 21st Century Dictionary, 1999, reprinted 2004, Chambers
[553] Chambers 21st Century Dictionary, 1999, reprinted 2004, Chambers
[555] [1990] HCA 52; (1990) 171 CLR 216; 96 ALR 513 at 226; 519
[556] [1979] FCA 29; (1979) 26 ALR 307, Bowen CJ, Franki and Fisher JJ
[557] [1979] FCA 29; (1979) 26 ALR 307 at 311
[559] [1980] HCA 16; (1980) 144 CLR 1; 29 ALR 577 at 8-9; 582
[560] [1998] HCA 42; (1998) 193 CLR 605; 155 ALR 67
[561] [1998] HCA 42; (1998) 193 CLR 605; 155 ALR 67 at 626; 82
[563] Ford's Principles of Corporations Law 13th Edition 2007, R.P. Austin and I.M. Ramsey at paragraph 4.140
[566] [1923] AC 723 at 740-741
[567] Ford's Principles of Corporations Law 13th Edition 2007, R.P. Austin and I.M. Ramsey (Ford) at paragraph 4.140
[570] see Spies v R [2000] HCA 43; (2000) 201 CLR 603 at 635-637 per Gaudron, McHugh, Gummow and Hayne JJ and see Ford at [4.180]
[571] Dennis Willcox Pty Ltd v Federal Commissioner of Taxation (1988) 79 ALR 267 at 274 per Jenkinson J
[575] Statement of VS, Exhibit J at Exhibit VS2
[577] Statement of VS, Exhibit J at [16]
[579] Statement of VCA, Exhibit VCA-E at [79]-[80]
[588] Chambers 21st Century Dictionary, 1999, reprinted 2004, Chambers
[590] Exhibit VCC-A at [52], Exhibit DG6
[593] Chambers 21st Century Dictionary, 1999, reprinted 2004, Chambers
[594] Shorter Oxford English Dictionary, 5th edition, 2002, Oxford University Press
[598] Policy, cl 1(a), T documents, T147 at 1642
[599] Policy, cl 2(j), T documents, T147 at 1644
[600] Policy, cl 2(i), T documents, T147 at 1644
[601] Policy, cl 1(b), T documents, T147 at 1642
[602] Policy, cl 1(c), T documents, T147 at 1643
[606] APRA's submissions at [190]-[191]
[620] See generally Ford's Principles of Corporations Law 13th Edition 2007, R.P. Austin and I.M. Ramsey at paragraph 17.220
[623] Administration Agreement, cll 6.2(c) and 1.2
[625] [2007] VSC 556 at 27
[626] [2007] VSC 556 at 28
[627] [2007] VSC 556 at 29
[628] Administration Agreement, Schedule D, cl 1(c)(iii)
[629] e.g. Re Civiti and Secretary, Tax Agents' Board of Victoria (1990) 90 ATC 2039, Deputy President Forrest
[630] e.g. Re Dowling and Secretary to Department of Health (1985) 8 ALD 171, Deputy President Hall and Mr Sinclair and Professor Webster, Members
[631] e.g. Re Taylor and Department of Transport (1978) 1 ALD 312, Mr Hall, then Senior Member and Captain Gibbes and Mr Thompson, Members
[632] [1955] HCA 28; (1955) 93 CLR 127, Dixon CJ, McTiernan, Williams, Webb, Fullugar, Kitto and Taylor JJ
[633] [1955] HCA 28; (1955) 93 CLR 127 at 156
[636] [1990] HCA 33; (1990) 170 CLR 321; 94 ALR 11; 21 ALD 1 at 348-349; 32; 18-19
[637] [1990] HCA 33; (1990) 170 CLR 321; 94 ALR 11; 21 ALD 1 at 380; 56; 40
[638] [1995] FCA 1663; (1995) 62 FCR 504 at 533
[639] Chambers 21st Century Dictionary, 1999, reprinted 2004, Chambers
[641] Rich v Australian Securities and Investments Commission [2004] HCA 42; (2004) 220 CLR 129, [52]
[642] [2002] NSWSC 483; (2002) 42 ACSR 80, 97-99
[644] [2005] AATA 642, [60]
[645] [2008] AATA 278, Deputy President Forgie and Dr Hughes, Member
[647] (2001) 38 ACSR 10; [2001] AATA 366, per Deputy President Forgie and Mr McLean and Mr Elsum AM, Members
[648] (2001) 38 ACSR 10; [2001] AATA 366 at 36-37; [116]- [117]
[649] (2006) 92 ALD 259; [2006] AATA 710 at 324-328; [217]- [229]
[651] (1995) 37 NSWLR 438; 16 ACSR 607 at 500-501; 664
[652] e.g. Such was the case with Seaman William Williams RNR, who served during World War I in "Q" ships, which were disguised armed tramp steamers acting as bait for enemy submarines. A VC was awarded collectively to the crew after successfully sinking UC29 on 7 June, 1917 but the crew chose him to receive it: National Museums and Galleries of Wales: Gathering the Jewels ref: GTJ40267.
[653] "Surely he hath borne our Griefs and carried our Sorrows; Yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of GOD and afflicted." Isaiah 53:4
[655] [1981] UKHL 2; [1982] AC 617 at 651
[657] [1984] UKHL 5; [1985] AC 835 at 864 Approved by the Federal Court in Pickering v Deputy Commissioner of Taxation [1997] FCA 890 and cases cited therein.
(2007) 234 ALR 618
(1990) 24 FCR 31
(1986) 161 CLR 475
(2000) 169 ALR 236
(1998) 83 FCR 50
(1999) 74 ALJR 209
(1995) 183 CLR 245
(1996) 186 CLR 71
(1938) 60 CLR 336
(1992) 175 CLR 408
(1995) 183 CLR 121
(2003) 216 CLR 161
(1997) 187 CLR 384
(1960) 103 CLR 486
(1981) 36 ALR 598
(1997) 188 CLR 501
(1998) 193 CLR 605
(2005) 225 ALR 266
(2000) 199 CLR 135
(2002) 213 CLR 543
(1995) 37 NSWLR 438
(1988) 79 ALR 267
(1997) 140 FLR 468
(1979) 24 ALR 577
(1997) 150 ALR 397
(1992) 106 ALR 577
(1999) 201 CLR 49
(1990) 168 CLR 614
(1926) 38 CLR 153
(1979) 26 ALR 307
(1952) 88 CLR 609
(1976) 135 CLR 674
(1984) 53 ALR 593
(1999) 197 CLR 414
(1951) 82 CLR 372
(1980) 144 CLR 1
(1909) 8 CLR 330
(1955) 93 CLR 127
(2006) 233 ALR 369
(1911) 12 CLR 504
(1999) 201 CLR 1
(1984) 1 FCR 354
(2001) 192 ALR 256
(1989) 167 CLR 94
(1996) 64 FCR 79
(2008) 242 ALR 1
(1906) 3 CLR 516
(1990) 170 CLR 321
(1995) 62 FCR 504
(2006) 232 ALR 743
(2005) 223 ALR 171
(1985) 62 ALR 85
(2002) 209 CLR 246
(1991) 173 CLR 167
(1998) 194 CLR 355
(1965) 114 CLR 164
(1984) 38 SASR 45
(1954) 90 CLR 353
(1990) 171 CLR 216
(1979) 36 FLR 482
(1987) 74 ALR 537
(2004) 209 ALR 271
(1944) 69 CLR 185
(1976) 134 CLR 495
(1994) 181 CLR 201
(1987) 10 NSWLR 247
(2000) 201 CLR 603
(1942) 65 CLR 373
(2000) 102 FCR 595
(1970) 123 CLR 361
(2007) 81 ALJR 1414
(1990) 21 FCR 324
(1989) 88 ALR 90
(2007) 92 ALR 724
(1989) 18 NSWLR 642
(1987) 163 CLR 54
(1960) 108 CLR 158
(1966) 40 ALJR 436
(1996) 189 CLR 1
(2006) 155 FCR 357
(1971) 124 CLR 1
(1980) 41 FLR 175
(1977) 136 CLR 214
(1971) 17 FLR 141
(1963) 109 CLR 665
(1965) 112 CLR 517
(1979) 144 CLR 45
(2003) 130 FCR 37
(1995) 184 CLR 1
(2006) 67 NSWLR 91
(1983) 153 CLR 52
(1990) 24 FCR 313
(2004) 220 CLR 129
(1979) 26 ALR 247