This Act creates a Foreign Ownership of Land Register and requires foreign persons to notify the registrar when they acquire, dispose of or change foreign status in relation to land (specified 90‑day and annual timeframes). The registrar maintains and may correct the register, demand information, delegate functions to the titles registry operator and make approved forms; fees apply for extracts and titles functions. Breaches, false or misleading information and failure to comply with information notices attract substantial penalties and continuing daily fines.
Mechanically, the Foreign Ownership of Land Register Act 1988 establishes and prescribes the operation of a statutory register that records foreign persons who hold interests in land in the State. The registrar is required to maintain the Foreign Ownership of Land Register (s 11). The Act creates duties to notify the registrar when foreign persons acquire (s 18) or dispose of (s 18A) the legal estate in an interest in land, and imposes annual notification obligations where a person becomes, or ceases to be, a foreign person as at 30 June (ss 19-20). The Act gives the registrar powers to require additional information and records from persons (s 22), to make entries where notifications are missing or incomplete (s 23), to rectify errors (s 13), and to delegate functions to public service employees and to the titles registry operator (s 15). The Act also provides access mechanics: members of the public may obtain particulars, extracts and statistical data from the register on payment of specified fees (s 14), and documents lodged with registering authorities that serve as approved forms become part of the register (s 11(3), s 21(5)).
The Act creates criminal and civil compliance mechanisms. It makes non‑compliance with a registrar’s requirement under s 22 an offence with substantial monetary penalties and continuing‑offence consequences (s 24). False or misleading answers to the registrar or in notifications are criminalised (s 25). Default general penalties apply where a specific penalty is not provided (s 27). The registrar and authorised officers have powers to administer oaths and require statutory declarations (s 22(2)). The Act provides evidentiary rules for certified copies and registrar certificates (ss 11(5)-(6), 43), and a limited protection from liability for acts done in good faith under the Act (s 44), with a specified exclusion for titles registry operator employees (s 44).
Current sections
Direct links to the current provisions in Foreign Ownership of Land Register Act 1988.
65
pt.1
Preliminary
Preliminary
sec.1
Short title
sec.1 Short title
This Act may be cited as the Foreign Ownership of Land Register Act 1988 .
sec.2
Definitions
sec.2 Definitions
The dictionary in schedule 1 defines particular words used in this Act.
s 2 prev s 2 om 1 July 1995 RA s 37
pres s 2 ins 2013 No. 23 s 39
sec.3
Section sec.3
s 3 om 1991 No. 97 s 3 sch 1
sec.4
Interpretation
sec.4 Interpretation
In this Act—
a person who directly or indirectly controls an interest in land shall be deemed to have acquired that interest; and
a reference to acquire includes a reference to agreeing to acquire.
For the purposes of this Act, the time of acquisition of an interest in land is taken to be—
if the interest is acquired as the result of the granting of a lease of unallocated State land—the time when the lease commences; or
if the interest is acquired under an agreement—the time of entry into possession of the interest; or
otherwise—the time when the event that gave rise to the acquisition occurred.
For the purposes of subsection (2) (b) , the time of entry into possession in respect of an interest in land means the time under an agreement when the person acquiring the interest is entitled to—
occupy, use and control that interest; or
the rents and profits of that interest.
s 4 amd 1989 No. 3 s 3 (c) – (d) ; 1991 No. 97 s 3 sch 1 ; 2013 No. 23 s 40 (8) – (11) ; 2019 No. 7 s 157
(sec.4-ssec.1) In this Act— a person who directly or indirectly controls an interest in land shall be deemed to have acquired that interest; and a reference to acquire includes a reference to agreeing to acquire.
(sec.4-ssec.2) For the purposes of this Act, the time of acquisition of an interest in land is taken to be— if the interest is acquired as the result of the granting of a lease of unallocated State land—the time when the lease commences; or if the interest is acquired under an agreement—the time of entry into possession of the interest; or otherwise—the time when the event that gave rise to the acquisition occurred.
(sec.4-ssec.3) For the purposes of subsection (2) (b) , the time of entry into possession in respect of an interest in land means the time under an agreement when the person acquiring the interest is entitled to— occupy, use and control that interest; or the rents and profits of that interest.
(a) a person who directly or indirectly controls an interest in land shall be deemed to have acquired that interest; and
(b) a reference to acquire includes a reference to agreeing to acquire.
(a) if the interest is acquired as the result of the granting of a lease of unallocated State land—the time when the lease commences; or
(b) if the interest is acquired under an agreement—the time of entry into possession of the interest; or
(c) otherwise—the time when the event that gave rise to the acquisition occurred.
(a) occupy, use and control that interest; or
(b) the rents and profits of that interest.
sec.5
Section sec.5
s 5 om 2019 No. 7 s 158
sec.6
Section sec.6
s 6 sub 1989 No. 3 s 4
om 2019 No. 7 s 158
sec.7
Section sec.7
s 7 amd 1989 No. 3 s 5
om 2019 No. 7 s 158
sec.8
Section sec.8
s 8 sub 1989 No. 3 s 6
om 2019 No. 7 s 158
sec.9
Section sec.9
s 9 amd 1989 No. 3 s 7
om 2019 No. 7 s 158
sec.10
Section sec.10
s 10 sub 1989 No. 3 s 8
amd 2009 No. 49 s 100
om 2019 No. 7 s 158
pt.2
Administration
Administration
sec.11
Register
sec.11 Register
The registrar must maintain a register called the Foreign Ownership of Land Register.
The register may be kept in the form the registrar considers appropriate including, for example, in electronic form.
An approved form lodged with the registrar forms part of the register.
The registrar may do the following things in relation to the register—
make a copy, in a way approved by the Minister for this section, of any part of the register;
move particulars recorded in a particular part of the register to another part;
delete particulars recorded in a particular part of the register if the registrar is satisfied the particulars have been accurately recorded in another part;
destroy an approved form if a copy of the approved form has been made under paragraph (a) .
A copy of a part of the register made under subsection (4) (a) and certified by the registrar as an accurate copy of that part of the register forms part of the register.
A copy of an approved form made under subsection (4) (a) and certified by the registrar as an accurate copy of the approved form is admissible as evidence of the approved form and the things in it.
s 11 amd 1989 No. 3 s 9
sub 2019 No. 7 s 159
amd 2021 No. 12 s 148 sch 3
(sec.11-ssec.1) The registrar must maintain a register called the Foreign Ownership of Land Register.
(sec.11-ssec.2) The register may be kept in the form the registrar considers appropriate including, for example, in electronic form.
(sec.11-ssec.3) An approved form lodged with the registrar forms part of the register.
(sec.11-ssec.4) The registrar may do the following things in relation to the register— make a copy, in a way approved by the Minister for this section, of any part of the register; move particulars recorded in a particular part of the register to another part; delete particulars recorded in a particular part of the register if the registrar is satisfied the particulars have been accurately recorded in another part; destroy an approved form if a copy of the approved form has been made under paragraph (a) .
(sec.11-ssec.5) A copy of a part of the register made under subsection (4) (a) and certified by the registrar as an accurate copy of that part of the register forms part of the register.
(sec.11-ssec.6) A copy of an approved form made under subsection (4) (a) and certified by the registrar as an accurate copy of the approved form is admissible as evidence of the approved form and the things in it.
(a) make a copy, in a way approved by the Minister for this section, of any part of the register;
(b) move particulars recorded in a particular part of the register to another part;
(c) delete particulars recorded in a particular part of the register if the registrar is satisfied the particulars have been accurately recorded in another part;
(d) destroy an approved form if a copy of the approved form has been made under paragraph (a) .
sec.12
Section sec.12
s 12 om 2019 No. 7 s 160
sec.13
Rectification of register
sec.13 Rectification of register
Where the registrar is satisfied that there is an error or omission in the register or a failure to comply with this Act in respect of any approved form or acquisition, the registrar may do all things necessary to rectify the error, omission or failure.
s 13 amd 2021 No. 12 s 148 sch 3
sec.14
Access to information in register
sec.14 Access to information in register
A person may, on payment of the relevant titles registry fee and during the hours and on the days appointed by the registrar for that purpose—
obtain particulars of information recorded or contained in the register; and
obtain extracts of particulars of information recorded or contained in the register; and
on giving adequate notice to allow its preparation—obtain from the registrar copies of any statistical data available from the computerised information recorded in the register.
In this section—
titles registry fee , for a matter mentioned in subsection (1) (a) , (b) or (c) , means the fee payable for the matter under section 44C .
s 14 amd 1989 No. 3 s 10 ; 1990 No. 106 s 4 ; 2019 No. 7 s 161 ; 2021 No. 12 s 148 sch 3
(sec.14-ssec.1) A person may, on payment of the relevant titles registry fee and during the hours and on the days appointed by the registrar for that purpose— obtain particulars of information recorded or contained in the register; and obtain extracts of particulars of information recorded or contained in the register; and on giving adequate notice to allow its preparation—obtain from the registrar copies of any statistical data available from the computerised information recorded in the register.
(sec.14-ssec.2) In this section— titles registry fee , for a matter mentioned in subsection (1) (a) , (b) or (c) , means the fee payable for the matter under section 44C .
(a) obtain particulars of information recorded or contained in the register; and
(b) obtain extracts of particulars of information recorded or contained in the register; and
(c) on giving adequate notice to allow its preparation—obtain from the registrar copies of any statistical data available from the computerised information recorded in the register.
sec.15
Delegations by registrar
sec.15 Delegations by registrar
The registrar may delegate the registrar’s powers under this Act to an appropriately qualified public service employee employed in the department.
Also, the registrar may delegate the registrar’s functions under this Act to the titles registry operator.
If a function of the registrar is delegated to the titles registry operator, the titles registry operator must subdelegate the function to an appropriately qualified employee of the titles registry operator.
The titles registry operator may impose conditions on a subdelegation under subsection (3) that are not inconsistent with any conditions to which the delegation to the titles registry operator is subject.
In this section—
function includes power.
s 15 sub 1992 No. 64 s 3 sch 1 ; 2021 No. 12 s 58
(sec.15-ssec.1) The registrar may delegate the registrar’s powers under this Act to an appropriately qualified public service employee employed in the department.
(sec.15-ssec.2) Also, the registrar may delegate the registrar’s functions under this Act to the titles registry operator.
(sec.15-ssec.3) If a function of the registrar is delegated to the titles registry operator, the titles registry operator must subdelegate the function to an appropriately qualified employee of the titles registry operator.
(sec.15-ssec.4) The titles registry operator may impose conditions on a subdelegation under subsection (3) that are not inconsistent with any conditions to which the delegation to the titles registry operator is subject.
(sec.15-ssec.5) In this section— function includes power.
sec.16
Section sec.16
s 16 amd 17 December 1991 RA s 36
om 2019 No. 17 s 37
pt.3
Notification of ownership
Notification of ownership
sec.17
Section sec.17
s 17 amd 1989 No. 3 s 11
om 2019 No. 7 s 162
sec.18
Disclosure of acquisition
sec.18 Disclosure of acquisition
A foreign person who acquires the legal estate of an interest in land must complete and lodge with the registrar a notification of ownership in relation to the interest not later than 90 days after the day of the acquisition.
However, a foreign person is not required to comply with subsection (1) if the legal estate of the interest in land is vested in the person as personal representative of a deceased person.
Also, a person beneficially entitled to an interest in land because of the death of a person is not required to comply with subsection (1) until all documents resulting in the interest vesting in the person have been lodged with the relevant registering authority.
s 18 amd 1989 No. 3 s 12 ; 1990 No. 106 s 5
sub 2019 No. 7 s 163
(sec.18-ssec.1) A foreign person who acquires the legal estate of an interest in land must complete and lodge with the registrar a notification of ownership in relation to the interest not later than 90 days after the day of the acquisition.
(sec.18-ssec.2) However, a foreign person is not required to comply with subsection (1) if the legal estate of the interest in land is vested in the person as personal representative of a deceased person.
(sec.18-ssec.3) Also, a person beneficially entitled to an interest in land because of the death of a person is not required to comply with subsection (1) until all documents resulting in the interest vesting in the person have been lodged with the relevant registering authority.
sec.18A
Disclosure of disposal of interest
sec.18A Disclosure of disposal of interest
Subsection (2) applies if—
the legal estate of an interest in land is registered in the register, or recorded in the records of a relevant registering authority, in the name of a foreign person; and
the foreign person disposes of the interest.
The foreign person must complete and lodge with the registrar a notification, in the approved form, in relation to the disposal not later than 90 days after the day on which the disposal takes place.
s 18A ins 1990 No. 106 s 6
sub 2019 No. 7 s 163
amd 2021 No. 12 s 148 sch 3
(sec.18A-ssec.1) Subsection (2) applies if— the legal estate of an interest in land is registered in the register, or recorded in the records of a relevant registering authority, in the name of a foreign person; and the foreign person disposes of the interest.
(sec.18A-ssec.2) The foreign person must complete and lodge with the registrar a notification, in the approved form, in relation to the disposal not later than 90 days after the day on which the disposal takes place.
(a) the legal estate of an interest in land is registered in the register, or recorded in the records of a relevant registering authority, in the name of a foreign person; and
(b) the foreign person disposes of the interest.
sec.19
Notification of ceasing to be a foreign person
sec.19 Notification of ceasing to be a foreign person
This section applies if, on 30 June in a year—
the legal estate of an interest in land is registered in the register, or recorded in the records of a relevant registering authority, in the name of a foreign person; and
the person is no longer a foreign person; and
the person has not completed, and lodged with the registrar, a notification of ownership, in the approved form, in relation to the cessation.
The person must complete, and lodge with the registrar, a notification, in the approved form, in relation to the cessation by 30 September in the year.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
s 19 sub 1989 No. 3 s 13
amd 1990 No. 106 s 7
sub 2019 No. 7 s 163
amd 2021 No. 12 s 148 sch 3
(sec.19-ssec.1) This section applies if, on 30 June in a year— the legal estate of an interest in land is registered in the register, or recorded in the records of a relevant registering authority, in the name of a foreign person; and the person is no longer a foreign person; and the person has not completed, and lodged with the registrar, a notification of ownership, in the approved form, in relation to the cessation.
(sec.19-ssec.2) The person must complete, and lodge with the registrar, a notification, in the approved form, in relation to the cessation by 30 September in the year. Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
(a) the legal estate of an interest in land is registered in the register, or recorded in the records of a relevant registering authority, in the name of a foreign person; and
(b) the person is no longer a foreign person; and
(c) the person has not completed, and lodged with the registrar, a notification of ownership, in the approved form, in relation to the cessation.
sec.20
Notification of becoming a foreign person
sec.20 Notification of becoming a foreign person
This section applies if, on 30 June in a year—
the legal estate of an interest in land is recorded in the records of a relevant registering authority in the name of a person; and
the person is a foreign person; and
the person has not completed, and lodged with the registrar, a notification of ownership, in the approved form, in relation to the interest.
The person must complete, and lodge with the registrar, a notification of ownership, in the approved form, in relation to the interest by 30 September in the year.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
s 20 sub 1989 No. 3 s 14 ; 2019 No. 7 s 163
amd 2021 No. 12 s 148 sch 3
(sec.20-ssec.1) This section applies if, on 30 June in a year— the legal estate of an interest in land is recorded in the records of a relevant registering authority in the name of a person; and the person is a foreign person; and the person has not completed, and lodged with the registrar, a notification of ownership, in the approved form, in relation to the interest.
(sec.20-ssec.2) The person must complete, and lodge with the registrar, a notification of ownership, in the approved form, in relation to the interest by 30 September in the year. Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
(a) the legal estate of an interest in land is recorded in the records of a relevant registering authority in the name of a person; and
(b) the person is a foreign person; and
(c) the person has not completed, and lodged with the registrar, a notification of ownership, in the approved form, in relation to the interest.
sec.21
Other registries and transitional
sec.21 Other registries and transitional
Every person required to lodge a notification of ownership or trustee notification of ownership with the registrar under section 18 shall be deemed to have complied with the requirements of that section if that person, within the period specified in that section, lodges with the relevant registering authority a duly completed notification of ownership or trustee notification of ownership, as the case may require, contemporaneously with such other documents as are required to be lodged with that registering authority to enable the registration or recording of the relevant acquisition.
Every document that is lodged with a registering authority after the commencement of the Foreign Ownership of Land Register Act Amendment Act 1990 for the registration or recording of a dealing in respect of an acquisition of an interest in land to which section 18 (1) or (3) applies, shall, even though the acquisition was made before the commencement of that Act, be accompanied by—
a notification of ownership or trustee notification of ownership, as the case may require; or
a certificate of exemption referred to in subsection (3) ; or
evidence, in the approved form, that a notification of ownership or trustee notification of ownership has been lodged with the registrar;
in respect of that acquisition, contemporaneously with such other documents as are required to be lodged with that registering authority to enable the registration or recording of that acquisition.
Where an acquisition of an interest in land occurred prior to the commencement of this Act the registrar may, in the registrar’s absolute discretion, issue in respect of that acquisition a certificate of exemption in the approved form, exempting that acquisition from the application of subsection (2) (a) and (c) .
Despite any other Act or law to the contrary, a registering authority shall not register or record in its register or records any documents lodged with that registering authority after the commencement of this Act, in respect of an acquisition of an interest in land where the registering authority is not satisfied that subsection (2) has been complied with.
Every notification of ownership or trustee notification of ownership, as the case may be, lodged with a registering authority under this section shall be produced by that registering authority to the registrar within 30 days of the registration or recording of the acquisition in respect of which it was lodged with that registering authority.
s 21 amd 1989 No. 3 s 15 ; 1990 No. 106 s 8 ; 2021 No. 12 s 148 sch 3
(sec.21-ssec.1) Every person required to lodge a notification of ownership or trustee notification of ownership with the registrar under section 18 shall be deemed to have complied with the requirements of that section if that person, within the period specified in that section, lodges with the relevant registering authority a duly completed notification of ownership or trustee notification of ownership, as the case may require, contemporaneously with such other documents as are required to be lodged with that registering authority to enable the registration or recording of the relevant acquisition.
(sec.21-ssec.2) Every document that is lodged with a registering authority after the commencement of the Foreign Ownership of Land Register Act Amendment Act 1990 for the registration or recording of a dealing in respect of an acquisition of an interest in land to which section 18 (1) or (3) applies, shall, even though the acquisition was made before the commencement of that Act, be accompanied by— a notification of ownership or trustee notification of ownership, as the case may require; or a certificate of exemption referred to in subsection (3) ; or evidence, in the approved form, that a notification of ownership or trustee notification of ownership has been lodged with the registrar; in respect of that acquisition, contemporaneously with such other documents as are required to be lodged with that registering authority to enable the registration or recording of that acquisition.
(sec.21-ssec.3) Where an acquisition of an interest in land occurred prior to the commencement of this Act the registrar may, in the registrar’s absolute discretion, issue in respect of that acquisition a certificate of exemption in the approved form, exempting that acquisition from the application of subsection (2) (a) and (c) .
(sec.21-ssec.4) Despite any other Act or law to the contrary, a registering authority shall not register or record in its register or records any documents lodged with that registering authority after the commencement of this Act, in respect of an acquisition of an interest in land where the registering authority is not satisfied that subsection (2) has been complied with.
(sec.21-ssec.5) Every notification of ownership or trustee notification of ownership, as the case may be, lodged with a registering authority under this section shall be produced by that registering authority to the registrar within 30 days of the registration or recording of the acquisition in respect of which it was lodged with that registering authority.
(a) a notification of ownership or trustee notification of ownership, as the case may require; or
(b) a certificate of exemption referred to in subsection (3) ; or
(c) evidence, in the approved form, that a notification of ownership or trustee notification of ownership has been lodged with the registrar;
sec.22
Registrar may require additional information
sec.22 Registrar may require additional information
The registrar may, for the purpose of—
ascertaining whether there is any liability on a person to lodge an approved form; or
ascertaining whether a person is required to comply with this Act or whether the Act has been contravened or not complied with by a person in any respect; or
enquiring into any matter connected with the administration of this Act;
by notice in writing, require a person—
to give information of a kind and in a form or manner specified in the notice or to produce records (or copies of records) of a kind specified in the notice (being information or records believed to be within the knowledge, in the custody or under the control of the person) at a place and within a time specified in the notice, to the registrar or an officer authorised by the registrar and specified in the notice; or
to attend before the registrar or an officer authorised by the registrar and specified in the notice at a time and place specified in the notice and there to give information and to produce records of a kind specified in the notice (being information or records believed to be within the knowledge, in the custody or under the control of the person) and to answer questions or to do all or any of those things.
The registrar or an officer authorised by the registrar under subsection (1) may require information sought under this section to be given, verbally on oath or in writing by statutory declaration, as the case may be, and for that purpose the registrar, that officer or any justice may administer an oath or take a declaration.
The registrar or an officer authorised by the registrar under subsection (1) may cause to be made copies of or extracts from the whole or part of the information or records produced under subsection (1) .
A notice under subsection (1) which requires a person to give information to, to attend before or to produce records to an officer authorised by the registrar under subsection (1) may specify that officer by name or by the office that the officer holds.
Even though a notice issued under subsection (1) requires a person to give information to, to attend before or to produce records to an officer whose name or office is specified in the notice, the registrar may at any time (without notice to the person to whom the notice was given) authorise another officer for that purpose to exercise any power or perform any duty that the other officer would be able to exercise or perform if the other officer were authorised under subsection (1) .
The regulations may prescribe scales of expenses to be allowed to persons whose attendance is required under this section.
s 22 amd 1989 No. 3 s 16 ; 2021 No. 12 s 148 sch 3
(sec.22-ssec.1) The registrar may, for the purpose of— ascertaining whether there is any liability on a person to lodge an approved form; or ascertaining whether a person is required to comply with this Act or whether the Act has been contravened or not complied with by a person in any respect; or enquiring into any matter connected with the administration of this Act; by notice in writing, require a person— to give information of a kind and in a form or manner specified in the notice or to produce records (or copies of records) of a kind specified in the notice (being information or records believed to be within the knowledge, in the custody or under the control of the person) at a place and within a time specified in the notice, to the registrar or an officer authorised by the registrar and specified in the notice; or to attend before the registrar or an officer authorised by the registrar and specified in the notice at a time and place specified in the notice and there to give information and to produce records of a kind specified in the notice (being information or records believed to be within the knowledge, in the custody or under the control of the person) and to answer questions or to do all or any of those things.
(sec.22-ssec.2) The registrar or an officer authorised by the registrar under subsection (1) may require information sought under this section to be given, verbally on oath or in writing by statutory declaration, as the case may be, and for that purpose the registrar, that officer or any justice may administer an oath or take a declaration.
(sec.22-ssec.3) The registrar or an officer authorised by the registrar under subsection (1) may cause to be made copies of or extracts from the whole or part of the information or records produced under subsection (1) .
(sec.22-ssec.4) A notice under subsection (1) which requires a person to give information to, to attend before or to produce records to an officer authorised by the registrar under subsection (1) may specify that officer by name or by the office that the officer holds.
(sec.22-ssec.5) Even though a notice issued under subsection (1) requires a person to give information to, to attend before or to produce records to an officer whose name or office is specified in the notice, the registrar may at any time (without notice to the person to whom the notice was given) authorise another officer for that purpose to exercise any power or perform any duty that the other officer would be able to exercise or perform if the other officer were authorised under subsection (1) .
(sec.22-ssec.6) The regulations may prescribe scales of expenses to be allowed to persons whose attendance is required under this section.
(a) ascertaining whether there is any liability on a person to lodge an approved form; or
(b) ascertaining whether a person is required to comply with this Act or whether the Act has been contravened or not complied with by a person in any respect; or
(c) enquiring into any matter connected with the administration of this Act;
(d) to give information of a kind and in a form or manner specified in the notice or to produce records (or copies of records) of a kind specified in the notice (being information or records believed to be within the knowledge, in the custody or under the control of the person) at a place and within a time specified in the notice, to the registrar or an officer authorised by the registrar and specified in the notice; or
(e) to attend before the registrar or an officer authorised by the registrar and specified in the notice at a time and place specified in the notice and there to give information and to produce records of a kind specified in the notice (being information or records believed to be within the knowledge, in the custody or under the control of the person) and to answer questions or to do all or any of those things.
sec.23
Registrar may enter information
sec.23 Registrar may enter information
Where in respect of an acquisition of an interest in land—
a notification of ownership is not lodged with the registrar under this Act; or
a notification of ownership lodged with the registrar is not complete in respect of any material particular;
the registrar may, in respect of that acquisition and until correct or more accurate particulars are provided to the registrar, record in the register such particulars as the registrar considers appropriate for that acquisition.
s 23 amd 2019 No. 7 s 164
(a) a notification of ownership is not lodged with the registrar under this Act; or
(b) a notification of ownership lodged with the registrar is not complete in respect of any material particular;
pt.4
Offences and penalties
Offences and penalties
sec.24
Offence not to comply with s 22
sec.24 Offence not to comply with s 22
A person who contravenes a requirement made of the person under section 22 (1) commits an offence against this Act.
Maximum penalty—835 penalty units.
A person must not be convicted of an offence defined in subsection (1) , if the court hearing the charge is satisfied—
that the defendant could not, by the exercise of reasonable diligence, have complied with the requirement to which the charge relates; or
that the defendant complied with that requirement to the extent of the defendant’s ability to do so.
A person is not excused from complying with a requirement under section 22 to give information or answer a question on the ground that the information or answer might tend to incriminate the person or make the person liable to a penalty.
Information given or an answer made by a person in complying with a requirement under section 22 , which might tend to incriminate the person or make the person liable to a penalty, is not admissible against the person in any proceedings brought against the person in a court in Queensland with a view to the punishment of the person for an alleged offence except—
proceedings in respect of an offence under this Act; or
proceedings in respect of an offence in connection with verification of the information or answer by oath or affirmation.
If a person commits an offence defined in subsection (1) —
the offence shall be a continuing offence and be deemed to continue for as long as the requirement in respect of which the offence was committed is not complied with; and
the court may, upon convicting the person of the offence, in addition to any penalty that it may impose under subsection (1) , order the person to pay a penalty of 100 penalty units for each day on which the offence is, under paragraph (a) , deemed to have continued to the date of the person’s conviction of the offence.
Subsection (5) applies even though the failure or conduct alleged against a defendant related to a particular time or a particular period.
If a person has been convicted of an offence against subsection (1) , the court may, in addition to imposing a penalty that it may impose under subsection (1) and, where applicable, subsection (5) , order the person to comply with the requirement in respect of which the offence was committed.
If a court makes an order under subsection (7) , the court must specify in the order a place where and a time or period by or within which the order is to be complied with.
A person who contravenes an order made by a court under subsection (7) commits an offence against this Act.
Maximum penalty—1670 penalty units.
A person who after conviction of an offence defined in subsection (1) or this subsection (the previous conviction ) continues to fail to comply with the requirement in respect of which the person incurred the previous conviction commits an offence against this Act.
Maximum penalty—170 penalty units for each day on which the person has continued to fail to comply with the requirement from the date of the last occurring previous conviction to the date of the person’s conviction for the offence under this subsection last committed by the person.
If a person is convicted of an offence under subsection (1) and the court makes an order under subsection (7) , the person must not be punished under subsection (10) for continuing to fail to comply with the requirement to which the order relates.
s 24 amd 1992 No. 64 s 3 sch 1 ; 2019 No. 7 s 165
(sec.24-ssec.1) A person who contravenes a requirement made of the person under section 22 (1) commits an offence against this Act. Maximum penalty—835 penalty units.
(sec.24-ssec.2) A person must not be convicted of an offence defined in subsection (1) , if the court hearing the charge is satisfied— that the defendant could not, by the exercise of reasonable diligence, have complied with the requirement to which the charge relates; or that the defendant complied with that requirement to the extent of the defendant’s ability to do so.
(sec.24-ssec.3) A person is not excused from complying with a requirement under section 22 to give information or answer a question on the ground that the information or answer might tend to incriminate the person or make the person liable to a penalty.
(sec.24-ssec.4) Information given or an answer made by a person in complying with a requirement under section 22 , which might tend to incriminate the person or make the person liable to a penalty, is not admissible against the person in any proceedings brought against the person in a court in Queensland with a view to the punishment of the person for an alleged offence except— proceedings in respect of an offence under this Act; or proceedings in respect of an offence in connection with verification of the information or answer by oath or affirmation.
(sec.24-ssec.5) If a person commits an offence defined in subsection (1) — the offence shall be a continuing offence and be deemed to continue for as long as the requirement in respect of which the offence was committed is not complied with; and the court may, upon convicting the person of the offence, in addition to any penalty that it may impose under subsection (1) , order the person to pay a penalty of 100 penalty units for each day on which the offence is, under paragraph (a) , deemed to have continued to the date of the person’s conviction of the offence.
(sec.24-ssec.6) Subsection (5) applies even though the failure or conduct alleged against a defendant related to a particular time or a particular period.
(sec.24-ssec.7) If a person has been convicted of an offence against subsection (1) , the court may, in addition to imposing a penalty that it may impose under subsection (1) and, where applicable, subsection (5) , order the person to comply with the requirement in respect of which the offence was committed.
(sec.24-ssec.8) If a court makes an order under subsection (7) , the court must specify in the order a place where and a time or period by or within which the order is to be complied with.
(sec.24-ssec.9) A person who contravenes an order made by a court under subsection (7) commits an offence against this Act. Maximum penalty—1670 penalty units.
(sec.24-ssec.10) A person who after conviction of an offence defined in subsection (1) or this subsection (the previous conviction ) continues to fail to comply with the requirement in respect of which the person incurred the previous conviction commits an offence against this Act. Maximum penalty—170 penalty units for each day on which the person has continued to fail to comply with the requirement from the date of the last occurring previous conviction to the date of the person’s conviction for the offence under this subsection last committed by the person.
(sec.24-ssec.11) If a person is convicted of an offence under subsection (1) and the court makes an order under subsection (7) , the person must not be punished under subsection (10) for continuing to fail to comply with the requirement to which the order relates.
(a) that the defendant could not, by the exercise of reasonable diligence, have complied with the requirement to which the charge relates; or
(b) that the defendant complied with that requirement to the extent of the defendant’s ability to do so.
(a) proceedings in respect of an offence under this Act; or
(b) proceedings in respect of an offence in connection with verification of the information or answer by oath or affirmation.
(a) the offence shall be a continuing offence and be deemed to continue for as long as the requirement in respect of which the offence was committed is not complied with; and
(b) the court may, upon convicting the person of the offence, in addition to any penalty that it may impose under subsection (1) , order the person to pay a penalty of 100 penalty units for each day on which the offence is, under paragraph (a) , deemed to have continued to the date of the person’s conviction of the offence.
sec.25
False or misleading statements
sec.25 False or misleading statements
A person must not give an answer, whether orally or in writing, that is false or misleading in a material particular to a question put to the person under section 22 .
Maximum penalty—835 penalty units.
A person must not, in providing information under section 22 , make a statement or representation that is false or misleading in a material particular.
Maximum penalty—835 penalty units.
A person (including the agent of a foreign person) must not, in giving the registrar information by completing a notification of ownership make any answer, statement or representation that is false or misleading in a material particular.
Maximum penalty—835 penalty units.
It is a defence to a charge under subsection (1) or (2) to prove that the defendant believed on reasonable grounds that the answer, statement or representation was neither false nor misleading.
It is a defence to a charge under subsection (3) to prove that when the answer, statement or representation was given or made, the defendant believed on reasonable grounds the answer, statement or representation was neither false nor misleading.
For the purposes of this Act, a notification of ownership or other approved form that is incorrectly completed in a material particular is not a duly completed form.
s 25 amd 1989 No. 3 s 17 ; 2019 No. 7 s 166 ; 2021 No. 12 s 148 sch 3
(sec.25-ssec.1) A person must not give an answer, whether orally or in writing, that is false or misleading in a material particular to a question put to the person under section 22 . Maximum penalty—835 penalty units.
(sec.25-ssec.2) A person must not, in providing information under section 22 , make a statement or representation that is false or misleading in a material particular. Maximum penalty—835 penalty units.
(sec.25-ssec.3) A person (including the agent of a foreign person) must not, in giving the registrar information by completing a notification of ownership make any answer, statement or representation that is false or misleading in a material particular. Maximum penalty—835 penalty units.
(sec.25-ssec.4) It is a defence to a charge under subsection (1) or (2) to prove that the defendant believed on reasonable grounds that the answer, statement or representation was neither false nor misleading.
(sec.25-ssec.5) It is a defence to a charge under subsection (3) to prove that when the answer, statement or representation was given or made, the defendant believed on reasonable grounds the answer, statement or representation was neither false nor misleading.
(sec.25-ssec.6) For the purposes of this Act, a notification of ownership or other approved form that is incorrectly completed in a material particular is not a duly completed form.
sec.26
Section sec.26
s 26 om 2013 No. 51 s 52B
sec.27
General penalty
sec.27 General penalty
A person who contravenes a provision of this Act commits an offence against this Act.
Where no penalty is expressly provided, a person who commits an offence against this Act is liable to a maximum penalty of—
for a first offence—835 penalty units; or
for a second or subsequent offence—1670 penalty units.
s 27 amd 2013 No. 23 s 352 sch 1 pt 1
(sec.27-ssec.1) A person who contravenes a provision of this Act commits an offence against this Act.
(sec.27-ssec.2) Where no penalty is expressly provided, a person who commits an offence against this Act is liable to a maximum penalty of— for a first offence—835 penalty units; or for a second or subsequent offence—1670 penalty units.
(a) for a first offence—835 penalty units; or
(b) for a second or subsequent offence—1670 penalty units.
sec.28
Proceedings for offences
sec.28 Proceedings for offences
A prosecution for an offence against this Act shall be by way of summary proceedings under the Justices Act 1886 upon the complaint of the registrar or any person authorised in writing in that behalf by the Minister.
The authority of a person to make a complaint in respect of an offence against this Act shall be presumed until the contrary is proved.
Proceedings for an offence against this Act may be instituted within 12 months after the commission of the offence or within 6 months after the commission of the offence comes to the knowledge of the complainant, whichever is the later period.
(sec.28-ssec.1) A prosecution for an offence against this Act shall be by way of summary proceedings under the Justices Act 1886 upon the complaint of the registrar or any person authorised in writing in that behalf by the Minister.
(sec.28-ssec.2) The authority of a person to make a complaint in respect of an offence against this Act shall be presumed until the contrary is proved.
(sec.28-ssec.3) Proceedings for an offence against this Act may be instituted within 12 months after the commission of the offence or within 6 months after the commission of the offence comes to the knowledge of the complainant, whichever is the later period.
pt.5
sec.29
Section sec.29
s 29 sub 1989 No. 3 s 18
om 2019 No. 7 s 167
sec.30
Section sec.30
s 30 sub 1989 No. 3 s 18
om 2019 No. 7 s 167
sec.31
Section sec.31
s 31 sub 1989 No. 3 s 18
om 2019 No. 7 s 167
sec.32
Section sec.32
s 32 sub 1989 No. 3 s 19
om 2019 No. 7 s 167
sec.33
Section sec.33
s 33 sub 1989 No. 3 s 19
om 2019 No. 7 s 167
sec.34
Section sec.34
s 34 sub 1989 No. 3 s 19
om 2019 No. 7 s 167
sec.35
Section sec.35
s 35 sub 1989 No. 3 s 20
om 2019 No. 7 s 167
sec.36
Section sec.36
s 36 sub 1989 No. 3 s 20
om 2019 No. 7 s 167
sec.37
Section sec.37
s 37 om 2019 No. 7 s 167
sec.38
Section sec.38
s 38 amd 1989 No. 3 s 21 ; 1992 No. 64 s 3 sch 1
om 2019 No. 7 s 167
sec.39
Section sec.39
s 39 om 2019 No. 7 s 167
sec.40
Section sec.40
s 40 sub 1989 No. 3 s 22
om 2019 No. 7 s 167
pt.6
Miscellaneous
Miscellaneous
sec.41
Searches
sec.41 Searches
An officer responsible for keeping or maintaining records available to be searched by the public must allow the registrar, or a person authorised by the registrar, to search the records and make copies of or take extracts from a relevant record, free of charge.
In this section—
relevant record means—
a document of title; or
a document or other record relating to—
the acquisition or disposal of an interest in land; or
another matter in which the registrar is or may, for the purposes of this Act, be interested.
s 41 sub 2019 No. 7 s 168
(sec.41-ssec.1) An officer responsible for keeping or maintaining records available to be searched by the public must allow the registrar, or a person authorised by the registrar, to search the records and make copies of or take extracts from a relevant record, free of charge.
(sec.41-ssec.2) In this section— relevant record means— a document of title; or a document or other record relating to— the acquisition or disposal of an interest in land; or another matter in which the registrar is or may, for the purposes of this Act, be interested.
(a) a document of title; or
(b) a document or other record relating to— (i) the acquisition or disposal of an interest in land; or (ii) another matter in which the registrar is or may, for the purposes of this Act, be interested.
(i) the acquisition or disposal of an interest in land; or
(ii) another matter in which the registrar is or may, for the purposes of this Act, be interested.
(i) the acquisition or disposal of an interest in land; or
(ii) another matter in which the registrar is or may, for the purposes of this Act, be interested.
sec.42
Service of documents
sec.42 Service of documents
This section applies if—
a document is required or permitted under this Act to be served on a corporation; and
the corporation is not likely to receive the document if it is served in a way provided for under the Acts Interpretation Act 1954 , part 10 .
The document may be served on the corporation by—
delivering it personally to each of 2 directors of the corporation who reside in the State; or
sending it by post to each of 2 directors of the corporation who reside in the State at the address of the directors last known to the person serving the document; or
by sending it electronically to the email address of the corporation in accordance with the Electronic Transactions (Queensland) Act 2001 .
s 42 amd 2001 No. 45 s 29 sch 3
sub 2019 No. 7 s 168
(sec.42-ssec.1) This section applies if— a document is required or permitted under this Act to be served on a corporation; and the corporation is not likely to receive the document if it is served in a way provided for under the Acts Interpretation Act 1954 , part 10 .
(sec.42-ssec.2) The document may be served on the corporation by— delivering it personally to each of 2 directors of the corporation who reside in the State; or sending it by post to each of 2 directors of the corporation who reside in the State at the address of the directors last known to the person serving the document; or by sending it electronically to the email address of the corporation in accordance with the Electronic Transactions (Queensland) Act 2001 .
(a) a document is required or permitted under this Act to be served on a corporation; and
(b) the corporation is not likely to receive the document if it is served in a way provided for under the Acts Interpretation Act 1954 , part 10 .
(a) delivering it personally to each of 2 directors of the corporation who reside in the State; or
(b) sending it by post to each of 2 directors of the corporation who reside in the State at the address of the directors last known to the person serving the document; or
(c) by sending it electronically to the email address of the corporation in accordance with the Electronic Transactions (Queensland) Act 2001 .
sec.43
Evidentiary provisions
sec.43 Evidentiary provisions
In any proceedings under this Act—
it shall not be necessary to prove the appointment of the Minister, the registrar or a delegate of the registrar to do an act or take a proceeding; and
a signature purporting to be that of the Minister, the registrar or a delegate of the registrar shall be taken to be the signature it purports to be until the contrary is proved; and
a document purporting to be a copy of or an extract (certified by the registrar) from a document lodged in the land registry shall upon its production in that proceeding be evidence and, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, conclusive evidence of—
in the case of an office copy—the last document and its contents; or
in the case of an extract—the matters contained in the document; and
a certificate purporting to be that of the registrar as to the time when a document of or from which an office copy or extract has been produced in evidence, was lodged in the land registry shall be evidence and, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, conclusive evidence of the fact and time of the lodgement of the document; and
proof of exemption from a provision of the Act shall be upon the person who relies on the exemption; and
it shall not be necessary to prove the authority of a person to do an act or take a proceeding in the absence of evidence to the contrary.
s 43 amd 2019 No. 7 s 169
(a) it shall not be necessary to prove the appointment of the Minister, the registrar or a delegate of the registrar to do an act or take a proceeding; and
(b) a signature purporting to be that of the Minister, the registrar or a delegate of the registrar shall be taken to be the signature it purports to be until the contrary is proved; and
(c) a document purporting to be a copy of or an extract (certified by the registrar) from a document lodged in the land registry shall upon its production in that proceeding be evidence and, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, conclusive evidence of— (i) in the case of an office copy—the last document and its contents; or (ii) in the case of an extract—the matters contained in the document; and
(i) in the case of an office copy—the last document and its contents; or
(ii) in the case of an extract—the matters contained in the document; and
(d) a certificate purporting to be that of the registrar as to the time when a document of or from which an office copy or extract has been produced in evidence, was lodged in the land registry shall be evidence and, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, conclusive evidence of the fact and time of the lodgement of the document; and
(e) proof of exemption from a provision of the Act shall be upon the person who relies on the exemption; and
(f) it shall not be necessary to prove the authority of a person to do an act or take a proceeding in the absence of evidence to the contrary.
(i) in the case of an office copy—the last document and its contents; or
(ii) in the case of an extract—the matters contained in the document; and
sec.44
Protection from liability
sec.44 Protection from liability
Liability at law shall not attach to the Crown or any person on account of any act or thing—
done or omitted to be done under this Act; or
done or omitted to be done bona fide for the purposes of this Act and without negligence.
However, this section does not apply to an employee of the titles registry operator in relation to performing a titles registry function by the employee under the Queensland Future Fund (Titles Registry) Act 2021 .
See the Queensland Future Fund (Titles Registry) Act 2021 , section 45 in relation to protection from liability for employees of the titles registry operator.
s 44 amd 2021 No. 12 s 59
(sec.44-ssec.1) Liability at law shall not attach to the Crown or any person on account of any act or thing— done or omitted to be done under this Act; or done or omitted to be done bona fide for the purposes of this Act and without negligence.
(sec.44-ssec.2) However, this section does not apply to an employee of the titles registry operator in relation to performing a titles registry function by the employee under the Queensland Future Fund (Titles Registry) Act 2021 . See the Queensland Future Fund (Titles Registry) Act 2021 , section 45 in relation to protection from liability for employees of the titles registry operator.
(a) done or omitted to be done under this Act; or
(b) done or omitted to be done bona fide for the purposes of this Act and without negligence.
sec.44A
Approved forms
sec.44A Approved forms
The registrar may approve forms for use under this Act.
s 44A ins 1991 No. 97 s 3 sch 1
amd 2010 No. 39 s 325 sch 1 pt 2
sub 2021 No. 12 s 60
sec.44B
Particular trustees to give information about beneficiaries
sec.44B Particular trustees to give information about beneficiaries
This section applies to a person who holds an interest, other than the legal estate, in land as trustee for another person (a beneficiary ).
The person must, for the purposes of this Act, on request of a legal estate trustee for the land, give the legal estate trustee the following details for each beneficiary—
the beneficiary’s name;
the beneficiary’s usual place of residence;
details of the interest held for the beneficiary;
whether or not the beneficiary is a foreign person.
In this section—
legal estate trustee , in relation to land mentioned in subsection (1) , means a person who holds the legal estate of an interest in the land.
s 44B ins 2019 No. 7 s 170
(sec.44B-ssec.1) This section applies to a person who holds an interest, other than the legal estate, in land as trustee for another person (a beneficiary ).
(sec.44B-ssec.2) The person must, for the purposes of this Act, on request of a legal estate trustee for the land, give the legal estate trustee the following details for each beneficiary— the beneficiary’s name; the beneficiary’s usual place of residence; details of the interest held for the beneficiary; whether or not the beneficiary is a foreign person.
(sec.44B-ssec.3) In this section— legal estate trustee , in relation to land mentioned in subsection (1) , means a person who holds the legal estate of an interest in the land.
(a) the beneficiary’s name;
(b) the beneficiary’s usual place of residence;
(c) details of the interest held for the beneficiary;
(d) whether or not the beneficiary is a foreign person.
sec.44C
Fees for titles registry functions
sec.44C Fees for titles registry functions
The fees provided under the Queensland Future Fund (Titles Registry) Act 2021 are payable in relation to a titles registry function performed under this Act.
See the Queensland Future Fund (Titles Registry) Act 2021 , part 3 .
s 44C ins 2021 No. 12 s 61
sec.45
Regulations
sec.45 Regulations
The Governor in Council may make regulations, not inconsistent with this Act, with respect to—
regulating the duties of the registrar and other officers employed in the administration of this Act; and
regulating the form of reports under this Act, and the procedure to be followed in respect of those reports; and
the form of the register and the particulars to be entered in the register; and
all matters required or permitted by this Act to be prescribed and in respect of which no other means of prescription are provided; and
all matters that in the Governor in Council’s opinion are necessary or convenient for the proper administration of this Act or to achieve the objects and purposes of this Act.
s 45 amd 1989 No. 3 s 23 ; 2021 No. 12 s 62
(a) regulating the duties of the registrar and other officers employed in the administration of this Act; and
(b) regulating the form of reports under this Act, and the procedure to be followed in respect of those reports; and
(c) the form of the register and the particulars to be entered in the register; and
(d) all matters required or permitted by this Act to be prescribed and in respect of which no other means of prescription are provided; and
(e) all matters that in the Governor in Council’s opinion are necessary or convenient for the proper administration of this Act or to achieve the objects and purposes of this Act.
pt.7
Transitional provisions for Land, Explosives and Other Legislation Amendment Act 2019
Transitional provisions for Land, Explosives and Other Legislation Amendment Act 2019
sec.46
Definitions for part
sec.46 Definitions for part
In this part—
amended , in relation to a section, means as in force from the commencement.
amended Act means the Act as in force from the commencement.
previous , in relation to a section, means as in force immediately before the commencement.
previous Act means the Act as in force immediately before the commencement.
repealed , in relation to a section, means as in force immediately before its repeal.
s 46 ins 2019 No. 7 s 171
sec.47
Declarations under repealed section 6(2) continued in force
sec.47 Declarations under repealed section 6(2) continued in force
This section applies to a person—
in relation to whom the Minister made a declaration under repealed section 6(2) in relation to a particular interest; and
who, immediately before the commencement, was not a foreign person in relation to the interest because of the declaration; and
who, at the commencement, would otherwise be a foreign person under the amended Act.
The declaration continues in force for the person in relation to the particular interest.
While the declaration continues in force, the person is taken not to be a foreign person in relation to the interest.
The person must notify the registrar of any change in the circumstances on which the declaration was based as soon as practicable after the change happens.
The Minister may cancel the declaration if satisfied that, because of a change in the circumstances on which the declaration was based, it is no longer appropriate for the person to be taken not to be a foreign person.
s 47 ins 2019 No. 7 s 171
(sec.47-ssec.1) This section applies to a person— in relation to whom the Minister made a declaration under repealed section 6(2) in relation to a particular interest; and who, immediately before the commencement, was not a foreign person in relation to the interest because of the declaration; and who, at the commencement, would otherwise be a foreign person under the amended Act.
(sec.47-ssec.2) The declaration continues in force for the person in relation to the particular interest.
(sec.47-ssec.3) While the declaration continues in force, the person is taken not to be a foreign person in relation to the interest.
(sec.47-ssec.4) The person must notify the registrar of any change in the circumstances on which the declaration was based as soon as practicable after the change happens.
(sec.47-ssec.5) The Minister may cancel the declaration if satisfied that, because of a change in the circumstances on which the declaration was based, it is no longer appropriate for the person to be taken not to be a foreign person.
(a) in relation to whom the Minister made a declaration under repealed section 6(2) in relation to a particular interest; and
(b) who, immediately before the commencement, was not a foreign person in relation to the interest because of the declaration; and
(c) who, at the commencement, would otherwise be a foreign person under the amended Act.
sec.48
Applications for declarations under s 6(4)
sec.48 Applications for declarations under s 6(4)
This section applies to an application under repealed section 6(4) made, but not decided, before the commencement.
The application is taken to be withdrawn.
s 48 ins 2019 No. 7 s 171
(sec.48-ssec.1) This section applies to an application under repealed section 6(4) made, but not decided, before the commencement.
(sec.48-ssec.2) The application is taken to be withdrawn.
sec.49
Obligation to notify under repealed s 17 continued
sec.49 Obligation to notify under repealed s 17 continued
Despite its repeal, repealed section 17 continues to apply to a person in relation to the legal estate of an interest in land if, immediately before the commencement, the person had not complied with a requirement under the section to lodge a notification of ownership in relation to the interest.
For the purpose of subsection (1), a reference in repealed section 17(3) to a trustee notification of ownership is taken to be a reference to a notification of ownership.
s 49 ins 2019 No. 7 s 171
(sec.49-ssec.1) Despite its repeal, repealed section 17 continues to apply to a person in relation to the legal estate of an interest in land if, immediately before the commencement, the person had not complied with a requirement under the section to lodge a notification of ownership in relation to the interest.
(sec.49-ssec.2) For the purpose of subsection (1), a reference in repealed section 17(3) to a trustee notification of ownership is taken to be a reference to a notification of ownership.
sec.50
Obligation to notify under repealed s 18 continued
sec.50 Obligation to notify under repealed s 18 continued
Despite its repeal, repealed section 18 continues to apply to a person who acquired an interest in land before the commencement if, immediately before the commencement, the person had not complied with a requirement under the section to lodge a notification of ownership in relation to the interest.
For the purpose of subsection (1), a reference in repealed section 18(3) to a trustee notification of ownership is taken to be a reference to a notification of ownership.
s 50 ins 2019 No. 7 s 171
(sec.50-ssec.1) Despite its repeal, repealed section 18 continues to apply to a person who acquired an interest in land before the commencement if, immediately before the commencement, the person had not complied with a requirement under the section to lodge a notification of ownership in relation to the interest.
(sec.50-ssec.2) For the purpose of subsection (1), a reference in repealed section 18(3) to a trustee notification of ownership is taken to be a reference to a notification of ownership.
sec.51
Application of s 19 to particular persons
sec.51 Application of s 19 to particular persons
This section applies if—
at the commencement, the legal estate of an interest in land is registered in the register, or recorded in the records of a relevant registering authority, in a person’s name; and
on the commencement, the person ceases to be a foreign person in relation to the interest.
Section 19 applies to the foreign person as if a reference in section 19(2) to the day on which the person ceases to be a foreign person were a reference to the day on which the person becomes aware the person ceased to be a foreign person under the amended Act.
s 51 ins 2019 No. 7 s 171
(sec.51-ssec.1) This section applies if— at the commencement, the legal estate of an interest in land is registered in the register, or recorded in the records of a relevant registering authority, in a person’s name; and on the commencement, the person ceases to be a foreign person in relation to the interest.
(sec.51-ssec.2) Section 19 applies to the foreign person as if a reference in section 19(2) to the day on which the person ceases to be a foreign person were a reference to the day on which the person becomes aware the person ceased to be a foreign person under the amended Act.
(a) at the commencement, the legal estate of an interest in land is registered in the register, or recorded in the records of a relevant registering authority, in a person’s name; and
(b) on the commencement, the person ceases to be a foreign person in relation to the interest.
sec.52
Application of s 20 to particular persons
sec.52 Application of s 20 to particular persons
This section applies if—
immediately before the commencement, the legal estate of an interest in land was recorded in the records of a registering authority in the name of a person who was not a foreign person under the unamended Act; and
on the commencement, the person is a foreign person in relation to the interest.
Section 20 applies to the person as if a reference in section 20(2) to the day on which the person becomes a foreign person were a reference to the day on which the person becomes aware the person is a foreign person under the amended Act.
s 52 ins 2019 No. 7 s 171
(sec.52-ssec.1) This section applies if— immediately before the commencement, the legal estate of an interest in land was recorded in the records of a registering authority in the name of a person who was not a foreign person under the unamended Act; and on the commencement, the person is a foreign person in relation to the interest.
(sec.52-ssec.2) Section 20 applies to the person as if a reference in section 20(2) to the day on which the person becomes a foreign person were a reference to the day on which the person becomes aware the person is a foreign person under the amended Act.
(a) immediately before the commencement, the legal estate of an interest in land was recorded in the records of a registering authority in the name of a person who was not a foreign person under the unamended Act; and
(b) on the commencement, the person is a foreign person in relation to the interest.
pt.8
Transitional provision for Queensland Future Fund (Titles Registry) Act 2021
Transitional provision for Queensland Future Fund (Titles Registry) Act 2021
sec.53
Forms continue
sec.53 Forms continue
This section applies to a form approved by the registrar under this Act as in force before the commencement if the form is in force immediately before the commencement.
From the commencement, the form is taken to be a form approved by the registrar under section 44A.
s 53 ins 2021 No. 12 s 63
(sec.53-ssec.1) This section applies to a form approved by the registrar under this Act as in force before the commencement if the form is in force immediately before the commencement.
(sec.53-ssec.2) From the commencement, the form is taken to be a form approved by the registrar under section 44A.
Source text: opening excerpt
Sourced from Queensland Legislation (legislation.qld.gov.au), CC BY 4.0.
pt.1 Preliminary
Preliminary
sec.1 Short title
sec.1 Short title
This Act may be cited as the Foreign Ownership of Land Register Act 1988 .
sec.2 Definitions
sec.2 Definitions
The dictionary in schedule 1 defines particular words used in this Act.
s 2 prev s 2 om 1 July 1995 RA s 37
pres s 2 ins 2013 No. 23 s 39
Section sec.3
s 3 om 1991 No. 97 s 3 sch 1
sec.4 Interpretation
sec.4 Interpretation
In this Act—
a person who directly or indirectly controls an interest in land shall be deemed to have acquired that interest; and
a reference to acquire includes a reference to agreeing to acquire.
For the purposes of this Act, the time of acquisition of an interest in land is taken to be—
if the interest is acquired as the result of the granting of a lease of unallocated State land—the time when the lease commences; or
if the interest is acquired under an agreement—the time of entry into possession of the interest; or
otherwise—the time when the event that gave rise to the acquisition occurred.
For the purposes of subsection (2) (b) , the time of entry into possession in respect of an interest in land means the time under an agreement when the person acquiring the interest is entitled to—
occupy, use and control that interest; or
the rents and profits of that interest.
s 4 amd 1989 No. 3 s 3 (c) – (d) ; 1991 No. 97 s 3 sch 1 ; 2013 No. 23 s 40 (8) – (11) ; 2019 No. 7 s 157
(sec.4-ssec.1) In this Act— a person who directly or indirectly controls an interest in land shall be deemed to have acquired that interest; and a reference to acquire includes a reference to agreeing to acquire.
(sec.4-ssec.2) For the purposes of this Act, the time of acquisition of an interest in land is taken to be— if the interest is acquired as the result of the granting of a lease of unallocated State land—the time when the lease commences; or if the interest is acquired under an agreement—the time of entry into possession of the interest; or otherwise—the time when the event that gave rise to the acquisition occurred.
(sec.4-ssec.3) For the purposes of subsection (2) (b) , the time of entry into possession in respect of an interest in land means the time under an agreement when the person acquiring the interest is entitled to— occupy, use and control that interest; or the rents and profits of that interest.
(a) a person who directly or indirectly controls an interest in land shall be deemed to have acquired that interest; and
(b) a reference to acquire includes a reference to agreeing to acquire.
Procedurally, lodging a notification with a relevant registering authority contemporaneously with documents to register an acquisition is treated as compliance with the Act (s 21(1)-(2)), and registering authorities are required not to register dealings unless satisfied these requirements are met (s 21(4)). The Act contemplates electronic forms and service (s 11(2); s 42(c) referring to the Electronic Transactions (Queensland) Act 2001), and allows the Governor in Council to make regulations for administration (s 45). Transitional provisions address prior declarations, pending applications and forms on commencement of amendments (Pt 7, Pt 8).
Taken together, the Act operationalises a reporting, recording and enforcement regime for foreign ownership of land centred on a maintained register, compulsory notifications and investigatory powers vested in the registrar and delegates.
Main concepts
The Act builds around a small set of statutory concepts that define scope, duties and evidentiary mechanics. The dictionary in schedule 1 contains defined words used throughout the Act (s 2). Several definitions and interpretive rules are set out in the body of the Act and determine critical timing and attribution rules:
Foreign person: The Act relies on terminology defined in the schedule (s 2). The Act repeatedly applies obligations specifically to "foreign person(s)" (for example ss 18, 18A, 19-20). The statutory text treats "foreign person" as a status that can change (ss 19-20) and which triggers reporting obligations as at particular dates.
Acquisition and deemed acquisition: The Act’s interpretive rules treat a person who directly or indirectly controls an interest as deemed to have acquired that interest and state that "acquire" includes agreeing to acquire (s 4(1)(a)-(b)). The moment of acquisition is prescribed: for leases of unallocated State land the lease commencement is the acquisition time; where under an agreement the time is the time of entry into possession; otherwise, the event that gave rise to the acquisition (s 4(2)). The Act further defines "entry into possession" for these purposes (s 4(3)).
Legal estate and interest in land: The notification obligations attach specifically when a foreign person "acquires the legal estate of an interest in land" (s 18(1)). The register records the legal estate and legal estates registered with, or recorded by, relevant registering authorities are in scope for disposal and annual reporting (ss 18A, 19-20, 21).
Registrar and titles registry operator: The registrar is the statutory office that maintains the register and enforces the Act’s administrative powers (s 11). The Act contemplates delegation of powers to appropriately qualified public service employees and functions to the titles registry operator; subdelegation by the titles registry operator is required to be to appropriately qualified employees, and conditions may be imposed (s 15).
Approved forms and fees: The registrar approves forms for notifications (s 44A) and approved forms lodged with the registrar form part of the register (s 11(3)). Fees for obtaining register particulars or extracts are payable as titles registry fees under s 44C (s 14(1)-(2); s 44C cross‑references the Queensland Future Fund (Titles Registry) Act 2021).
Investigatory and enforcement terms: The registrar has express power to require information, records and attendance by written notice for prescribed purposes (s 22). The Act prescribes offences for failure to comply with such notices and for false or misleading statements (ss 24-25), and sets evidentiary presumptions and protection for certified copies and registrar certificates (ss 11(5)-(6), 43).
These concepts interact. For example, the interpretive deeming that control equals acquisition (s 4(1)(a)) widens the class of obligations because an acquisition can be triggered not only by transfers of title but by control changes. The timing rules (s 4(2)-(3)) fix reporting windows (s 18: 90 days) relative to the statutory moment of acquisition. Approved forms, electronic keeping of the register (s 11(2)), and delegation to titles registry operators (s 15) set administrative modalities that affect compliance costs and information flows.
Who it affects
The Act assigns duties and rights primarily to four groups: foreign persons holding or acquiring legal estates in land, trustees and beneficiaries, the registrar (and authorised officers), and registering authorities/titles registry operator. Each group faces different obligations and interactions under particular sections.
Foreign persons who acquire legal estate: A "foreign person" who acquires the legal estate of an interest in land must complete and lodge a notification of ownership within 90 days after acquisition (s 18(1)). A foreign person who disposes of an interest registered or recorded in their name must notify the registrar within 90 days of disposal (s 18A). The Act also captures changes in status: persons recorded in the register who cease to be foreign persons by 30 June must notify cessation by 30 September (s 19); conversely, persons who become foreign persons as at 30 June must notify by 30 September (s 20). Failure to comply with some of these obligations attracts penalties (ss 19-20).
Persons who directly or indirectly control interests: The interpretive deeming in s 4(1)(a) treats those who directly or indirectly control an interest as having “acquired” it. That deeming extends obligations beyond registered legal‑title holders, potentially covering entities whose control shifts without transfer of legal title.
Trustees and beneficiaries: The Act addresses trustee relationships explicitly. A person holding an interest other than the legal estate as trustee must, on request by the legal estate trustee, provide specified details about beneficiaries including whether each beneficiary is a foreign person (s 44B). Section 21 treats notifications lodged with registering authorities contemporaneously with registration documents as compliance with s 18, which is significant where dealing paperwork is lodged via registries by trustees or legal estate trustees (s 21(1)-(2)).
Registrars, authorised officers and titles registry operator: The registrar maintains the register, may delegate powers to departmental employees, may delegate functions to the titles registry operator and requires that the titles registry operator subdelegate to appropriately qualified employees (s 15). The registrar exercises investigatory powers under s 22 including notices to produce records, administer oaths, and require attendance.
Registering authorities and officers maintaining public records: Registering authorities play a procedural role. Documents lodged with registering authorities that form approved forms must be produced to the registrar within 30 days of registration (s 21(5)), and registering authorities must not register a dealing unless satisfied s 21(2) has been complied with (s 21(4)). Officers maintaining public records must allow the registrar to search and copy relevant records free of charge (s 41).
Corporations and directors: For service of documents where usual service routes under the Acts Interpretation Act 1954 part 10 are unsuitable, the Act permits service on two directors who reside in the State or by electronic means (s 42). This provision affects corporations with foreign ownership or directors.
The public and researchers: Members of the public may obtain particulars, extracts and statistical data from the register on payment of titles registry fees and subject to registrar hours (s 14). That creates a transparency mechanism affecting journalists, researchers and market participants.
Who pays: the Act signals fees are payable for obtaining register information (s 14(1), cross‑referencing s 44C), and it exposes persons to statutory penalties for non‑compliance (ss 19-20, 24-27).
Who decides: the registrar has discretion (for example, to rectify errors s 13; to record particulars where notifications are absent or incomplete s 23; to issue certificates of exemption in limited transitional circumstances s 21(3)) and regulatory rule‑making authority rests with the Governor in Council (s 45).
Key duties and rights
Duties
Notification of acquisition: A foreign person acquiring the legal estate of an interest must complete and lodge a notification of ownership within 90 days of acquisition (s 18(1)). Exemptions from immediate notification apply where the legal estate vests in a personal representative of a deceased person, or where vesting is only effective once documents are lodged (s 18(2)-(3)).
Notification of disposal: A foreign person with the legal estate recorded in the register or registers who disposes of the interest must lodge a notification of disposal no later than 90 days after disposal (s 18A(2)).
Annual status notifications: Persons recorded in registers whose foreign status changes as at 30 June must notify by 30 September (ceasing to be a foreign person: s 19; becoming a foreign person: s 20). Both ss 19-20 carry a maximum penalty of 20 penalty units for non‑compliance.
Trustee information disclosure: A trustee who holds an interest other than the legal estate must give, on request by the legal estate trustee, specified beneficiary details including residence, interest particulars and foreign status (s 44B(2)).
Compliance with registrar notices: The registrar may, by written notice, require a person to give information, produce records, or attend to answer questions for purposes including ascertaining liability to lodge an approved form or enforcement of the Act (s 22(1)). The registrar may require answers on oath or by statutory declaration (s 22(2)).
Keeping and lodging approved forms: Approved forms lodged with the registrar form part of the register (s 11(3)). Approved forms are set by the registrar (s 44A). Where documents are lodged with a registering authority contemporaneously with registration, lodging the approved form with the registering authority within the 90‑day period is treated as compliance (s 21(1)-(2)) and that registering authority must pass the form to the registrar within 30 days of registration (s 21(5)). Registering authorities must not register documents unless satisfied s 21(2) has been complied with (s 21(4)).
Rights
Access to register information: Any person may obtain particulars, extracts and, with notice, statistical data from the register on payment of applicable titles registry fees and during applied hours (s 14(1)-(2)). The Act does not, in the text provided, indicate further limitations on disclosure beyond the fee and operational constraints.
Rectification and registrar correction: The registrar may rectify errors, omissions or failures to comply by doing "all things necessary" to correct the register (s 13). Where notifications are incomplete or not lodged, the registrar may record such particulars as considered appropriate until correct particulars are provided (s 23). These provisions provide a right to correction and a power for the registrar to ensure records remain useful for their statutory purpose.
Evidentiary presumptions: Certified copies of parts of the register certified by the registrar form part of the register and are admissible as evidence of the matters in them (s 11(5)-(6); s 43). Registrar certificates as to time of lodgement are conclusive unless rebutted (s 43).
Procedural protections: A person must not be convicted of an offence under s 24 if the court is satisfied the defendant could not, by reasonable diligence, have complied or complied to the extent of capacity (s 24(2)). The Act also provides limited non‑admissibility of incriminating answers produced under s 22 except for proceedings under the Act or in connection with verification (s 24(3)-(4)).
Key administrative modalities: approved electronic formats are allowed for the register (s 11(2)); delegated functions and subdelegation rules assign administrative responsibility beyond the registrar (s 15); regulations may prescribe duties, forms and particulars (s 45).
The Act therefore creates an information supply chain: persons with obligations must complete approved forms and respond to registrar notices; registering authorities assist in transfer of lodged forms to the registrar; the registrar maintains, corrects and opens the register subject to fees and regulatory detail.
Penalties and enforcement
The Act establishes a mix of criminal penalties, continuing‑offence mechanics, court powers to compel compliance, and summary proceedings administered by the registrar or authorised complainants.
Primary enforcement tools
Compulsory information notices (s 22) and penalties for non‑compliance (s 24): The registrar may issue written notices requiring provision of information, production of records or attendance. Failure to comply with a s 22(1) notice is an offence under s 24(1) with a maximum penalty of 835 penalty units. The court must not convict where a defendant shows they could not, by reasonable diligence, comply, or that they complied to the extent of their ability (s 24(2)).
Continuing offences and daily penalties (s 24(5)): A failure to comply with a s 22 notice is a continuing offence deemed to continue until compliance. On conviction the court may order an additional penalty of 100 penalty units for each day the offence is deemed to have continued to the conviction date. This creates a strong incentive to comply promptly once the court is involved.
Court‑ordered compliance and enforcement of orders (s 24(7)-(9)): The court, upon conviction, may order the person to comply with the original requirement and specify time and place for compliance (s 24(7)-(8)). Failure to comply with a court order is itself an offence with a maximum penalty of 1,670 penalty units (s 24(9)). Continuation after conviction attracts further per‑day penalties (s 24(10)) unless the court has ordered compliance (s 24(11)).
False or misleading information (s 25): Giving false or misleading answers to questions under s 22, making false or misleading statements in providing information under s 22, or giving false or misleading answers in notifications of ownership are each offences with maximum penalties of 835 penalty units (s 25(1)-(3)). There are statutory defences where the defendant can prove they believed on reasonable grounds that the information was not false or misleading (s 25(4)-(5)).
General penalties (s 27): Where no specific penalty exists, first offences attract a maximum of 835 penalty units and second or subsequent offences up to 1,670 penalty units.
Procedural aspects
Summary proceedings and complainant authority (s 28): Prosecutions are by summary proceedings under the Justices Act 1886 on complaint of the registrar or a person authorised in writing by the Minister. The authority of an authorised person to make a complaint is presumed until the contrary is proved (s 28(1)-(2)). Time limits for instituting proceedings are either 12 months after the commission of the offence or 6 months after the complainant learns of it, whichever is later (s 28(3)).
Admissibility and evidentiary protections (s 24(3)-(4), s 43): Answers given under s 22 that might incriminate are not admissible in proceedings in Queensland courts for punishment, except for offences under the Act or in connection with verification by oath. Certified registrar copies and certificates of lodgement are conclusive evidence in the absence of contrary proof (s 43).
Operational enforcement levers
Registrar recording where no notification (s 23): If a notification is not lodged or is incomplete in a material particular, the registrar may record in the register such particulars as considered appropriate until accurate particulars are provided. This permits administrative action to keep the register useable even where persons default.
Other coercive mechanics: The registrar may administer oaths and require statutory declarations (s 22(2)), and may cause copies/extracts to be made of records produced to it (s 22(3)).
Financial exposure and risk
The Act uses penalty units that, by numeric value, produce substantial financial exposure for non‑compliance. The continuing‑offence design plus daily penalties can produce rapid accumulation of amounts. Courts have the discretion to order compliance rather than pure monetary punishments (s 24(7)), but the monetary penalties form a prominent enforcement lever.
Minor non‑compliance such as failing to lodge the required annual cease/become notifications by 30 September carries a maximum of only 20 penalty units (ss 19-20). The Act therefore differentiates between failure to produce records on demand and retrospective annual administrative notifications.
The enforcement architecture combines administrative recordkeeping powers, investigatory notices backed by criminal penalties and the capacity for courts to order remedial compliance. The registrar is both the primary investigator and the complainant role under the summary proceedings model (s 28).
How it interacts with other laws
The Act cross‑references and interfaces operationally with other statutes and administrative regimes. The text itself identifies particular interactions and provides machinery for integration with registries and electronic service frameworks.
Explicit statutory cross‑references
Queensland Future Fund (Titles Registry) Act 2021: Fees for titles registry functions under this Act are payable under the Queensland Future Fund (Titles Registry) Act 2021 (s 44C). Section 44 clarifies protection from liability does not apply to employees of the titles registry operator in relation to titles registry functions performed under that Act, and references s 45 of the Queensland Future Fund Act (s 44).
Electronic Transactions (Queensland) Act 2001: Service of documents on corporations may be effected electronically in accordance with the Electronic Transactions Act, where the corporation is unlikely to receive service under usual Acts Interpretation Act routes (s 42(c)).
Acts Interpretation Act 1954: Section 42 explicitly applies where service under part 10 of the Acts Interpretation Act 1954 is unsuitable; the Act therefore depends on the Acts Interpretation Act for ordinary service rules and provides alternatives where necessary (s 42(1)).
Justices Act 1886: Proceedings for offences under the Act are by summary proceedings under the Justices Act 1886 (s 28(1)).
Administrative interfaces
Registering authorities and land registries: The Act assumes the existence of relevant registering authorities who are responsible for recording legal estate registrations. Section 21 allows lodging approved notification forms with these registering authorities contemporaneously with the other documents required to register an acquisition, and treats that lodging as compliance with the Act’s notification requirement. Registering authorities are required to forward such notifications to the registrar within 30 days of registration (s 21(5)), and the Act forbids a registering authority from registering a dealing unless it is satisfied that s 21(2) has been complied with (s 21(4)). This makes land‑registration processes and the foreign ownership register integrated at the point of lodging.
Titles registry operator and delegations: The registrar may delegate functions to the titles registry operator, and if delegated that operator must subdelegate to appropriately qualified employees (s 15(2)-(3)). The operator can impose conditions on subdelegation where not inconsistent with delegation conditions (s 15(4)). This links operational delivery of the register to broader titles registry governance.
Evidentiary and procedural interactions
Certified copies and conclusive evidence: The Act makes certified copies by the registrar admissible and, in the absence of contrary evidence, conclusive (s 11(5)-(6); s 43). This interacts with procedures in other legislation that rely on land registry records by providing statutory evidentiary weight to certified extracts, which can affect litigation or administrative decisions where land ownership is in issue.
Oaths and statutory declarations: The registrar or authorised officers may require information on oath or by statutory declaration and may have a justice administer such oaths (s 22(2)). That interacts with rules about admissibility and verification in other statutes and courts.
Transitional and amendment interactions
Transitional provisions: The Act contains transitional provisions (Pt 7) dealing with prior declarations under repealed provisions (s 47), pending applications (s 48), and continuation of obligations under repealed sections as to outstanding notification obligations (ss 49-50). The Act therefore anticipates amendments to its own regime and supplies mechanisms to bridge prior legislative settings.
Practical consequences
The Act is designed to work alongside land registration systems, the Queensland Future Fund titles registry fee regime and general rules for service and electronic transactions. Organisations and practitioners dealing with land conveyancing need to coordinate notification obligations with registration filings to avoid duplication and to ensure registering authorities forward notifications to the registrar (s 21). The delegation and subdelegation framework (s 15) and the cross‑reference to fee legislation (s 44C) mean operational costs and functions may be managed by the titles registry operator under the financial and governance settings of the Queensland Future Fund (Titles Registry) Act 2021.
Amendment history
The text of the Act itself records a series of legislative amendments by reference in the margin notes associated with sections. The Act indicates multiple amendment and commencement events for particular provisions. The schedule and marginal notes included in the provided text show the following amendment markers (these are the amendments as they appear within each section’s marginal note):
1989 No. 3: Several sections carry amendment notes referencing "amd 1989 No. 3" (for example s 4, s 11, s 13, s 24, s 27, s 38 and others), indicating an amendment in 1989.
1990 No. 106: Several sections are noted as amended or inserted by "1990 No. 106" (for example ss 18, 18A, 21, 19, 20 and related transitional material).
1991 No. 97 and 1992 No. 64: The Act shows amendments via these instruments (for example s 15 notes sub 1992 No. 64 s 3 sch 1; s 44A was inserted 1991 No. 97 sch 1).
2001 No. 45: Section 42 was amended in 2001 (s 42 amd 2001 No. 45 s 29 sch 3).
2009 No. 49 and 2010 No. 39: There are targeted amendments recorded e.g. s 10 amended 2009 No. 49 s 100 and s 44A amended in 2010 No. 39 s 325 sch 1 pt 2.
2013 No. 23 and 2013 No. 51: Some amendments noted (e.g. s 4 ins 2013 No. 23 s 39 and s 27 amendment 2013 No. 23 s 352 sch 1 pt 1; s 26 om 2013 No. 51 s 52B).
2019 No. 7: Several sections were amended or repealed in the 2019 instrument. For example, s 11 shows "sub 2019 No. 7 s 159", s 18 is noted as "sub 2019 No. 7 s 163", and multiple ommissions across the Act are recorded as "om 2019 No. 7" for a range of sections. There is also an explicit Pt 7 of transitional provisions for the 2019 amendments (ss 46-52) indicating the 2019 instrument made substantive changes requiring transitional arrangements.
2021 No. 12: Multiple 2021 amendments are evident and the Act contains transitional provisions for the Queensland Future Fund (Titles Registry) Act 2021 (Pt 8) with insertion of s 53 and amendments to ss 11, 13, 14, 15, 21 and others showing "amd 2021 No. 12 s 148 sch 3", "ins 2021 No. 12 s 60" etc. Section 44C was inserted by 2021 No. 12 s 61 to link fees.
What the Act’s marginal notes do not provide in the text supplied is the policy material or explanatory memorandum underlying each amendment. The Act’s own transitional parts (Pt 7 and Pt 8) supply textual bridge rules for the 2019 and 2021 changes: they preserve existing ministerial declarations made under repealed provisions (s 47), withdraw certain unfinished applications (s 48), continue obligations in respect of prior repeal dates (ss 49-50), and carry forward approved forms under s 44A (s 53). The Act therefore evidences an amendment history that has adjusted definitions, notification mechanics, administrative delegation, fee arrangements and interfacing with the titles registry operator.
Users should consult the amendment statutes cited in the margin notes and any associated explanatory materials to trace the policy intent and precise textual changes. The Act itself, as presented, incorporates these amendments through the marginal notes attached to individual provisions and through the transitional parts that explicitly implement continuity and change.
Litigation history
The Act as provided contains no named cases, no judicial interpretations or reported decisions. The text offers statutory evidentiary presumptions (s 43) and courts’ powers to order compliance (s 24(7)), and it specifies that prosecutions for offences under the Act are to be by summary proceedings under the Justices Act 1886 on complaint of the registrar or an authorised person (s 28). However, the Act does not reference any judicial decisions or litigation outcomes, nor does it supply any internal case law citations.
Accordingly, the Act does not itself present a litigation history in the body of the text supplied. Practitioners seeking authoritative judicial construction, the practical application of the deeming provision in s 4(1)(a) that treats those who directly or indirectly control an interest as deemed acquirers, or court approaches to continuing‑offence penalties under s 24(5) will need to search external case law databases and courts’ decisions for relevant Queensland rulings. The Act’s evidentiary provisions (ss 11(5)-(6), 43) are likely to be relied on in litigation involving disputes about time of lodgement or the content of land registry documents; court treatment of these provisions would be material for operational compliance interpretation but is not contained in the statutory text.
If litigation arises under the Act, likely points of legal contest could include the meaning of "control" for the deeming in s 4(1)(a), the application of s 22 notices to entities operating across jurisdictions, the evidentiary effect of registrar certificates under s 43 against contrary evidence, and constitutional, administrative law or privacy challenges in relation to the public disclosure and compulsory information powers. Those questions, however, require external case citations and are not recorded in the Act text provided.
Gotchas
The Act contains several practical traps for practitioners and parties involved in conveyancing, trust administration and corporate management. These "gotchas" arise from timing rules, deeming provisions, registrar powers and interactions with registering authorities.
Deeming of control as acquisition (s 4(1)(a)): A person who directly or indirectly controls an interest is "deemed to have acquired that interest". This extends the notification net beyond mere legal title transfers. Transactions that alter effective control without transfer of the legal estate (for example, changes in shareholding in companies that hold land) may trigger notification obligations. Practitioners must map control pathways to determine whether an acquisition has occurred for notification purposes.
"Acquire" includes agreeing to acquire (s 4(1)(b)): Agreements to acquire without immediate transfer trigger statutory timing calculations for the 90‑day notification window. Contracts and conditional agreements therefore can trigger compliance obligations.
Timing of acquisition and possession rules (s 4(2)-(3)): The Act prescribes different moments for acquisition in different situations. For example, entry into possession under an agreement determines acquisition timing for such acquisitions (s 4(2)(b)). Misidentifying the statutory acquisition time can cause late notifications and exposure to penalties.
90‑day notification window (s 18): A foreign person must lodge within 90 days after acquisition. The 90‑day window is short relative to some conveyancing or probate processes. There are carve‑outs for personal representatives and where vesting depends on lodgement, but those carve‑outs require accurate factual assessment (s 18(2)-(3)).
Annual status reporting quirks (ss 19-20): The Act treats foreign status as of 30 June and requires notifications by 30 September. For persons whose status changes mid‑year, the triggering moment for legal obligations can be the date the person becomes aware of the change under the amended Act (transitional ss 51-52). Late or missed annual reporting by small amounts could incur penalties (maximum 20 penalty units).
Registering authority interaction and mandatory forwarding (s 21): Lodging a notification with a registering authority contemporaneously with registration documents is treated as compliance. However, registering authorities must forward notifications within 30 days and refuse to register dealings if not satisfied s 21(2) has been complied with (s 21(4)-(5)). Conveyancers who assume that filing at the land registry automatically fulfils the registrar’s requirements need to ensure the paperwork is the approved form and that the registering authority will transmit it.
Registrar powers and discretion (ss 13, 22, 23): The registrar can require information on oath, record particulars if notifications are incomplete, and do "all things necessary" to rectify errors. These powers are broad and can produce administrative uncertainty for those subject to notices. Non‑compliance with a s 22 notice carries high penalties (s 24).
Continuing offence and daily penalty exposure (s 24(5)): Failure to comply with s 22 can be a continuing offence with potential daily fines of 100 penalty units for each day until conviction or compliance. This produces substantial downstream financial exposure and underscores the need to respond promptly and document reasons for any inability to comply.
False and misleading statements extend to agents (s 25(3)): Agents of foreign persons are explicitly captive to the prohibition against false or misleading answers in notifications. Conveyancers, solicitors, or agents must take care when completing and lodging approved forms.
Trustee information duties (s 44B): Trustees holding beneficial interests must disclose details of beneficiaries on request from the legal estate trustee. The tests for "usual place of residence" and whether a beneficiary is a foreign person may require trustees to obtain and retain additional KYC information to meet requests.
Fees and costs: Access to register particulars is subject to titles registry fees (s 14(1)), and the Act ties fees for titles registry functions to the Queensland Future Fund (Titles Registry) Act 2021 (s 44C). Operational costs can arise from fee regimes controlled by that separate Act.
Protection from liability excludes certain employees (s 44): While the Act provides protection from liability for bona fide acts under the Act, it expressly excludes employees of the titles registry operator performing titles registry functions under the Queensland Future Fund Act (s 44). That exclusion may affect claims against private operators delegated registrar functions under s 15.
Approved forms and electronic formats (ss 11(2), 44A): The register may be kept in electronic form and the registrar approves forms for use. Practitioners must use the curator‑approved forms; an incorrectly completed approved form is not a "duly completed" form for Act purposes (s 25(6)).
Service alternatives for corporations (s 42): If usual service routes are inadequate, service may be effected on two resident directors or electronically in accordance with the Electronic Transactions Act. Corporations should ensure officers are contactable within the State to avoid defective service issues.
Each of these points arises directly from statutory text. Failing to factor them into transactional checklists, conveyancing workflows, trustee recordkeeping and corporate governance can produce unexpected legal and financial exposure.
How to comply
This section sets out practical steps aligned with statutory requirements and operational mechanics in the Act. Each step points to specific provisions to assist practitioners, compliance officers and conveyancers in developing internal processes.
Confirm foreign‑person status and scope (s 2, schedule 1; s 4)
Before or as part of any acquisition, determine whether the acquiring party is a "foreign person" as defined in schedule 1 (s 2). The Act’s interpretive rule that control equals acquisition (s 4(1)(a)) means you should map ultimate control structures (beneficial ownership, corporate shareholdings, trusts) to assess acquisition triggers. Document your factual basis and retain KYC materials.
Identify the moment of acquisition for timing (s 4(2)-(3); s 18)
Determine whether acquisition occurs on lease commencement (unallocated State land), entry into possession under an agreement, or another event (s 4(2)). That time point sets the start of the 90‑day notification window in s 18(1).
Use approved forms and consider electronic filing (ss 11(2)-(3), 44A, 53)
Obtain the registrar’s approved notification forms (s 44A). Ensure forms are correctly completed; an approved form incorrectly completed in a material particular is not a duly completed form under s 25(6). Note that forms previously approved continue to be approved under s 53 where relevant.
Lodge notifications within statutory timeframes (ss 18, 18A, 19-20)
For acquisitions: lodge the notification of ownership with the registrar within 90 days of acquisition (s 18(1)).
For disposals: where the legal estate is recorded in the register or registering authority records, lodge a notification of disposal within 90 days of disposal (s 18A(2)).
For status as at 30 June: if you became or ceased to be a foreign person in relation to land recorded in the register, file by 30 September (ss 19-20).
If lodging with a registering authority contemporaneously with registration documents, ensure you use the approved form and that it is lodged within the same period; such lodging satisfies s 18 per s 21(1).
Coordinate with registering authorities and ensure transfer of forms (s 21)
Where dealing documents are lodged with a registering authority, confirm that the notification form accompanies the lodgement. Advise registering authorities that they are required to forward notifications to the registrar within 30 days of registration (s 21(5)). Avoid assuming automatic transmittal,obtain written proof of registering authority submission to the registrar.
Keep accurate records and be prepared to respond to registrar notices (s 22)
Maintain custody of records potentially requested under s 22. Be ready to attend and give information as required, and to answer on oath or by statutory declaration if requested (s 22(2)). If a s 22 notice arrives, treat it as urgent given the offence and continuing penalties under s 24.
Trustees: obtain beneficiary details and enable requests (s 44B)
If you are a legal estate trustee, proactively obtain from other trustees the beneficiaries’ names, usual places of residence, precise details of the interests held and foreign status, so you can provide or request those details promptly when needed (s 44B).
Avoid false or misleading statements (s 25)
Implement quality control for notifications and responses to registrar questions: false or misleading answers are penalised up to 835 penalty units. Agents must exercise due diligence before certifying information.
Plan for fees and access (s 14; s 44C)
Budget for titles registry fees payable for obtaining register particulars or extracts; the Act links these to the Queensland Future Fund (Titles Registry) Act 2021 (s 44C). For frequent users, assess fee scales and procedures for obtaining statistical data (s 14(1)(c)).
Correct errors and seek rectification (s 13)
If you discover errors or omissions in the register, consult s 13: the registrar may rectify errors and may be contacted to request correction. Keep documentary evidence to support any proposed change.
Manage service and corporate contactability (s 42)
Ensure corporations that may be parties to proceedings have resident directors or an electronic contact that complies with the Electronic Transactions (Queensland) Act 2001 so service can be effectively effected in the alternatives provided by s 42.
Be aware of delegation to titles registry operator (s 15) and limited liability protections (s 44)
Understand operational workflows if functions have been delegated to the titles registry operator; ensure appropriate communications channels with the operator and its qualified employees. Note that protection from liability under s 44 excludes employees of the titles registry operator in respect of titles registry functions under the Queensland Future Fund Act.
Respond promptly to any enforcement or court orders (s 24)
If subject to a prosecution or a court order to comply with a s 22 requirement, comply within the time and place specified to avoid the daily accumulation of penalties and risk of further offences (s 24(7)-(11)). Document reasons where compliance delays are unavoidable and ensure the court receives evidence of attempts to comply to rely on s 24(2).
Build conveyancing and corporate change checklists to capture indirect control changes
Incorporate the Act’s principles into due‑diligence checklists, particularly the deeming of control to acquisition and the scope of indirect interests. Train staff and external agents to identify and escalate potential foreign‑ownership triggers before contractual completion.
Seek registrar guidance and use regulatory channels where uncertainty exists
Where factual or legal uncertainty arises , for example over whether a person is a foreign person, the timing of acquisition, or whether a trustee request is required , contact the registrar for clarification, and rely on approved forms and registrar certifications where available (ss 11, 44A, 43).
Following these steps, grounded in the Act’s sections, reduces the risk of late or defective notifications, false‑statement exposures and costly enforcement outcomes. Document decisions, maintain contemporaneous evidence of notifications and their lodgement, and ensure cooperating systems between conveyancers, registering authorities and the registrar.
(a) if the interest is acquired as the result of the granting of a lease of unallocated State land—the time when the lease commences; or
(b) if the interest is acquired under an agreement—the time of entry into possession of the interest; or
(c) otherwise—the time when the event that gave rise to the acquisition occurred.
(a) occupy, use and control that interest; or
(b) the rents and profits of that interest.
Section sec.5
s 5 om 2019 No. 7 s 158
Section sec.6
s 6 sub 1989 No. 3 s 4
om 2019 No. 7 s 158
Section sec.7
s 7 amd 1989 No. 3 s 5
om 2019 No. 7 s 158
Section sec.8
s 8 sub 1989 No. 3 s 6
om 2019 No. 7 s 158
Section sec.9
s 9 amd 1989 No. 3 s 7
om 2019 No. 7 s 158
Section sec.10
s 10 sub 1989 No. 3 s 8
amd 2009 No. 49 s 100
om 2019 No. 7 s 158
pt.2 Administration
Administration
sec.11 Register
sec.11 Register
The registrar must maintain a register called the Foreign Ownership of Land Register.
The register may be kept in the form the registrar considers appropriate including, for example, in electronic form.
An approved form lodged with the registrar forms part of the register.
The registrar may do the following things in relation to the register—
make a copy, in a way approved by the Minister for this section, of any part of the register;
move particulars recorded in a particular part of the register to another part;
delete particulars recorded in a particular part of the register if the registrar is satisfied the particulars have been accurately recorded in another part;
destroy an approved form if a copy of the approved form has been made under paragraph (a) .
A copy of a part of the register made under subsection (4) (a) and certified by the registrar as an accurate copy of that part of the register forms part of the register.
A copy of an approved form made under subsection (4) (a) and certified by the registrar as an accurate copy of the approved form is admissible as evidence of the approved form and the things in it.
s 11 amd 1989 No. 3 s 9
sub 2019 No. 7 s 159
amd 2021 No. 12 s 148 sch 3
(sec.11-ssec.1) The registrar must maintain a register called the Foreign Ownership of Land Register.
(sec.11-ssec.2) The register may be kept in the form the registrar considers appropriate including, for example, in electronic form.
(sec.11-ssec.3) An approved form lodged with the registrar forms part of the register.
(sec.11-ssec.4) The registrar may do the following things in relation to the register— make a copy, in a way approved by the Minister for this section, of any part of the register; move particulars recorded in a particular part of the register to another part; delete particulars recorded in a particular part of the register if the registrar is satisfied the particulars have been accurately recorded in another part; destroy an approved form if a copy of the approved form has been made under paragraph (a) .
(sec.11-ssec.5) A copy of a part of the register made under subsection (4) (a) and certified by the registrar as an accurate copy of that part of the register forms part of the register.
(sec.11-ssec.6) A copy of an approved form made under subsection (4) (a) and certified by the registrar as an accurate copy of the approved form is admissible as evidence of the approved form and the things in it.
(a) make a copy, in a way approved by the Minister for this section, of any part of the register;
(b) move particulars recorded in a particular part of the register to another part;
(c) delete particulars recorded in a particular part of the register if the registrar is satisfied the particulars have been accurately recorded in another part;
(d) destroy an approved form if a copy of the approved form has been made under paragraph (a) .
Section sec.12
s 12 om 2019 No. 7 s 160
sec.13 Rectification of register
sec.13 Rectification of register
Where the registrar is satisfied that there is an error or omission in the register or a failure to comply with this Act in respect of any approved form or acquisition, the registrar may do all things necessary to rectify the error, omission or failure.
s 13 amd 2021 No. 12 s 148 sch 3
sec.14 Access to information in register
sec.14 Access to information in register
A person may, on payment of the relevant titles registry fee and during the hours and on the days appointed by the registrar for that purpose—
obtain particulars of information recorded or contained in the register; and
obtain extracts of particulars of information recorded or contained in the register; and
on giving adequate notice to allow its preparation—obtain from the registrar copies of any statistical data available from the computerised information recorded in the register.
In this section—
titles registry fee , for a matter mentioned in subsection (1) (a) , (b) or (c) , means the fee payable for the matter under section 44C .
s 14 amd 1989 No. 3 s 10 ; 1990 No. 106 s 4 ; 2019 No. 7 s 161 ; 2021 No. 12 s 148 sch 3
(sec.14-ssec.1) A person may, on payment of the relevant titles registry fee and during the hours and on the days appointed by the registrar for that purpose— obtain particulars of information recorded or contained in the register; and obtain extracts of particulars of information recorded or contained in the register; and on giving adequate notice to allow its preparation—obtain from the registrar copies of any statistical data available from the computerised information recorded in the register.
(sec.14-ssec.2) In this section— titles registry fee , for a matter mentioned in subsection (1) (a) , (b) or (c) , means the fee payable for the matter under section 44C .
(a) obtain particulars of information recorded or contained in the register; and
(b) obtain extracts of particulars of information recorded or contained in the register; and
(c) on giving adequate notice to allow its preparation—obtain from the registrar copies of any statistical data available from the computerised information recorded in the register.
sec.15 Delegations by registrar
sec.15 Delegations by registrar
The registrar may delegate the registrar’s powers under this Act to an appropriately qualified public service employee employed in the department.
Also, the registrar may delegate the registrar’s functions under this Act to the titles registry operator.
If a function of the registrar is delegated to the titles registry operator, the titles registry operator must subdelegate the function to an appropriately qualified employee of the titles registry operator.
The titles registry operator may impose conditions on a subdelegation under subsection (3) that are not inconsistent with any conditions to which the delegation to the titles registry operator is subject.
In this section—
function includes power.
s 15 sub 1992 No. 64 s 3 sch 1 ; 2021 No. 12 s 58
(sec.15-ssec.1) The registrar may delegate the registrar’s powers under this Act to an appropriately qualified public service employee employed in the department.
(sec.15-ssec.2) Also, the registrar may delegate the registrar’s functions under this Act to the titles registry operator.
(sec.15-ssec.3) If a function of the registrar is delegated to the titles registry operator, the titles registry operator must subdelegate the function to an appropriately qualified employee of the titles registry operator.
(sec.15-ssec.4) The titles registry operator may impose conditions on a subdelegation under subsection (3) that are not inconsistent with any conditions to which the delegation to the titles registry operator is subject.
(sec.15-ssec.5) In this section— function includes power.
Section sec.16
s 16 amd 17 December 1991 RA s 36
om 2019 No. 17 s 37
pt.3 Notification of ownership
Notification of ownership
Section sec.17
s 17 amd 1989 No. 3 s 11
om 2019 No. 7 s 162
sec.18 Disclosure of acquisition
sec.18 Disclosure of acquisition
A foreign person who acquires the legal estate of an interest in land must complete and lodge with the registrar a notification of ownership in relation to the interest not later than 90 days after the day of the acquisition.
However, a foreign person is not required to comply with subsection (1) if the legal estate of the interest in land is vested in the person as personal representative of a deceased person.
Also, a person beneficially entitled to an interest in land because of the death of a person is not required to comply with subsection (1) until all documents resulting in the interest vesting in the person have been lodged with the relevant registering authority.
s 18 amd 1989 No. 3 s 12 ; 1990 No. 106 s 5
sub 2019 No. 7 s 163
(sec.18-ssec.1) A foreign person who acquires the legal estate of an interest in land must complete and lodge with the registrar a notification of ownership in relation to the interest not later than 90 days after the day of the acquisition.
(sec.18-ssec.2) However, a foreign person is not required to comply with subsection (1) if the legal estate of the interest in land is vested in the person as personal representative of a deceased person.
(sec.18-ssec.3) Also, a person beneficially entitled to an interest in land because of the death of a person is not required to comply with subsection (1) until all documents resulting in the interest vesting in the person have been lodged with the relevant registering authority.
sec.18A Disclosure of disposal of interest
sec.18A Disclosure of disposal of interest
Subsection (2) applies if—
the legal estate of an interest in land is registered in the register, or recorded in the records of a relevant registering authority, in the name of a foreign person; and
the foreign person disposes of the interest.
The foreign person must complete and lodge with the registrar a notification, in the approved form, in relation to the disposal not later than 90 days after the day on which the disposal takes place.
s 18A ins 1990 No. 106 s 6
sub 2019 No. 7 s 163
amd 2021 No. 12 s 148 sch 3
(sec.18A-ssec.1) Subsection (2) applies if— the legal estate of an interest in land is registered in the register, or recorded in the records of a relevant registering authority, in the name of a foreign person; and the foreign person disposes of the interest.
(sec.18A-ssec.2) The foreign person must complete and lodge with the registrar a notification, in the approved form, in relation to the disposal not later than 90 days after the day on which the disposal takes place.
(a) the legal estate of an interest in land is registered in the register, or recorded in the records of a relevant registering authority, in the name of a foreign person; and
(b) the foreign person disposes of the interest.
sec.19 Notification of ceasing to be a foreign person
sec.19 Notification of ceasing to be a foreign person
This section applies if, on 30 June in a year—
the legal estate of an interest in land is registered in the register, or recorded in the records of a relevant registering authority, in the name of a foreign person; and
the person is no longer a foreign person; and
the person has not completed, and lodged with the registrar, a notification of ownership, in the approved form, in relation to the cessation.
The person must complete, and lodge with the registrar, a notification, in the approved form, in relation to the cessation by 30 September in the year.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
s 19 sub 1989 No. 3 s 13
amd 1990 No. 106 s 7
sub 2019 No. 7 s 163
amd 2021 No. 12 s 148 sch 3
(sec.19-ssec.1) This section applies if, on 30 June in a year— the legal estate of an interest in land is registered in the register, or recorded in the records of a relevant registering authority, in the name of a foreign person; and the person is no longer a foreign person; and the person has not completed, and lodged with the registrar, a notification of ownership, in the approved form, in relation to the cessation.
(sec.19-ssec.2) The person must complete, and lodge with the registrar, a notification, in the approved form, in relation to the cessation by 30 September in the year. Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
(a) the legal estate of an interest in land is registered in the register, or recorded in the records of a relevant registering authority, in the name of a foreign person; and
(b) the person is no longer a foreign person; and
(c) the person has not completed, and lodged with the registrar, a notification of ownership, in the approved form, in relation to the cessation.
sec.20 Notification of becoming a foreign person
sec.20 Notification of becoming a foreign person
This section applies if, on 30 June in a year—
the legal estate of an interest in land is
This is an opening excerpt, not the complete document.