[2026] VSC 115
General information, not legal advice.
Supreme Court of Victoria
2026-02-25
Hetyey AsJ
Original judgment source is linked above.
[2026] VSC 115 Second revision: 20 March 2026
CORPORATIONS - Corporations Act 2001 (Cth) - pt 5.4 - Insolvency - Statutory demand - Application to set aside demand served on firm of solicitors for work performed by counsel - s 459G - Whether application made within mandatory 21-day statutory period - Statutory demand sent by email - Technology neutral sending of documents - div 2 of pt 1.2AA - ss 110D(2) - Whether at time document sent reasonable to expect document would be readily accessible so as to be useable for subsequent reference - - Whether demand sent to 'nominated electronic address' - - When demand deemed to be received at addressee's 'nominated electronic address' - Whether effective informal service - Whether div 2 of displaces or qualifies effective informal service rule - Application filed outside 21-day period - Application dismissed for want of jurisdiction - Indemnity costs awarded against plaintiff - Liberty to apply for non-party costs order against principal solicitor and sole director of plaintiff.
PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE - Non-compliance with timetabling orders - Refusal of plaintiff's application to rely on late evidence concerning timing of service of demand - Refusal of plaintiff's application to withdraw admissions made in s 459G affidavit regarding timing of service of demand.
Application by plaintiff to rely on supplementary evidence
(a) Ascot Solicitors' supplementary affidavit evidence and submissions were due on 29 January 2026, almost one month before they were eventually filed;
(b) Ascot Solicitors' non-compliance with the January orders necessitated the Court making a self-executing order such that its supplementary evidence and submissions were required to be filed no later than 9 February 2026, otherwise the application would be dismissed;
(c) although Ascot Solicitors filed its submissions by 9 February 2026 and avoided the effect of the self-executing order, the submissions were nevertheless late by reference to the January orders. There is no explanation for the lateness of those submissions;
(d) both the Notice to the Profession and para B of 'Other Matters' in the January orders specifically state that evidence or submissions filed out of time would not be considered at the final hearing without a summons for leave supported by an affidavit explaining non-compliance. No such summons and supporting affidavit were filed;
(e) contrary to the submissions made by Mr Dizdarevic at the hearing, the evidence sought to be adduced in Mr Dizdarevic's supplementary affidavit about the 12 December email and the service of the statutory demand goes beyond a simple correction of an error in his first affidavit. Instead, it sets out an entirely different narrative about the circumstances surrounding the 12 December email. It is unclear why this initial account was not given in the first Dizdarevic affidavit; and
(f) in the circumstances, granting the plaintiff leave to rely on Mr Dizdarevic's supplementary affidavit and its supplementary submissions would not be consistent with the overarching purpose set out in s 7 of the Civil Procedure Act 2010 (Vic) ('CPA'), being the just, efficient, timely and cost-effective resolution of the real issues in dispute, which the Court is required to give effect to under s 8 of the CPA. It was also contrary to the terms and tenor of the Notice to the Profession.
Application by plaintiff to withdraw admission as to service
The law in relation to applications for leave to withdraw an admission is well settled. Whether an amendment should be permitted is a matter of discretion. A party will not be permitted to withdraw an admission in a pleading 'without good cause'. Whilst the general rule is that all amendments should be permitted (including an amendment to a defence) unless the amendment will cause prejudice to the other party which cannot be overcome in some way, it is neither possible nor desirable to delimit the factors that the Court may take into account in exercising the discretion.
An amendment will not be permitted where it would cause irremediable prejudice to the other party. On an application to amend the applicant bears the burden of persuasion that the amendment will not cause such prejudice, while the party opposing the amendment bears an evidential onus of adducing evidence on the question of prejudice. The question is whether the possibility of prejudice or injustice to the opposing party has been excluded. If it has not, the application must be refused. It must also be refused if the Court concludes that it cannot decide whether it is just to allow the amendment.
The loss of an opportunity to take a step in the proceeding in response to a denial may constitute relevant prejudice. An order for indemnity costs may not always undo the prejudice a party suffers by a late amendment. Case management considerations may inform the justice of the grant or refusal of an application to amend.
A court will usually require an explanation for the change in position. In McKenzie v Commonwealth [[2001] VSC 361] and in Jeanes v Commonwealth [[2005] VSC 488] Gillard J said that it is not the law that a defendant is not permitted to withdraw an admission unless it was shown to have been made inadvertently or through error, and that the absence of a reasonable or adequate explanation will not determine the outcome of an application in the face of compelling reasons of justice...
Nevertheless, an explanation is ordinarily called for in recognition of the fact that the making of an admission is regarded as a serious step for a party to take - its effect being to remove the admitted fact from the arena of controversy between the parties. Thus it has been said that a party will not be permitted to withdraw an admission in a pleading 'without good cause'.
That is a more particular emanation of the principle that generally speaking, where a discretion is sought to be exercised in favour of one party and to the disadvantage of the other, an explanation will be required. An explanation is required in order to permit the court to see that the application is brought in good faith and to weigh the circumstances against the effects of an amendment and the objectives of the relevant rule. In Aon Risk Services [(2009) 239 CLR 175] French CJ said that one consideration in the exercise of an interlocutory discretion is the potential loss of public confidence in the legal system which arises where a court is seen to accede to applications made without adequate explanation or justification.
It has been often said in the context of applications to withdraw admissions, that the explanation proffered should be based on evidence of a 'solid and substantial character'. However, what is adequate will depend upon the circumstances of the particular case.
Finally, it is now understood (at least since the High Court's decision in Aon) that parties must be given a fair trial and a sufficient opportunity to identify the issues they seek to agitate, but according justice in an application to amend is not to be equated with a requirement to afford a party an unlimited opportunity to amend its case.
(1) Without limiting any other power of a court, for the purposes of ensuring that a civil proceeding is managed and conducted in accordance with the overarching purpose, the court may give any direction or make any order it considers appropriate, including any directions given or orders made -
(a) in the interests of the administration of justice; or
(b) in the public interest.
(2) The Court must presume that the company is insolvent if, during or after the 3 months ending on the day when the application was made:
(a) the company failed (as defined by section 459F) to comply with a statutory demand; ...
Application by plaintiff to set aside statutory demand
(a) the first Dizdarevic affidavit sworn 7 January 2026;
(b) the affidavit of Mr Feiler, solicitor, sworn 20 January 2026;
(c) an Australian Securities and Investments Commission ('ASIC') company extract of Ascot Solicitors filed 8 January 2026; and
(d) written submissions dated 9 February 2026, of which two versions were filed in quick succession. The latter, 'corrected', version has been considered.
(a) two affidavits of Ms Melissa Sayers, solicitor, affirmed 22 January 2026; and
(b) written submissions filed 5 February 2026.
(1) A company may apply to the Court for an order setting aside a statutory demand served on the company.
(2) An application may only be made within the statutory period after the demand is so served.
(3) An application is made in accordance with this section only if, within that period:
(a) an affidavit supporting the application is filed with the Court; and
(b) a copy of the application, and a copy of the supporting affidavit, are served on the person who served the demand on the company.
... facultative and not exclusive or mandatory and the section should not be construed so as to exclude any means of service which is proved to have brought the document to the actual attention of a company.[17]
Technology neutral sending of documents under div 2 of pt 1.2AA and s 105A of Act
...
(c) if subsection (2) is satisfied - by sending the document in electronic form by means of an electronic communication...
(2) This subsection is satisfied if, at the time the document is sent, it is reasonable to expect that the document would be readily accessible so as to be useable for subsequent reference.
(4) Subsection (1) does not limit the ways in which a person may send a document.
...
(6) Paragraphs (1)(c) and (d) apply only if:
...
(b) where the recipient is not covered by subsection (7)[20] - the sending of the document mentioned in paragraph (1)(c), or the sending of the information mentioned in paragraph (1)(d), is to a nominated electronic address of the recipient.
(a) a communication of information in the form of data, text or images by means of guided and/or unguided electromagnetic energy; ...
...
nominated electronic address, in relation to the addressee of an electronic communication, means:
(a) the most recent electronic address nominated by the addressee to the originator of the electronic communication as the electronic address for receiving electronic communications; or
(b) if:
(i) the addressee has nominated an electronic address as mentioned in paragraph (a) and the originator knows, or there are reasonable grounds to believe, that the address is not a current electronic address for the addressee; or
(ii) the addressee has not nominated an electronic address as mentioned in paragraph (a); an electronic address that the originator believes on reasonable grounds to be a current electronic address for the addressee for receiving electronic communications.
(1) This section applies in relation to an electronic communication unless otherwise agreed between the originator and the addressee of the electronic communication.
(2) An electronic communication is sent:
(a) when the electronic communication leaves an information system under the control of the originator or of the party who sent it on behalf of the originator; or
(b) if the electronic communication has not left an information system under the control of the originator or of the party who sent it on behalf of the originator--when the electronic communication is received by the addressee.
(4) An electronic communication is received when the electronic communication becomes capable of being retrieved by the addressee at the addressee's nominated electronic address.
(5) It is to be assumed that an electronic communication is capable of being retrieved by the addressee when it reaches the addressee's nominated electronic address.
(3) An electronic communication is taken to have been received:
...
(b) if the addressee has a registered office and paragraph (a) does not apply--at the registered office of the addressee...
Sections 105A and 105B deem the date on, and location at which, electronic communications are sent and received, unless otherwise agreed by the originator and the addressee of the electronic communication. The effect of s 105A is that proof of effective service by email does not require proof that the documents delivered by email were actually accessed or reviewed, or even came to the attention of the addressee or anyone else.[23] Subsections 105A(4) and (5) deem the electronic communication to have been received when it reaches the addressee's nominated electronic address. Subsection 105B(3)(b) provides that an electronic communication to a company is deemed to be received at its registered office, unless otherwise agreed. In addition, s 161 of the Evidence Act 2008 (Vic) [('Evidence Act')] creates a rebuttable presumption that emails have been sent and received at the time recorded in the email.[24]
Good afternoon,
Please find attached correspondence of even date.
Ascot Solicitor Pty Ltd
At & Co Accountants
Level 5, 1070 Mt Alexander Road
Essendon VIC
Sent via post and email to: michael.f@ascotsolicitors.com.au
Dear Sirs,
BROWN v ASCOT SOLICITORS PTY LTD (ACN 152 472 305) MAG-CI-240117558
We refer to the above matter.
Please find enclosed by way of service a Creditor Statutory Demand for Payment of Debt.
Yours faithfully
HOYLE DA SILVA
On 12 December 2025, I received an email from [the defendant's solicitors], attaching a Statutory Demand for payment of Debt in form 509H.
(a) staying the enforcement of the judgments obtained in the Magistrates' Court proceeding until the determination of the appeal proceeding;
(b) the granting of personal undertakings by Mr Dizdarevic to pay the full judgment sum in the event the appeal is dismissed or otherwise fails; and
(c) the provision of a draft affidavit confirming Mr Dizdarevic's ownership of real property.
... where a recipient has used an electronic address to substantively respond to a sender in relation to the matter in dispute, or the electronic address is referred to as the electronic address of the recipient in any contractual or court documents that relate to the dispute, there will be reasonable grounds for a sender to believe that the email is a current electronic address for the receipt of documents by that recipient in relation to that dispute under the Act ...
(a) the 12 December email was sent to Mr Feiler, the solicitor who had corresponded with the defendant's solicitors in relation to a proposed stay of enforcement of the Magistrates' Court proceeding judgments, pending the appeal in September 2025. Like in Re Caason, Mr Feiler was a lawyer who had been involved in prior related proceedings concerning the parties and was closely engaged in the matter prior to the service of the demand. It is reasonable to infer that Mr Feiler would have brought the 12 December email and its accompanying attachments to the attention of Mr Dizdarevic, the principal lawyer and sole director of the plaintiff law firm;
(b) I accept the submission of the defendant's counsel that having regard to the principle in Jones v Dunkel,[40] there has been an unexplained failure by the plaintiff to lead evidence from Mr Feiler, as principal addressee of the 12 December email, about the email and attached statutory demand, including when he opened it, and when he brought it to the attention of, and discussed it with, Mr Dizdarevic. I am prepared to infer that the uncalled evidence of Mr Feiler would not have assisted the plaintiff on the question of service of the demand;
(c) even if Mr Feiler, as an employee solicitor, was not the appropriate person to whom notice of the demand should have been given, the 12 December email was also copied to Mr Dizdarevic who gave initial unequivocal evidence that he received it on 12 December 2025 (despite later seeking to retract that admission and to adduce new evidence putting forward an alternative account of events). The demand therefore came to the actual attention of the plaintiff's sole director on the date the 12 December email was sent and received;
(d) the evidence suggests the 12 December email was received, in complete and legible form, at the Feiler email address and the Dizdarevic email address and was capable of being opened and read (even if not read until later);[41]
(e) the 12 December email prompted the plaintiff to send the 19 December letter to the defendant's solicitors which expressly refers to the 12 December email and the attached statutory demand. The letter is signed by both Mr Dizdarevic and Mr Feiler. Nowhere in the 19 December letter is there any suggestion that service was not properly effected, or even that there had been any delay by Mr Dizdarevic, as the responsible officer of the plaintiff, in accessing the demand;
(f) in the absence of the Court's leave to rely on Mr Dizdarevic's supplementary affidavit, there is no positive evidence before the Court that the plaintiff received the 12 December email any later than 12 December 2025. While Mr Dizdarevic sought to give evidence to that effect, I have disallowed that evidence on the basis that no proper application was made on notice for leave to adduce it and because it is almost a month late;
(g) whilst the 12 December email also referred to the statutory demand being served by post, nothing turns on this. The email did not assert that service had already occurred by post and there is no evidence that service had occurred by conventional means any earlier than the 12 December email, or at all; and
(h) although the 12 December email does not refer to a statutory demand or otherwise denote any urgency, I consider that a prudent legal practitioner would have regard to the attachments to the email. There is no evidence before the Court to suggest the email was ignored at the time it was received because it did not, on its face, refer to a statutory demand.
Section 24 of the Supreme Court Act 1986 (Vic) relevantly provides that: 'the costs of and incidental to all matters in the Court ... is in the discretion of the Court and the Court has full power to determine by whom and to what extent the costs are to be paid'. It is clear that the Court has a wide discretion in relation to costs.[45] However, as a general rule, in the absence of good reason to the contrary, a successful litigant should recover their costs.[46] Where a company's application to set aside a statutory demand is unsuccessful, the Court will usually require the company to pay the creditor's costs pursuant to the general principle that costs should follow the event.[47]
An award of costs is usually on a standard basis unless there are special or unusual features warranting an order for costs on an indemnity basis.[48] Such circumstances relevantly include where:
(a) proceedings are commenced or continued in disregard of known facts or clearly established law;[49]
(b) there is unreasonable conduct causing unnecessary costs to be incurred;[50]
(c) a party, properly advised, knew or should have known that it had no chance of success and has persisted with its claim[51] (in other words, the proceeding was brought on the basis that the case advanced was hopeless)...
In Carinda Homes Pty Ltd v Highlands Austral Pty Ltd [('Carinda Homes')],[52] a company persisted with its application to set aside a statutory demand despite it being commenced three days outside the 21-day time limit set by s 459G of the Act. The plaintiff company did not file any evidence on the question of whether the application was filed out of time. Justice Lindgren noted that the High Court's decision in David Grant[53] had made clear the strict and immutable nature of the time period contained in s 459G. On that basis, his Honour held that the proceeding was doomed to fail and it was unreasonable for the company to have pursued the application. Indemnity costs were ordered in favour of the creditor.
[1] See Corporations Act 2001 (Cth) ss 9 (definition of 'statutory period'), 459G(2).
[2] David Grant & Co Pty Ltd v Westpac Banking Corporation [1995] HCA 43; (1995) 184 CLR 265 ('David Grant').
[3] [2024] VSC 444 ('Ma').
[6] Ibid [7]-[13] (citations omitted).
[9] Excluding the late material for which leave to rely upon was refused.
[10] David Grant. See also Carinda Homes Pty Ltd v Highlands Pty Ltd [2003] FCA 275 ('Carinda Homes'); Renegade Rigging Pty Ltd v Hanlon Nominees Pty Ltd [2010] VSC 385, [2] (Ferguson J); Autumn Solar Installations Pty Ltd v Solar Magic Australia Pty Ltd [2010] NSWSC 463, [4] (Barret J).
[11] Jin Xin Investment & Trade (Australia) Pty Ltd v ISC Property Pty Ltd [2006] NSWSC 7; (2006) 196 FLR 350, 352 (Barrett J) ('Jin Xin Investment'). See also David Grant , 276-7 (Gummow J for the Court).
[13] Rochester Communications Group Pty Ltd v Lader [1997] FCA 189; (1997) 23 ACSR 380; Re Marlan Financial Services Pty Ltd [1999] VSC 435; (1999) 33 ACSR 259, 266 (Byrne J); Austar Finance Group Pty Ltd v Campbell [2007] NSWSC 1493; (2007) 215 FLR 464, 478 [71] (Austin J) ('Austar Finance').
[14] Re Edifice Australia Pty Ltd [2017] NSWSC 1620, [12] (Black J).
[16] [2004] VSC 322; (2004) 185 FLR 389 ('Emhill').
[18] [2025] VSC 763, [40]-[51] (Steffensen AsJ) ('Re Ironsons Homes').
[20] Section 110D(7) deals with the sending of documents to members of companies, registered schemes, managed investment schemes and the like and does not appear to have application here.
[23] Re Bioaction Pty Ltd [2022] FCA 436; (2022) 402 ALR 542, 562-563 (Cheeseman J) ('Re Bioaction'); Sandys Swim Pty Ltd v Morgan [2022] FCA 1574, [41] (SC Derrington J); Re Stamford Bridge SW6 Pty Ltd [2024] NSWSC 486, [63] (Williams J).
[24] Re Bioaction 553, regarding the Commonwealth provision which is in like terms.
[25] Woodgate v Garard Pty Ltd [2010] NSWSC 508; (2010) 78 ACSR 468, 475-478 (Palmer J) ('Woodgate'). The principles in Woodgate concerning effective informal service were cited with approval by Sifris J in Chen v Kornucopia Pty Ltd (No 1) [2019] VSC 756; (2019) 59 VR 305, 319 ('Kornucopia (No 1)'). See also Biotech International Ltd v Peptech Ltd [2000] WASC 120; (2000) 34 ACSR 443, 452 (Owen J); Emhill, 312 [27] (Mandie J); Kookaburra Educational Resources Pty Ltd v MacGear Ltd Partnership (t/as MacGear Australia) [2021] FCA 797, [57] (Halley J) ('Kookaburra').
[26] SGR Pastoral Pty Ltd v Christensen [2019] QSC 229, [37] (Bowskill J) ('SGR Pastoral'); applied in Re Bioaction 559 and Kornucopia (No 1) 333.
[27] Re Ironsons Homes [31], citing Emhill [28].
[28] Austar Finance 473-474; Woodgate 477; Greenmint Pty Ltd v O'Keefe [2015] VSC 326 (Gardiner AsJ).
[29] See Re Ironsons Homes [32], citing Parklands Blue Metal Pty Ltd v Kowari Motors Pty Ltd [2003] QSC 98; (2004) 1 Qd R 140, 142-143 (Helman J); Deputy Commissioner of Taxation v Melking Holdings Pty Ltd [2019] FCA 988, [60]-[62] (Colvin J); Woodgate 478.
[39] Re Ironsons Homes [43] and the authorities referred to there.
[41] SGR Pastoral [37]. Applied in Re Bioaction 559 and Kornucopia (No 1) 333.
[43] [2023] VSC 179 ('Re Lifestyle Residences').
[45] See also Civil Procedure Act 2010 (Vic) s 65C; Farid Assaf, Assaf's Winding Up in Insolvency (LexisNexis, 3rd ed, 2021) ('Assaf's Winding Up in Insolvency'), [10.101], citing Re Mailrite Pty Ltd (1985) 9 ACLR 863, 867-868 (Master Lee); Re Great Barrier Reef Flying Boats Pty Ltd (1982) 6 ACLR 820, 822 (Thomas J); Morepine Pty Ltd v Crush Pacific Industries Pty Ltd (1996) 20 ACSR 41, 44 (Young J).
[46] Towercom Pty Ltd v Fahour (No 4) [2013] VSC 585; Ritter v Godfrey (1920) 2 KB 47, 54 (Atkin LJ); Donald Campbell & Co Ltd v Pollak [1927] AC 732, 809 (Viscount Cave LC); Milne v Attorney-General (Tas) [1956] HCA 48; (1956) 95 CLR 460, 477 (Dixon CJ, McTiernan, Williams, Fullagar and Taylor JJ); Oshlack v Richmond River Council [1998] HCA 11; (1998) 193 CLR 72, 86 (Gaudron and Gummow JJ).
[47] Assaf's Winding Up in Insolvency [9.19].
[48] See Colgate Palmolive Company v Cussens Pty Ltd [1993] FCA 536; (1993) 46 FCR 225; Ugly Tribe Co Pty Ltd v Sikola [2001] VSC 189; Yap v Lee [2019] VSC 743.
[49] J-Corp Pty Ltd v Australian Builders Labourers Federated Union of Workers (WA Branch) (No 2) [1993] FCA 70; (1993) 46 IR 301 (French J).
[50] Ballam v Ferro (No 2) [2022] NSWSC 1358, [68] (Hallen J), citing Vector Corrosion Technologies Ltd v E-Chem Technologies [2022] FCA 519, [38] (Jagot J).
[51] Banksia Securities Ltd v Insurance House Pty Ltd [2020] VSC 234, [15] (J Dixon J); Winslow Constructors Pty Ltd v Head, Transport for Victoria [2021] VSC 74; (2021) 64 VR 200, 204 (Riordan J).
Plaintiff
DAVID J BROWN
(2009) 239 CLR 175
(1995) 184 CLR 265
(2006) 196 FLR 350
(2007) 215 FLR 464
(2004) 185 FLR 389
(2022) 402 ALR 542
(2019) 59 VR 305
(2004) 1 Qd R 140
(1959) 101 CLR 298
(1956) 95 CLR 460
(1998) 193 CLR 72
(1993) 46 FCR 225
(1993) 46 IR 301
(2021) 64 VR 200