[2025] FCA 1665
General information, not legal advice.
Federal Court of Australia
2025-12-22
Vandongen J
Original judgment source is linked above.
Armstrong World Industries (Australia) Pty Ltd v Parma [2014] FCA 743
Australian Broadcasting Corporation v Lenah Game Meats Pty Ltd [2001] HCA 63; (2001) 208 CLR 199
Australian Broadcasting Corporation v O'Neill ;
Australian Building and Construction Commissioner v Molina [2020] FCAFC 97; (2020) 277 FCR 223
Australian Nursing and Midwifery Federation v St Vincent's Private Hospitals Ltd [2025] FCA 18
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Mauer‑Swisse Securities Ltd [2002] NSWSC 741
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Merhi (No 2) [2025] FCA 1343
Australian Workers' Union v Chemring Australia Pty Ltd [2019] FCA 750
Automotive, Food, Metals, Engineering, Printing and Kindred Industries Union v Visy Packaging Pty Ltd [2011] FCA 1001
Automotive, Food, Metals, Engineering, Printing and Kindred Industries Union v Visy Packaging Pty Ltd (No 3) [2013] FCA 525; (2013) 216 FCR 70
Automotive, Food, Metals, Engineering, Printing and Kindred Industries Union (AMWU) v O-I Operations (Australia) Pty Ltd [2019] FCA 1272
Beecham Group Ltd v Bristol Laboratories Pty Ltd [1968] HCA 1; (1968) 118 CLR 618
Bilal v Ampol Limited [2025] FCA 1189
Castlemaine Tooheys Ltd v South Australia [1986] HCA 58; (1986) 161 CLR 148
Ceni Enterprises Pty Ltd (in liq) v Sykes, in the matter of Ceni Enterprises Pty Ltd (in liq) [2024] FCA 842
Communications, Electrical, Electronic, Energy, Information, Postal, Plumbing and Allied Services Union of Australia v Green Light Contractors Pty Ltd [2023] FCA 536
Communications, Electrical, Electronic, Energy, Information, Postal, Plumbing and Allied Services Union of Australia v Absolute Commissioning Group Pty Ltd [2024] FCA 805
Dixon v United Workers Union [2023] FCA 1526
Frugtniet v Australian Securities and Investments Commission [2017] FCAFC 162; (2017) 255 FCR 96
Gillham v Melbourne Symphony Orchestra Pty Ltd [2025] FCA 458
Hicks v Minister for Immigration and Multicultural and Indigenous Affairs [2003] FCA 757
Jackson v Heart Research Institute Ltd [2025] FCA 301
Jones v Queensland Tertiary Admissions Centre Ltd [2009] FCA 1382
Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs v MZAPC [2025] HCA 5
Minister for Immigration, Citizenship, Migrant Services and Multicultural Affairs v FAK19 [2021] FCAFC 153; (2021) 287 FCR 181
Ord Minnett Holdings Pty Ltd v Longmuir [2023] FCA 1262
PIA Mortgage Services Pty Ltd v King [2020] FCAFC 15; (2020) 274 FCR 225
Police Federation of Australia v Nixon [2008] FCA 467; (2008) 168 FCR 340
Quinn v Overland [2010] FCA 799
Reiche v Neometals Ltd (No 2) [2025] FCA 125
Rugg v Commonwealth of Australia as represented by the Department of Finance [2023] FCA 179
Russell v Institution of Engineers Australia t/a Engineers Australia [2013] FCA 1250
Samsung Electronics Co. Limited v Apple Inc. [2011] FCAFC 156; (2011) 217 FCR 238
Smart EV Solutions Pty Ltd v Guy [2023] FCA 1580
Tattsbet Limited v Morrow [2015] FCAFC 62; (2015) 233 FCR 46
The Environmental Group Ltd v Bowd [2019] FCA 951
Transfield Construction Pty Ltd v Automotive Food, Metal, Engineering, Printing and Kindred Industries Union [2002] FCA 1413
Transport Workers' Union of Australia v Qantas Airways Limited (No 4) [2021] FCA 1602
Tymbook Pty Ltd v State of Victoria [2006] VSCA 89; (2006) 15 VR 65
STRUCTURAL MONITORING SYSTEMS PLC (ABN 86 106 307 322)
STRUCTURAL MONITORING SYSTEMS LTD (ACN 067 556 245)
SAM MICHAEL WRIGHT (and others named in the Schedule)
Note: Entry of orders is dealt with in Rule 39.32 of the Federal Court Rules 2011.
(a) took adverse action against the applicants, contrary to s 340(1) of the Fair Work Act 2009 (Cth);
(b) victimised Mr Love, contrary to s 1317AC(1) of the Corporations Act; and
(c) engaged in conduct to the detriment of Mr Love, in circumstances enlivening the Court's power to make an order under s 1317AE, for the purposes of s 1317AD(1) of the Corporations Act.
Pursuant to s 1324 of the Corporations Act 2001 (Cth) and s 23 of the Federal Court of Australia Act 1976 (Cth), until 11.59 pm AWST on Friday 17 October 2025 or until further order, the [SMS] respondents, whether by themselves or by their officers, employees, or agents, are restrained from:
(a) taking any step that would have the consequence of [Mr Love] ceasing to be any or all of:
(i) a director and Executive Director of the [SMS] respondents; and
(ii) Chief Executive Officer of the [SMS] respondents;
(b) publishing or disseminating the investigation report prepared by [the workplace investigator] dated 17 September 2025 or any of its findings beyond the Board of [SMS UK] and its legal advisors.
Pursuant to pursuant to [sic] section 545 of the [Fair Work Act] and sections 1317AD(1) and 1317AE(1)(c) and 1324 of the Corporations Act, and section 23 of the [Federal Court of Australia Act 1976 (Cth)], until further order, an order that each, or alternatively any one, of the [SMS] Respondents, whether by itself, its officers, its employees, or its or [sic] agents, be restrained from any further refusal to permit [Mr Love] to perform the duties of a director and Executive Director of the [SMS] Respondents, and Chief Executive Officer of the [SMS] Respondents.
[t]he condition precedent remains that 'a plaintiff seeking an interlocutory injunction must be able to show sufficient colour of right to the final relief, in aid of which interlocutory relief is sought', the usual description of the sufficiency of that colour of right being the establishment of a serious question to be tried or a prima facie case.
(footnotes omitted, emphasis added)
In order to secure such an injunction the plaintiff must show (1) that there is a serious question to be tried or that the plaintiff has made out a prima facie case, in the sense that if the evidence remains as it is there is a probability that at the trial of the action the plaintiff will be held entitled to relief; (2) that he will suffer irreparable injury for which damages will not be an adequate compensation unless an injunction is granted; and (3) that the balance of convenience favours the granting of an injunction.
(emphasis added)
An order that, pursuant to section 545 of the [Fair Work Act], sections 1317AD(1) and 1317AE(1)(c) and 1324 of the Corporations Act, and section 23 of the Federal Court of Australia Act 1976 (Cth) (FCA Act), each Respondent, whether by itself, its officers, its employees, or its agents, be restrained from:
(a) the taking of any further step to decide, finalise or otherwise act upon, or further act upon, the purported investigations into the matters raised in the email of [an AEM employee] dated 23 July 2025;
(b) the taking of any step that would have the consequence of [Mr Love] ceasing to be any or all of:
- a director and Executive Director of the [SMS] Respondents; and
- the Chief Executive Officer of the [SMS] Respondents; and
(c) the publication or dissemination beyond [SMS UK's] Board and its legal advisors of the investigation report prepared by [the workplace investigator] dated 17 September 2025 or any of its findings.
the traditional reluctance of the Court to make interlocutory mandatory orders, including ordering employees to return to work, may not apply to conduct which, prima facie, is in breach of the [Workplace Relations Act 1996 (Cth)].
(citations omitted)
... whether the relief sought is prohibitory or mandatory, the court should take whichever course appears to carry the lower risk of injustice if it should turn out to have been 'wrong', in the sense of granting an injunction to a party who fails to establish his right at the trial, or in failing to grant an injunction to a party who succeeds at trial.
(1) The affidavit of Sam Michael Wright, Director/Company Secretary for SMS respondents, affirmed 22 October 2025.
(2) The affidavit of Terence William Joseph Walsh, Head of Legal and Corporate Affairs for SMS UK, affirmed 22 October 2025.
(3) The affidavit of Brian Richard Wall, Non-Executive Director for SMS UK, sworn 21 October 2025.
(4) The affidavit of Heinrich Hermann Loechteken, Non-Executive Director for SMS UK, affirmed 22 October 2025.
(5) The affidavit of Anthony Faillace, Non-Executive Director for SMS UK, dated 22 October 2025.
(6) The affidavit of Marlena Christine Klassen, AEM People & Culture Director, affirmed 21 October 2025.
(7) The affidavit of Robert Gordon Gooding, AEM Chief Financial Officer, affirmed 21 October 2025.
(8) The affidavit of Trevor Lynch-Staunton, AEM Chief Technical Officer, affirmed 21 October 2025.
(9) The affidavit of Taylor Morgan Wylie, AEM Group Chief Operating Officer, affirmed 21 October 2025.
(10) The affidavit of Sean Anthony Cobham, AEM Research & Development Director, affirmed 21 October 2025.
(11) The affidavit of Anthony Robert Weller, AEM Sales & Marketing Director, affirmed 21 October 2025.
Mr Love's Fair Work Act claim
(a) because the other person:
(i) has a workplace right; or
(ii) has, or has not, exercised a workplace right; or
(iii) proposes or proposes not to, or has at any time proposed or proposed not to, exercise a workplace right; or
(b) to prevent the exercise of a workplace right by the other person.
(a) refusing or otherwise failing to provide to the applicants the full unredacted investigation report of the workplace investigator dated 17 September 2025;
(b) excluding Mr Love from attending or participating in the meeting of SMS UK's board on 25 September 2025;
(c) excluding Mr Love from the premises at which he performs work;
(d) cancelling Mr Love's company-issued credit card without notice;
(e) proposing to terminate the Services Agreement entered into between the applicants and the SMS respondents on 4 March 2023;
(f) proposing to remove Mr Love as director, Executive Director and Chief Executive Officer of SMS UK;
(g) proposing to remove Mr Love as director, Executive Director and Chief Executive Officer of SMS;
(h) threatening to publish, an ASX announcement in the unamended form annexed to the Georgi Affidavit and marked Annexure 'GEG-5';
(i) publishing an ASX announcement in relation to these proceedings in the form annexed to the Giorgi Affidavit and marked Annexure 'GEG-10';
(j) threatening to make statements to shareholders of SMS UK in relation to these proceedings in the form of a 'draft Q&A script' for shareholders dated 17 October 2025, in the form annexed to the Giorgi Affidavit and marked Annexure 'GEG-12';
(k) continuing to refuse to provide Mr Love with the information and documents necessary to perform his roles, and continued refusal to permit the Mr Love to attend any board meetings of the SMS respondents;
(l) failing to pay Mr Love outstanding fees due to him under the Services Agreement;
(m) failing to put to shareholders, and recommend, the proposal to grant Mr Love 1,500,000 shares as previously endorsed by the board of SMS UK; and
(n) threatening to enforce an indemnity in favour of SMS UK against Turton for all costs incurred in relation to the proceedings under cl 16(c) of the Services Agreement.
With great respect to [Ryan J] - an eminent and highly-respected judge, renowned for his expertise in the field of industrial law - I am unable to reconcile what is said at [69] of Nixon with what appear, to me, to be the plain words of s 361(2). To have, in the process of assessing whether there is a prima facie case for interim injunctive relief, regard to the existence of the reverse onus for which s 361(1) provides is, I think, to proceed as though s 361(1) 'appl[ies]' in that context. Yet s 361(2) says that it doesn't.
The meaning of the words of s 361(2) is clear. To have, in the process of assessing whether there is a prima facie case for interim injunctive relief, regard to the existence of the reverse onus for which s 361(1) provides is to proceed as though s 361(1) 'appl[ies]' in that context. Yet s 361(2) says that it doesn't. The applicants cannot, at this juncture, draw any strength from the existence of the reverse onus of proof to which s 361(1) gives effect.
(1) A person has a workplace right if the person:
(a) is entitled to the benefit of, or has a role or responsibility under, a workplace law, workplace instrument or order made by an industrial body; or
(b) is able to initiate, or participate in, a process or proceedings under a workplace law or workplace instrument; or
...
(2) Each of the following is a process or proceedings under a workplace law or workplace instrument:
...
(b) court proceedings under a workplace law or workplace instrument;
...
(d) any other law of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory that regulates the relationships between employers and employees (including by dealing with occupational health and safety matters).
(a) In relation to the pre-commencement conduct, is there a prima facie case that Pt 9.4AAA of the Corporations Act or any relevant provision in that part, is a 'workplace law' as defined in s 12 of the Fair Work Act?
(b) In relation to the post-commencement conduct, is there a prima facie case that the SMS respondents engaged in some or all of the post-commencement conduct because the applicants exercised a workplace right, for the purposes of s 340(1)(a)(ii) of the Fair Work Act?
Are the provisions in Pt 9.4AAA of the Corporations Act a 'workplace law' as defined in s 12 of the Fair Work Act?
1317AA Disclosures qualifying for protection under this Part
...
Disclosure to eligible recipients
(2) A disclosure of information by an individual (the discloser) qualifies for protection under this Part if:
(a) the discloser is an eligible whistleblower in relation to a regulated entity; and
(b) the disclosure is made to an eligible recipient in relation to the regulated entity; and
(c) subsection (4) or (5) applies to the disclosure.
(4) This subsection applies to a disclosure of information if the discloser has reasonable grounds to suspect that the information concerns misconduct, or an improper state of affairs or circumstances, in relation to:
(a) the regulated entity; or
(b) if the regulated entity is a body corporate - a related body corporate of the regulated entity.
(5) Without limiting subsection (4), this subsection applies to a disclosure of information if the discloser has reasonable grounds to suspect that the information indicates that any of the following:
(a) the regulated entity, or an officer or employee of the regulated entity;
(b) if the regulated entity is a body corporate - a related body corporate of the regulated entity, or an officer or employee of a related body corporate of the regulated entity;
has engaged in conduct that:
(c) constitutes an offence against, or a contravention of, a provision of any of the following:
(i) this Act;
(ii) the ASIC Act;
(iii) the Banking Act 1959;
(iiia) the Financial Accountability Regime Act 2023;
(iv) the Financial Sector (Collection of Data) Act 2001;
(v) the Insurance Act 1973;
(vi) the Life Insurance Act 1995;
(vii) the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009;
(viii) the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act 1993;
(ix) an instrument made under an Act referred to in any of subparagraphs (i) to (viii); or
(d) constitutes an offence against any other law of the Commonwealth that is punishable by imprisonment for a period of 12 months or more; or
(e) represents a danger to the public or the financial system; or
(f) is prescribed by the regulations for the purposes of this paragraph.
1317AAA Meaning of eligible whistleblower
An individual is an eligible whistleblower in relation to a regulated entity if the individual is, or has been, any of the following:
(a) an officer of the regulated entity;
(b) an employee of the regulated entity;
(c) an individual who supplies services or goods to the regulated entity (whether paid or unpaid);
(d) an employee of a person that supplies services or goods to the regulated entity (whether paid or unpaid);
(e) an individual who is an associate of the regulated entity;
(f) for a regulated entity that is a superannuation entity:
(i) an individual who is a trustee (within the meaning of the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act 1993), custodian (within the meaning of that Act) or investment manager (within the meaning of that Act) of the superannuation entity; or
(ii) an officer of a body corporate that is a trustee, custodian or investment manager of the superannuation entity; or
(iii) an employee of an individual referred to in subparagraph (i) or a body corporate referred to in subparagraph (ii); or
(iv) an individual who supplies services or goods to an individual referred to in subparagraph (i) or a body corporate referred to in subparagraph (ii) (whether paid or unpaid); or
(v) an employee of a person that supplies services or goods to an individual referred to in subparagraph (i) or a body corporate referred to in subparagraph (ii) (whether paid or unpaid);
(g) a relative of an individual referred to in any of paragraphs (a) to (f);
(h) a dependant of an individual referred to in any of paragraphs (a) to (f), or of such an individual's spouse;
(i) an individual prescribed by the regulations for the purposes of this paragraph in relation to the regulated entity.
1317AAB Meaning of regulated entity
Each of the following is a regulated entity:
(a) a company;
(b) a corporation to which paragraph 51(xx) of the Constitution applies;
(c) an ADI (within the meaning of the Banking Act 1959), an authorised NOHC (within the meaning of that Act) or a subsidiary of an ADI or an authorised NOHC;
(d) a general insurer (within the meaning of the Insurance Act 1973), an authorised NOHC (within the meaning of that Act) or a subsidiary of a general insurer or an authorised NOHC;
(e) a life company (within the meaning of the Life Insurance Act 1995), a registered NOHC (within the meaning of that Act) or a subsidiary of a life company or a registered NOHC;
(f a superannuation entity or a trustee of a superannuation entity;
(g) an entity prescribed by the regulations for the purposes of this paragraph.
(1) Each of the following is an eligible recipient in relation to a regulated entity that is a body corporate:
(a) an officer or senior manager of the body corporate or a related body corporate;
(b) an auditor, or a member of an audit team conducting an audit, of the body corporate or a related body corporate;
(c) an actuary of the body corporate or a related body corporate;
(d) a person authorised by the body corporate to receive disclosures that may qualify for protection under this Part.
(2) Each of the following is an eligible recipient in relation to a regulated entity that is a superannuation entity:
(a) an officer of the superannuation entity;
(b) an auditor, or a member of an audit team conducting an audit, of the superannuation entity;
(c) an actuary of the superannuation entity;
(d) an individual who is a trustee (within the meaning of the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act 1993) of the superannuation entity;
(e) a director of a body corporate that is the trustee (within the meaning of the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act 1993) of the superannuation entity;
(f) a person authorised by the trustee or trustees (within the meaning of the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act 1993) of the superannuation entity to receive disclosures that may qualify for protection under this Part.
(3) The regulations may prescribe persons or bodies that are eligible recipients in relation to all regulated entities, or in relation to a class or classes of regulated entities.
(4) Subsections (1), (2) and (3) do not limit each other.
(a) Mr Love had a workplace right to make disclosures qualifying for protection under Pt 9.4AAA of the Corporations Act;
(b) Mr Love had exercised that right; and/or
(c) to prevent Mr Love from exercising, or alternatively further exercising, that right.
The presently critical aspect of para (d) of the definition of 'workplace law' is the term 'law of the Commonwealth'. In Clyde Engineering Company Ltd v Cowburn (1926) 37 CLR 466 at 497, Isaacs J said:
[T]he 'law' is not the piece of parchment or paper, nor is it the letters and words and figures printed upon the material. It consists of the 'rule' resolved upon and adopted by the legislative organ of the community as that which is to be observed, positively and negatively, by action or inaction according to the tenor of the rule adopted. Constitutions may prescribe, and do prescribe, how that rule shall be arrived at and how evidenced. But 'the law' is essentially the rule itself, and not the material evidence of it.
See also Momcilovic v The Queen (2011) 245 CLR 1 at [226]-[233] per Gummow J.
[t]o secure the benefit of the protections afforded by Pt 9.4AAA, the disclosure must qualify for protection by satisfying the requirements of s 1317AA of the [Corporations Act]. I consider these in more detail below. For the moment, it may be noted that the provisions of Pt 9.4AAA are not only concerned with employees. They extend to disclosures made by suppliers of goods and services to a company, and to employees of such suppliers, which have been made to ASIC, to the company's auditor, to a person authorised to receive such disclosures or to certain senior identified executives. Their object is not the regulation of relations between employees and employers. Rather, their object is to encourage compliance with the terms of the [Corporations Act] by giving statutory protection to 'whistleblowers'. It may be accepted that the provision recognises that employees of a company are likely to be such 'whistleblowers', and thus expressly refers to employees and provides for a right of reinstatement. But what is being regulated is not that employee's relationship with the company, but rather, and ultimately, that company's potential contravention of provisions of the [Corporations Act]. The relevance of an employee to the provisions contained in Pt 9.4AAA is to that person in his or her capacity as a whistleblower, who perhaps also happens to be an employee, rather than as someone employed by a company. As was the case in Australian Licenced Aircraft Engineers Association [v Sunstate Airlines (Qld) Pty Ltd (2012) 208 FCR 386], s 1317AA and Pt 9.4AAA more generally, deploy 'the status of an employer or employee' for the 'imposition of duties serving other ends', namely the regulation of corporate behaviour.
(emphasis added)
[t]he 'workplace rights' under paras (a), (b) and (c)(i) of s 341(1) are confined to rights, roles and responsibilities under, or arising from, workplace laws and workplace instruments. In contrast, s 341(1)(c)(ii) is not so confined, providing that an employee has a workplace right if the employee, 'is able to make a complaint or inquiry in relation to his or her employment'. There are three obvious potential sources of an employee's ability to make complaints which fall outside s 341(1)(a), (b) and (c)(i), but within (c)(ii). Those sources are legislative provisions that are not workplace laws, contractual terms providing a right to make complaints and the general law.
(emphasis added)
[i]n the first category, there are a number of legislative provisions of general application that encompass the making of complaints by employees in relation to their employment, but are not obviously identifiable as workplace laws. Examples are s 36(1) of the Privacy Act 1988 (Cth) (complaints about breaches of privacy) and s 1317AA of the Corporations Act 2001 (Cth) (disclosures by whistleblowers).
(emphasis added)
For [the respondents'] contentions to be so clearly correct that the Court can conclude the applicant's claims have no reasonable prospects of success, I consider they must persuade the Court that:
(a) the terms 'employer' and 'employee' in the definition of 'workplace law' in s 12 mean a common law employment relationship; and
(b) if they have this meaning, that the only tenable construction of (d) in the definition of 'workplace law' is that the other law must be one which only regulates the relationships of common law employees and employers, and not one - such as s 18 of the [Equal Opportunity Act] - that also regulates other workplace relationships, and other non-workplace relationships; or
(c) alternatively, that the other law is a workplace law only to the extent that it regulates the relationship of common law employees and employers, and not to the extent that it also regulates other workplace relationships.
Is there a prima facie case that the SMS respondents engaged in some or all of the post-commencement conduct because Mr Love exercised a workplace right for the purposes of s 340(1)(a)(ii) of the Fair Work Act?
In the meantime, we note that Structural Monitoring Systems PLC is a listed company and is required to update the market. As a result, we request that your clients urgently review and provide any comments on the attached draft ASX announcement by 9pm this evening (AEDT). Our client intends to make the announcement tomorrow morning.
(emphasis added)
The disclosure [that qualifies for protection under Pt 9.4AAA of the Corporations Act] was made. The disclosure related to the conduct of the investigation, and the procedural deficiencies in the investigation and the report, and the actions of the other members of the board in relation to the so-called findings of the report. The response, or a part of the response, that was made to those disclosures was to say, as we put it earlier to Mr Love, 'Look, either you go quietly now, or we're going to publish the report.' So the dissemination of the report was being used explicitly as a inducement to Mr Love to go voluntarily in order to avoid the dissemination of the report. That's how it's all linked together.
Mr Love's Corporations Act claim
1317AC Victimisation prohibited
Actually causing detriment to another person
(1) A person (the first person) contravenes this subsection if:
(a) the first person engages in conduct; and
(b) the first person's conduct causes any detriment to another person (the second person); and
(c) when the first person engages in the conduct, the first person believes or suspects that the second person or any other person made, may have made, proposes to make or could make a disclosure that qualifies for protection under this Part; and
(d) the belief or suspicion referred to in paragraph (c) is the reason, or part of the reason, for the conduct.
Note 1: Failure to comply with this subsection is an offence (see subsection 1311(1)).
Note 2: This subsection is also a civil penalty provision (see section 1317E). For relief from liability to a civil penalty relating to this subsection, see section 1317S.
1317AD Compensation and other remedies - circumstances in which an order may be made
(1) A court may make an order under section 1317AE in relation to a person (the first person) if:
(a) the first person engages in conduct (detrimental conduct) that:
(i) causes any detriment to another person (the second person); or
(ii) constitutes the making of a threat to cause any such detriment to another person (the second person); and
(b) when the first person engages in the detrimental conduct, the first person believes or suspects that the second person or any other person made, may have made, proposes to make or could make a disclosure that qualifies for protection under this Part; and
(c) the belief or suspicion referred to in paragraph (b) is the reason, or part of the reason, for the detrimental conduct.
...
Burden of proof
(2B) In proceedings where a person seeks an order under section 1317AE in relation to another person:
(a) the person seeking the order bears the onus of adducing or pointing to evidence that suggests a reasonable possibility of the matters in:
(i) if subsection (1) of this section applies - paragraph (1)(a); or
(ii) if subsection (2) of this section applies - paragraph (1)(a), as mentioned in paragraph (2)(b); or
(iii) if subsection (2A) of this section applies - paragraphs (2A)(a) and (d); and
(b) if that onus is discharged - the other person bears the onus of proving that the claim is not made out.
...
1317AE Compensation and other remedies - orders that may be made
(1) For the purposes of subsections 1317AD(1), (2) and (2A), a court may make any of the following orders:
(a) an order requiring the first person to compensate the second person, or any other person, for loss, damage or injury suffered as a result of the detrimental conduct;
...
(c) an order granting an injunction, on such terms as the court thinks appropriate, to prevent, stop or remedy the effects of the detrimental conduct;
Is there a serious question to be tried that the SMS respondents contravened s 1317AC(1)?
(a) terminate the Services Agreement;
(b) remove Mr Love as director, 'Executive Director' and CEO of SMS UK; and
(c) remove Mr Love as director, 'Executive Director' and CEO of SMS.
(a) Mr Love had exercised a right to make a disclosure that qualified for protection under Pt 9.4AAA of the Corporations Act; and
(b) Mr Love proposed, or has proposed, to exercise that right,
for the benefit of Turton.
In my view the removal of an employee from their employment against his or her will, even temporarily, will usually be adverse to their interests. To say otherwise would be to deny the benefit one gains from the successful pursuit of activity in a field of expertise. The observation that active employment is a source of more than simply financial benefit is neither new, nor should it be considered controversial.
I wish to continue fulfilling my obligations as Executive Chairman and Chief Executive Officer of the [SMS] Respondents.
I acknowledge that the Respondents' Materials includes assertions by certain employees of AEM and members of the SMS Board that they no longer wish to work with me. While I feel deeply saddened and disappointed that these employees and other directors have formed this view, I no longer need to have any interaction with employees of AEM and I believe that I can have a professional working relationship with members of the SMS Board. I feel very strongly about continuing to fulfil my obligations and doing what is best for AEM, SMS and its shareholders. I have formed this view based, amongst other things, on the email dated 28 September 2025 which is referred to and annexed in paragraphs 60 and 61 of the affidavit of Sam Wright dated 22 October 2025, in which Mr Wright, the other Australian-based director of SMS, said that 'From [his] perspective, we can still move forward in a balanced and constructive way.'
I am willing to continue my roles and obligations in a more flexible arrangement, in circumstances where there is a limited need for me to have dealings with AEM employees and the other SMS directors outside of Board meetings and the AGM because:
(a) I do not intend to travel to Kelowna, or to visit AEM's physical offices, and can perform my role remotely from Australia;
(b) a new CEO has been appointed for AEM, Rick Freeman, with whom I have a professional working relationship and who commenced as CEO of AEM following the conclusion of the investigation. My role as Chairman of SMS can be effectively fulfilled entirely through communication with Mr Freeman, meaning that I do not need to have any direct contact with [an AEM employee] or any other AEM employees; and
(c) for instances in which I am required to participate, such as Board meetings and any AGM, I am prepared to attend these meetings remotely through an audio-visual link such that no direct, in-person contact is required if that is the preference of the other Board members.
(a) In his capacity as a Director, act as the Chairman of the Board of Directors of the Company and in that role perform all duties ordinarily required of a Chairman of an ASX listed company and oversee compliance.
(b) In his capacity as an Executive, perform all duties ordinarily required of a Chief Executive Officer of an ASX Company and take responsibility and leadership of the corporate and operational functions of the Company to maximise returns to shareholders. These duties will include but not be limited to overseeing the development and commercialisation [of] the Company's CVM Technology, overseeing the performance and growth [of] the Company's subsidiaries (in particular, AEM) as well as considering suitable merger and acquisition opportunities.
I certify that the preceding one hundred and seventy-nine (179) numbered paragraphs are a true copy of the Reasons for Judgment of the Honourable Justice Vandongen.
Love
Structural Monitoring Systems PLC [2025] FCA 1665
(2001) 208 CLR 199
(2006) 227 CLR 57
(1968) 118 CLR 618
(2017) 255 FCR 96
(2021) 287 FCR 181
(2020) 274 FCR 225
(2011) 217 FCR 238
(2015) 233 FCR 46
(2006) 15 VR 65
(1926) 37 CLR 466
(2011) 245 CLR 1
(2020) 277 FCR 223
(2013) 216 FCR 70
(1986) 161 CLR 148
(2008) 168 FCR 340
(2012) 208 FCR 386