[2025] FCA 1017
General information, not legal advice.
Federal Court of Australia
2025-08-26
Jackman J
Original judgment source is linked above.
Australian Building and Construction Commissioner v Construction, Forestry, Mining and Energy Union [2017] FCAFC 113; (2017) 254 FCR 68
Australian Building and Construction Commissioner v Construction, Forestry, Mining and Energy Union [2018] HCA 3; (2018) 262 CLR 157
Australian Building and Construction Commissioner v Pattinson [2022] HCA 13; (2022) 274 CLR 450
Australian Competition and Consumer Commission v Master Wealth Control Pty Ltd (Penalty) [2024] FCA 795
Australian Competition and Consumer Commission v Mercedes-Benz Australia/Pacific Pty Ltd [2022] FCA 1059; (2022) 163 ACSR 645
Australian Competition and Consumer Commission v Samsung Electronics Australia Pty Ltd [2022] FCA 875
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Chemeq Ltd [2006] FCA 936; (2006) 234 ALR 511
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Citrofresh International Ltd (No 3) [2010] FCA 292; (2010) 268 ALR 303
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Holista Colltech Ltd (No 2) [2024] FCA 516
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v LGSS Pty Ltd (No 3) [2025] FCA 205
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v TerraCom Ltd [2025] FCA 726
Commonwealth v Director, Fair Work Building Industry Inspectorate [2015] HCA 46; (2015) 258 CLR 482
Flight Centre Ltd v Australian Competition and Consumer Commission (No 2) [2018] FCAFC 53; (2018) 260 FCR 68
Glencore International AG v Federal Commissioner of Taxation [2019] HCA 26; (2019) 265 CLR 646
McDonald v Australian Building and Construction Commissioner [2011] FCAFC 29; (2011) 202 IR 467
NW Frozen Foods Pty Ltd v Australian Competition and Consumer Commission [1996] FCA 1134; (1996) 71 FCR 285
Singtel Optus Pty Ltd v Australian Competition and Consumer Commission [2012] FCAFC 20; (2012) 287 ALR 249
TerraCom Ltd v Australian Securities and Investments Commission [2022] FCA 208; (2022) 401 ALR 143
TerraCom Ltd v Australian Securities and Investments Commission [2022] FCAFC 151
The Daniels Corporation International Pty Ltd v Australian Competition and Consumer Commission [2002] HCA 49; (2002) 213 CLR 543
Trade Practices Commission v CSR Ltd [1990] FCA 762; [1991] ATPR 41-076
Volkswagen Aktiengesellschaft v Australian Competition and Consumer Commission [2021] FCAFC 49; (2021) 151 ACSR 407
Watson v Greenwoods & Herbert Smith Freehills Pty Ltd [2023] FCAFC 132; (2013) 413 ALR 227
AUSTRALIAN SECURITIES AND INVESTMENTS COMMISSION
NATHAN REECE TIMOTHY BOOM (and others named in the Schedule)
(a) "Act" means the Corporations Act 2001 (Cth).
(b) "Whistleblower Allegations" has the meaning given to it in para [37] of the SAFA.
(a) an ASX announcement dated 24 February 2020;
(b) an "Open Letter to TerraCom Shareholders" published in the Australian Financial Review and The Australian on 12 March 2020; and
(c) an ASX announcement dated 3 April 2020
(Announcements)
in circumstances where:
(d) Mr Justin Williams (Mr Williams) was an eligible whistleblower in relation to TerraCom under s 1317AAA of the Act;
(e) Mr Williams had reasonable grounds to suspect that the Whistleblower Allegations concerned an improper state of affairs or circumstances in relation to TerraCom, pursuant to s 1317AA(4) of the Act, and his communication of the Whistleblower Allegations to TerraCom was thus a qualifying disclosure within the meaning of s 1317AA of the Act;
(f) TerraCom believed or suspected that Mr Williams may have made a qualifying disclosure;
(g) the tone and content of the Announcements caused detriment to Mr Williams in the form of hurt, humiliation, distress and embarrassment, and damage to reputation; and
(h) TerraCom's belief or suspicion that a qualifying disclosure may have been made by Mr Williams was part of the reason for publishing or causing to be published the Announcements.
Note: Entry of orders is dealt with in Rule 39.32 of the Federal Court Rules 2011.
(a) Mr Williams had alleged in court proceedings that TerraCom was involved in a scheme relating to the "fake analysis of coal samples";
(b) TerraCom categorically denied the allegations made by Mr Williams;
(c) Mr Williams was made redundant in August 2019;
(d) it was subsequent to his redundancy that Mr Williams falsely alleged that TerraCom altered reports about the quality of its coal exports;
(e) Mr Williams' allegations were false;
(f) TerraCom had the conduct of its employees independently investigated; and
(g) TerraCom believed that the allegations made by Mr Williams were totally unfounded.
(a) TerraCom continued to categorically deny the allegations made by Mr Williams;
(b) Mr Williams initiated proceedings only after TerraCom decided not to meet his demands, which apart from wanting his job back, included a request for a $5,000,000 financial payment in return for not pursuing TerraCom over his dismissal; and
(c) TerraCom understood that Mr Williams had been unsuccessful with similar allegations in the past about other coal mining companies for which he had worked;
(d) TerraCom took the allegations that its CEO and CFO had been involved in a scheme relating to the fake analysis of coal samples seriously and had an independent investigation conducted which found no evidence of wrongdoing; and
(e) none of TerraCom's customers had raised quality control issues with the coal exported by TerraCom.
(a) TerraCom took the allegations by Mr Williams that its CEO and CFO had been involved in a scheme relating to the fake analysis of coal samples seriously and an independent forensic investigation was conducted;
(b) the investigation found that the allegations against them were unfounded and neither had done anything wrong;
(c) some of TerraCom's customers also asked for additional coal samples to be tested, and in every instance, they found no quality control issues;
(d) Mr McCarthy had said that, during his time as CEO, "there has not been an occasion whereby clients have complained about the quality of the coal as certified by the Certificate of Analysis (COA)" and that "[i]n the one recent instance where a customer requested three shipments be 'Umpire tested' ... the Umpire results aligned with and were consistent with the certified (COA) results used for the basis of invoicing and payment"; and
(e) Mr Williams' allegations were made only after he was dismissed as part of a Company-wide redundancy program.
These new provisions effected material changes which included, without being exhaustive: (1) the widening of the scope of what disclosures qualify for protection: s 1317AA; (2) orders for compensation can now be made without any contravention of the offence provision being established: s 1317AD; (3) it is now sufficient to establish that detrimental conduct occurred because the wrongdoer "believes or suspects" that the whistleblower or any other person "made, may have made, proposes to make or could make a disclosure", rather than needing to establish that the conduct occurred because of the disclosure: s 1317AC(1)(c); accordingly, the whistleblower need not have made a disclosure before the detrimental conduct occurred, but rather the detrimental conduct may have occurred because the wrongdoer believes or suspects the whistleblower "may have made, proposes to make or could make" a disclosure; (4) the burden of proof applicable to compensation orders has been modified such that the whistleblower need only adduce evidence that suggests a "reasonable possibility" that the detrimental conduct occurred, at which point the wrongdoer assumes an onus to negative the claim: s 1317AD(2B); and (5) failure to comply with s 1312AC gives rise to civil penalties where previously non-compliance constituted an offence (see s 1311(1)) (as it still does) but did not give rise to a civil penalty.
1.3 Often [corporate] wrongdoing only comes to light because of individuals who are prepared to disclose it, sometimes at great personal and financial risk.
1.4 To reduce these risks and encourage disclosure of wrongdoing, Australia and many other countries have statutory whistleblower regimes with legally enforceable protections for people who make disclosures. These regimes recognise the critical role whistleblowing can play in the early detection and prosecution of misconduct in businesses... The existence of strong statutory protections to encourage whistleblowing can improve compliance with the law and promote a more ethical culture because individuals know there is a higher likelihood that misconduct will be reported.
1317AC Victimisation prohibited
Actually causing detriment to another person
(1) A person (the first person) contravenes this subsection if:
(a) the first person engages in conduct; and
(b) the first person's conduct causes any detriment to another person (the second person); and
(c) when the first person engages in the conduct, the first person believes or suspects that the second person or any other person made, may have made, proposes to make or could make a disclosure that qualifies for protection under this Part; and
(d) the belief or suspicion referred to in paragraph (c) is the reason, or part of the reason, for the conduct.
1317AA Disclosures qualifying for protection under this Part
Disclosure to ASIC, APRA or prescribed body
(1) A disclosure of information by an individual (the discloser) qualifies for protection under this Part if:
(a) the discloser is an eligible whistleblower in relation to a regulated entity; and
(b) the disclosure is made to any of the following:
(i) ASIC;
... ; and
(c) subsection (4) or (5) applies to the disclosure.
(2) A disclosure of information by an individual (the discloser) qualifies for protection under this Part if:
(a) the discloser is an eligible whistleblower in relation to a regulated entity; and
(b) the disclosure is made to an eligible recipient in relation to the regulated entity; and
(c) subsection (4) or (5) applies to the disclosure.
(4) This subsection applies to a disclosure of information if the discloser has reasonable grounds to suspect that the information concerns misconduct, or an improper state of affairs or circumstances, in relation to:
(a) the regulated entity; or
(b) if the regulated entity is a body corporate - a related body corporate of the regulated entity.
(5) Without limiting subsection (4), this subsection applies to a disclosure of information if the discloser has reasonable grounds to suspect that the information indicates that any of the following:
(a) the regulated entity, or an officer or employee of the regulated entity;
(b) if the regulated entity is a body corporate - a related body corporate of the regulated entity, or an officer or employee of a related body corporate of the regulated entity;
has engaged in conduct that:
(c) constitutes an offence against, or a contravention of, a provision of any of the
(i) this Act;
(ii) the ASIC Act;
...
(d) constitutes an offence against any other law of the Commonwealth that is
punishable by imprisonment for a period of 12 months or more; or
(e) represents a danger to the public or the financial system; or
(f) is prescribed by the regulations for the purposes of this paragraph.
(1) Each of the following is an eligible recipient in relation to a regulated entity that is a body corporate:
(a) an officer or senior manager of the body corporate or a related body corporate;
...
(d) a person authorised by the body corporate to receive disclosures that may qualify for protection under this Part.
(a) as someone who had been made redundant, when he believed he had been terminated for whistleblowing;
(b) as someone willing to make unfounded accusations of serious wrongdoing for personal gain in circumstances where, contrary to what was published in the Announcements, the findings of the PwC Report at least partially supported Mr Williams' allegations and did not conclude that his allegations were "unfounded"; and
(c) (in the case of the Open Letter) as someone who had initiated proceedings only after TerraCom decided not to meet his demands to be reinstated to his role at TerraCom and to be paid $5,000,000, when the reference to $5,000,000 had been made in a confidential and privileged mediation conducted after he had filed a Fair Work Commission conciliation application.
[125] First, the Court must be persuaded that the penalty proposed by the parties is appropriate...
[126] Second, if the Court is persuaded of the accuracy of the parties' agreement as to facts and consequences, and that the agreed penalty jointly proposed is an appropriate remedy in all the circumstances, it would be highly desirable in practice for the Court to accept the parties' proposal and therefore impose the proposed penalty...
[127] Third, in considering whether the agreed and jointly proposed penalty is an appropriate penalty, it is necessary to bear in mind that there is no single appropriate penalty. Rather, there is a permissible range of penalties within which no particular figure can necessarily be said to be more appropriate than another. The permissible range is determined by all the relevant facts and consequences of the contravention and the contravener's circumstances. An agreed and jointly proposed penalty may be considered to be "an" appropriate penalty if it falls within that permissible range... It is unlikely to be considered an appropriate penalty if it falls outside that range.
...
[129] Fourth, in considering whether the proposed agreed penalty is an appropriate penalty, the Court should generally recognise that the agreed penalty is most likely the result of compromise and pragmatism on the part of the regulator, and to reflect, amongst other things, the regulator's considered estimation of the penalty necessary to achieve deterrence and the risks and expense of the litigation had it not been settled... The fact that the agreed penalty is likely to be the product of compromise and pragmatism also informs the Court's task when faced with a proposed agreed penalty. The regulator's submissions, or joint submissions, must be assessed on their merits, and the Court must be wary of the possibility that the agreed penalty may be the product of the regulator having been too pragmatic in reaching the settlement...
1317E Declaration of contravention of a civil penalty provision
Declaration of contravention
(1) If a Court is satisfied that a person has contravened a civil penalty provision, the Court must make a declaration of contravention.
(2) The declaration must specify the following:
(a) the Court that made the declaration;
(b) the civil penalty provision that was contravened;
(c) the person who contravened the provision;
(d) the conduct that constituted the contravention;
Declarations relating to contraventions of legislative provisions are likely to be appropriate where they serve to record the Court's disapproval of the contravening conduct, vindicate the regulator's claim that the respondent contravened the provisions, assist the regulator to carry out its duties, and deter other persons from contravening the provisions...
1317G Pecuniary penalty orders
Court may order person to pay pecuniary penalty
(1) A Court may order a person to pay to the Commonwealth a pecuniary penalty in relation to the contravention of a civil penalty provision if:
(a) a declaration of contravention of the civil penalty provision by the person has been made under section 1317E;
(2) The pecuniary penalty must not exceed the pecuniary penalty applicable to the contravention of the civil penalty provision.
...
Pecuniary penalty applicable to the contravention of a civil penalty provision - by a body corporate
(4) The pecuniary penalty applicable to the contravention of a civil penalty provision by a body corporate is the greatest of:
(a) 50,000 penalty units; and
(b) if the Court can determine the benefit derived and detriment avoided because of the contravention - that amount multiplied by 3; and
(i) 10% of the annual turnover of the body corporate for the 12-month period ending at the end of the month in which the body corporate contravened, or began to contravene, the civil penalty provision; or
(ii) if the amount worked out under subparagraph (i) is greater than an amount equal to 2.5 million penalty units - 2.5 million penalty units.
(6) In determining the pecuniary penalty, the Court must take into account all relevant matters, including:
(a) the nature and extent of the contravention; and
(b) the nature and extent of any loss or damage suffered because of the contravention; and
(c) the circumstances in which the contravention took place; and
(d) whether the person has previously been found by a court (including a court in a foreign country) to have engaged in similar conduct; ...
(a) the nature and extent of the contravening conduct;
(b) the amount of loss or damage caused;
(c) the circumstances in which the conduct took place;
(d) the size of the contravening company;
(e) the degree of power it has, as evidenced by its market share and ease of entry into the market;
(f) the deliberateness of the contravention and the period over which it extended;
(g) whether the contravention arose out of the conduct of senior management or at a lower level;
(h) whether the company has a corporate culture conducive to compliance with the Act, as evidenced by educational programs and disciplinary or other corrective measures in response to an acknowledged contravention; and
(i) whether the company has shown a disposition to cooperate with the relevant regulator in relation to the contravention.
Nature and extent of the contravening conduct
Circumstances in which the conduct took place
Whether TerraCom has previously been found by a court to have engaged in similar conduct
Whether the contravention arose out of the conduct of senior management or arose at a lower level
Whether TerraCom has a corporate culture conducive to compliance
Whether TerraCom showed a disposition to co-operate with ASIC in relation to the contravention
I certify that the preceding sixty-seven (67) numbered paragraphs are a true copy of the Reasons for Judgment of the Honourable Justice Jackman.
Australian Securities and Investments Commission
TerraCom Ltd
(2002) 213 CLR 543
(2013) 413 ALR 227
(2017) 254 FCR 68
(2018) 262 CLR 157
(2022) 274 CLR 450
(2006) 234 ALR 511
(2010) 268 ALR 303
(2015) 258 CLR 482
(2018) 260 FCR 68
(2019) 265 CLR 646
(2011) 202 IR 467
(1996) 71 FCR 285
(2012) 287 ALR 249
(2022) 401 ALR 143