[2025] FCA 1592
General information, not legal advice.
Federal Court of Australia
2025-12-19
Beach J
Original judgment source is linked above.
CORPORATIONS - primary market for Commonwealth Treasury bonds - secondary market for Commonwealth Treasury bonds - bank acting as duration manager - supply of financial services to the Australian Office of Financial Management, a department of the Commonwealth Treasury - unconscionable conduct concerning the issuance of December 2034 Treasury bonds - hedging strategy of bank - false or misleading representations made to the AOFM about the bank's secondary market bond turnover - failure to make a report as to a reportable situation in relation to such turnover - breach of Australian financial services licence obligations - contraventions of ss 12CB(1) and 12DB(1) of the Australian Securities and Investments Commission Act 2001 (Cth) - contraventions of ss 912A, 912DAA and 1041H of the Corporations Act 2001 (Cth) - admitted conduct - fixing of pecuniary penalties - penalty principles - orders made
Evidence Act 1995 (Cth) s 191(3)(a)
Australian Building and Construction Commissioner v Construction, Forestry, Mining and Energy Union and Another (2018) 262 CLR 157
Australian Building and Construction Commissioner v Pattinson [2022] HCA 13; (2022) 274 CLR 450
Australian Competition and Consumer Commission v J McPhee & Son (Australia) Pty Ltd (No 5) [1998] FCA 310; [1998] ATPR 41-628
Australian Competition and Consumer Commission v Virgin Mobile Australia Pty Ltd [No 2] [2002] FCA 1548
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v AGM Markets Pty Ltd (in liq) (No 3) [2020] FCA 208; (2020) 275 FCR 57
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Australia and New Zealand Banking Group Ltd [2017] FCA 1338; (2017) 123 ACSR 341
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Australia and New Zealand Banking Group Limited [2018] FCA 155
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Australia and New Zealand Banking Group Ltd (No 3) [2020] FCA 1421
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Australia and New Zealand Banking Group Ltd [2022] FCA 1251; (2022) 164 ACSR 428
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Australia and New Zealand Banking Group Limited [2023] FCA 256
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Australia and New Zealand Banking Group Limited [2023] FCA 1150; (2023) 169 ACSR 649
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Australia and New Zealand Banking Group Limited (No 3) [2023] FCA 1565
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Kobelt (2019) 267 CLR 1
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Superannuation Warehouse Australia Pty Ltd [2015] FCA 1167; (2015) 109 ACSR 199
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v United Super Pty Ltd [2025] FCA 1453
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Westpac Banking Corporation (No 2) [2018] FCA 751; (2018) 266 FCR 147
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Westpac Banking Corporation (No 3) [2018] FCA 1701; (2018) 131 ACSR 585
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Westpac Securities Administration Ltd [2019] FCAFC 187; (2019) 272 FCR 170
Commonwealth v Director, Fair Work Building Industry Inspectorate [2015] HCA 46; (2015) 258 CLR 482
Forster v Jododex Australia Pty Ltd [1972] HCA 61; (1972) 127 CLR 421
Productivity Partners Pty Ltd v Australian Competition and Consumer Commission [2024] HCA 27; (2024) 419 ALR 30
Societe Civile et Agricole du Vieux Chateau Certan v Kreglinger (Australia) Pty Ltd [2024] FCA 248; (2024) 172 ACSR 357; (2024) 179 IPR 226
Volkswagen Aktiengesellschaft v Australian Competition and Consumer Commission [2021] FCAFC 49; 284 FCR 24
Mr P Collinson KC, Mr L Livingston SC and Ms J Granger
IN THE MATTER OF AUSTRALIA AND NEW ZEALAND BANKING GROUP LIMITED (ACN 005 357 522)
AUSTRALIAN SECURITIES AND INVESTMENTS COMMISSION
AUSTRALIA AND NEW ZEALAND BANKING GROUP LIMITED (ACN 005 357 522)
(a) ANZ means Australia and New Zealand Banking Group Limited ACN 005 357 522.
(b) AOFM means the Australian Office of Financial Management, a department of Commonwealth Treasury.
(c) ASIC Act means the Australian Securities and Investments Commission Act 2001 (Cth).
(d) Corporations Act means the Corporations Act 2001 (Cth).
(e) December 2034 Treasury Bonds means the Treasury bonds issued by the AOFM with a maturity date of December 2034 and which were priced on 19 April 2023.
(f) Secondary market bond turnover means the buying and selling of Treasury bonds and other Australian Government Securities to and from intermediaries (market makers) to clients, such as investment funds, asset managers, central banks, and other financial institutions.
(g) SAFA means the statement of agreed facts and admissions signed and tendered by the parties pursuant to s 191 of the Evidence Act 1995 (Cth).
(h) Treasury bonds are medium to long-term debt securities which provide a fixed rate of interest, paid semi-annually to the investor. Treasury bonds are also referred to as Australian Government bonds or Australian Commonwealth Government bonds. Treasury bonds are financial products under s 12BAA of the ASIC Act and s 764A of the Corporations Act.
(a) in the context where: (i) ANZ represented to the AOFM it would be transparent with the AOFM, as set out in the SAFA; (ii) ANZ had the knowledge as set out in the SAFA; and (iii) the AOFM was situationally vulnerable, as a result of ANZ's failure to disclose to the AOFM ANZ's trading intentions and pre-hedging progress, ANZ's failure to inform the AOFM of ANZ's intention to engage in significant hedging up to and during the pricing call and ANZ's failure to provide an opportunity to the AOFM to consult regarding the indicative time for the pricing call;
(b) where ANZ's conduct as duration manager and ANZ's manner of trading breached ANZ's own policies for hedging, breached industry guidance and was outside the range of ordinary behaviour of duration managers appointed by the AOFM;
(c) where ANZ failed to inform the AOFM of the state of its hedging when proposing or confirming the time for the pricing call, as set out in the SAFA, failed to propose to delay the pricing call and/or failed to modify its strategy of being fully hedged by the time of pricing, without disclosing that to the AOFM;
(d) where ANZ's conduct involved (i) trading a low volume of bond futures earlier in the day, despite opportunities being available for it to sell more; (ii) instead, trading a significant volume of bond futures in a compressed time period ahead of and during the pricing call, which it knew would, or was highly likely to, have a downward impact on the price of 10-year Australian bond futures, without disclosing that to the AOFM; and (iii) trading a significant volume of bond futures during the pricing call and placing downward pressure on the reference price at the time of pricing; and
(e) where ANZ made to the AOFM, post-transaction, misleading representations about the circumstances of ANZ's trading, as set out in the SAFA.
(a) on 23 occasions, data on a monthly basis about ANZ's secondary market bond turnover in the period from July 2021 to May 2023;
(b) on 19 August 2022, an annual attestation about ANZ's secondary market bond turnover for FY22 (July 2021 to June 2022);
which inaccurately represented the volumes of trading, and the counterparties and geographic locations for such trading, conducted by ANZ during the period to which each submission related, as set out in the SAFA.
(a) on 3 occasions between 20 April 2023 and 3 May 2023, in reports provided by ANZ to the AOFM, making representations which were misleading or deceptive in describing, or were misleading or deceptive by omission in respect of, ANZ's trading activities as duration manager for the December 2034 Treasury Bond issuance, as set out in the SAFA;
(b) on 23 occasions between September 2021 to June 2023, submitting data on a monthly basis to the AOFM about ANZ's secondary market bond turnover in the period from July 2021 to May 2023 which inaccurately represented the volumes of trading, and the counterparties and geographic locations for such trading, conducted by ANZ during the period to which each submission related, as set out in the SAFA; and
(c) on one occasion, on 19 August 2022, submitting to the AOFM an annual attestation about ANZ's secondary market bond turnover which misrepresented that its monthly survey data for FY22 was accurate, as set out in the SAFA.
(a) engaging in the conduct in connection with the supply of financial services to the AOFM (representing the Commonwealth of Australia) relating to the issuance of December 2034 Treasury Bonds, that was, in all the circumstances, unconscionable;
(b) providing reports to the AOFM between 20 April 2023 and 3 May 2023 which were misleading or deceptive in describing, or were misleading or deceptive by omission in respect of, ANZ's trading activities as duration manager for the December 2034 Treasury Bond issuance;
(c) failing to adequately prevent, supervise, monitor, review, or identify the conduct set out in paragraphs 1 and 3(a) above; and
(d) failing to adequately implement or enforce its policies and procedures regarding material size transactions, reference price transactions and communications with clients.
(a) making the representations to the AOFM about its secondary market bond turnover that were false or misleading, as set out in paragraph 2 above;
(b) engaging in misleading or deceptive conduct, as set out in paragraphs 3(b) and 3(c) above;
(c) failing to have adequate processes and procedures in place to prepare, review and verify the secondary market bond turnover data being submitted to the AOFM to ensure that it was accurate;
(d) failing to adequately monitor and supervise staff, to ensure that the secondary market bond turnover data was submitted to the AOFM accurately;
(e) failing to ensure that staff who were responsible for the submission of the data were adequately trained or competent;
(f) failing to conduct risk or assurance reviews of the processes and procedures to ensure that misleading information was not provided to the AOFM in connection with ANZ's secondary market bond turnover data; and
(g) failing to take adequate steps to identify and to address the root causes of the misreporting and failing to escalate the issue for further risk assessment and compliance review, even when the scale of the inaccuracies in the secondary market bond turnover data submitted by ANZ to the AOFM for FY23 was identified and the AOFM was provided updated data for that financial year on 15 August 2023.
(a) Within four months of the date of these Orders or such other time as agreed in writing between ASIC and ANZ, ANZ will undertake a self-assessment and prepare a report (ANZ Report), having regard to relevant Australian laws and Australian and global regulatory and industry guidance, assessing the adequacy and effectiveness of ANZ's application of the systems, controls, policies, procedures, training, guidance and framework for monitoring and supervision of employees, and governance in ANZ Institutional Bank to prevent, detect and respond to risks of:
(i) trading, in the context of pre-hedging of Australian material size transactions, including reference price transactions, that exerts undue pressure on price or results in materially higher market volatility or disruption of the reference price around the reference time; and
(ii) disclosures to clients before, during and after the pre-hedging of Australian material size transactions including reference price transactions about that pre-hedging which are misleading or not clear, accurate and fulsome.
(b) Within two months of the finalisation of the ANZ Report or such other time as agreed in writing between ASIC and ANZ, ANZ will instruct the independent expert to:
(i) having regard to the ANZ Report, relevant Australian laws and Australian and global regulatory and industry guidance, independently assess the adequacy and effectiveness of ANZ's application of the systems, controls, policies, procedures, training, guidance and framework for monitoring and supervision of employees, and governance in ANZ Institutional Bank to prevent, detect and respond to risks set out in sub paragraph (a);
(ii) within three months provide a written report (Expert Report) to ASIC and ANZ which sets out the results of the assessment and identifies any deficiencies and make recommendations to address those deficiencies.
(c) In relation to any deficiencies identified in the Expert Report, ANZ will action all reasonable recommendations of the independent expert to address those deficiencies within six months of receiving the Expert Report. Where applicable, ANZ will provide a statement to ASIC explaining why a recommendation has not been adopted or implemented.
(d) The appointment and terms of engagement of the independent expert are to be approved by ASIC in accordance with the terms set out in the Annexure to these orders.

Note: Entry of orders is dealt with in Rule 39.32 of the Federal Court Rules 2011.
ANZ's role on the 21 December 2034 maturing treasury bond issuance by the AOFM
certainly try and maintain and manage the risk in a way that is of the least impact to the market and we keep an open and consistent dialogue both with yourselves and myself and the trader who will be looking after the risk.
Duration management execution effectively operates as a reference price transaction, where there is no margin other than being set on the bid side of the futures. ..... There are a number of ways of going about executing this, with important (and often conflicting) considerations. Clearly the least risky approach for ANZ is sell all the risk in as small as possible a window just around time of pricing. However, this course of action will certainly disturb orderly functioning of the market, likely create jump discontinuity in price, and reflect poorly on the overall market, let alone the impact to AOFM in respect of price. The converse would be ANZ selling the risk over a period of days leading into pricing. This would enable a smooth execution with very little impact to the market, but would expose ANZ to very material market risk. Risk which is not priced given we are only getting set off the bid side of futures. The correct approach therefore lies somewhere in the middle, with strategy on any particular occasion subject to market conditions and liquidity at that prevailing time.
ANZ's material size transaction guidelines, applicable ANZ policies, and industry guidance
You must communicate in a manner that is clear, accurate, professional, and not misleading.
Sub-principle i) ... to support the accuracy and integrity of information, you should: ... not communicate false information.
18 April 2023: December 2034 Treasury bonds launched
Conduct amounting to unconscionable conduct (s 12CB)
(1) A person must not, in trade or commerce, in connection with:
(a) the supply or possible supply of financial services to a person; or
(b) the acquisition or possible acquisition of financial services from a person;
engage in conduct that is, in all the circumstances, unconscionable.
Misleading conduct and false representations (s 1041H and s 12DB) - introduction
(1) A person must not, in this jurisdiction, engage in conduct, in relation to a financial product or a financial service, that is misleading or deceptive or is likely to mislead or deceive.
(1) A person must not, in trade or commerce, in connection with the supply or possible supply of financial services, or in connection with the promotion by any means of the supply or use of financial services:
(a) make a false or misleading representation that services are of a particular standard, quality, value or grade...
As to the requirement that conduct be "in connection with" the supply or acquisition, or possible supply or acquisition, of financial services, an analogous requirement in s 51AC of the Trade Practices Act was considered in Monroe Topple & Associates Pty Ltd v Institute of Chartered Accountants in Australia (2002) 122 FCR 110. Heerey J held that the expression required that "the conduct impugned 'accompany, go with or be involved in' the supply of goods or services" (at [74]). That observation does not support a narrow or technical approach to the expression. It was made in the context of distinguishing conduct directed at the recipient of the relevant goods or services, and conduct directed at (and only said to be unconscionable in relation to) an unrelated third party. Of course, the expression "in connection with" requires a relation between one thing and another, but the specific degree of connection required understandably varies with the statutory context. But a causal relationship is not required. And no narrow approach is warranted having regard to the protective objects of the provision. In particular, I agree with ASIC that there is no basis for implying into the expression "in connection with" a requirement that conduct said to be unconscionable must have occurred prior to the relevant supply or acquisition of financial services. Such a temporal constraint would be artificial and inconsistent with the following matters. First, the generality of the statutory text directs attention to "all the circumstances". Second, the list of factors expressly identified as relevant to whether s 12CB (or s 12CC) has been breached includes "any conduct that the supplier [or acquirer] or the service recipient [or business supplier] engaged in, in connection with their commercial relationship, after they entered into the contract"; see ss 12CC(2)(j)(iv) and 12CC(3)(j)(iv) (prior to 1 January 2012), and ss 12CC(1)(j)(iv) and s 12CC(2)(j)(iv) (post 1 January 2012). Third, the terms of s 12CB(3)(a) prohibit a court from considering "any circumstances that were not reasonably foreseeable at the time of the alleged contravention". Such a provision implicitly permits prospective matters to be taken into account. Further, the reference time is not the time of entry into of a dealing but the time of the alleged contravention. Fourth, the very terms of s 12CB(4)(c)(ii) state that "in considering whether conduct to which a contract relates is unconscionable, a court's consideration of the contract ... is not limited to consideration of the circumstances relating to formation of the contract".
Let me say the following concerning the elements of s 1041H.
First, the concept of "engaging in conduct" is broad. It is defined inclusively by s 1041H(2)(a) of the Corporations Act to include "dealing in a financial product". Further, "this jurisdiction" is, relevantly, Australia (s 5(2)).
Second, the expression "in relation to" is of wide ambit. Now it is trite to observe that its meaning will be determined by the context. The phrase signifies the need for there to be a relationship or correlation between the two subjects formally referenced. Moreover, an indirect or less than substantial connection may be sufficient.
More generally, the relevant principles are largely the same as those which apply to s 18 of the Australian Consumer Law. In ACCC v Get Qualified Australia Pty Ltd (in liq) (No 2) [2017] FCA 709; [2017] ATPR 42-548 at [25]- [42], I summarised the relevant principles in the following terms which no party in the present proceeding contested.
First, there is no meaningful difference between the words and phrases "misleading or deceptive", "mislead or deceive" or "false or misleading".
Second, where the issue is the effect of conduct on a class of persons rather than identified individuals to whom a particular misrepresentation has been made or particular conduct directed, the effect of the conduct or representations upon ordinary or reasonable members of that class must be considered. This hypothetical construct avoids using the very ignorant (or gullible) or the very knowledgeable (or astute) to assess effect or likely effect; it also avoids using those credited with habitual caution or exceptional carelessness; it also avoids considering the assumptions of persons which are extreme or fanciful. The objective characteristics that one attributes to ordinary or reasonable members of the relevant class may also differ depending on the medium for communication being considered. There is scope for diversity of response both within the same medium and across different media.
Third, in considering the hypothetical ordinary and reasonable member of the relevant class, one considers the dominant message conveyed. The question is whether there is a real rather than a remote possibility of the member of the relevant class being misled or deceived by the relevant conduct or statement. In the present context, does the relevant conduct or statement have a tendency to lead persons of the relevant class into error?
Fourth, conduct that exploits the mistaken views of members of the relevant class may be misleading or deceptive or likely to mislead or deceive and may not be corrected by any obscure fine print, whether in content, size or location, that sets out the true position.
Fifth, for the purposes of the relevant provision, one must identify the relevant conduct and then consider whether that conduct, considered as a whole and in context, is misleading or deceptive or likely to mislead or deceive. Such conduct is not to be pigeon-holed into the framework or language of representation.
Sixth, conduct is misleading or deceptive or likely to mislead or deceive if it has the tendency to lead into error. But conduct causing confusion or wonderment is not necessarily co-extensive with misleading or deceptive conduct.
Seventh, the question is whether there was a real but not remote chance or possibility that the relevant conduct was misleading or deceptive or likely to mislead or deceive. To assess this one looks at the potential practical consequences and effect of the conduct.
Eighth, the words "likely to mislead or deceive" demonstrate that it is not necessary to show actual deception. Relatedly, it is not necessary to adduce evidence from persons to show that they were actually misled or deceived.
Ninth, there must be a sufficient nexus between the impugned conduct or apprehended conduct and the consumer's misconception or deception. As was said in SAP Australia Pty Ltd v Sapient Australia Pty Ltd [1999] FCA 1821; (1999) 169 ALR 1 at [51] (per French, Heerey and Lindgren JJ):
The characterisation of conduct as "misleading or deceptive or likely to mislead or deceive" involves a judgment of a notional cause and effect relationship between the conduct and the putative consumer's state of mind. Implicit in that judgment is a selection process which can reject some causal connections, which, although theoretically open, are too tenuous or impose responsibility otherwise than in accordance with the policy of the legislation.
Subject to one qualification, the error or misconception must result from the alleged wrong-doer's conduct and not from other circumstances for which it was not responsible. But conduct that exploits or feeds into and thereby reinforces the pre-existing mistaken views of members of the relevant class may be misleading or deceptive or likely to mislead or deceive.
Tenth, conduct that is merely transitory or ephemeral where any likely misleading impression is likely to be readily or quickly dispelled or corrected does not constitute conduct that would infringe the relevant provision.
Eleventh, and relatedly, it is one thing to say that the conduct must be more than transitory or ephemeral, but it is another thing to say that the conduct or its effect must endure up to some "point of sale" or contracting. There is no such requirement to establish a contravention.
Even if the effect of relevant pre-contractual conduct is or is likely to be dispelled prior to any transaction being effected, it may still be misleading or deceptive. In Australian Competition and Consumer Commission v TPG Internet Pty Ltd [2013] HCA 54; (2013) 250 CLR 640 at [50] (per French CJ, Crennan, Bell and Keane JJ) it was noted that a contravention may occur, not only when a contract has been concluded under the influence of a misleading advertisement, but also at the point where members of the relevant class have been enticed into the marketing web by an erroneous belief engendered by an advertiser. Such a contravention may be established even if the consumer may later come to appreciate the true position before a transaction is concluded. The tendency of pre-contractual conduct to mislead is to be determined not by asking whether it was apt to induce consumers to enter into contracts, but by asking whether it was apt to bring them into negotiation.
The question of whether conduct is misleading or deceptive is anterior to whether a person has entered into contractual relations. It is no answer that relevant consumers who signed up for the service or product could have been expected to understand fully the nature of their obligations by the time they contracted.
Twelfth, terms or conditions of particular offers that have significant advantage for the alleged wrong-doer and disadvantage for the consumer require due notice.
Further on this aspect, in assessing the effect and significance of conduct that diminishes or relegates to obscurity information that is necessary to qualify or correct any dominant message, one looks at the relevant course of conduct as a whole in light of the surrounding facts and circumstances.
Thirteenth, in determining whether a contravention has occurred, the focus of the inquiry is on whether a not insignificant number within the class have been misled or deceived or are likely to have been misled or deceived by the alleged wrong-doer's conduct. There has been some debate about the meaning of "a not insignificant number". The formulation in Campomar Sociedad Limitada v Nike International Ltd [2000] HCA 12; (2000) 202 CLR 45 looks at the issue in a normative sense. The reactions of the hypothetical individual within the class are considered. The hypothetical individual is a reasonable or ordinary member of the class. Does satisfying the Campomar formulation satisfy the "not insignificant number" requirement? I am now inclined to the view that if, applying the Campomar test, reasonable members of the class would be likely to be misled, then such a finding does not necessarily carry with it that a significant proportion of the class would be likely to be misled. A finding of a "not insignificant number" of members of the class being likely to be misled is conceptually speaking an additional requirement that needs to be satisfied.
Fourteenth, silence will be misleading or deceptive if "the circumstances are such as to give rise to the reasonable expectation that if some relevant fact exists it would be disclosed" ...
...
The test "requires close analysis of all the circumstances" (at [91] per Heydon, Crennan and Bell JJ).
Let me make the following additional points concerning the relevant elements of s 12DA of the ASIC Act.
First, s 12BA(1) of the ASIC Act provides that "conduct has the meaning given by subsection (2)" and that "engage in conduct has the meaning given by subsection (2)". Section 12BA(2)(a) defines "engaging in conduct" broadly as "a reference to doing or refusing to do any act". That paragraph goes on to define the term inclusively in the remainder of that paragraph.
Second, the meaning of "trade or commerce" has been explained earlier in the context of ss 12CB and 12CC of the ASIC Act. The same principles apply under s 12DA.
Third, the meaning of both the expression "in relation to" and the term "financial services" has been explained earlier in the context of s 12CA of the ASIC Act. The same principles apply under s 12DA.
Fourth, the same principles which apply under s 1041H of the Corporations Act apply under s 12DA of the ASIC Act.
Misleading conduct in respect of the bond issuance (s 1041H)
ANZ's false reporting of secondary market turnover to the AOFM (s 1041H and s 12DB)
Change to include certain internal trades and counterparties in reported data
I need you to work on something for me. AOFM are reporting a material reduction in net turnover over the period of FY21. See chat below.
What I would like you to do is ask for the data set for FY19, FY 20 and FY21, and run a comparison on turnover. largest clients, etc etc. I suspect somewhere there has been a change in reporting that has impacted this. Potentially related to ... synth repo flow. But let's try and investigate.
Rates Trading desk approval of data submitted to AOFM
Failure to comply with breach reporting obligations (s 912DAA)
Obligation to lodge a report - reportable situations in relation to the financial services licensee
Reporting a reportable situation to ASIC
(1) If there are reasonable grounds to believe that a reportable situation has arisen in relation to a financial services licensee:
(a) the financial services licensee must lodge a report in relation to the reportable situation with ASIC; and
(b) the report must be lodged in accordance with this section.
...
Period within which report must be lodged
(3) The report must be lodged with ASIC within 30 days after the financial services licensee first knows that, or is reckless with respect to whether, there are reasonable grounds to believe the reportable situation has arisen.
(7) A person contravenes this subsection if the person contravenes subsection (1).
(1) There is a reportable situation in relation to a financial services licensee if one of the following paragraphs is satisfied:
(a) the financial services licensee or a representative of the financial services licensee has breached a core obligation and the breach is significant;
(b) the financial services licensee or a representative of the financial services licensee is no longer able to comply with a core obligation and the breach, if it occurs, will be significant;
(c) the financial services licensee or a representative of the financial services licensee conducts an investigation into whether there is a reportable situation of the kind mentioned in paragraph (a) or (b) and the investigation continues for more than 30 days;
(d) an investigation described in paragraph (c) discloses that there is no reportable situation of the kind mentioned in paragraph (a) or (b).
(2) There is also a reportable situation in relation to a financial services licensee if:
(a) in the course of providing a financial service, the financial services licensee or a representative of the financial services licensee has engaged in conduct constituting gross negligence; or
(b) the financial services licensee or a representative of the financial services licensee has committed serious fraud; or
(c) any other circumstances prescribed by the regulations for the purposes of this paragraph exist.
(3) Each of the following is a core obligation:
(a) an obligation under section 912A or 912B, other than the obligation under paragraph 912A(1)(c);
(b) the obligation under paragraph 912A(1)(c), so far as it relates to provisions of this Act or the ASIC Act referred to in paragraphs (a), (b), (c) and (d) of the definition of financial services law in section 761A;
(c) in relation to financial services, other than traditional trustee company services provided by a licensed trustee company - the obligation under paragraph 912A(1)(c), so far as it relates to Commonwealth legislation that is covered by paragraph (e) of that definition and that is specified in regulations made for the purposes of this paragraph;
(4) For the purposes of this section, a breach of a core obligation is taken to be significant if:
(a) ...
(b) the breach is constituted by the contravention of a civil penalty provision under any law, other than a civil penalty provision prescribed by the regulations for the purposes of this paragraph; or
(c) the breach is constituted by a contravention of subsection 1041H(1) of this Act or subsection 12DA(1) of the ASIC Act (misleading or deceptive conduct in relation to a financial product or a financial service); or
(d) ...
(e) any other circumstances prescribed by the regulations for the purposes of this paragraph exist.
(5) Otherwise, for the purposes of this section, a breach of a core obligation is significant having regard to the following:
(a) the number or frequency of similar breaches;
(b) the impact of the breach on the financial services licensee's ability to provide financial services covered by the licence;
(c) the extent to which the breach indicates that the financial services licensee's arrangements to ensure compliance with those obligations are inadequate;
(d) any other matters prescribed by regulations made for the purposes of this paragraph.
(6) Regulations for the purposes of paragraph (4)(b) may prescribe a civil penalty provision to the extent that it relates to the following:
(a) contraventions of specified provisions;
(b) specified matters.
(a) the licensee or a representative of a licensee has breached or is likely to breach a core obligation, and the breach is significant; or
(b) the licensee or a representative of the licensee conducts an investigation into whether there is a breach of a core obligation and the investigation continues for more than 30 days.
Section 912D(3)(a) of the Corporations Act provides that each of a licensee's obligations under s 912A(1)(a) is a "core obligation".
Under s 912D(4)(b), (4)(d)(ii) and (5) of the Corporations Act, a breach of a core obligation will be "significant" if:
(a) the breach is a contravention of a civil penalty provision under any law (other than a civil penalty provision specifically prescribed by regulation as an exception);
(b) the breach results, or is likely to result, in material loss or damage to a member or members of a superannuation entity; or
(c) the breach is determined to be significant having regard to:
(i) the number and frequency of similar breaches;
(ii) the impact of the breach on the licensee's ability to provide financial services covered by the licence;
(iii) the extent to which the breach indicates that the licensee's arrangements to ensure compliance with its obligations are inadequate; and
(iv) any other matters prescribed by regulation.
In Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Mariner Corporation Ltd [2015] FCA 589; (2015) 241 FCR 502 at 552-553 [261], Beach J considered the term "recklessness" in the civil context, as follows:
At the least, what must be shown is some awareness of the risk and indifference or "not caring" as to the risk or its consequences. Recklessness is an actual advertence to risk but a conscious disregard of or indifference to the risk. Contrastingly, negligence or carelessness is where there may be no advertence to or conscious awareness of the risk at all. Accordingly, it is necessary for ASIC to establish that Mariner was aware of a substantial risk that the result identified by s 631(2)(b) would occur and that, on what was known to Mariner, it was unjustifiable to take that risk or it went ahead in conscious disregard of or indifference to the risk.
Contravention of s 912A of the Corporations Act
General obligations
General obligations
(1) A financial services licensee must:
(a) do all things necessary to ensure that the financial services covered by the licence are provided efficiently, honestly and fairly; and
...
(ca) take reasonable steps to ensure that its representatives comply with the financial services laws [subject to exceptions not presently relevant];
...
(f) ensure that its representatives are adequately trained (including by complying with the CPD provisions), and are competent, to provide those financial services...
...
Civil penalty provision
(5A) A person contravenes this subsection if the person contravenes paragraph (1)(a), (aa), (ca), (cc), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h) or (j).
Now in reaching this conclusion I have applied the following principles concerning s 912A(1)(a) elucidated in Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Camelot Derivatives Pty Ltd (in liq) [2012] FCA 414; (2012) 88 ACSR 206 at [69] per Foster J which I restated in Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Westpac Banking Corporation (No 2) [2018] FCA 751; (2018) 266 FCR 147 at [2347]-[2350].
First, the words "efficiently, honestly and fairly" are to be read as a compendious indication requiring a licensee to go about their duties efficiently having regard to the dictates of honesty and fairness, honestly having regard to the dictates of efficiency and fairness, and fairly having regard to the dictates of efficiency and honesty.
Second, the words "efficiently, honestly and fairly" connote a requirement of competence in providing advice and in complying with relevant statutory obligations. They also connote an element not just of even handedness in dealing with clients but a less readily defined concept of sound ethical values and judgment in matters relevant to a client's affairs. I have emphasised here the notion of connotation rather than denotation to make the obvious point that the boundaries and content of the phrase or its various elements are incapable of clear or exhaustive definition.
Third, the word "efficient" refers to a person who performs his duties efficiently, meaning the person is adequate in performance, produces the desired effect, is capable, competent and adequate. Inefficiency may be established by demonstrating that the performance of a licensee's functions falls short of the reasonable standard of performance by a dealer that the public is entitled to expect.
Fourth, it is not necessary to establish dishonesty in the criminal sense. The word "honestly" may comprehend conduct which is not criminal but which is morally wrong in a commercial sense.
Fifth, the word "honestly" when used in conjunction with the word "fairly" tends to give the flavour of a person who not only is not dishonest, but also a person who is ethically sound.
These observations are consistent with the express object of Ch 7 of the Corporations Act set out in s 760A as follows:
The main object of this Chapter is to promote:
(a) confident and informed decision making by consumers of financial products and services while facilitating efficiency, flexibility and innovation in the provision of those products and services; and
(b) fairness, honesty and professionalism by those who provide financial services; and
(c) fair, orderly and transparent markets for financial products; and
(d) the reduction of systemic risk and the provision of fair and effective services by clearing and settlement facilities.
Further, it is also not in doubt that a contravention of the "efficiently, honestly and fairly" standard does not require a contravention or breach of a separately existing legal duty or obligation, whether statutory, fiduciary, common law or otherwise. The statutory standard itself is the source of the obligation.
...
Let me say something about "fairly". Judges applying s 912A(1)(a) have usually not sought to define "fairly" except to explain its structural setting in the composite phrase. This is unsurprising. And of course no dictionary definition could be adequate for the task given the intrinsic circularity with such definitions. For example, take the Macquarie Dictionary definition. First, the concept of "free from injustice" is question begging and conclusionary. It adds little to elucidate "fairly". Second, the phase "that which is legitimately sought, pursued, done, given etc." is also question begging. No content is given to what is legitimate. There is irremediable circularity unless legitimacy simply incorporates other statutory or common law/equitable normative standards of behaviour. Third, the phrase "proper under the rules" is also devoid of content unless "proper" means "in compliance with". Fourth, if one construes "fair" to include "free from dishonesty", then this all just suggests that the phrase "efficiently, honestly and fairly" should be read compendiously.
Could you convincingly define "fairly" by what it lacks? To say that fairly means free from bias, free from dishonesty, etc, is to stipulate necessary negative conditions. And to do so may give you some boundary conditions. But no positive conditions are stipulated. No content is given, let alone sufficient conditions. But to stipulate negative conditions may not be unhelpful.
Should "fairly" only be viewed from the perspective of an investor, borrower or other person interacting with the licensee? No. Fairness is to be judged having regard to the interests of both parties. Other statutory provisions may be designed to tilt the scales, but not s 912A(1)(a) and the statutory composite norm it enshrines. Disproportionate emphasis should not be given to what is the third part of a composite phrase in a manner which creates unsatisfactory asymmetry in favour of those with whom the licensee deals. This section is not a back door into an "act in the [best] interests of" obligation. Other specific provisions of the Act nicely fulfil that role. There is nothing to indicate that s 912A(1)(a) was to have that bias.
Finally, it ought not to be forgotten that s 912A(1)(a) is principally a licensee disciplinary command such that a breach thereof might sound in revocation of the AFSL, conditions being imposed on the AFSL or a pecuniary penalty being imposed. But that context gives rise to three points.
First, in such a context one would expect that the normative standard would be suitably vague and flexible. This is common when dealing with the stipulated standard of behaviour expected of licensees or regulated persons in a wide variety of contexts. But that does not invite conceptual inflation.
Second, one is looking at the licensee's behaviour more generally rather than with regard to any one person. After all, s 912A(1)(a) is expressed:
(1) A financial services licensee must:
(a) do all things necessary to ensure that the financial services covered by the licence are provided efficiently, honestly and fairly; ...
The language is in the generality of "the financial services covered by the licence".
Third, and relatedly, one is not at all concerned to ascertain the boundaries and content of a cause of action or an element thereof sounding in damages in favour of an individual (cf claims for misleading or deceptive conduct or statutory unconscionability).
In summary, in my view it is not justifiable to take one word from a composite phrase, artificially elevate its significance and read it in a manner asymmetrically in favour of an investor.
On the question of the proper construction of s 912A(1)(a), my attention has been drawn to various observations made by the Full Court in Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Westpac Securities Administration Ltd that I discussed earlier in the context of financial product advice. But several points should be noted.
First, before the trial judge, Westpac did not question the statements of principle propounded by ASIC which in essence applied the principles discussed by Foster J.
Second, ASIC's three appeal grounds in that matter rather concerned s 766B(3); ASIC's notice of appeal was tendered before me in order to properly identify the s 766B(3) points that had been raised and that I have discussed earlier in my reasons. Further, to the extent that s 912A(1)(a) was raised by Westpac on any cross-appeal, as I say the parties' positions on construction seem to have been in substance as before the trial judge.
Third, some members of the Full Court queried whether the phrase "efficiently, honestly and fairly" should be read compendiously (O'Bryan J at [422]-[426]). But as this was not decided by at least a majority, I am bound to apply the single judge decisions unless I consider them to be plainly wrong, which I do not.
Fourth, Allsop CJ said (at [172]):
Words such as "efficiently", "honestly" and "fairly" and a composite or compendious phrase or expression such as "efficiently, honestly and fairly" do not admit of comprehensive definition. Certainly a degree of articulation of instances or examples of conduct failing to satisfy the phrase will be helpful and of guidance, as will an articulation or description of the norms involved.
With respect, I agree with that statement. He then went on to say (at [173]):
The provision is part of the statute's legislative policy to require social and commercial norms or standards of behaviour to be adhered to. The rule in the section is directed to a social and commercial norm, expressed as an abstraction, but nevertheless an abstraction to be directed to the "infinite variety of human conduct revealed by the evidence in one case after another." (See Gummow WMC, "The Common Law and Statute" in Change and Continuity: Statute, Equity and Federalism (Oxford University Press, 1999) at 18-19.)
Now neither Jagot J nor O'Bryan J went so far. With respect, I prefer to view s 912A(1)(a) as enshrining a statutory norm to be read conformably with s 760A and the other provisions of the Corporations Act and the ASIC Act, of course to be applied to an infinite variety of corporate delinquency and self-interested commerciality. But to say this is not to deny that it may implicitly pick up some aspects of what some might identify as social and commercial norms, although reasonable minds might differ as to where to ground such an otherwise free-floating concept.
Breaches of ss 912A(1)(a), (ca) and (f) in respect of bond issuance
Breaches of ss 912A(1)(a), (ca) and (f) in respect of reporting secondary market bond turnover
(1) If a Court is satisfied that a person has contravened a civil penalty provision, the Court must make a declaration of contravention.
(2) The declaration must specify the following:
(a) the Court that made the declaration;
(b) the civil penalty provision that was contravened;
(c) the person who contravened the provision;
(d) the conduct that constituted the contravention;
(3) In this Act:
(a) a provision specified in column 1 of the following table is a civil penalty provision; ...
Subject to the court being sufficiently persuaded of the accuracy of the parties' agreement as to facts and consequences, and that the penalty which the parties propose is an appropriate remedy in the circumstances thus revealed, it is consistent with principle and ... highly desirable in practice for the court to accept the parties' proposal and therefore impose the proposed penalty. (original emphasis)
First, the Court must be persuaded that the penalty proposed by the parties is appropriate: Fair Work at [57]. The agreement of the parties cannot bind the Court in any circumstances to impose a penalty which it does not consider to be appropriate.
Second, if the Court is persuaded of the accuracy of the parties' agreement as to facts and consequences, and that the agreed penalty jointly proposed is an appropriate remedy in all the circumstances, it would be highly desirable in practice for the Court to accept the parties' proposal and therefore impose the proposed penalty: Fair Work at [58]. The desirability of the Court accepting a proposed agreed penalty which it is persuaded is an appropriate penalty derives primarily from a public policy consideration; the promotion of predictability of outcome in civil penalty proceedings: Fair Work at [46]. Predictability of outcome encourages corporations to acknowledge contraventions, which, in turn, assists in avoiding lengthy and complex litigation. It should be emphasised, however, that this public policy consideration is but one of the relevant considerations to which the Court must have regard and, more significantly, it cannot override the statutory directive for the Court to impose a penalty that is determined to be appropriate.
Third, in considering whether the agreed and jointly proposed penalty is an appropriate penalty, it is necessary to bear in mind that there is no single appropriate penalty. Rather, there is a permissible range of penalties within which no particular figure can necessarily be said to be more appropriate than another. The permissible range is determined by all the relevant facts and consequences of the contravention and the contravener's circumstances. An agreed and jointly proposed penalty may be considered to be "an" appropriate penalty if it falls within that permissible range: NW Frozen Foods at 290-291; Mobil Oil at 48,625-48,626; [47], [51]. It is unlikely to be considered an appropriate penalty if it falls outside that range.
It should be emphasised in this context, however, that even though the process in determining whether an agreed and jointly proposed penalty is an appropriate penalty involves or includes determining whether that penalty falls within the permissible range of penalties, having regard to all the relevant facts and circumstances, it does not follow that the Court's task can be said to amount to no more than determining whether the proposed penalty falls within the permissible range, as the Commission's submission tended to suggest. Nor can it be said that the Court is bound to start with the proposed penalty and to then limit itself to considering whether that penalty is within the permissible range: Mobil Oil at 48,627; [54].
Fourth, in considering whether the proposed agreed penalty is an appropriate penalty, the Court should generally recognise that the agreed penalty is most likely the result of compromise and pragmatism on the part of the regulator, and to reflect, amongst other things, the regulator's considered estimation of the penalty necessary to achieve deterrence and the risks and expense of the litigation had it not been settled: Fair Work at [109]. The fact that the agreed penalty is likely to be the product of compromise and pragmatism also informs the Court's task when faced with a proposed agreed penalty. The regulator's submissions, or joint submissions, must be assessed on their merits, and the Court must be wary of the possibility that the agreed penalty may be the product of the regulator having been too pragmatic in reaching the settlement: Fair Work at [110].
Indeed, in cases where the contravening conduct is concealed and not easily detected, deterrence (both general and specific) may justify a penalty that is many multiples of the profits made from the contravening conduct. If the contravening conduct is concealed and the risk of detection is low, a penalty equivalent to or just exceeding the profits earned may be regarded by the contravener as "an acceptable cost of doing business" on a strict cost-benefit analysis because of the overall likelihood of financial gain from the conduct. That principle has been long recognised in the context of cartel contraventions, which are typically concealed and difficult to detect: see for example Australian Competition and Consumer Commission v J McPhee & Son (Australia) Pty Ltd (No 5) [1998] FCA 310; [1998] ATPR 41-628 at 40,891-40,892; Australian Competition and Consumer Commission v McMahon Services Pty Ltd [2004] FCA 1425; [2004] ATPR 42-031 at 49,228; [15]; Australian Competition and Consumer Commission v Qantas Airways Ltd [2008] FCA 1976; (2008) 253 ALR 89 at [21]- [24]; Australian Competition and Consumer Commission v PT Garuda Indonesia Ltd [2019] FCA 786; (2019) 370 ALR 637 at [126]. The principle is equally applicable in the context of contraventions of the Consumer Law that involve concealed conduct.
Deterrence is especially significant in relation to price-fixing. This form of contravention commonly occurs in secret and between parties who seek a mutual benefit. The risk of detection is often low and the potential gain to the contravenors, and damage to the community, large. Therefore the penalty needs to be correspondingly high. Moreover, where the contravention takes the form of an attempt at the making of a price-fixing arrangement, it needs to be remembered that most price-fixing must start with some form of contact, however discreet, with a competitor. Those minded to engage in price-fixing might be tempted to think that if an informal and subtle approach is made, the worst that can happen is a rebuff. A penalty should reflect the fact that an attempt at price-fixing is seriously unlawful conduct in itself.
The amount of loss or damage caused by the contravening conduct
The extent of any profit or benefit derived as a result of the contravention
The size and financial position of the contravening company
Increasing the penalty for the false reporting concerning secondary market bond turnover
(1) The Court may make such order, or orders, as it thinks fit if:
(a) on the application of ASIC, it appears to the Court that a person:
(i) has contravened a provision of this Chapter, or any other law relating to dealing in financial products or providing financial services ...
In Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Superannuation Warehouse Australia Pty Ltd (2015) 109 ACSR 199; [2015] FCA 1167, I exercised power under that provision to order a defendant to establish a compliance program.
Relatedly, s 1101B(1) of the Corporations Act relevantly provides that:
The Court may make such order, or orders, as it thinks fit if ... on the application of ASIC, it appears to the Court that a person ... has contravened a provision of this Chapter, or any other law relating to dealing in financial products or providing financial services ... . However, the Court can only make such an order if the Court is satisfied that the order would not unfairly prejudice any person.
ASIC further submits that a compliance program tailored to addressing the contraventions established falls within the scope of s 1101B. It says that that provision is broad enough to empower me to make an order requiring a contravener to establish a compliance program tailored to remedying the contraventions established. I agree, and would note the following. First and generally speaking, one should not read provisions conferring jurisdiction on, or granting powers to, a court by making implications or imposing limitations which are not found in the express words. Second, it is no objection to an order requiring a compliance program to be established that it is in a form of mandatory injunction; I would note that the illustrative orders set out in s 1101B(4) contain examples that are mandatory in nature. Third, what the court "thinks fit" is not at large. The power must be exercised judicially having regard to the text, context and purpose of the Corporations Act. Now given that this is a power that must relate to a contravention, a compliance program can be readily accommodated within its scope as an order designed to ensure that a contravention of a similar kind does not occur again. And given that one of the purposes of the civil penalty regime is deterrence, a compliance program can address specific deterrence.
(1) The Court may, on application by ASIC, make one or more of the orders mentioned in subsection (2) in relation to a person who has engaged in contravening conduct.
(2) The orders that the Court may make in relation to the person are:
(b) a probation order for a period of no longer than 3 years;
...
"probation order", in relation to a person who has engaged in contravening conduct, means an order that is made by the Court for the purpose of ensuring that the person does not engage in the contravening conduct, similar conduct or related conduct during the period of the order, and includes:
(a) an order directing the person to establish a compliance program for employees or other persons involved in the person's business, being a program designed to ensure their awareness of the responsibilities and obligations in relation to the contravening conduct, similar conduct or related conduct; and
(b) an order directing the person to establish an education and training program for employees or other persons involved in the person's business, being a program designed to ensure their awareness of the responsibilities and obligations in relation to the contravening conduct, similar conduct or related conduct; and
(c) an order directing the person to revise the internal operations of the person's business which lead to the person engaging in the contravening conduct.
First, both s 1101B of the Corporations Act and s 12GLA of the ASIC Act confer a broad discretionary power. So much is evident from the text of s 1101B(1), which provides that the Court "may make such order, or orders, as it thinks fit". And whilst s 12GLA is drafted differently, the same point can be made. Moreover, I must consider whether such an order "is necessary in light of the particular circumstances of the contravention, other relief proposed to be granted, and in particular in light of any existing compliance program and steps taken since the contravention occurred".
Second, the compliance program must have a connection with the contravening conduct that has been found.
Third, I must strike the appropriate balance between prescription, so as to avoid uncertainty, and over particularity, so as to avoid unworkability.
(citations omitted)
... As a general rule, mandatory orders should be expressed with sufficient precision to enable a breach of the order to be readily ascertained and effectively punished. Neither the parties nor the Court should be left, as a general rule, with uncertainty as to the scope and limits of the obligations imposed by the order. On the other hand, the Court must respect the legislative intention reflected in the definition of "probation order" in s 86C [Trade Practices Act 1974 (Cth)] which plainly contemplates that the Court will make directions for the undertaking of compliance programs where it will be neither practicable nor useful to prescribe with minute particularity the content of such programs.
I certify that the preceding three hundred and twenty (320) numbered paragraphs are a true copy of the Reasons for Judgment of the Honourable Justice Beach.
Australian Securities and Investments Commission
Australia and New Zealand Banking Group Limited
(2018) 262 CLR 157
(2022) 274 CLR 450
(2019) 267 CLR 1
(2019) 272 FCR 170
(2002) 122 FCR 110
(2018) 266 FCR 147
(1972) 127 CLR 421
(2024) 419 ALR 30
(1999) 169 ALR 1
(2013) 250 CLR 640
(2000) 202 CLR 45
(2020) 275 FCR 57
(2008) 253 ALR 89
(2015) 258 CLR 482
(2024) 179 IPR 226
(2015) 241 FCR 502
(2021) 284 FCR 24
(2019) 370 ALR 637