[2025] FCA 1560
General information, not legal advice.
Federal Court of Australia
2025-12-10
Button J
Original judgment source is linked above.
Alpert v Commonwealth (Department of Defence) (No 2) [2024] FCA 447
Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Cassimatis (2013) 220 FCR 256; [2013] FCA 641
Baltic Shipping Co v Dillon [1993] HCA 4;
City of New Orleans v Firemen's Charitable Association 9 So 486 (La 1891)
Day v William Hill (Park Lane) Ltd [1949] 1 KB 632
Frigger v Trenfield (No 2) [2019] FCA 2009
KTC v David [2022] FCAFC 60
Paula Susan Chappell as Executor of the Estate of Robert Hastings Hitchcock v Goldspan Investments Pty Ltd (2021) 58 WAR 503; [2021] WASC 205
Pigozzo v Mineral Resources Ltd [2022] FCA 1166
Prior v South West Aboriginal Land and Sea Council Aboriginal Corporation [2020] FCA 808
Pritchard v Racecage Pty Ltd [1997] FCA 27; (1997) 72 FCR 203
Provide Nominees Pty Ltd v Australian Securities and Investments Commission [2024] FCA 303
Scordo v Commonwealth Bank of Australia [2024] FCA 359
Spencer v Commonwealth (2010) 241 CLR 118; [2010] HCA 28
Three Rivers District Council v Bank of England (No 3) [2003] 2 AC 1
Wheelahan v City of Casey (No 12) [2013] VSC 316
Young v Chief Executive Officer (Housing) (2023) 278 CLR 208; [2023] HCA 31
CHRISTINE HELEN COCHRANE (AS EXECUTOR OF THE DECEASED ESTATE OF JOAN MARIE MUDIE)
SUSANNE KAYE HAMILTON (AS EXECUTOR OF THE DECEASED ESTATE OF JOAN MARIE MUDIE)
BUPA AGED CARE AUSTRALIA PTY LTD ACN 082 931 575
Note: Entry of orders is dealt with in Rule 39.32 of the Federal Court Rules 2011.
(a) all persons who were resident in a residential care facility owned and operated by Bupa (Bupa Care Home) at any point between 1 July 2019 and 31 December 2022; and/or
(b) all persons who were resident in a Bupa Care Home listed in Annexure A to the AOA at any time within the periods specified in that annexure (Annexure A names 58 Bupa Care Homes and specifies a date range in respect of each home, mostly 1 January 2023 to 31 March 2025);
(collectively defined as Resident Group Members); and
(c) the legal personal representatives or beneficiaries of the estate of any Resident Group Member deceased person who was otherwise part of the group (defined as Deceased Estate Group Members).
(a) in accordance with the Aged Care Act 1997 (Cth) (Aged Care Act) (Aged Care Act Compliance Term);
(b) in accordance with the Quality of Care Principles 2014 (Cth) (Quality of Care Principles) (Quality of Care Principles Compliance Term); and
(c) in accordance with the Charter of Aged Care Rights contained in Schedule 1 of the User Rights Principles 2014 (Cth) (User Rights Principles) made under s 96-1 of the Aged Care Act (Charter) (Charter Compliance Term).
(a) maintain and roster "an adequate number of appropriately skilled Bupa Direct Care Staff" ("Bupa Direct Care Staff" being defined to include certain categories of staff employed to deliver services at the Bupa Care Homes) to deliver an "adequate number of direct care staff member minutes", on average across each Bupa Care Home, to meet the minimum standard for "an acceptable level" of "safe care" and/or "safe and high quality care", being a total direct care staffing equivalent to at least 215 minutes per resident on average across each Bupa Care Home (215 Average Minute Requirement); and
(b) provide each resident with care and services "in a safe, effective and respectful manner".
(a) at least 30 of the minimum 215 minutes was to be provided by registered nurses in order to provide an acceptable level of "safe" care;
(b) in order to provide an acceptable level of "safe and high quality" care:
(i) where the total minutes of care was between 215 and 264 minutes, at least 44 minutes was to be provided by registered nurses; but
(ii) where the total minutes of care was more than 264 minutes, at least 30 minutes was to be provided by registered nurses.
(a) Bupa did not maintain and roster an adequate number of Bupa Direct Care Staff at each Bupa Care Home to meet the 215 Average Minute Requirement;
(b) further, or alternatively, from 12 September 2023, Bupa did not maintain and/or roster an adequate number of Bupa Direct Care Staff at each Bupa Care Home to meet the Quality of Care Average Minute Requirement; and
(c) further, or alternatively, Bupa did not provide Ms Mudie and some Resident Group Members with care and services in a safe, effective and respectful manner.
(a) Ms Mudie and the Resident Group Members are entitled to recover:
(i) the loss or damage suffered by them by reason of the breaches, pursuant to s 236 of the ACL;
(ii) compensation for the reduction in the value of the services below the price paid or payable for the services, pursuant to s 267(3) of the ACL; and/or
(iii) damages for loss suffered pursuant to s 267(4) of the ACL; and
(b) the Deceased Estate Group Members are entitled to recover compensation or damages for loss suffered by the respective deceased Resident Group Members.
Amendments to the claim following the hearing on 4 August 2025
(a) separately plead the alleged breaches of contract and consumer guarantees and the associated loss and damage with respect to Ms Mudie, on the one hand, and the broader cohort of Resident Group Members, on the other;
(b) separate out the claims based on the alleged inadequacy of home-wide staffing levels from the claims concerning specific qualitative aspects of the care of Ms Mudie and yet-to-be identified Resident Group Members;
(c) separately define a category of "Deceased Estate Group Members", whose claims rest on rights held in respect of the estates of deceased Resident Group Members;
(d) redefine the class of Resident Group Members by reference to more specific time periods and Bupa Care Homes;
(e) add further particulars regarding how it is that certain terms (including the Aged Care Act Compliance Term, the Quality of Care Principles Compliance Term and the Charter Compliance Term) are said to be incorporated into the Resident Agreements;
(f) reframe the Safe and Quality Care Requirement (previously expressed as the "Safe and Quality Care Term") and what this is alleged to have required of Bupa in terms of staffing;
(g) allege a requirement to provide each resident with care and services "in a safe, effective and respectful manner";
(h) abandon the allegation of a requirement to provide each resident with "Prescribed Daily Direct Care Minutes", calculated on an individual basis; and
(i) further particularise the claims for loss or damage, including by reference to each resident's "pro rata share" of the value of the missing minutes, and propose a number of ways in which these values could be ascertained.
(a) summary judgment dismissing the proceeding on the basis that the Applicants have no reasonable prospect of successfully prosecuting the proceeding, or no reasonable cause of action is disclosed, pursuant to s 31A(2) of the FCA Act and r 26.01(1) of the Rules;
(b) alternatively, orders that the ASOC be struck out pursuant to r 16.21 of the Rules.
(a) the first party is defending the proceeding or that part of the proceeding; and
(b) the Court is satisfied that the other party has no reasonable prospect of successfully prosecuting the proceeding or that part of the proceeding.
(a) the applicant has no reasonable prospect of successfully prosecuting the proceeding or part of the proceeding (r 26.01(1)(a)); or
(b) the proceeding is frivolous or vexatious (r 26.01(1)(b)); or
(c) no reasonable cause of action is disclosed (r 26.01(1)(c)).
(1) The purpose of s 31A is to strengthen the Court's powers to deal with unmeritorious matters by broadening the grounds on which it can summarily dispose of unsustainable cases (at [18]).
(2) Section 31A will apply to: cases "in which the pleadings disclose no reasonable cause of action and their deficiency is incurable"; cases "in which there is unanswerable or unanswered evidence of a fact fatal to the pleaded case and any case which might be propounded by permissible amendment"; and cases which are "frivolous or vexatious or an abuse of process" (at [22]). However, the application of s 31A is not, in terms, limited to those categories, and the section authorises summary disposition of proceedings on a variety of bases under its general rubric (at [22]).
(3) Section 31A(2) requires a practical judgment by the Court as to whether the applicant has more than a "fanciful" prospect of success (at [25]). That may be a judgment of law or of fact, or of mixed law and fact (at [25]). Where there are factual issues capable of being disputed and in dispute, summary dismissal should not be awarded simply because the Court has formed the view that the applicant is unlikely to succeed on the factual issue (at [25]). Where an application under s 31A requires consideration of apparently complex questions of fact, then it is relevant to consider what was said by Lord Hope of Craighead on summary disposition in Three Rivers District Council v Bank of England (No 3) [2003] 2 AC 1 (Three Rivers) at 260 [94]-[95] (at [21], [26]):
The simpler the case the easier it is likely to be to take that view and resort to what is properly called summary judgment. But more complex cases are unlikely to be capable of being resolved in that way without conducting a mini-trial on the documents without discovery and without oral evidence ... that is not the object of the rule. It is designed to deal with cases that are not fit for trial at all.
(4) Even in circumstances where the success of a proceeding depends upon propositions of law apparently precluded by existing authority, that may not always be the end of the matter, as existing authority may be overruled, qualified or further explained (at [25]). Summary processes must not be used to stultify the development of the law (at [25]).
(5) The s 31A power is to be distinguished from rules providing for the striking out of pleadings (at [23]). For example, where evidence discloses that a litigant has or may have a "reasonable cause of action" or "reasonable prospects of success", yet their pleading does not disclose this, the Court may be empowered to strike out the pleading but not to give summary judgment under s 31A (at [23]).
(a) a reasonable prospect of success is one which is real, not fanciful or merely arguable: Rogers v Assets Loan Co Pty Ltd [2008] FCA 1305; (2008) 250 ALR 82 per Logan J (at [41]), cited in Buurabalayji Thalanyji Aboriginal Corporation v Onslow Salt Pty Ltd (No 2) [2018] FCA 978 per McKerracher J (at [3]), though this must now be read with Spencer (at [58]-[60]);
(b) there will be no prospect of success in circumstances where there is a defect in the pleadings which cannot be cured: "Sam Hawk" v Reiter Petroleum Inc [2016] FCAFC 26; (2016) 246 FCR 337 per Kenny and Besanko JJ (at [269]), cited in Buurabalayji (at [3]);
(c) an application for summary dismissal is likely to succeed where the applicant's success in the principal proceedings relies upon a question of fact that can truly be described as fanciful, trifling, implausible, improbable, tenuous or one that is contradicted by all the available documents or other materials. Conversely, as a general principle, an application for summary dismissal is unlikely to succeed where, on a critical examination of all the available materials, the Court is satisfied that there appears to be a real question of fact to be determined between the parties: Australian Securities and Investments Commission v Cassimatis [2013] FCA 641; (2013) 220 FCR 256 per Reeves J (at [47]);
(d) similarly, as a general principle, the moving party on an application for summary dismissal is likely to succeed if it is able to demonstrate to the Court that the applicant's success in the principal proceedings relies upon a question of law that is straightforward and confined, or is trite in the sense that it is well settled on authority, such that the question can be resolved summarily without the necessity for a full trial. On the other hand, the moving party would be unlikely to succeed if the Court is satisfied that the applicant's success in the proceedings relies upon a question of law that is serious or important, or is difficult and therefore likely to require lengthy argument for its resolution, or involves conflicting authority: Cassimatis (at [48]); see also: Luck v University of Southern Queensland [2008] FCA 1582 per Logan J (at [14]-[15]): s 31A is amenable to resolving straightforward questions of law; SKFoods LP v SK Foods Australia (in liq) (No 3) [2013] FCA 526; (2013) 214 FCR 543 per Flick J (at [115]): summary judgment may still be appropriate if a question raised is of some complexity; McAleer v University of Western Australia (No 3) [2008] FCA 1490; (2008) 171 FCR 499 per Siopis J (at [39] and the cases therein cited): s 31A permits dismissal of a proceeding where an inquiry into the merits of the issues of law demonstrates the arguments are insufficiently strong to warrant the matter going to trial;
(e) a Court should be particularly cautious about ordering summary determination where proceedings involve questions of fact and law, or mixed questions of fact and law, as these combinations usually give rise to some complexity that would require a full hearing. In such circumstances the moving party, as a general principle, would need to show a substantial absence of merit on either of the question of fact or law concerned, or on the mixed question: Cassimatis (at [49]); and
(f) if a prima facie case in support of summary judgment is established, the onus shifts to the opposing party to point to some factual or evidentiary issues making a trial necessary: Jefferson Ford Pty Ltd v Ford Motor Company of Australia Ltd [2008] FCAFC 60; (2008) 167 FCR 372 per Gordon J (at [127]), cited in Buurabalayji (at [3]). See also Dandaven v Harbeth Holdings Pty Ltd [2008] FCA 955 per Gilmour J (at [6]).
(a) contains scandalous material; or
(b) contains frivolous or vexatious material; or
(c) is evasive or ambiguous; or
(d) is likely to cause prejudice, embarrassment or delay in the proceeding; or
(e) fails to disclose a reasonable cause of action or defence or other case appropriate to the nature of the pleading; or
(f) is otherwise an abuse of the process of the Court.
(1) The word "vexatious" in the context of r 16.21 is an "omnibus expression" that includes "material which is scandalous, discloses no reasonable cause of action, is oppressive or embarrassing, or the inclusion of which is otherwise an abuse of the processes of the Court" (at [119]).
(2) A pleading is likely to cause prejudice or embarrassment, for the purposes of r 16.21(1)(d), if it is "susceptible to various meanings, contains inconsistent allegations, includes various alternatives which are confusingly intermixed, contains irrelevant allegations or includes defects which result in it being unintelligible, ambiguous, vague or too general" (at [120]). A pleading with these characteristics could also be characterised as evasive or ambiguous for the purposes of r 16.21(1)(c) (at [120]).
(3) A "reasonable cause of action", for the purposes of r 16.21(1)(e), is a cause of action that has "some chance of success having regard to the allegations pleaded" (at [123]).
(4) If substantial parts of a pleading are struck out, the Court may strike out the entire pleading on the basis that the "residue would be confusing" (at [124]).
(5) The power to strike out is discretionary and should be employed "sparingly and only in a clear case" (at [125]). Normally, it "should be exercised only in plain and obvious cases, where no reasonable amendment could cure the alleged defect or deficiency" (at [125]).
The Resident Agreements and incorporation of legislative regime requirements as contractual terms
(a) providing "such care and services as are specified in the Quality of Care Principles" (s 54-1(1)(a));
(b) maintaining "an adequate number of appropriately skilled staff to ensure that the care needs of care recipients are met" (s 54-1(1)(b));
(c) providing "care and services of a quality that is consistent with any rights and responsibilities of care recipients that are specified in the User Rights Principles" (s 54-1(1)(c));
(d) complying with the Aged Care Quality Standards (s 54-1(1)(d));
(e) meeting other responsibilities specified in the Quality of Care Principles (s 54-1(1)(h));
(f) not acting "in a way that is inconsistent with any rights and responsibilities of care recipients that are specified in the User Rights Principles" (s 56-1(m)); and
(g) meeting other responsibilities specified in the User Rights Principles (s 56-1(n)).
9 Rights of care recipients provided with residential care
For the purposes of paragraph 56-1(m) of the Act, the rights of a care recipient who is being provided with, or is to be provided with, residential care include the rights mentioned in the "Charter of Aged Care Rights" set out in Schedule 1.
Note: An approved provider must not act in a way which is inconsistent with any rights and responsibilities of care recipients specified in these principles - see paragraph 56-1(m) of the Act.
9A Responsibility not to act inconsistently with legal and consumer rights of care recipients
For the purposes of paragraph 56-1(m) of the Act, an approved provider of residential care must not act in a way which is inconsistent with the legal and consumer rights of a care recipient.
The Resident Agreements and links to the legislative regime
(1) The Recitals state that "[w]e offer residential care to care recipients in accordance with the Aged Care Act", noting that the term "Aged Care Act" is defined to include the Aged Care Act itself, and its "associated Principles".
(2) Interpretative provisions specify that a reference to a document includes amendments or supplements to that document, or replacements to it. Clause 42.3 is even more explicit, and provides that the agreement "will be deemed to have been varied to accord with any amendments to the Aged Care Act from time to time; for example, the rights and obligations of residents and approved providers".
(3) Clause 2.1 provides expressly for the "care and services" to be provided, in terms that refer to the Quality of Care Principles, which are in force by reason of the Aged Care Act itself:
The care and services provided to you will include the care and services specified in Annexure D and the Quality of Care Principles that you are assessed as requiring. ...
(4) Clause 28 incorporates the "rights and responsibilities" the resident has "at law including under the Charter of Residents' Rights and Responsibilities set out in the Aged Care Act and detailed in Annexure C" (noting that the version of the Charter set out at Annexure C is an old version, contractually updated by reference to the provisions referred to). The Charter specifies, among the "Care recipient's rights" specified in cl 2, that the resident has the right to "safe and high quality care and services".
(1) Clause 2.1(b), which requires Bupa to provide the resident with "Accommodation Services and Care Services". The definition of "Care Services" refers to the services "as prescribed under" the Aged Care Act and the Quality of Care Principles "from time to time".
(2) Clause 5.1, which provides, amongst other things, that "[w]e will observe and act in accordance with the User Rights Information and the Charter of Aged Care Rights as set out in Schedule 10 of this agreement", where the User Rights Information includes certain information under the User Rights Principles. Schedule 10 sets out the Charter, including the statement "I have the right to: ... safe and high quality care and services", presented in a form anticipating signature of both the consumer and the provider.
(3) The terms of the Guarantee and Indemnity, being Sch 12 to the contract, which states that the guarantor enters into the agreement with the provider (ie Bupa) "in consideration of the Provider entering into an agreement with the Consumer to provide the Consumer with residential care services and accommodation in the Care Facility in accordance with the Provider's obligations under the Aged Care Act 1997 (Cth)..." (emphasis added).
Contracts for personal services based on average care minutes across a Bupa Care Home
Calculation of average minute-based staffing requirements
I certify that the preceding one hundred and sixteen (116) numbered paragraphs are a true copy of the Reasons for Judgment of the Honourable Justice Button.
Cochrane
Bupa Aged Care Australia Pty Ltd [2025] FCA 1560
(1993) 176 CLR 344
(2021) 58 WAR 503
(1997) 72 FCR 203
(2013) 214 FCR 543
(2013) 220 FCR 256
(2010) 241 CLR 118
(2023) 278 CLR 208
(2008) 250 ALR 82
(2016) 246 FCR 337
(2008) 171 FCR 499
(2008) 167 FCR 372