AI-detected issues
Logical flaws, contradictions, and impossible compliance requirements found by AI analysis across Australian legislation.
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AI-detected issues
Logical flaws, contradictions, and impossible compliance requirements found by AI analysis across Australian legislation.
AI-generated legal information, not legal advice. Zoe can make mistakes. Check the cited sources, and before you act on this, rely on it, or use any draft, get a qualified Australian lawyer to check it.
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The definition of “prescribed fee” retains a cross-reference to repealed section 3AB.
prescribed fee means a fee prescribed under section 3AB.
The regulations may prescribe fees for this Act.
Despite the repeal of section 3AB by the Statute Law Revision and Repeals Act 2019, any fees prescribed under section 3AB of the Act as in force immediately before the commencement of that Act continue in force until fees are prescribed in the regulations.
The provision refers to itself as both the displaced rule and the source of a notice requirement that it does not create.
Notwithstanding by-law 7, a matter for which notice under that by-law has not been given may be considered at an ordinary meeting where a motion is passed by the majority of members at the meeting permitting it to be considered.
The definition requires the same area to be both landward and seaward of the baseline.
inner adjacent area for a State means the parts of the adjacent area for the State that are:
(a) on the landward side of the baseline for the State; and
(b) on the seaward side, but within 12 nautical miles from, the baseline for the State.
The commission scale leaves monetary-value gaps between successive bands.
the prescribed commission must be calculated on the basis of the value of the estate or the interest in property being dealt with as follows:
(a) for the first $1 000 – $150;
(b) $1 001 to $199 999 – 4%;
The special licensing year from 1 July to 31 December 2006 has no 30 June on which a temporary transfer can expire.
A temporary transfer of a pearl oyster hatchery unit remains in force only until the expiration of 30 June of the licensing year specified in the transfer to be the last year for which the transfer remains in force.
The period from 1 July 2006 to 31 December 2006 is taken to be a licensing year for a licensee for this Plan.
The offence relies on a request to leave that clause (1) does not authorise.
the manager or an authorised person may ask the person to cease that conduct.
the Manager or an authorised person may ask the person to leave the Centre.
A person who fails to immediately leave the Centre on being requested to do so under clause (1) is guilty of an offence.
The mandatory service deadline is textually incomplete and has no identifiable trigger.
A copy of an answer referred to in subrule (1)(a) shall be served on the other parties by the party making the answer within 7 days notice of the date so fixed.
After the expiration of the time for giving an answer under rule 6, the Registrar shall fix a date for the mention of the reference before the Tribunal
The provision is grammatically incomplete and states no operative entitlement or procedure.
The express “another Territory” limb of “reciprocating State” cannot operate under the supplied definitions.
corresponding law means a law of a State or of the Australian Capital Territory declared under subsection (3) to be a corresponding law.
reciprocating State means a State or the Australian Capital Territory, or another Territory: (a) in which a corresponding law is in force; and (b) in relation to which arrangements are in force under section 7.
are to be transmitted to the appropriate authority in that State or Territory
The first paragraph provides that a member must not vote on a question affecting a declarable interest unless the member has first declared that interest. Paragraph (b) separately permits a member who does not participate in debate to make the declaration either before or as soon as practicable after the vote. The post-vote branch directly conflicts with the requirement that the declaration occur before the member votes.
A member must not vote in any division on a question affecting a declarable interest unless the member has first declared the interest to the Assembly.
(b) if the member does not participate in debate on the matter – before, or as soon as practicable after, a vote is taken on the question.
Renewal requires an application “made under regulation 4”, but regulation 4 creates no application process.
may be renewed on application made under regulation 4
The Director may, on receiving an application under regulation 3
A person may apply to the Director for a permit
Regulation 10 classifies contravention of “9(f)” as a regulatory offence, but regulation 9 contains only subregulations (1)–(7) and no provision numbered 9(f).
An offence of contravening or failing to comply with regulation 7(2) or 9(f) is a regulatory offence.
An offence against any of subregulations (1) to (5) is an offence of strict liability.
It is a defence to a prosecution for an offence against subregulations (1) to (5) if the defendant has a reasonable excuse.
The final boundary instruction cannot reach the point of commencement in the stated direction.
to its intersection with a line bearing 313 degrees 57 minutes
820 metres approximately from the point of commencement; thence
southwesterly by the said line to the point of commencement.
A party interested in the execution or enforcement of an order made by the Tribunal, ex parte, for directions as to the execution or enforcement of the order.