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[2024] HCA 40
High Court of Australia
2024-08-06
Gageler CJ, Jones JJ, Jagot JJ
Original judgment source is linked above.
The questions stated for the opinion of the Full Court in the special case filed on 23 May 2024 be answered as follows:
Question 1: Is cl 070.612A(1)(a) of Sch 2 to the Migration Regulations 1994 (Cth) invalid because it infringes Ch III of the Constitution, either alone or in its operation with cl 070.612A(1)(d)?
Question 2: Is cl 070.612A(1)(d) of Sch 2 to the Migration Regulations 1994 (Cth) invalid because it infringes Ch III of the Constitution, either alone or in its operation with cl 070.612A(1)(a)?
Question 3: What, if any, relief should be granted to the plaintiff?
Answer: It should be declared that cl 070.612A(1)(a) and cl 070.612A(1)(d) of Sch 2 to the Migration Regulations 1994 (Cth) are invalid.
Question 4: Who should pay the costs of the special case?
C L Lenehan SC and T M Wood with K E W Bones for the plaintiff (instructed by Refugee Legal)
S P Donaghue KC, Solicitor-General of the Commonwealth, with M A Hosking and S Zeleznikow for the defendants (instructed by Australian Government Solicitor)
M J Wait SC, Solicitor-General for the State of South Australia, with B L Garnaut for the Attorney-General for the State of South Australia, intervening (instructed by Crown Solicitor for South Australia)
Notice: This copy of the Court's Reasons for Judgment is subject to formal revision prior to publication in the Commonwealth Law Reports.
YBFZ v Minister for Immigration, Citizenship and Multicultural Affairs
Constitutional law (Cth) - Judicial power of Commonwealth - Where cl 070.612A(1) of Sch 2 to Migration Regulations 1994 (Cth) provides that each of conditions set out in paras (a)-(d) must be imposed on grant of Bridging R (Class WR) visa ("BVR") by Minister unless Minister "satisfied that it is not reasonably necessary to impose that condition for the protection of any part of the Australian community" - Where condition in cl 070.612A(1)(a) ("monitoring condition") enables continuous electronic monitoring of person's location by requiring person to wear electronic monitoring device affixed around person's ankle - Where condition in cl 070.612A(1)(d) ("curfew condition") requires person to remain in specified location generally between 10.00 pm and 6.00 am - Where condition imposed on grant of BVR remains in force for period of 12 months from date of grant - Where failure to comply with monitoring condition or curfew condition an offence punishable by maximum penalty of five years' imprisonment or 300 penalty units or both and mandatory minimum sentence of one year's imprisonment - Where delegate of Minister granted plaintiff a BVR on conditions including monitoring condition and curfew condition - Where plaintiff arrested and charged with offences of failing to comply with monitoring condition and curfew condition - Whether cl 070.612A(1)(a) and (d) infringe Ch III of Constitution and are invalid.
Words and phrases - "arbitrary punishment", "bodily integrity", "curfew condition", "detention", "detriment", "exclusively judicial", "interference with individual liberty or bodily integrity", "judicial power", "legitimate and non-punitive purpose", "liberty", "Lim principle", "monitoring condition", "pre-eminent value", "prima facie punitive", "punishment", "punitive purpose", "purpose of punishment", "reasonably capable of being seen to be necessary", "separation of powers".
Migration Act 1958 (Cth), ss 73, 76C, 76D, 76DA, 76E.
Migration Regulations 1994 (Cth), regs 2.25AA, 2.25AB, 2.25AE, Sch 2, cl 070.612A(1), Sch 8, cll 8620, 8621.
(1) Is cl 070.612A(1)(a)[1] of Sch 2 to the Migration Regulations 1994 (Cth) ("the Migration Regulations") invalid because it infringes Ch III of the Constitution, either alone or in its operation with cl 070.612A(1)(d)?
(2) Is cl 070.612A(1)(d) of Sch 2 to the Migration Regulations invalid because it infringes Ch III of the Constitution, either alone or in its operation with cl 070.612A(1)(a)?
"The historical approach to the question whether a power is exclusively a judicial power is based upon the recognition that we have inherited and were intended by our Constitution to live under a system of law and government which has traditionally protected the rights of persons by ensuring that those rights are determined by a judiciary independent of the parliament and the executive. But the rights referred to in such an enunciation are the basic rights which traditionally, and therefore historically, are judged by that independent judiciary which is the bulwark of freedom."
"each of the following conditions must be imposed by the Minister unless the Minister is satisfied that it is not reasonably necessary to impose that condition for the protection of any part of the Australian community ...:
"(1) The holder must wear a monitoring device at all times.
(2) The holder must allow an authorised officer to fit, install, repair or remove the following:
(b) any related monitoring equipment for the holder's monitoring device.
(3) The holder must take any steps specified in writing by the Minister, and any other reasonable steps, to ensure that the following remain in good working order:
(b) any related monitoring equipment for the holder's monitoring device.
(4) If the holder becomes aware that either of the following is not in good working order:
(b) any related monitoring equipment for the holder's monitoring device;
the holder must notify an authorised officer of that as soon as practicable.
monitoring device means any electronic device capable of being used to determine or monitor the location of a person or an object or the status of an object.
related monitoring equipment, for a monitoring device, means any electronic equipment necessary for operating the monitoring device."
"The holder must notify Immigration of each of the following matters within 5 working days after the matter occurs:
(a) the holder receives, within any period of 30 days, an amount or amounts totalling AUD10 000 or more from one or more other persons;
(b) the holder transfers, within any period of 30 days, an amount or amounts totalling AUD10 000 or more to one or more other persons."
"(1) If the holder incurs a debt or debts totalling AUD10 000 or more, the holder must notify Immigration within 5 working days after the holder incurs the debt or debts.
(2) If the holder is declared bankrupt, the holder must notify Immigration within 5 working days after the holder is so declared.
(3) The holder must notify Immigration of any significant change in relation to the holder's debts or bankruptcy within 5 working days after the change occurs."
"(1) The holder must, between 10 pm on one day and 6 am the next day or between such other times as are specified in writing by the Minister, remain at a notified address for the holder for those days.
(2) If the Minister specifies other times for the purposes of subclause (1), the times must not be more than 8 hours apart.
notified address for a holder for a particular day or days means any of the following:
(i) the address notified by the holder under condition 8513 [which provides that the holder 'must notify Immigration of his or her residential address within 5 working days of grant']; or
(ii) if the holder has notified another address under condition 8625 [which provides that the holder 'must notify the Minister of any change in ... an address of the holder ... within 2 working days after the change occurs'] - the last address so notified by the holder;
(b) an address at which the holder stays regularly because of a close personal relationship with a person at that address, and which the holder has notified to Immigration for the purposes of this paragraph;
(c) if, for the purposes of this paragraph, the holder notifies Immigration of an address for that day or those days no later than 12 pm on the day before that day or the earliest day of those days (as the case may be) - that address."
The substance and effect of the monitoring condition
(1) Is cl 070.612A(1)(a) of Sch 2 to the Migration Regulations invalid because it infringes Ch III of the Constitution, either alone or in its operation with cl 070.612A(1)(d)?
(2) Is cl 070.612A(1)(d) of Sch 2 to the Migration Regulations invalid because it infringes Ch III of the Constitution, either alone or in its operation with cl 070.612A(1)(a)?
(3) What, if any, relief should be granted to the plaintiff?
Answer: It should be declared that cl 070.612A(1)(a) and cl 070.612A(1)(d) of Sch 2 to the Migration Regulations are invalid.
"Certainly the prisoner who after serving a three-year sentence is told that his punishment is over but that a seven-year period of preventive detention awaits him and that this is a 'measure' of social protection, not a punishment, might think he was being tormented by a barren piece of conceptualism - though he might not express himself in that way."
"... each of the following conditions must be imposed by the Minister unless the Minister is satisfied that it is not reasonably necessary to impose that condition for the protection of any part of the Australian community".
"8621 (1) The holder must wear a monitoring device at all times.
(2) The holder must allow an authorised officer to fit, install, repair or remove the following:
(b) any related monitoring equipment for the holder's monitoring device.
(3) The holder must take any steps specified in writing by the Minister, and any other reasonable steps, to ensure that the following remain in good working order:
(b) any related monitoring equipment for the holder's monitoring device.
(4) If the holder becomes aware that either of the following is not in good working order:
(b) any related monitoring equipment for the holder's monitoring device;
the holder must notify an authorised officer of that as soon as practicable.
monitoring device means any electronic device capable of being used to determine or monitor the location of a person or an object or the status of an object.
related monitoring equipment, for a monitoring device, means any electronic equipment necessary for operating the monitoring device."
"8620 (1) The holder must, between 10 pm on one day and 6 am the next day or between such other times as are specified in writing by the Minister, remain at a notified address for the holder for those days.
(2) If the Minister specifies other times for the purposes of subclause (1), the times must not be more than 8 hours apart.
notified address for a holder for a particular day or days means any of the following:
(i) the address notified by the holder under condition 8513 [residential address]; or
(ii) if the holder has notified another address under condition 8625 [change of address] - the last address so notified by the holder;
(b) an address at which the holder stays regularly because of a close personal relationship with a person at that address, and which the holder has notified to Immigration for the purposes of this paragraph;
(c) if, for the purposes of this paragraph, the holder notifies Immigration of an address for that day or those days no later than 12 pm on the day before that day or the earliest day of those days (as the case may be) - that address."
The interpretation of the conditions and their purpose
"to those innocent of any crime, chosen at random, or to the wife and children of the offender ... And here the wrong reply is: That, by definition, would not be 'punishment'".
"the power of the Parliament to make laws with respect to aliens includes not only the power to make laws providing for the expulsion or deportation of aliens by the Executive but extends to authorizing the Executive to restrain an alien in custody to the extent necessary to make the deportation effective.
In the light of what has been said above, the two sections will be valid laws if the detention which they require and authorize is limited to what is reasonably capable of being seen as necessary for the purposes of deportation or necessary to enable an application for an entry permit to be made and considered."
The home detention and monitoring conditions are punitive and contrary to Ch III
Declare that cl 070.612A(1)(a) and cl 070.612A(1)(d) of Sch 2 to the Migration Regulations 1994 (Cth) are invalid.
"[W]hen an exercise of legislative powers is directed to the judicial power of the Commonwealth it must operate through or in conformity with Chap. III. For that reason it is beyond the competence of the Parliament to invest with any part of the judicial power any body or person except a court created pursuant to s. 71 and constituted in accordance with s. 72 or a court brought into existence by a State."
"Punishment, in the sense of the inflicting of involuntary hardship or detriment by the State, is not an exclusively judicial function."
"Punishment in the relevant sense consists of the measures taken in the name of society to exact just retribution on those who have offended against the laws of society and thus, it is hoped, to facilitate their rehabilitation."
"Punishment presupposes an offense, not necessarily an act previously declared criminal, but an act for which retribution is exacted. The fact that harm is inflicted by governmental authority does not make it punishment."
"The first issue is whether the power to impose a detriment is prima facie punitive. For some kinds of detriment, that question will be answered by a 'default characterisation' (Step 1(a)). In all other cases, whether the power is prima facie punitive must be proved by reference to all the relevant circumstances (Step 1(b)).
If the power to impose a detriment is prima facie punitive, the second issue is whether the power is reasonably capable of being seen as necessary for a legitimate and non-punitive purpose. If it is, the power will not be properly characterised as punitive, because its prima facie status will have been displaced. This step depends on 'an assessment of both means and ends, and the relationship between the two' (Step 2)."
"[I]t seems to me that where the Parliament makes a general law which needs specified action to be taken to bring about its application in particular cases, and the question arises whether the Constitution requires that the power to take that action shall be committed to the judiciary to the exclusion of the executive, or to the executive to the exclusion of the judiciary, the answer may often be found by considering how similar or comparable powers were in fact treated in this country at the time when the Constitution was prepared. Where the action to be taken is of a kind which had come by 1900 to be so consistently regarded as peculiarly appropriate for judicial performance that it then occupied an acknowledged place in the structure of the judicial system, the conclusion, it seems to me, is inevitable that the power to take that action is within the concept of judicial power as the framers of the Constitution must be taken to have understood it."
"It is not for us to find unconstitutionality in what Congress enacted although it may imply notions that are abhorrent to us as individuals or policies we deem harmful to the country's well-being. Although it was proposed at the Constitutional Convention to have this Court share in the legislative process, the Framers saw fit to exclude it. And so 'it must be remembered that legislatures are ultimate guardians of the liberties and welfare of the people in quite as great a degree as the courts.' Missouri, K. & T. R. Co. v. May, 194 U. S. 267, 270. This admonition was uttered by Mr. Justice Holmes in one of his earliest opinions and it needs to be recalled whenever an exceptionally offensive enactment tempts the Court beyond its strict confinements."
The circumstances of the plaintiff and relevant context
"(1) The holder must, between 10 pm on one day and 6 am the next day or between such other times as are specified in writing by the Minister, remain at a notified address for the holder for those days.
(2) If the Minister specifies other times for the purposes of subclause (1), the times must not be more than 8 hours apart.
notified address for a holder for a particular day or days means any of the following:
(i) the address notified by the holder under condition 8513; or
(ii) if the holder has notified another address under condition 8625 - the last address so notified by the holder;
(b) an address at which the holder stays regularly because of a close personal relationship with a person at that address, and which the holder has notified to Immigration for the purposes of this paragraph;
(c) if, for the purposes of this paragraph, the holder notifies Immigration of an address for that day or those days no later than 12 pm on the day before that day or the earliest day of those days (as the case may be) - that address."
"(1) The holder must wear a monitoring device at all times.
(2) The holder must allow an authorised officer to fit, install, repair or remove the following:
(b) any related monitoring equipment for the holder's monitoring device.
(3) The holder must take any steps specified in writing by the Minister, and any other reasonable steps, to ensure that the following remain in good working order:
(b) any related monitoring equipment for the holder's monitoring device.
(4) If the holder becomes aware that either of the following is not in good working order:
(b) any related monitoring equipment for the holder's monitoring device;
the holder must notify an authorised officer of that as soon as practicable.
monitoring device means any electronic device capable of being used to determine or monitor the location of a person or an object or the status of an object.
related monitoring equipment, for a monitoring device, means any electronic equipment necessary for operating the monitoring device."
"The Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Bill 2023 (the Bill) amends the Migration Act 1958 (the Migration Act) and the Migration Regulations 1994 (the Regulations) to ensure that members of the NZYQ-affected cohort are managed in the community in a way that supports community safety objectives and enables the management of the cohort to a removal outcome once removal becomes reasonably practicable."
"These amendments ensure that conditions can be attached to [Bridging (Removal Pending) visas] granted to the NZYQ-affected cohort in a focussed way that takes into account the individual circumstances of the visa holder, and the community protection needs, based on a risk assessment to be undertaken on an annual (or earlier) basis. ...
Members of the NZYQ-affected cohort have no substantive visa to remain in Australia, having had their visa applications refused, or a visa cancelled, in most cases on character grounds, and who have not previously been granted a bridging visa due to safety risks they may pose to the Australian community. Consequently, the Government considers these measures to be proportionate to the particular circumstances of the NZYQ-affected cohort and aimed at the legitimate objective of protecting community safety."
"When considering what level of risk an individual may pose to the Australian community, and whether it is not reasonably necessary for the protection of any part of the Australian community to recommend imposition of a visa condition, the Board should use its collective skills, knowledge and experience and attempt to come to a collective view. The Board must have regard to all relevant factors, which may include the following:
• Behaviour in criminal custody and/or immigration detention;
• Behaviour and compliance with visa condition while in the community;
• Medical and health information (inclusive of psychological);
• Whether there are any other circumstances that are likely to increase the risk the individual may pose to the Australian community; and
• Other information relevant to the person's circumstances or conduct that is available to the Department".
"It is not the role of this Court to say that the criteria of deportation are overly harsh or unduly burdensome or otherwise disproportionate to the risk to the safety and welfare of the nation posed by the subject non-citizen remaining in this country."
"Detention derives its character from its purpose, and, in light of the decision of this Court in Chu Kheng Lim v Minister for Immigration, Local Government and Ethnic Affairs, there can be no doubt that immigration detention under s 189 is valid as reasonably capable of being seen as necessary for the purpose of removing a non-citizen from Australia. It is not punitive and it involves no exercise of judicial power."
"The defendant submits that, consistently with s 501, of which it forms part, [s 501(3A)'s] purpose is to exclude from the Australian community, by means of visa cancellation, a category of aliens which the Parliament has determined should not be part of the community due to their record of criminal offending. The criteria of which the Minister must be satisfied are those upon which a sovereign State may properly decide to exclude non-citizens in the interest of protecting the peace, order and good government of the Commonwealth. That submission should be accepted."
"The joint judgment [in Lim] pointed out that, whilst an alien present in this country enjoys the protection of our law, his or her status, rights and immunities under the law differ from those of an Australian citizen in a number of important respects. Relevantly, the most important difference lies in the vulnerability, arising under the common law and provisions of the Constitution, of an alien to exclusion or deportation. The effect is significantly to diminish the protection which Ch III provides a citizen against detention otherwise than pursuant to judicial power. The sovereign power to make laws providing for the expulsion and deportation of aliens extends to authorising the Executive to restrain them in custody to the extent necessary to make their deportation effective."
"[T]here is no constitutionally guaranteed freedom from executive detention".
"[T]hat a law enacted by the Commonwealth Parliament which authorises the detention of a person, other than through the exercise by a court of the judicial power of the Commonwealth in the performance of the function of adjudging and punishing criminal guilt, will contravene Ch III of the Constitution unless the law is reasonably capable of being seen to be necessary for a legitimate and non-punitive purpose. In other words, detention is penal or punitive unless justified as otherwise."
Protection of the community as a legitimate and non-punitive purpose
Reasonably capable of being seen as necessary to achieve a legitimate and non-punitive purpose
"(1) If subclause (3) applies to the visa, each of the following conditions must be imposed by the Minister unless the Minister is satisfied that it is not reasonably necessary to impose that condition for the protection of any part of the Australian community (including because of any other conditions imposed by or under another provision of this Division):
(2) The Minister must decide whether or not to impose each of the conditions listed in subclause (1) in the order in which those conditions are listed in that subclause.
(2A) Conditions imposed by or under this clause are in addition to any other condition imposed by or under another provision of this Division.
(a) the visa was granted under regulation 2.25AA and, at the time of grant, there was no real prospect of the removal of the holder from Australia becoming practicable in the reasonably foreseeable future; or
(b) the visa was granted under regulation 2.25AB." (emphasis added)
The power to impose the monitoring condition is valid
"(1) Is cl 070.612A(1)(a) of Sch 2 to the [Migration Regulations] invalid because it infringes Ch III of the Constitution, either alone or in its operation with cl 070.612A(1)(d)?
(2) Is cl 070.612A(1)(d) of Sch 2 to the [Migration Regulations] invalid because it infringes Ch III of the Constitution, either alone or in its operation with cl 070.612A(1)(a)?
(3) What, if any, relief should be granted to the [p]laintiff?
These questions must be understood in the context that cl 070.612A came into force via the use of the regulation-making power conferred by s 504 of the Migration Act. One of the limits on that power is that it cannot be used to promulgate a regulation that is inconsistent with Ch III of the Constitution. If the regulations are inconsistent, then they are invalid because they are not authorised by s 504. With that understanding, the questions should be answered as follows:
That is, a Bridging R (Class WR) visa which has one subclass, Subclass 070 (Bridging (Removal Pending)): Migration Regulations, reg 1.07 and Sch 1, item 1307, referred to in these reasons as a "BVR" or "visa". ↑
Clause 070.612A(3) of Sch 2 to the Migration Regulations, read with regs 2.20(18), 2.25AA, and 2.25AB, applies if there was (at the time of the grant of the visa) no real prospect of the removal of the eligible non-citizen from Australia becoming practicable in the reasonably foreseeable future. ↑
In substance, aliens who are in Australia, who hold no other visa permitting them to be in Australia, who would otherwise be held in immigration detention to facilitate their removal from Australia but who, in fact, cannot practically be removed from Australia, and who therefore can no longer lawfully be held in immigration detention to facilitate their removal, and therefore must be released into the Australian community. ↑
Australian Capital Television Pty Ltd v The Commonwealth (1992) 177 CLR 106 at 136. ↑
Re Bolton; Ex parte Beane (1987) 162 CLR 514 at 520-521. ↑
See, eg, Re Nolan; Ex parte Young (1991) 172 CLR 460 at 497; Harris v Caladine (1991) 172 CLR 84 at 142, quoting Northern Pipeline Construction Co v Marathon Pipe Line Co (1982) 458 US 50 at 60. ↑
Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Act 2023 (Cth), commencing 18 November 2023; Migration and Other Legislation Amendment (Bridging Visas, Serious Offenders and Other Measures) Act 2023 (Cth), commencing 8 December 2023; Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Regulations 2023 (Cth), commencing 8 December 2023. ↑
Amending Regulations, Sch 1, items 7, 8, 11, 12, 15 and 17. ↑
Australia, Minister for Immigration, Citizenship and Multicultural Affairs, Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Regulations 2023, Explanatory Statement at 1. ↑
Australia, House of Representatives, Parliamentary Debates (Hansard), 16 November 2023 at 8318 (emphasis added). ↑
See Migration Regulations, reg 2.04 read with Sch 2, cl 070.411, as then amended by the Amendment Act. ↑
See Migration Regulations, reg 2.25AB(1)(b), as then amended by the Amendment Act. ↑
See, eg, Australia, House of Representatives, Parliamentary Debates (Hansard), 16 November 2023 at 8318; Australia, House of Representatives, Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Bill 2023, Explanatory Memorandum at 2, 4; Australia, House of Representatives, Parliamentary Debates (Hansard), 27 November 2023 at 8510; Australia, House of Representatives, Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions and Other Measures) Bill 2023, Explanatory Memorandum at 2-3; Australia, Minister for Immigration, Citizenship and Multicultural Affairs, Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Regulations 2023, Explanatory Statement at 8. ↑
Australia, House of Representatives, Parliamentary Debates (Hansard), 16 November 2023 at 8318. ↑
Australia, House of Representatives, Parliamentary Debates (Hansard), 16 November 2023 at 8318. ↑
Australia, House of Representatives, Parliamentary Debates (Hansard), 16 November 2023 at 8320. ↑
Australia, House of Representatives, Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Bill 2023, Explanatory Memorandum at 2. ↑
Australia, House of Representatives, Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Bill 2023, Explanatory Memorandum at 2. ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 8, condition 8612. ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 8, condition 8615. ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 8, condition 8626. ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 8, condition 8622. ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 8, condition 8623. ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 8, condition 8624. ↑
Australia, House of Representatives, Parliamentary Debates (Hansard), 16 November 2023 at 8318. See also Australia, House of Representatives, Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Bill 2023, Explanatory Memorandum at 2. ↑
Australia, House of Representatives, Parliamentary Debates (Hansard), 16 November 2023 at 8396. ↑
Australia, House of Representatives, Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Bill 2023, Explanatory Memorandum at 29 [178], 41. ↑
Australia, House of Representatives, Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Bill 2023, Explanatory Memorandum at 29 [178], 41. ↑
ASF17 v Commonwealth (2024) 98 ALJR 782 at 801 [97]. ↑
Chu Kheng Lim v Minister for Immigration, Local Government and Ethnic Affairs (1992) 176 CLR 1 at 27. ↑
Alexander v Minister for Home Affairs (2022) 276 CLR 336 at 368-369 [75]. ↑
Vella v Commissioner of Police (NSW) (2019) 269 CLR 219 at 240 [41]. ↑
Vella v Commissioner of Police (NSW) (2019) 269 CLR 219 at 241 [43]. ↑
Vella v Commissioner of Police (NSW) (2019) 269 CLR 219 at 242 [47]. ↑
Vella v Commissioner of Police (NSW) (2019) 269 CLR 219 at 243-244 [49]-[50]. ↑
Vella v Commissioner of Police (NSW) (2019) 269 CLR 219 at 244 [51]. ↑
Al-Kateb v Godwin (2004) 219 CLR 562 at 650 [265]; Fardon v Attorney-General (Qld) (2004) 223 CLR 575 at 641 [174]; Alexander v Minister for Home Affairs (2022) 276 CLR 336 at 424 [238]; Benbrika v Minister for Home Affairs (2023) 97 ALJR 899 at 924 [109], 930 [140]; 415 ALR 1 at 30, 38. See Hart, Punishment and Responsibility: Essays in the Philosophy of Law (1968) at 4-5. ↑
Hart, Punishment and Responsibility: Essays in the Philosophy of Law (1968) at 4-5. ↑
Hart, Punishment and Responsibility: Essays in the Philosophy of Law (1968) at 5. ↑
Hart, Punishment and Responsibility: Essays in the Philosophy of Law (1968) at 6 (emphasis in original). ↑
Gardner, "Introduction", in Hart, Punishment and Responsibility: Essays in the Philosophy of Law, 2nd ed (2008) at xxv. ↑
See also Husak, "Lifting the Cloak: Preventive Detention as Punishment" (2011) 48 San Diego Law Review 1173 at 1193-1194. ↑
Minister for Home Affairs v Benbrika (2021) 272 CLR 68 at 149 [182]; Garlett v Western Australia (2022) 277 CLR 1 at 94 [258]; NZYQ v Minister for Immigration, Citizenship and Multicultural Affairs (2023) 97 ALJR 1005 at 1017 [51]; 415 ALR 254 at 267; ASF17 v Commonwealth (2024) 98 ALJR 782 at 801 [97]. ↑
Australian Building and Construction Commissioner v Pattinson (2022) 274 CLR 450 at 473 [57], citing Trade Practices Commission v Stihl Chain Saws (Aust) Pty Ltd [1978] ATPR ¶40-091 at 17,896. See also Trade Practices Commission v CSR Ltd [1991] ATPR ¶41-076 at 52,153. ↑
Australian Building and Construction Commissioner v Pattinson (2022) 274 CLR 450 at 479 [82]. ↑
Australian Building and Construction Commissioner v Pattinson (2022) 274 CLR 450 at 457 [10]. ↑
Huckle v Money (1763) 2 Wils KB 205 at 205 [95 ER 768 at 768]. ↑
Hart, Punishment and Responsibility: Essays in the Philosophy of Law (1968) at 166-167. ↑
Zedner, "Preventive Justice or Pre-Punishment? The Case of Control Orders" (2007) 60 Current Legal Problems 174 at 193. ↑
Waterside Workers' Federation of Australia v J W Alexander Ltd (1918) 25 CLR 434 at 444; Chu Kheng Lim v Minister for Immigration, Local Government and Ethnic Affairs (1992) 176 CLR 1 at 27; Minister for Home Affairs v Benbrika (2021) 272 CLR 68 at 157 [200], 158 [204], 172-173 [233]. ↑
Fardon v Attorney-General (Qld) (2004) 223 CLR 575 at 634 [155]. ↑
R v Bevan; Ex parte Elias and Gordon (1942) 66 CLR 452 at 469; R v Davison (1954) 90 CLR 353 at 365, 383; R v Quinn; Ex parte Consolidated Foods Corporation (1977) 138 CLR 1 at 11; Chu Kheng Lim v Minister for Immigration, Local Government and Ethnic Affairs (1992) 176 CLR 1 at 27, 53, 66-67. ↑
R v Trade Practices Tribunal; Ex parte Tasmanian Breweries Pty Ltd (1970) 123 CLR 361 at 373; Precision Data Holdings Ltd v Wills (1991) 173 CLR 167 at 189; Re Dingjan; Ex parte Wagner (1995) 183 CLR 323 at 360; Sue v Hill (1999) 199 CLR 462 at 516-517 [134]-[135]. ↑
See Benbrika v Minister for Home Affairs (2023) 97 ALJR 899 at 920-921 [92]; 415 ALR 1 at 25. ↑
Australian Communications and Media Authority v Today FM (Sydney) Pty Ltd (2015) 255 CLR 352 at 376 [49], 378-379 [58]-[59], 380 [63], 386 [79]. See also Albarran v Companies Auditors and Liquidators Disciplinary Board (2007) 231 CLR 350; Visnic v Australian Securities and Investments Commission (2007) 231 CLR 381 at 385 [11], 386 [16]; Attorney-General (Cth) v Alinta Ltd (2008) 233 CLR 542. ↑
Australian Citizenship Act 2007 (Cth), s 36B(1)(b) (as it then was). ↑
Alexander v Minister for Home Affairs (2022) 276 CLR 336 at 368-369 [75], 371 [82], 398 [163], 402 [173], 429 [251]. ↑
North Australian Aboriginal Justice Agency Ltd v Northern Territory (2015) 256 CLR 569 at 611-612 [98]. See also Re Woolley; Ex parte Applicants M276/2003 (2004) 225 CLR 1 at 25-26 [60]; Attorney-General (NT) v Emmerson (2014) 253 CLR 393 at 430 [53]. ↑
(2022) 276 CLR 336 at 367-368 [72]-[74], 401-402 [171]-[172], 427 [248]. ↑
Alexander v Minister for Home Affairs (2022) 276 CLR 336 at 426 [245]. ↑
NZYQ v Minister for Immigration, Citizenship and Multicultural Affairs (2023) 97 ALJR 1005 at 1017 [52]; 415 ALR 254 at 267; ASF17 v Commonwealth (2024) 98 ALJR 782 at 796 [70]. ↑
Appleby and McDonald, "Punishment and Chapter III of the Constitution", in Griffiths and Stellios (eds), Current Issues in Australian Constitutional Law (2020) 64 at 65. ↑
Chiro v The Queen (2017) 260 CLR 425 at 476 [122], referring to Fuller, Legal Fictions (1967) at 51, 71. ↑
(2023) 97 ALJR 1005 at 1017 [51]-[52]; 415 ALR 254 at 267. ↑
Jones v Commonwealth (2023) 97 ALJR 936 at 968 [152]; 415 ALR 46 at 85. See also Minister for Home Affairs v Benbrika (2021) 272 CLR 68 at 164 [216], 169 [226]. ↑
Falzon v Minister for Immigration and Border Protection (2018) 262 CLR 333 at 343-344 [29]. ↑
(2023) 97 ALJR 1005 at 1018 [55]; 415 ALR 254 at 268; see also at 1017-1018 [51]-[54]; 415 ALR 254 at 267-268. ↑
NZYQ v Minister for Immigration, Citizenship and Multicultural Affairs (2023) 97 ALJR 1005 at 1016 [46]; 415 ALR 254 at 266. ↑
NZYQ v Minister for Immigration, Citizenship and Multicultural Affairs (2023) 97 ALJR 1005 at 1016 [44]; 415 ALR 254 at 265. ↑
Kruger v The Commonwealth (1997) 190 CLR 1 at 161-162; Plaintiff M47/2012 v Director-General of Security (2012) 251 CLR 1 at 154-155 [402]; Plaintiff M68/2015 v Minister for Immigration and Border Protection (2016) 257 CLR 42 at 131 [264]; Falzon v Minister for Immigration and Border Protection (2018) 262 CLR 333 at 360 [96]; Jones v Commonwealth (2023) 97 ALJR 936 at 949-950 [63]; 415 ALR 46 at 60; NZYQ v Minister for Immigration, Citizenship and Multicultural Affairs (2023) 97 ALJR 1005 at 1013-1014 [30]; 415 ALR 254 at 262. ↑
Al-Kateb v Godwin (2004) 219 CLR 562 at 662-663 [303]. ↑
Cunliffe v The Commonwealth (1994) 182 CLR 272 at 295-296. ↑
Cunliffe v The Commonwealth (1994) 182 CLR 272 at 296. ↑
Cunliffe v The Commonwealth (1994) 182 CLR 272 at 375. See also Brennan J at 317. ↑
Cunliffe v The Commonwealth (1994) 182 CLR 272 at 375-376, 377-378. ↑
Cunliffe v The Commonwealth (1994) 182 CLR 272 at 387-388, referring to Nationwide News Pty Ltd v Wills (1992) 177 CLR 1 at 93-94. ↑
Leask v The Commonwealth (1996) 187 CLR 579 at 593-594. ↑
Cunliffe v The Commonwealth (1994) 182 CLR 272 at 317-318, 322-324. ↑
Cunliffe v The Commonwealth (1994) 182 CLR 272 at 317. ↑
See Bank of New South Wales v The Commonwealth (1948) 76 CLR 1 at 186. ↑
See Chu Kheng Lim v Minister for Immigration, Local Government and Ethnic Affairs (1992) 176 CLR 1 at 23, 31. See also at 12, 51-52, 56. ↑
Chu Kheng Lim v Minister for Immigration, Local Government and Ethnic Affairs (1992) 176 CLR 1 at 30-31, 33. ↑
Reasons of Gageler CJ, Gordon, Gleeson and Jagot JJ at [14]. ↑
United States v Lovett (1946) 328 US 303 at 324. ↑
Jones v The Commonwealth (2023) 97 ALJR 936 at 946 [39]; 415 ALR 46 at 55. ↑
(2023) 97 ALJR 899 at 909 [35]; 415 ALR 1 at 10. ↑
cf Australian Capital Television Pty Ltd v The Commonwealth (1992) 177 CLR 106 at 135-136. ↑
Huddart, Parker & Co Pty Ltd v Moorehead (1909) 8 CLR 330 at 357; R v Trade Practices Tribunal; Ex parte Tasmanian Breweries Pty Ltd (1970) 123 CLR 361 at 374-375; Chu Kheng Lim v Minister for Immigration, Local Government and Ethnic Affairs (1992) 176 CLR 1 at 67. ↑
Reasons of Gageler CJ, Gordon, Gleeson and Jagot JJ at [13]. ↑
Reasons of Gageler CJ, Gordon, Gleeson and Jagot JJ at [14]. ↑
cf Vella v Commissioner of Police (NSW) (2019) 269 CLR 219. ↑
[2021] AC 262 at 268 [9]. See R (Gedi) v Secretary of State for the Home Department [2016] 4 WLR 93. ↑
See, eg, Crimes Act 1914 (Cth), ss 3G(b)-(c), 3ZZKG(2), 3ZZLD(2) and Pt IAA, Div 4 noting s 3ZC. ↑
See, eg, Migration Act 1958 (Cth), ss 252AA-252B; Crimes Act 1914 (Cth), ss 3F(1)(f), (2), 3UD(1)(b)(i), 3ZE-3ZF, 3ZH; Customs Act 1901 (Cth), ss 211-211A, 219ZJD, 219ZJG(1); Defence Act 1903 (Cth), ss 71R(2) and 71T(3). ↑
See, eg, Migration Act 1958 (Cth), ss 5, 5A, 257A and Pt 2, Div 13AA; Crimes Act 1914 (Cth), s 3ZJ(3)(b)-(c), (4). ↑
See, eg, Migration Regulations 1994 (Cth), reg 5.35; Customs Act 1901 (Cth), s 219ZG; Biosecurity Act 2015 (Cth), Ch 2, Pt 3, Div 3. ↑
NZYQ v Minister for Immigration, Citizenship and Multicultural Affairs (2023) 97 ALJR 1005 at 1016 [44]; 415 ALR 254 at 265. ↑
Under reg 2.25AA(2) of the Migration Regulations 1994 (Cth). The Bridging R (Class WR) visa, per Migration Regulations, reg 1.07, Sch 1, cl 1307 has one subclass: 070 (Bridging (Removal Pending)). ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 8, condition 8621. ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 8, condition 8620. ↑
The plaintiff was granted BVRs on 13 December 2023 under reg 2.25AB(2) of the Migration Regulations; on 4 January 2024 under reg 2.25AB(2) of the Migration Regulations; and on 16 February 2024 under reg 2.25AB(2) of the Migration Regulations. ↑
Under reg 2.25AA(2) of the Migration Regulations. ↑
NZYQ (2023) 97 ALJR 1005 at 1015 [38]-[39]; 415 ALR 254 at 264. ↑
NZYQ (2023) 97 ALJR 1005 at 1015 [39]; 415 ALR 254 at 264. ↑
Gageler CJ, Gordon, Steward, Gleeson, Jagot and Beech-Jones JJ. ↑
NZYQ (2023) 97 ALJR 1005 at 1016 [44]; 415 ALR 254 at 265; see also Jones v Commonwealth (2023) 97 ALJR 936 at 946-947 [43]; 415 ALR 46 at 56. ↑
(2023) 97 ALJR 936 at 946-947 [43]; 415 ALR 46 at 56. ↑
Alexander v Minister for Home Affairs (2022) 276 CLR 336 at 424 [238], 436 [244]. ↑
Alexander (2022) 276 CLR 336 at 383 [120], 397 [159]; Benbrika (No 2) (2023) 97 ALJR 899 at 908 [27], 917 [77]; 415 ALR 1 at 8, 21; Jones (2023) 97 ALJR 936 at 946 [39]; 415 ALR 46 at 55. ↑
See, eg, Alexander (2022) 276 CLR 336 at 368 [73], 369 [77], 375 [95], 397 [159], 399-400 [166], 402 [172], 424 [238], 426 [244], 427 [248]; Benbrika (No 2) (2023) 97 ALJR 899 at 907 [21]-[22]; 415 ALR 1 at 7. ↑
Alexander (2022) 276 CLR 336 at 367-368 [72], 368-369 [75], 397 [159], 428 [250]. ↑
Alexander (2022) 276 CLR 336 at 367 [72], 397 [159], 400-402 [167]-[172]; Benbrika (No 2) (2023) 97 ALJR 899 at 907 [22]; 415 ALR 1 at 7. ↑
Hussey v Moor (1616) 3 Bulst 275 at 280 [81 ER 232 at 236], cited in Alexander (2022) 276 CLR 336 at 367-368 [72]. ↑
Falzon v Minister for Immigration and Border Protection (2018) 262 CLR 333 at 347-348 [47]-[48], 357 [88], 358 [93]. ↑
See, eg, Secretary of State for the Home Department v JJ [2008] AC 385 at 409-410 [14]-[15]. ↑
Jones (2023) 97 ALJR 936 at 943 [19]; 415 ALR 46 at 51, citing Alexander (2022) 276 CLR 336 at 378 [102]. ↑
APLA Ltd v Legal Services Commissioner (NSW) (2005) 224 CLR 322 at 394 [178]. ↑
Re Woolley (2004) 225 CLR 1 at 26 [60], cited in Falzon (2018) 262 CLR 333 at 341 [20]. ↑
Section 36B of the Australian Citizenship Act 2007 (Cth), which was inserted by Sch 1, item 9 of the Australian Citizenship Amendment (Citizenship Cessation) Act 2020 (Cth). ↑
Australian Citizenship Act 2007 (Cth), s 36A; Alexander (2022) 276 CLR 336 at 383 [120]; see also at 371-372 [83]-[84], 429 [251]. ↑
Australian Citizenship Act 2007 (Cth), s 36D; Alexander (2022) 276 CLR 336 at 367 [70], 373 [87]. ↑
See Benbrika (No 2) (2023) 97 ALJR 899 at 924-925 [107]-[114]; 415 ALR 1 at 29-31. ↑
Jones (2023) 97 ALJR 936 at 947-948 [49]-[50], 959 [106]-[107]; 415 ALR 46 at 57-58, 73. ↑
Re Woolley (2004) 225 CLR 1 at 25-26 [60]-[61]; Minister for Home Affairs v Benbrika ("Benbrika (No 1)") (2021) 272 CLR 68 at 98-100 [39]‑[40]. ↑
Alexander (2022) 276 CLR 336 at 380 [111]; see also at 425 [242]; Benbrika (No 1) (2021) 272 CLR 68 at 149-150 [183]-[185]. ↑
Alexander (2022) 276 CLR 336 at 381 [113]; Benbrika (No 1) (2021) 272 CLR 68 at 157-158 [202]. ↑
Alexander (2022) 276 CLR 336 at 380 [109]-[110], 425-426 [243], 460 [337]; see also cases cited at fn 373. ↑
Re Woolley (2004) 225 CLR 1 at 26 [61]; Benbrika (No 1) (2021) 272 CLR 68 at 155 [197]. ↑
Alexander (2022) 276 CLR 336 at 426 [245], citing Benbrika (No 1) (2021) 272 CLR 68 at 155-159 [197]-[204]. ↑
NZYQ (2023) 97 ALJR 1005 at 1016 [44]; 415 ALR 254 at 265. ↑
Lim (1992) 176 CLR 1 at 33, cited in Kruger v The Commonwealth (1997) 190 CLR 1 at 162; Falzon (2018) 262 CLR 333 at 343 [26]. ↑
Jones (2023) 97 ALJR 936 at 946 [42]; 415 ALR 46 at 56. ↑
Falzon (2018) 262 CLR 333 at 343-344 [29]-[33]. ↑
See Lange v Australian Broadcasting Corporation (1997) 189 CLR 520 at 568, where the Court referred to the example of Australian Capital Television Pty Ltd v The Commonwealth (1992) 177 CLR 106; see also Monis v The Queen (2013) 249 CLR 92 at 193 [280], 214 [347]; Maloney v The Queen (2013) 252 CLR 168 at 236-237 [182]. ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 8, condition 8621(1)-(3). ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 8, condition 8621(5). ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 8, condition 8621(5). ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 8, condition 8620(1)-(2). ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 8, condition 8620(3). ↑
Bridging Visa Conditions Act, Sch 2, items 8, 13. ↑
Australia, House of Representatives, Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Bill 2023, Explanatory Memorandum at 2. ↑
Australia, House of Representatives, Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Bill 2023, Explanatory Memorandum at 28 [175]. ↑
Australia, House of Representatives, Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Bill 2023, Explanatory Memorandum at 29 [178]. ↑
Australia, House of Representatives, Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Bill 2023, Explanatory Memorandum at 29 [178]. ↑
Australia, House of Representatives, Parliamentary Debates (Hansard), 16 November 2023 at 8318-8319. ↑
Australia, House of Representatives, Parliamentary Debates (Hansard), 27 November 2023 at 8510; Migration and Other Legislation Amendment (Bridging Visas, Serious Offenders and Other Measures) Act 2023 (Cth), Sch 1, item 4. ↑
Australia, House of Representatives, Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Bill 2023, Explanatory Memorandum at 4; Australia, House of Representatives, Parliamentary Debates (Hansard), 27 November 2023 at 8510; Australia, Senate, Parliamentary Debates (Hansard), 5 December 2023 at 6525. ↑
Australia, House of Representatives, Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Bill 2023, Explanatory Memorandum at 4. ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 2, cl 070.612A(1)(b)-(c). ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 8, condition 8617. ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 8, condition 8618. ↑
Bridging Visa Conditions Act, Sch 2, item 7. ↑
Australia, House of Representatives, Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Bill 2023, Explanatory Memorandum at 27 [166], 28 [168]. ↑
Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Regulations 2023 (Cth), Sch 1, item 17. ↑
Migration Amendment (Bridging Visa Conditions) Regulations 2023 (Cth), Sch 1, item 18. ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 2, cl 070.612B(4). ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 8, condition 8622. ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 8, condition 8623. ↑
Migration Regulations, Sch 8, condition 8624. ↑
Migration Act, ss 76DAA, 76DAB, 76DAC; introduced by the Migration and Other Legislation Amendment (Bridging Visas, Serious Offenders and Other Measures) Act 2023 (Cth), Sch 1, item 1. ↑
Vella (2019) 269 CLR 219 at 242 [47], 243-244 [49]-[51]. ↑
Thomas v Mowbray (2007) 233 CLR 307 at 332 [22]. ↑
See, eg, Plaintiff M1/2021 v Minister for Home Affairs (2022) 275 CLR 582 at 598-599 [23]-[25]. ↑
See, eg, Plaintiff M1/2021 (2022) 275 CLR 582 at 598-599 [23]-[25]. ↑
See, eg, Enfield City Corporation v Development Assessment Commission (2000) 199 CLR 135 at 150 [34]; see also R v Connell; Ex parte Hetton Bellbird Collieries Ltd (1944) 69 CLR 407 at 430, 432; Buck v Bavone (1976) 135 CLR 110 at 118-119; Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs v Eshetu (1999) 197 CLR 611 at 650-657 [127]-[146]. ↑
Secretary, Department of Health and Community Services v JWB and SMB (Marion's Case) (1992) 175 CLR 218 at 233. ↑
Biosecurity Act 2015 (Cth), see in particular ss 89, 90-93. ↑
Crimes Act 1914 (Cth), ss 3G(b)-(c), 3ZC, 3ZZKG(2), 3ZZLD(2). ↑
Migration Act, ss 257A, 5A(1); Crimes Act, s 3ZJ(3)(b)-(c), (4). ↑
Aviation Transport Security Act 2004 (Cth), ss 84, 89C, 95B, 95C. ↑
See, eg, Australian Broadcasting Corporation v Lenah Game Meats Pty Ltd (2001) 208 CLR 199 at 226 [43]; Clubb v Edwards (2019) 267 CLR 171 at 195-196 [49]-[51], 198-199 [60], 205 [85], 209 [101], 235-236 [197]; Farm Transparency International Ltd v New South Wales (2022) 277 CLR 537 at 588-589 [159]. ↑
See, eg, Katz v United States (1967) 389 US 347 at 350; R v Plant [1993] 3 SCR 281 at 292. ↑
See Love v Attorney-General (NSW) (1990) 169 CLR 307 at 321-322. ↑
"Riding the stang" was a practice previously employed throughout parts of England where an offender was made to straggle a "stang" (often a hurdle or wooden pole) and was paraded through the town while others banged pots and jeered. See Andrews, Old-time punishments (1890) at 180-187. ↑
See Andrews, Old-time punishments (1890) at 176-177, 180-187; Andrews, Bygone punishments (1899) at 239-242; Bellamy, Crime and Public Order in England in the Later Middle Ages (1973) at 184-185. ↑
See, eg, Sentencing Act 1991 (Vic), s 5(1)(d); Penalties and Sentencing Act 1992 (Qld), s 9(1)(d); Sentencing Act 1995 (WA), s 9C(2)(a); Sentencing Act 1995 (NT), s 5(1)(d); Sentencing Act 1997 (Tas), s 3(e)(iii); Crimes (Sentencing Procedure) Act 1999 (NSW), s 3A(f); Crimes (Sentencing) Act 2005 (ACT), s 7(1)(f); Sentencing Act 2017 (SA), s 4(1)(b). ↑
See, eg, Ryan v The Queen (2001) 206 CLR 267 at 284-285 [52]-[53], 303-304 [123], 318-319 [177], cited in Kenny v The Queen [2010] NSWCCA 6 at [18]‑[22]; R v Nuttall; Ex parte Attorney-General (Qld) (2011) 209 A Crim R 538 at 553 [65]; Duncan v The Queen [2012] NSWCCA 78 at [28]; R v Wran [2016] NSWSC 1015 at [72]-[79]. ↑
See reasons of Gageler CJ, Gordon, Gleeson and Jagot JJ at [61]. ↑
CPCF v Minister for Immigration and Border Protection (2015) 255 CLR 514 at 631 [400]; see also Lewis v Australian Capital Territory (2020) 271 CLR 192 at 206-207 [24]-[25]; McFadzean v Construction, Forestry, Mining and Energy Union (2007) 20 VR 250. ↑
See, eg, Koon Wing Lau v Calwell (1949) 80 CLR 533 at 556; Re Officer in Charge of Cells, ACT Supreme Court; Ex parte Eastman (1994) 68 ALJR 668 at 669; 123 ALR 478 at 480; McHugh v Minister for Immigration, Citizenship, Migrant Services and Multicultural Affairs (2020) 283 FCR 602 at 623 [77], 648 [189]. ↑
Lim (1992) 176 CLR 1 at 27; see also at 32, 55. ↑
(2007) 233 CLR 307 at 330 [18]; see also at 356 [116] per Gummow and Crennan JJ. ↑
See cases cited in JJ [2008] AC 385 at 410 [14]. ↑
JJ [2008] AC 385 at 414-415 [24], 425 [63], 437-438 [105]. ↑
Secretary of State for the Home Department v E [2008] AC 499 at 511-512 [23]-[25], 519-520 [59]-[60], 520 [63], 520-521 [66]-[67]. ↑
See R (Jalloh) v Secretary of State for the Home Department [2021] AC 262. ↑
YBFZ
Minister for Immigration, Citizenship and Multicultural Affairs
(1992) 177 CLR 106
(1987) 162 CLR 514
(1991) 172 CLR 460
(1991) 172 CLR 84
(2023) 97 ALJR 1005
(1992) 176 CLR 1
(2004) 225 CLR 1
(2024) 98 ALJR 782
(1996) 189 CLR 1
(2013) 251 CLR 533
(1977) 138 CLR 1
(1954) 90 CLR 353
(2019) 269 CLR 219
(1992) 175 CLR 218
(2022) 276 CLR 336
(2015) 257 CLR 178
(2017) 261 CLR 328
(2023) 97 ALJR 936
(2004) 220 CLR 181
(2005) 224 CLR 322
(2021) 272 CLR 505
(2007) 233 CLR 307
(2014) 254 CLR 508
(2019) 267 CLR 171
(2021) 273 CLR 216
(2021) 274 CLR 219
(2022) 277 CLR 537
(1939) 61 CLR 634
(1948) 76 CLR 1
(2019) 268 CLR 355
(2005) 222 CLR 489
(2015) 256 CLR 569
(2022) 277 CLR 1
(2021) 272 CLR 68
(2019) 268 CLR 1
(2004) 219 CLR 562
(2004) 223 CLR 575
(2023) 97 ALJR 899
(1988) 165 CLR 611
(2022) 274 CLR 450
(2004) 220 CLR 129
(1988) 164 CLR 465
(1956) 94 CLR 254
(1918) 25 CLR 434
(1996) 189 CLR 51
(2018) 262 CLR 333
(2017) 261 CLR 582
(1942) 66 CLR 452
(1970) 123 CLR 361
(1991) 173 CLR 167
(1995) 183 CLR 323
(1999) 199 CLR 462
(2015) 255 CLR 352
(2007) 231 CLR 350
(2007) 231 CLR 381
(2008) 233 CLR 542
(1963) 109 CLR 665
(2014) 253 CLR 393
(2004) 219 CLR 486
(2017) 260 CLR 425
(1997) 190 CLR 1
(2012) 251 CLR 1
(2016) 257 CLR 42
(1910) 11 CLR 311
(1981) 147 CLR 259
(1983) 158 CLR 1
(1988) 164 CLR 261
(1992) 177 CLR 1
(1996) 187 CLR 579
(1991) 172 CLR 501
(1994) 182 CLR 272
(2014) 254 CLR 28
(1947) 74 CLR 31
(2019) 267 CLR 373
(1909) 8 CLR 330
(1949) 77 CLR 261
(1997) 189 CLR 520
(2013) 249 CLR 92
(2013) 252 CLR 168
(2000) 202 CLR 629
(2022) 275 CLR 582
(2000) 199 CLR 135
(1944) 69 CLR 407
(1976) 135 CLR 110
(1999) 197 CLR 611
(2001) 208 CLR 199
(1990) 169 CLR 307
(2001) 206 CLR 267
(2015) 255 CLR 514
(2020) 271 CLR 192
(2007) 20 VR 250
(1949) 80 CLR 533
(1994) 68 ALJR 668
(2020) 283 FCR 602
(1986) 12 FCR 257
(1994) 51 FCR 38
(2008) 169 FCR 46