austlii:cth/ARTA/2026/149
General information, not legal advice.
ARTA
2026-01-30
Original judgment source is linked above.
760A Object of Chapter
The main object of this Chapter is to promote:
(a) confident and informed decision making by consumers of financial products and services while facilitating efficiency, flexibility and innovation in the provision of those products and services; and
(aa) the provision of suitable financial products to consumers of financial products; and
(b) fairness, honesty and professionalism by those who provide financial services; and
(c) fair, orderly and transparent markets for financial products; and
(d) the reduction of systemic risk and the provision of fair and effective services by clearing and settlement facilities.
(1) Subject to paragraph (2)(b), a person provides a financial service if they:
(a) provide financial product advice; or
(b) deal in a financial product; or
(c) make a market for a financial product; or
(d) operate a registered scheme; or
(da) operate the business and conduct the affairs of a CCIV; or
(e) provide a custodial or depository service; or (ea) provide a crowd - funding service; or
(eb) provide a claims handling and settling service; or (ec) provide a superannuation trustee service; or
(f) engage in conduct of a kind prescribed by regulations made for the purposes of this paragraph.
(a) the circumstances in which persons facilitating the provision of a financial service (for example, by publishing information) are taken also to provide that service; or
(b) the circumstances in which persons are taken to provide, or are taken not to provide, a financial service.
Overlap between financial services
(5) The fact that conduct constitutes the provision of a financial service is not to be taken to imply that the conduct does not also constitute the provision of another financial service.
Note: For example, conduct may constitute providing a superannuation trustee service and also providing another financial service (such as dealing in a financial product that is a superannuation product).
(a) do all things necessary to ensure that the financial services covered by the licence are provided efficiently, honestly and fairly; and
(aa) have in place adequate arrangements for the management of conflicts of interest that may arise wholly, or partially, in relation to activities undertaken by the licensee or a representative of the licensee in the provision of financial services as part of the financial services business of the licensee or the representative; and
(b) comply with the conditions on the licence; and
(c) comply with the financial services laws; and
(ca) take reasonable steps to ensure that its representatives comply with the financial services laws, except to the extent that:
(i) those representatives are persons who carry on a business of providing goods or services to persons insured under insurance products in satisfaction of the liability of the insurers under those products; and
(ii) the financial services laws relate to the provision of claims handling and settling services by those representatives; and
(d) subject to subsection (4) - have available adequate resources (including financial, technological and human resources) to provide the financial services covered by the licence and to carry out supervisory arrangements; and
(e) maintain the competence to provide those financial services; and
(f) ensure that its representatives are adequately trained (including by complying with the CPD provisions), and are competent, to provide those financial services; and
(g) if those financial services are provided to persons as retail clients:
(i) have a dispute resolution system complying with subsection (2); and
(ii) give ASIC the information specified in any instrument under subsection (2A); and
(h) subject to subsection (5) - have adequate risk management systems; and
(j) comply with any other obligations that are prescribed by regulations made for the purposes of this paragraph.
Civil penalty provision
(5A) A person contravenes this subsection if the person contravenes paragraph (1)(a), (aa), (ca), (cc), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h) or (j).
Note: This subsection is a civil penalty provision (see section 1317E).
920A ASIC's power to make a banning order Making a banning order
(1) ASIC may, in writing, make one or more orders (banning orders) against a person if:
(d) ASIC has reason to believe that the person is not a fit and proper person to:
(i) provide one or more financial services; or
(ii) perform one or more functions as an officer of an entity that carries on a financial services business; or
(iii) control an entity that carries on a financial services business; or
(da) ASIC has reason to believe that the person is not adequately trained, or is not competent, to:
(i) provide one or more financial services; or
(ii) perform one or more functions as an officer of an entity that carries on a financial services business; or
(iii) control an entity that carries on a financial services business; or
(f) ASIC has reason to believe that the person is likely to contravene a financial services law; or
(g) the person has been involved in the contravention of a financial services law by another person; or
When a person is not a fit and proper person
(1A) For the purposes of paragraph (1)(d), ASIC must have regard to the matters in section 913BB.
When a person contravenes a financial services law
(1B) To avoid doubt, a person contravenes a financial services law if a person fails to comply with a duty imposed under that law, even if the provision imposing the duty is not an offence provision or a civil penalty provision.
(2) Subject to subsection (3), if ASIC has not delegated its power to make a banning order against a person to a Financial Services and Credit Panel, ASIC may make the order only after giving the person an opportunity:
(a) to appear, or be represented, at a hearing before ASIC that takes place in private; and
(b) to make submissions to ASIC on the matter.
Note: If ASIC delegates its power to make a banning order against a person to a Financial Services and Credit Panel, the panel may make the order only after holding a hearing in relation to the proposed order (see section 157 of the ASIC Act).
Copy of banning order to be given to the person
(4) ASIC must give a copy of a banning order to the person against whom it was made.
913BB Fit and proper person test - matters to which ASIC must have regard
(1) ASIC must have regard to the matters set out in subsection (2) (subject to Part VIIC of the Crimes Act 1914) for the purposes of applying any of the following provisions to a person:
(a) a paragraph of subsection 913BA(1);
(b) paragraph 920A(1)(d).
Note: Part VIIC of the Crimes Act 1914 includes provisions that, in certain circumstances, relieve persons from the requirement to disclose spent convictions and require persons aware of such convictions to disregard them.
(a) whether any of the following of the person has ever been suspended or cancelled:
(i) an Australian financial services licence;
(ii) an Australian credit licence, or a registration under the Transitional Act, within the meaning of the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009;
(b) whether any of the following has ever been made against the person:
(i) a banning order, or a disqualification order under Subdivision B of Division 8 of this Part;
(ii) a banning order, or a disqualification order, under Part 2‑4 of the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009;
(c) if the person is an individual - whether the person has ever been disqualified under this Act, or any other law of the Commonwealth or of a State or Territory, from managing corporations;
(d) whether the person has ever been banned from engaging in a credit activity (within the meaning of the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009) under a law of a State or Territory;
(e) whether the person has ever been linked to a refusal or failure to give effect to a determination made by AFCA;
(f) whether the person has ever:
(i) been a Chapter 5 body corporate or an insolvent under administration; or
(ii) if the person is a partnership - had a creditor's petition or a debtor's petition presented against it under Division 2 or 3 of Part IV of the Bankruptcy Act 1966;
(g) if the person is the multiple trustees of a trust - whether a trustee of the trust has ever been a Chapter 5 body corporate or an insolvent under administration;
(h) whether, in the last 10 years, the person has been convicted of an offence;
(i) any relevant information given to ASIC by a State or Territory, or an authority of a State or Territory, in relation to the person;
(j) any other matter prescribed by the regulations;
(k) any other matter ASIC considers relevant.
Involvement in contraventions
A person is involved in a contravention if, and only if, the person:
(a) has aided, abetted, counselled or procured the contravention; or
(b) has induced, whether by threats or promises or otherwise, the contravention; or
(c) has been in any way, by act or omission, directly or indirectly, knowingly concerned in, or party to, the contravention; or
(d) has conspired with others to effect the contravention.
(1) A banning order made against a person may specify that the person is prohibited from doing one or more of the following:
(a) providing any financial services;
(b) providing specified financial services in specified circumstances or capacities;
(c) controlling, whether alone or in concert with one or more other entities, an entity that carries on a financial services business;
(d) performing any function involved in the carrying on of a financial services business (including as an officer, manager, employee, contractor or in some other capacity);
(e) performing specified functions involved in the carrying on of a financial services business.
(2) The banning order may specify that a particular prohibition specified in the order applies against the person:
(a) if the sole ground for the banning order is because paragraph 920A(1)(k) applies - for a specified period of up to 5 years; or
(b) otherwise - either permanently or for a specified period.
Note: This subsection applies separately to each prohibition specified in the order.
(3) A banning order may include a provision allowing the person against whom it was made, subject to any specified conditions:
(a) to do specified acts; or
(b) to do specified acts in specified circumstances;
that the order would otherwise prohibit them from doing.
911A Need for an Australian financial services licence
(1) Subject to this section, a person who carries on a financial services business in this jurisdiction must hold an Australian financial services licence covering the provision of the financial services.
Note 1: Also, a person must not provide a financial service contrary to a banning order or disqualification order under Division 8.
Note 2: Failure to comply with this subsection is an offence (see subsection 1311(1)).
5B) A person contravenes this subsection if the person contravenes subsection (1). Note: This subsection is a civil penalty provision (see section 1317E).
949A General advice provided to retail client - obligation to warn client that advice does not take account of client's objectives, financial situation or needs
(1) This section applies in relation to the provision of general advice if:
(a) the advice is provided:
(i) by a financial services licensee (the providing entity); or
(ii) by an authorised representative (the providing entity) of a financial services licensee, or of 2 or more financial services licensees; and
(b) the advice is provided to a person (the client) as a retail client; and
(c) the advice is not provided in circumstances specified in regulations made for the purposes of this paragraph.
(2) The providing entity must, in accordance with subsection (3), warn the client that:
(a) the advice has been prepared without taking account of the client's objectives, financial situation or needs; and
(b) because of that, the client should, before acting on the advice, consider the appropriateness of the advice, having regard to the client's objectives, financial situation and needs; and
(c) if the advice relates to the acquisition, or possible acquisition, of a particular financial product - the client should:
(i) if the product is not a CGS depository interest - obtain a Product Disclosure Statement (see Division 2 of Part 7.9) relating to the product and consider the Statement before making any decision about whether to acquire the product; or
(ii) if the product is a CGS depository interest - obtain each information statement (see Division 5C of Part 7.9) for the class of CGS depository interests that includes the product and consider the statement before making any decision about whether to acquire the product.
Note: Failure to comply with this subsection is an offence (see subsection 1311(1)).
(3) The warning must be given to the client at the same time as the advice is provided and by the same means as the advice is provided.
(4) In any proceedings against an authorised representative of a financial services licensee for an offence based on subsection (1), it is a defence if:
(a) the licensee had provided the authorised representative with information or instructions about the requirements to be complied with in relation to the giving of personal advice; and
(b) the representative's failure to comply with subsection (1) occurred because the representative was acting in reliance on that information or those instructions; and
(c) the representative's reliance on that information or those instructions was reasonable.
Note: A defendant bears an evidential burden in relation to the matters in subsection
(4). See subsection 13.3(3) of the Criminal Code.
(5) A financial services licensee must take reasonable steps to ensure that an authorised representative of the licensee complies with subsection (2).
Note: Failure to comply with this subsection is an offence (see subsection 1311(1)).
1041H Misleading or deceptive conduct (civil liability only)
(1) A person must not, in this jurisdiction, engage in conduct, in relation to a financial product or a financial service, that is misleading or deceptive or is likely to mislead or deceive.
Note 1: Failure to comply with this subsection is not an offence.
Note 2: Failure to comply with this subsection may lead to civil liability under section 1041I. For limits on, and relief from, liability under that section, see Division 4.
(2) The reference in subsection (1) to engaging in conduct in relation to a financial product includes (but is not limited to) any of the following:
(a) dealing in a financial product;
(b) without limiting paragraph (a):
(i) issuing a financial product;
(ii) publishing a notice in relation to a financial product;
(iii) making, or making an evaluation of, an offer under a takeover bid or a recommendation relating to such an offer;
(x) carrying on negotiations, or making arrangements, or doing any other act, preparatory to, or in any way related to, an activity covered by any of subparagraphs (i) to (ix).
(a) Affidavit of Mark Bringans affirmed 16 May 2022 (May 2022 Affidavit);
(b) Affidavit of Mark Bringans affirmed 25 July 2022 (July 2022 Affidavit);
(c) Affidavit of Mark Bringans affirmed 29 January 2024 (January 2024 Affidavit).
(d) Applicant's documents:
(i) Statement of Facts, Issues and Contentions dated 30 June 2023;
(ii) Applicant's outline of opening submissions dated 17 March 2025;
(iii) Applicant's outline of closing submissions dated 23 May 2025;
(iv) Applicant's reply submissions dated 25 July 2025;
(v) Applicant's List of Legislation and Authorities dated 19 August 2025.
(e) Respondent's documents:
(i) Statement of Facts, Issues and Contentions dated 24 March 2023;
(ii) Supplementary Statement of Facts, Issues and Contentions dated 9 October 2023;
(iii) Respondent's outline of opening submissions dated 17 March 2025;
(iv) Closing Submissions dated 5 May 2025;
(v) "Notice to Admit Facts - Contraventions by Sirius Financial Markets in which the Applicant was knowingly involved", comprised of the following tables:
Table A.1: Contraventions by Sirius Financial Markets in which the Applicant was knowingly involved;
Table A.2: Contraventions by SFM generally; Table A.3: Other facts;
Table B.1: Documents referred to in Annexure A, Schedule 1 of Attachment A to Notice of Hearing;
Table B.2: Documents referred to in Schedule 1 of Attachment A to Notice of Hearing;
Table C: Documents referred to in Schedule 2 of Attachment A to Notice of Hearing;
(vi) "Evidence relied upon by ASIC in respect of allegation the Applicant was knowingly involved in SFM contraventions", comprised of the following tables:
Section 912A(1)(a) and (ca) of the Act; Section 911A(1) of the Act;
Section 949A of the Act; and Section 1041H of the Act - Toyga.
(vii) Respondent's List of Legislation and Authorities dated 18 August 2025;
(viii) Respondent's submissions entitled "Submissions on Concessions by Applicant Regarding Contraventions Committed by SFM" with Annexure Table "Admissions Made by Applicant Regarding SFM's Misconduct" dated 18 August 2025;
(ix) "Respondent's Aide Memoire Extracting Text from Xenia Compliance Consulting Pty Ltd (Xenia) Reports Which Detail Compliance Issues", comprised of the following table:
Table A: Contraventions by Sirius Financial Markets extracted from Xenia Reports
(x) Exhibit List dated 18 August 2025;
(xi) List of Authorities dated 12 September 2025.
parties to identify why and how each of the 600+ separate documents and sub-documents were relevant to a fact in issue. It was the Respondent's position that almost all of the documents were necessarily considered by the Tribunal and afforded weight for the purpose of reaching the correct or preferable decision, but it was unclear as to how each of those documents was submitted to be relevant.
on which a finding could be made that the Applicant was knowingly involved in those alleged contraventions, even if they could be found by the Tribunal on the evidence before it.
[An] investigation into suspected contraventions of sections 911A, 912A(1) (a), (aa), (b), (c) (ca), (e) and (f), 961B, 961G, 961J, 961K, 961L, 991A, 1041E, 1041F, 1041G
and 1041H of the Corporations Act 2001 (Cth) and sections 12CB, 12DA and 12DB of the Australian Securities and Investments Commission Act 2001 (Cth) in relation to the provision of financial advice as well as dealing in and making a market for derivatives, foreign exchange contracts and non-cash products by Sirius Financial Markets Pty Ltd ACN 142 189 384 or its representatives during the period 18 September 2019 to the 12 November 2020.
to two notices. These audio files were transcribed through a computer program and then reviewed by ASIC, which then formed the basis for allegations by ASIC that SFM (through its representatives, both internal and external) had made certain representations to its clients. ASIC also obtained 31 compliance monitoring reports from Xenia Compliance Consulting Pty Ltd (Xenia), which was engaged by SFM to review communications between SFM representatives, and its actual or prospective clients, over a specific period.
Difference between the Reviewable Decision and the case put at hearing
(f) 11 instances in the period 8 February 2021 to 19 February 2021 where it alleged SFM, through the conduct of its Sydney Sales Team, engaged in conduct regarding CFDs that was likely to mislead, in contravention of s 1041H(1) of the Act.
(g) 44 instances in the period 14 February 2021 to 19 February 2021 where it alleged SFM, through the conduct of its Sydney Sales team, provided financial product advice to retail client without providing the general advice warning, contrary to s 949A(2) of the Act.
(a) SFM paid him $4,000 per month to be a disengaged disinterested responsible manager;
(b) he ignored one of his main duties as a responsible manager, namely to ensure that SFM was complying with financial services laws - had he performed the duty SFM's contraventions most likely would have been for a lesser period, less numerous or both;
(c) it was his responsibility, as SFM's responsible manager, to be aware of what SFM (both directly and via representatives) was doing in the context of its obligations under financial services laws - he did not make himself aware of what SFM was doing; and
(d) if SFM was not providing him with information to enable him to perform the role of a responsible manager properly, he did not resign but rather enabled SFM to continue represent to third parties that Mr Bringans was its responsible manager and represent to third parties, by necessary implication, that Mr Bringans was performing the role of responsible manager unhampered.
(c) he lacks the necessary professionalism, integrity, and diligence to play a role regarding financial services and financial service providers;
The fact that Mr Bringans, for the 37 years in which he has worked in the financial services industry, has not been subject to disciplinary action, and that SFM (in Mr Bringans's view) did not allow him to perform the responsibilities of a responsible manager, does not lessen the fact that, as a responsible manager of SFM, whose main duty was to ensure that SFM was complying with financial services laws, he was a disengaged disinterested responsible manager who continued to get paid when he should have resigned and then made inquiries about whether he could advise ASIC that SFM was not providing him information concerning its compliance with financial services laws.
(a) he ignored one of his main duties as a responsible manager, namely to ensure that SFM was complying with financial services laws - had he performed the duty SFM's contraventions most likely would have been for a lesser period, less numerous or both;
(b) he lacks the necessary professionalism, integrity, and diligence to play a role regarding financial services and financial service providers;
(c) it was his responsibility, as SFM's responsible manager, to be aware of what SFM (both directly and via representatives) was doing in the context of its obligations under financial services laws - he did not make himself aware of what SFM was doing; and
(a) in ignoring one of his main duties he either does not understand that duty, or does understand the duty but has chosen to disregard it, and accordingly, he cannot be relied upon to discharge the duties imposed by the Corporations Act 2001 on a provider of financial services.
Mr Bringans ignored a duty to ensure compliance with financial services laws. This shows both a disregard of duties (in this case a very important duty) and a poor attitude regarding compliance by others with financial services laws. It is inferred from these matters that Mr Bringans is likely, in a similar manner, to disregard, in the future, financial services laws applying to him.
He only resigned after he became aware that ASIC was requiring him for a section 19 Examination. Mr Bringans knew about the issues that had occurred with Toyga, but did very little to address those issues and did not resign.
(a) The allegation pursuant to s 920A(1)(g) of the Act was not included in the Reviewable Decision, and was not sufficiently particularised in the SFIC;
(b) Many of the matters put by the Respondent to the Applicant in cross-examination at the hearing were not raised in ASIC's SFIC or Supplementary SFIC, and the Applicant therefore had no notice of them;
(c) Those documents which had not been put to the Applicant during cross-examination should not be afforded weight by the Tribunal.
Capital Territory Revenue v Alphaone Pty Ltd [1994] FCA 1074; (1994) 49 FCR 576 (at 590
"It is a fundamental principle that where the rules of procedural fairness apply to a decision-making process, the party liable to be directly affected by the decision is to be given the opportunity of being heard. That would ordinarily require the party to be given the opportunity of ascertaining the relevant issues and to be informed of the nature and content of adverse material."
See, for example, the summary in Ashell v Homes Constructions Pty Ltd v Kobus [2024] ACTCA 32 at [48]:
(a) Procedural fairness will vary according to the facts in each case and must be moulded to the particular facts of the case: Applicant VEAL of 2022 v Minister for Immigration and Multicultural and Indigenous Affairs [2005] HCA 72; (2005) 225 CLR 88 at [25] and Kioa v West (1985) 159 CLR 550 at 611-612.
(b) Procedural fairness is concerned with procedures, rather than outcomes, and processes rather than conclusions: Minister for Immigration and Border Protection v WZARH (2015) 256 CLR 326 at [55]; Re Refugee Review Tribunal; Ex parte Aala [2000] HCA 57; (2000) 204 CLR 82 at [59]; SZBEL v Minister for Immigration and Multicultural and Indigenous Affairs (2006) 228 CLR 152 at [25];
(c) In determining what procedural fairness requires in a specific case, regard must be had to the legal framework of the decision under review, including any statutory or regulatory requirements or considerations: Minister for Immigration and Border Protection v WZARH (2015) 256 CLR 326 at [30] and SZBEL v Minister for Immigration and Multicultural and Indigenous Affairs (2006) 228 CLR 152 at [29].
(d) Consequences of a breach must be considered, but procedural fairness is concerned with whether practical injustice has occurred. It is not a question of abstract injustice: Re Minister for Immigration and Multicultural and Indigenous Affairs; Ex parte Lam (2003) 214 CLR 1 at [37].
(e) For a denial of procedural fairness to be established on appeal, there must be a material error in the sense that there is a reasonable possibility that the decision of the Tribunal could have been different if the error had not been made: LPDT v Minister for Immigration, Citizenship, Migrant Services and Multicultural Affairs [2024] HCA 12; (2024) 98 ALJR 610 at [7]. This might be if a party was denied an opportunity to present evidence, or make submissions on an issue
that required consideration: Nathanson v Minister for Home Affairs [2022] HCA 26; (2022) 276 CLR 80 at [33].
(f) The Tribunal is not necessarily required to disclose issues in respect of which an applicant is already on notice or information the substance of which is already known to an applicant: Minister for Immigration and Citizenship v SZQHH [2012] FCAFC 45; (2012) 200 FCR 223 at [30].
ASIC clearly enunciated a case in the SFIC and SSFIC. That is the case of which Mr Bringans had notice. ASIC ought be held to its case.
Although in many ways resembling a court of law, and although it often finds it helpful to follow, in general, the course of proceedings in a court of law, it must always be remembered that its role is fundamentally administrative. Its task is to inquire. By way of contrast, the task of a court of law is, in general, to decide which of two opposed cases is to be preferred.
.. entitled to be guided by the issues that the parties choose to put before it for its consideration ... and is entitled to have regard to the case put ...
An inquisitorial review conducted by the AAT ... is one in which the tribunal is required to determine the substantive issues raised by the material and evidence advanced before it and, in doing so, it is obliged not to limit its determination to the 'case' articulated by an applicant if the evidence and material which it accepts, or does not reject, raises a case on a basis not articulated by the applicant ....
"no joinder of issues as understood between parties of adversarial litigation... the Tribunal... is not itself a contradictor to the cause of the applicant for review. Nor does the primary decision-maker appear before the Tribunal as a contradictor."
"The function of pleadings is to state with sufficient clarity the case which must be met ... In this way, pleadings serve to ensure the basic requirement of procedural fairness that a party should have the opportunity of meeting the case against him or her and, incidentally, to define the issues for decision. The rule that, in general, relief is confined to that available on the pleadings secures a party's right to this basic requirement of procedural fairness."
"Strictly speaking, we are not here concerned with a formal pleading. This is an informal pleading ordered pursuant to the court's general powers to give directions with a view to identifying the real questions in dispute .... The statements of facts, issues and contentions may not be pleadings in a technical sense. But they are intended to serve the same purpose as pleadings, that is, to identify the real issues."
ASIC will provide to the Tribunal a final statement of agreed facts that has been negotiated with the applicants after such consultations with the applicants as may be appropriate or advise the Tribunal that there was no agreement by 1 August 2023.
2. ASIC has already fulfilled its obligations in each case by filing documents under s 37 of the Administrative Appeals Tribunal Act 1975 (Cth) (the AAT Act). The multi-volume bundles include supplementary documents. ASIC has also filed a SFIC in each case, and the applicants have each filed their own SFIC in reply. The applicants' SFICs took longer to file than anticipated: each of the parties was given several extensions of time. The third applicant, Mr Bringans , filed his SFIC after the most recent directions hearing after belatedly seeking a further extension.
ASIC must be given an opportunity to file an amended or reply SFIC. It seems to me ASIC should be able to address any matters raised in the applicants' SFICs by filing its own amended SFICs without waiting for the applicants' material. The applicants would then have the benefit of understanding ASIC's position when the applicants prepare their evidence. That should make the process more efficient and comprehensive. I agree with Mr Mitchell that ASIC could seek leave to further amend the SFIC if that appears desirable after reviewing the applicants' material. Hopefully that will be unnecessary if ASIC has already previewed its case by filing an amended or reply SFIC in reply to the applicants' SFICs.
I am satisfied that requiring ASIC to file the amended or reply SFIC responding to each applicant's SFIC is likely to be the most expeditious and efficient course. ASIC should do that (if it wishes to do so) by 9 October 2023.
or any amendments to the SFIC. As a matter of procedural fairness, the nature of these proceedings reviewing a banning order under the Act, and the circumstances described above in the case management of these proceedings, required that ASIC do so.
The Tribunal is not bound by the rules in evidence, but even if it were, ASIC would be perfectly entitled to cross-examine the Applicant on his affidavit and on documents. In this case, the Applicant had the relevant documents for a significant period of time and the topics on which he was cross-examined were within his knowledge, not ASIC's knowledge. The Applicant complained that he was not given notice of the questions he was going to be asked in his s 19 examination beforehand. The complaint about cross-examination is, in substance, of the same nature. There is no requirement to give the Applicant notice of what questions will be asked in cross-examination beforehand.
Further, the Applicant was represented by senior counsel and junior counsel. No objection was made during cross-examination on the grounds of surprise or similar. Senior counsel for the Applicant could have adduced further evidence from the Applicant about the particular topics in re-examination, but chose not to do so. There was also no application, for example, to adduce any further documentary evidence on the topics which are complained about. The Applicant has also had an opportunity to address these topics in written submissions and will have a further opportunity in final oral submissions. The Applicant has had a fair opportunity to present his case in full and the Tribunal is obliged to take into account all the evidence that has been adduced during cross-examination. There can be no procedural unfairness in those circumstances.
doing so, the Tribunal must consider whether the evidence that has been adduced is relevant to a fact in issue in the proceedings, and if it is relevant, what weight to give that evidence, and provide the reasons why it has done so.
The Tribunal would fall into error were it to have regard to the many matters which ASIC raised with Mr Bringans in cross-examination which went outside the contents of ASIC's SFIC and SSFIC. Mr Bringans had no notice that these were matters that ASIC intended to raise and in order to accord procedural fairness to Mr Bringans ASIC was obliged to give him adequate notice.
(a) that the Applicant was in a position of potential conflict of interest with respect to the possible sale of FIBO because Ms Gerber and the Applicant each stood to obtain a commission fee;
(b) that there was another potential conflict of interest that arose in Mr Timothy Gerber's appointment as a director of FIBO in 2015, in circumstances where his daughter, Ms Gerber, was acting as FIBO's legal representative;
(c) suggesting to the Applicant that if he had taken steps to regularly purchase and check ASIC's company extracts, he would have been aware of the resignation of FIBO's RM/KP, which placed the company in breach of its AFSL conditions;
(d) that the Applicant's position as an RM at Imperium Forex Group Pty Ltd between 2016 and 2017 was "another responsible manager gig... where you didn't do very much", asserting that he was not doing anything "proactively" to ensure that Imperium complied with its AFSL conditions or obligations under the Act;
(e) that forms submitted to ASIC on behalf of Moga International Group Pty Ltd in March 2021, which included statements about the Applicant's role and responsibilities as RM/KP at SFM, and which the Applicant reviewed, were inaccurate.
enlivened. The Applicant's cross-examination on these matters is, however, relevant to the Tribunal's consideration of the Applicant's credibility, which is precisely the context of ASIC's submissions. I therefore confine any consideration of those matters, which were not included in ASIC's SFIC as an evidentiary basis for their contentions, to the Applicant's credibility.
The Tribunal is not bound by the rules in evidence, but even if it were, ASIC would be perfectly entitled to cross-examine the Applicant on his affidavit and on documents. In this case, the Applicant had the relevant documents for a significant period of time and the topics on which he was cross-examined were within his knowledge, not ASIC's knowledge. The Applicant complained that he was not given notice of the questions he was going to be asked in his s 19 examination beforehand. The complaint about cross-examination is, in substance, of the same nature. There is no requirement to give the Applicant notice of what questions will be asked in cross-examination beforehand.
Further, the Applicant was represented by senior counsel and junior counsel. No objection was made during cross-examination on the grounds of surprise or similar.
Senior counsel for the Applicant could have adduced further evidence from the Applicant about the particular topics in re-examination, but chose not to do so. There was also no application, for example, to adduce any further documentary evidence on the topics which are complained about.
Managing Director and CEO. He ceased as RM and KP for that company on 7 February 2013.
to carry on a financial services business to:
(a) provide general financial product advice for the following classes of financial products:
(i) deposit and payment products limited to:
- (A) non-cash payment products;
(ii) derivatives; and
(iii) foreign exchange contracts;
(b) deal in a financial product by:
(i) issuing, applying for, acquiring, varying or disposing of a financial product in respect of the following classes of financial products:
- (A) derivatives; and
- (B) foreign exchange contracts; and
(ii) applying for, acquiring, varying or disposing of a financial product on behalf of another person in respect of the following classes of products:
- (A) deposit and payment products limited to:
(c) make a market for the following financial products:
(i) foreign exchange contracts; and
(ii) derivatives;
to retail and wholesale clients.
(a) Mr Michael Sawyer: appointed as director on 31 July 2018, ceased on 13 February 2020. Mr Michael Sawyer was the chief executive officer from 31 July 2018 to 13 February 2020.
(b) Mr Peter Zachariades: appointed as director on 8 August 2018, ceased on 1 December 2020.
(c) Ms Kara Ordway: appointed as director on 17 September 2018, ceased on 8 January 2020. Ms Kara Ordway held the position of chief operating officer and executive director.
(d) Ms Chigusa Takahashi: appointed as director on 24 September 2019, ceased on 18 December 2020. Ms Chigusa Takahashi uses the anglicised name, Ms Amy Lee.
(e) Mr Oskar Pecyna: appointed as director on 13 February 2020, ceased on 1 December 2020. Mr Oskar Pecyna held the role of acting chief executive officer from 13 February 2020 to 30 September 2020 and chief executive officer advisor from 1
(f) Mr Jonathan Schneider: appointed as director on 25 May 2020, ceased on 23 April 2021. Mr Jonathan Schneider was employed as the operations manager and compliance manager from 4 March 2019, and maintained these roles alongside his directorship.
(g) Mr Andreas Tjahja: appointed as director on 1 October 2020. Mr Andreas Tjahja commenced as the chief executive officer on 1 October 2020 and held that position for the remainder of the Relevant Period.
(h) Mr Xiqiang (Steven) Jiang: appointed as director on 1 December 2020. Mr Xiqiang (Steven) Jiang had been the chief financial officer since 21 September 2020.
(a) Mr Michael Sawyer: appointed as RM on 24 August 2018, ceased on 14 February 2020.
(b) Ms Kara Ordway: appointed as RM on 24 August 2018, ceased on 18 December 2019.
(c) Mr Oskar Pecyna: appointed as RM on 30 January 2020, ceased on 19 January 2021.
(d) Mr Jonathan Schneider: appointed as RM on 30 January 2020, ceased 23 April 2021.
(e) Mr Andreas Tjahja: appointed as RM on 22 October 2020.
(f) Mr Xiqiang (Steven) Jiang: appointed as RM on 7 January 2021.Trading
(a) PDS dated 15 May 2018;
(b) PDS dated 1 November 2019 (Second PDS), titled "Margin FX Contracts and CFDs"; and
(c) PDS dated 22 February 2021 (Third PDS), titled "Margin FX Contracts; Contracts for Difference".
Our Products are complex, risky and highly leveraged and may not be suitable for you. Their prices, and the Underlying Instruments, may fluctuate rapidly and widely because of events or conditions ...
Our products are OTC derivative products that are complex, highly leveraged and carry significantly greater risk than non-geared investments. You may lose substantially more than the initial investment. You may incur losses to the extent of your total exposure to us and any additional fees and charges that apply. These losses may be far greater than the money that you have deposited into your Account or are required to deposit to satisfy Margin Requirements.
Our Products are OTC derivative products. Margin FX Contracts and CFDs are complex, highly leveraged financial products that carry significantly greater risk than non-leveraged (also known as non-geared) speculations or investments. You may lose all of your initial deposit and any subsequent deposits you have made. You may incur losses to the extent of your total deposited amounts held with us and any fees and/or charges applicable.
A CFD is an agreement to exchange, at the closing of the contract, the difference between the opening and closing price of the underlying asset, multiplied by the number of units of that asset detailed in the contract. A CFD essentially allows a person to bet on whether the value of the underlying asset will increase or decrease over time. An FX contract is a form of CFD that allows a person to take a position on the change in value over time of one currency relative to another.
The precise terms of the contract that represents a CFD or FX contract are determined by the disclosure documents provided by the issuer of the product. Nevertheless, under both CFDs and FX contracts, investors are exposed to movements in the value of the underlying asset, without having to purchase the asset itself. CFDs and FX contracts are highly leveraged. They require the investor initially to pay only a fraction of the price of the value of the underlying asset or currency to open the position. The investor is exposed, however, to the total of the movement in the price of the underlying asset or currency. Whilst those products can thereby be used to magnify profits relative to the initial investment, they have a commensurate potential to magnify losses.
by Toyga. On 30 November 2020, the Toyga Service Agreement was terminated by mutual consent.
(a) On 14 April 2020, a director of Xenia sent SFM an email which attached, among other things, seven Call Monitoring Reports made by Xenia between 28 October 2019 and 10 February 2020. Each of the Call Monitoring Reports identified a significant number of potential contraventions of s 911A(1), s 991A(1), and s 1041H(1) of the Act, and s 12CB(1) of the ASIC Act;
(b) In the period 4 May 2020 to 14 August 2020, Xenia prepared eight Call Monitoring Reports. Each of the eight Call Monitoring Reports, prepared in the period 4 May 2020 to 14 August 2020, and sent to SFM continued to show significant potential non-compliance by Toyga account managers with s 911A(1), s 1041H(1), and s 991A(1) of the Act and s 12CB(1) of the ASIC Act;
(c) On 10 August 2020, Xenia produced a document titled 'Trade360 Australia Compliance Monitoring Summary' which summarised call monitoring compliance statistics between November 2019 and July 2020. This document was prepared by Xenia at SFM's request. The summary contained a table which disclosed that, for each of the nine months in the period November 2019 to July 2020, calls with material issues comprised between 61.22% and 100% of all monitored calls. The material issues were described as 'General advice and risk disclaimer', 'False and misleading representation exposure', 'Personal advice exposure', 'Pressure selling exposure' and 'Acting outside authorisations';
(d) On 14 September 2020, Xenia produced a document titled 'Trade360 Australia Compliance Monitoring Summary Table' which summarised call monitoring compliance statistics between 20 July 2020 and 6 September 2020;
(e) On 14 November 2020, Xenia produced a document entitled 'Trade360 Australia Compliance Monitoring Summary: October 2020', which set out 'overall statistics for the four-week period between 5 October and 1 November 2020...including a comparison with the previous 4-week overall statistics'.
(a) have direct responsibility for significant day-to-day decisions about the Company's financial services; > > (b) decide how the Company's financial services are provided and supervise the provision of those services; > > (c) have weekly oversight and will review and monitor the market exposure and financial position of the Company to ensure compliance with the Applicable Law; > > (d) use their best endeavours to maintain the Company's authorisations under the AFSL in accordance with the Applicable Law; > > (e) collaborate with, and where necessary, supervise other responsible managers and provide supervision and assistance for other personnel of the Company as directed by the Company; > > (f) undertake and continue to undertake training and professional development and maintain their competence, knowledge and skills as required under the Applicable Law; > > (g) attend meetings and report to the Company Board or Board committees on any complaints, incidents, breaches, as directed by the Company; > > (h) be available on an as needs basis to provide advice and supervision relating to the provision of financial services; > > (i) provide or assist in the provision of any information required to be provided to regulatory authorities: > > (j) assist in the preparation, implementation and audit of compliance programmes relating to the AFSL conditions including liaising with external service providers who report on compliance and related matters; > > (k) assist in the preparation, review and implementation of dispute resolution and complaints handling procedures and policies;
(I) use their best endeavours to ensure that the Company complies with the conditions of the AFSL and any Applicable Law;
(m) assist in the establishment and maintenance of the Company's breach reporting principles (including the establishment and maintenance of the breach reporting register) as required by the Applicable Laws;
(n) review the Company's policies, procedures and document templates and update those policies, procedures and templates as directed by the Company (including assisting with the review of AML/CTF procedures and policies);
(o) provide advice in relation to the review, preparation, verification and implementation of any disclosure documents to be issued by the Company and any marketing or promotional materials issued by the Company (including the Company's website);
(p) assist in the training and preparation of training programmes, for the Company employees who provide financial services under the AFSL including continuing professional development training;
(q) maintain and provide the Company with records of their continuing development activities during the Term of this Agreement;
(r) notify the Company of any complaints against him or a company with which they are involved even if not associated with the Services;
(s) advise the Company as soon as possible but in any event at least within two (2) business days of any changes that would affect the Company's organisational competence, including any change in good fame and character, qualifications, and experience under the Applicable Law; and
(t) perform other duties, activities and functions of the Position required and advised to the Manager by the Company as part of the Services as the Responsible Manager.
(b) reports of breaches or likely breaches reported by the Company and all records of the Company relevant to those reports;
(c) the register of all complaints made by clients of the Company;
(d) all records of processes, policies and procedures which relate to the AFSL or the provision of the financial services; and
(e) any other such documents requested by the Manager and which is reasonably required by them to fulfill their obligations under this Agreement.
- 9.2 The Company will provide the Manager with:
(a) a copy of any notice or report from a regulator, auditor or consultant concerning directly or indirectly a breach or suspected breach of any Applicable Law by the Company in connection with the AFSL, as soon as practically possible and no later than one (1) Business Day from the receipt of such notice or report;
(b) copy of any proposed disclosure document and/or any marketing or promotional material relating to the provision of financial services, for comment and approval by the Manager prior to being implemented;
(c) prior to implementing any new template contract with clients of the Company relating to the provision of financial services under the AFSL, a copy of the proposed client agreement templates.
9.4 The Company must provide (initially and on a regular ongoing basis) to the Manager all information reasonably required for the Manager to provide the Services specified in Schedule 1.
The Authority's decision concerned particular conduct of the appellant, which it had investigated. The Tribunal does not have all the Authority's disciplinary powers, and does not have its investigatory powers for the purposes given by the Migration Act. The question for the Tribunal is not whether there has been a breach by the appellant of the Code in any respect, but whether those identified by the Authority are established. It may use its own evidence-gathering powers to further inform itself about those matters, but those powers do not translate to general investigatory powers and cannot be used to ascertain other, inculpatory, conduct.
(a) that the Tribunal hold the relevant belief; and
(b) that that belief be based upon objective facts that would induce that state of mind in a reasonable person: Power v Hamond [2006] VSCA 25, [105]-[106] cited in Karamian v ASIC [2024] AATA 2006 (Karamian) at [153]; WA Pines v Bannerman [1980] FCA 79; 41 FLR 175 at 186; Pilnara Pty Ltd v Cmr of Taxation [1999] FCA 945 at [18].
Broadcasting Tribunal v Bond [1990] HCA 33; (1990) 170 CLR 321 (Bond) at 380, 388; [1990] HCA 33; R v
Connell; Ex parte Hetton Bellbird Collieries Ltd [1944] HCA 42; (1944) 69 CLR 407 at 430.
"The expression "fit and proper person", standing alone, carries no precise meaning. It takes its meaning from its context, from the activities in which the person is or will be engaged and the ends to be served by those activities. The concept of "fit and proper" cannot be entirely divorced from the conduct of the person who is or will be engaging in those activities. However, depending on the nature of the activities, the question may be whether improper conduct has occurred, whether it is likely to occur, whether it can be assumed that it will not occur, or whether the general community will have confidence that it will not occur. The list is not exhaustive but it does indicate that, in certain contexts, character (because it provides indication of likely future conduct) or reputation (because it provides indication of public perception as to likely future conduct) may be sufficient to ground a finding that a person is not fit and proper to undertake the activities in question.
"The question whether a person is fit and proper is one of value judgment. In that process the seriousness or otherwise of particular conduct is a matter for evaluation by the decision-maker. So too is the weight, if any, to be given to matters favouring the person whose fitness and propriety are under consideration."
"Fit" (or "idoneus") with respect to an office is said to involve three things, honesty knowledge and ability: "honesty to execute it truly, without malice affection or partiality; knowledge to know what he ought duly to do; and ability as well in estate as in body, that he may intend and execute his office, when need is, diligently, and not for impotency or poverty neglect it" - Coke.
nature and purpose of the activities that the person will undertake": Hughes at 156-157; Bond at 380.
Honesty is a notion of broader compass than legality. The two are not coextensive. A person who baldly lies may not have acted in contravention of law. Nevertheless a person in the habit of baldly lying, especially one who sees nothing objectionable in that habit, is unlikely to be fit and proper to engage in activities involving trust and vulnerability. It follows that it is not necessarily an answer to an accusation of dishonesty to plead consistency with law, nor often will technical chicanery or linguistic artfulness improve the plea. It does not suffice for a person who has patently and deliberately misled another to point to the absence of legal obligation to excuse the misleading. I would like to think that it is an aspect of being a fit and proper repository of trust that one does the moral thing whether or not one is legally obliged to do so.
There does not appear to have been any judicial interpretation of s 920(1)(da) of the Corporations Act, and therefore it falls to be construed according to the settled principles of statutory interpretation. The starting point is the text, considered in light of its context and purpose. Context includes the legislative context, because the meaning of a provision must be determined by reference to the entire Act.
Section 920A(1)(da) of the Corporations Act refers to being 'adequately trained' and 'competent' as two separate requirements, a failure to satisfy either of which will enliven the power to make a banning order. The adequate training and competence required relate separately to the financial services being provided, the functions as
an officer of an entity providing the services or the control being exercised over the entity that carries on a financial services business.
On its plain, ordinary meaning, the 'training' of a financial services adviser includes the prior study and learning that the person has undertaken, the instruction they have received and the practical experience they have gained. 'Training' is thus not confined to formal courses of study or training programs. 'Competence' relates to the skills, attitude, aptitude and acumen a person possesses. A person can lack the required competence even if they have been adequately trained, such as where they become incapacitated due to a mental illness.
In particular, the evidence of his unsatisfactory approach to carrying out the roles he held as officer, responsible manager and key person provides reason to believe he is not competent.
For s920A(1)(f) of the Act to apply to Mr Bringans it is not necessary to show that he was involved in a contravention of a financial services law. The section can apply if there is a contravention of a financial services law and Mr Bringans' conduct concerning the contravention shows that he is likely to contravene a financial services law. Further, the section can apply if there is no contravention but Mr Bringans' conduct shows that he is likely to contravene a financial services law.
Given Mr Schroeder failed to resign out of concern for his personal interests and continues to protest he was impotent in his role in the governance and management arrangements at Spectrum until late in the day, we do not have a high level of confidence that he will learn from the experience.
Court held that s 920A(1)(f) does not require that ASIC be satisfied that a person would, in future, breach a financial services law, but only that the relevant decision maker has reason to believe that he or she would do so.
Commission v Australian Investors Forum Pty Ltd (No 2) [2005] NSWSC 267; (2005) 53 ACSR 305 at [113]- [118]. To be an intentional participant, the person must have done something or omitted to do something that implicated or involved the person: Ashbury v Reid [1961] WAR 49; Australian Securities and Investments Commission v ActiveSuper Pty Ltd (in liq) [2015] FCA 342; (2015) 235 FCR 181 at [407]. 'Knowing concern' has been described as merely a further description of the same concept as aiding and abetting: Smithers v Beveridge (1994) 14 ACSR 197 at
207. Actual knowledge of the essential elements of the conduct which constituted the contravention is required: Yorke v Lucas (1985) 158 CLR 661 at 667; Australian Securities and Investments Commission v ActiveSuper Pty Ltd (in liq) [2015] FCA 342; (2015) 235 FCR 181 at [399]. Imputed or constructive knowledge is not sufficient: Young Investments Group Pty Ltd v Mann [2012] FCAFC 107; (2012) 293 ALR 537 at [11]; Australian Securities and Investments Commission v
ActiveSuper Pty Ltd (in liq) [2015] FCA 342; (2015) 235 FCR 181 at [399].
(a) Policies of the type discussed by Brennan J in Drake v Minister for Immigration and Ethnic Affairs (No 2)(1979) 2 ALD 634 ('Drake (No 2)') which seek to provide guidance to public officers about how they should exercise a broad discretion conferred by a statutory instrument. In respect of such policies, Brennan J went on to say that if the Tribunal is satisfied that the relevant policy is valid, it should adopt a practice of applying the policy unless there were cogent reasons to the contrary: Drake (No 2) at 645. I expressed the approach relating to this type of policy as follows:
If the Tribunal is satisfied that the policy is valid and consistent with the statute, ordinarily the Tribunal would be expected to apply the policy provided that the Tribunal had regard to the particular circumstances of each case and considered whether those circumstances gave rise to cogent reasons for not applying the policy: GJDB at [20].
(b) Policies that seek to provide guidance to public officers by stipulating that a particular interpretation of a statutory provision is the correct interpretation and requiring public officers to adopt that interpretation. I stated the following in relation to such policies:
Such a policy cannot bind the Tribunal, as a government policy cannot control the meaning of a statute. The Tribunal is obliged to form its own view about the correct interpretation of statutory provisions. The Tribunal may consider any explanation in the policy about why the asserted interpretation is correct and may adopt it if it is persuaded by that explanation and concludes that it is preferable to all alternative interpretations that are argued before it. In such a case, the Tribunal reaches its own view about the correct or preferable interpretation of the provision after taking into account not only the policy but all other submissions and matters before it that are relevant to the interpretation of the provision: GJDB at [22].
(c) Policies that seek to provide guidance to public officers by setting out a process of reasoning they must follow in deciding whether they are satisfied that a particular statutory requirement is met. I stated the following in relation to such policies:
Such a policy cannot bind the Tribunal, as the Tribunal is obliged to form its own view about the correct or preferable process of reasoning it should follow. In performing its task, the Tribunal must give an active intellectual consideration of the material before it in a fulsome way, and not only in accordance with a structure imposed on the decision-maker by an executive policy. The Tribunal may consider the logic underpinning the process of reasoning set out in the policy and may adopt it if it is persuaded by it and concludes that it is preferable to all alternative processes of reasoning that are argued before it. In such a case, the Tribunal reaches its own view about the correct or preferable process of reasoning to determine whether it reaches a state of satisfaction after taking into account not only the policy but all other submissions and matters before it that are relevant to whether it should reach the state of satisfaction: GJDB at [23].
In the present case, I have had regard to RG 98 as part of the material before me but have not 'applied' it in any sense. I have been able to reach the conclusions set
out earlier in my reasons simply by applying the legal principles I have summarised to the findings I have made based upon the evidence and the parties' submissions.
('Adler'). See also Kamha v Australian Prudential Regulation Authority [2005] FCAFC 248; (2005) 147 FCR 516, 533-4 [73]. However, as such an order serves other purposes such as general deterrence, it may as a consequence cause some hardship to the person banned: ASIC v Forge [2007] NSWSC 1489, [102]-[103].
[15]; [2016] FCA 510.
Tarrant v ASIC [2015] FCAFC 8, [114]-[115]. McHugh J's propositions 13 to 15 were as follows:
(a) large financial losses;
(b) high propensity that the defendant may engage in similar activities or conduct;
(c) activities undertaken in fields in which there was potential to do great financial damage such as in management and financial consultancy;
(d) the defendant's lack of contrition or remorse;
(e) disregard for the law and compliance with corporate regulations;
(f) dishonesty and intent to defraud; and
(g) previous convictions and contraventions for similar activities.
(a) serious incompetence and irresponsibility;
(b) substantial loss;
(c) the fact that the defendant had engaged in deliberate courses of conduct to enrich himself or herself at others' expense, but with lesser degrees of dishonesty;
(d) continued, knowing and wilful contraventions of the law and disregard for legal obligations; and
(e) lack of contrition or acceptance of responsibility, although that must be weighed against the prospect that the defendant may reform.
(a) although the defendant had personally gained from the conduct, he or she had endeavoured to repay or partially repay the amounts misappropriated;
(b) the defendant had no immediate or discernible future intention to hold a position as manager of a company; and
(c) the defendant had expressed remorse and contrition, acted on advice of professionals and had not contested the proceedings against him or her.[38]
(i) Banning orders are designed to protect the public from ... harm, which includes the protection of investors;
(ii) The banning order is protective against present and future breach;
(iii) A banning order has a motive of personal deterrence, though it is not punitive;
(iv) The objects of general deterrence are also sought to be achieved;
(v) In assessing the fitness of a person to be permitted to provide financial advice, they [must] have an understanding of their role and obligations;
(vi) In assessing an appropriate length of prohibition, consideration [must be] given to the degree of seriousness of the contraventions, the propensity that the defendant may engage in similar conduct in the future and the likely harm that may be caused to the public;
(vii) Longer periods of disqualification are reserved for cases where contraventions have been of a serious nature such as those involving dishonesty;
(viii) It is necessary to balance the personal hardship to the defendant against the public interest and the need for protection of the public from any repeat of the conduct;
(ix) A mitigating factor in considering a period of disqualification is the likelihood of the defendant reforming;
(x) It is necessary to assess matters such as the character of the person, the nature of the breaches, risks to others from the continuation of the person as an authorised representative of a licensed person and the honesty and competence of the person;
(xi) Factors which lead to the imposition of the longest periods of disqualification include large financial losses, high propensity for the person to engage in similar conduct and lack of contrition or remorse; and
(xii) Factors which lead to the conclusion that these cases were serious though not 'worst cases' resulting in disqualification from 7 to 12 years, include serious incompetence and irresponsibility, substantial loss or deliberate courses of conduct to enrich themselves at others' expense, but with lesser degrees of dishonesty.
ASIC assesses compliance by reference to the person who manages an AFSL holder's financial services business, termed a responsible manager. The matters ASIC considers and requires of these responsible managers are set out in RG 105.
At a minimum, RG 105 requires a responsible manager to be a person who:
(a) is directly responsible for significant day-to-day decisions about the ongoing provision of the licence holder's financial services;
(b) has appropriate knowledge and skills for all of the licence holder's financial services and products; and
(c) individually meets one of five options set out in RG 105 for demonstrating appropriate knowledge and skills.
If an AFSL holder is heavily dependent on the competence of one or two responsible managers then ASIC generally imposes a "key person" condition on an AFSL (RG 105.52). The key person condition on the licence names the responsible manager whose competence ASIC considers the company heavily depends upon (RG 105.112). If that key person leaves the business then the "key person" licence condition requires the AFSL holder to nominate another responsible manager to replace them and to demonstrate that the holder continues to have the organisational competence for all of its financial services and products (RG 105.114).
The responsible manager's role is derived from the obligation in s 912A(1)(e) to establish and maintain organisational competence to provide the financial services in question. ASIC's Regulatory Guide RG105 titled Licensing: Organisational Competence fleshes out the concept. RG105 says the focus is on the managers who have "direct responsibility for significant day-to-day decisions about [the supply of] financial services" by the business: RG105 at [105.20]. The organisation is expected to identify those individuals to ASIC. The organisation must also address their roles and responsibilities in internal documentation. It is obviously important that a person nominated to be a responsible manager has the experience and authority required to do the job.
In cases where an individual manager or managers play a pivotal role in the provision of the financial services, ASIC may attach a condition to the AFSL requiring the organisation to nominate the manager (or managers) as a key person. The condition obliges the organisation to notify ASIC if the key person departs or ceases to perform their duties. In that event, the organisation is effectively required to provide assurance to ASIC that it will identify a suitable replacement or take other steps to secure the smooth operation of the business. The role of key person (and its importance in the regulatory scheme) is explained more fully in RG105.
The duties which ordinarily attach to the office of director are well-understood. The general duties are spelled out in ss 180 and 181 of the Corporations Act, and the scope of the role is clear. Relevantly, directors must familiarise themselves with the affairs of the company, and they would be expected to pay particular attention to the company's financial state and the health of its core functions and any other function that generates risk, including regulatory risk. A director who pleads ignorance of problems because he was bullied or ignored by other directors or officers should not expect to be excused. Where the failure to take action or resign from the position appears to be prompted by concerns for the director's own welfare and economic interests - which is what happened in this case - the failure is worse.
The same analysis applies to Mr Schroeder's failure to discharge the focused obligations that are incumbent on a responsible manager and key person.
ASIC's assertions that there are certain obligations and duties imposed on Mr Bringans (and broadly, on responsible managers and key persons) are not
supportable. This includes such assertions by ASIC that the definition of 'responsible manager' is the person "who manages the AFS license holder's financial services business" (A[75]) and that a responsible manager and key person must be involved in the business of the licensee "on a day-to-day basis" (A[82]). These assertions are not supported by any authority and there is no such corresponding terminology set out in RG105. These assertions are fundamentally inconsistent with the fact that ASIC accepts responsible managers of licensees who attend to their duties less than 1 day per week, who are not employed by the licensee and who only provide external consulting services to the licensee.
...plainly does not purport to impose any obligations on RMs or KPs, much less the gallimaufry of obligations raised with Mr Bringans during cross-examination, which were akin to those owed by directors pursuant to ss 180 and 182 of the Act. As much is plain both from the language used in the document as well as the legislative foundation of RG 105.
a person directly responsible for significant day-to-day decisions about the ongoing provision of financial services.
At a minimum, you [The Financial Licensee] need to nominate responsible managers who: (a) are directly responsible for significant day-to-day decisions about the ongoing provision of your financial services
a) RG105.8(b), which allows combined 'knowledge and skills' between the responsible managers; > > b) RG105.8(c), which specifies 'appropriate knowledge and skills' by a responsible manager individually; > > c) RG 105.26, which provides that responsible managers who have direct responsibility for significant day-to-day decisions about the licensee's financial services must have enough time available to fulfil their responsibilities. By necessary implication, not all responsible managers are expected to have direct responsibility for significant day-to-day decisions, and further, only those responsible managers who do have direct responsibility for significant day-to-day decisions about the financial licensee's services must have enough time available to fulfil their responsibilities; and > > d) RG 105.98, which provides that the licensee may need to add or remove a responsible manager if a responsible manager leaves the licensee's business or is no longer involved in significant day-to-day decisions regarding the licensee's business.
a) are no more than external service providers; > > b) provide only professional advisory services; and
c) spend less than one day per month on duties related to the licensee's provision of the financial services.
The Tribunal is of course entitled to have regard to ASIC's regulatory guides, however they do not have the status of legislation or regulations (Van Dieren and Australian Securities and Investments Commission [2019] AATA 4777 at [11]), and are not binding (Re Green (as voluntary administrators of Bevillesta Pty Ltd) [2011] NSWSC 417 at [29]). The Tribunal would fall into error if it were either to construe RG 105 in this fashion or to regard it as comprising a list of an RM's or KP's statutory obligations. That is so for several reasons including:
a) section 912A, being the legislative foundation for RG 105 contains a list of mandatory obligations placed on an AFS Licensee, not individuals;
b) the regulatory guide is no more than ASIC's interpretation of the law (as ASIC itself concedes)
c) such a construction would be quite inconsistent with the language of s 912A and RG 105. Specifically, no part of RG 105 states that it is intended to be a code of obligations which are placed on an RM or KP;
d) RG 105 is clearly intended by ASIC to do no more than describe what ASIC looks for when ASIC assesses whether an AFS Licensee complies with the 'organisational competence obligation' which is contained in s 912A(1)(e) of the Act. This is made pellucidly clear, inter alia, from the cover page of the Regulatory Guide.
In setting out minimum expectations for demonstrating organisational competence, we aim to strike a balance between certainty and flexibility for AFS licensees, while promoting consumer protection and market integrity.
Key points
You can nominate someone as a responsible manager if they:
You also need to ensure that you nominate responsible managers whose combined knowledge and skills cover all of your financial services and products: see RG 105.37-RG 105.40.
The people you nominate as responsible managers must have direct responsibility for significant day-to-day decisions about your financial services.
obligations owed by an individual who is nominated to the RM or KP role by an AFSL Licensee, because there are no statutory obligations on such an individual who is otherwise not involved in the company as a director, officer, or even an employee.
I joined the company I currently work for as a director in March, 2014. And, then - the current - the CEO at the time, he was removed in - in May...2014, and I became the - the CEO and the licence was varied that month and approved in June of 2014. So, I was the responsible manager, as I am ... on that licence...the company was
... called BMFN, and then it had a name change in October, 2018 to Emirates Mutual Fund Exchange. So, that's my fulltime job on a day-to-day basis, so I'm ... the CEO and responsible manager, and ... a local director. There's one other director who's the owner of the company, he's based in ... Vermont in the USA.
The licence was originally FIBO, which was issued on the 26th of September, 2013.
So, I was the no-show responsible manager here in Australia.
...a local Australian director was added, and then ... a sale was executed... in 2018 to Cardiff, which become Cardiff Global Markets. And .. so, I was still... the responsible manager and the key person and Michael Sawyer, the CEO of ... Cardiff was added as a key person, the responsible management was the local ... CEO and
... director. So, then another person joined Michael Sawyer, Kara Ordway.
So, the two of them worked together, they were both responsible managers, I believe Kara was one as well. So, what happened there is that with Cardiff Global Markets those two worked together, I was a no-show responsible manager. Then around - I think it was about August, September of 2019, I noticed that there was a lot of changes on the - on the ASIC register of, you know, 484 form and the like, of, you know, changes in the - in the share- holding and - and - well, actually most of the forms were corrections to - to other forms that had been lodged. And, then found out in - I wasn't notified but I found out the new owner was Sirius Financial Markets in - around the 15th of November 2019. And, then around - actually it was on the 5th of December of 2019 I received a text from - from Michael Sawyer to - asking to come into - come to - to the office of - of which is now Sirius Financial Markets,
before Cardiff, at level 21 Australia Square there. So, I went to see the - to the office on - on that date, 5th of December, 2019, Michael Sawyer told me then that my services weren't required as a CEO and - and responsible manager and that him and Kara had become responsible managers and I was not needed.
So, we - we came to an agreement, I had a 60-day notice clause to the key person in ... my responsible manager agreement, and so that was from the 5th of December to the 31st of January is 57 days, so we agreed on it being the 31st of January, 2020.
...and I said, "Okay. Can you please ensure that it's done in five days' time as required, the notification, five business days to - to ASIC?" ... He said, yes, he will do that ... I started to hear some rumours in late January of 2020 that both Kara and Mike were no longer with the company. At the time it didn't really concern me so much because I knew I was off the licence effectively. Then I received a call in early February, I can't remember the exact date, it was first or second week of February in 2020... from Sophie Gerber of Sophie Grace, saying did I want to be on the licence of Sirius, and I said, "Well, I - I'm no - no longer on it," and she said... "No. You still are." So, I was asked to help with the business process if I could stay on the licence 'til after and I said, "Yes."
I mean how I understand that to be is I was the responsible manager but I'm not involved in the day-to-day business of the company.
My role has been to attend a - a compliance committee meeting, due to - due to COVID restrictions and - that - that occurred in - on Skype, those meetings started in April of 2020. So, they had a - a third party company, Compliance National who held those compliance committee meetings. So, attending those were myself, Jonathan Schneider, the responsible manager, and Oskar Pecyna - Pecyna, who was the interim CEO who was appointed some time in February, late February I believe, of 2020. So, there was the three of us on a Skype call with Compliance National, a guy called Paul and his offsider, Naomi.
To attend the meeting and to be, I suppose, an independent from the day-to-day business set of airs about any, you know, issues they had that might be raised and issues generally in the - in the CFD business ... that may be of interest to the company.
it's a monthly meeting held around the third week on a Thursday of the month, and so I attended those meetings every month, April through to - there was one meeting
cancelled, I can't recall exactly which one - yeah. So, the last one I attended would have been in December of last year [2020].
...about a - a half of one day. At maximum. Not even that, maybe a third of one day...
You know, aware of all the terms in my responsible manager agreement and the expectations around that. But, the reality is I'm not operating their financial services business, they are, and that's how they wanted to operate it. I was - I've always been available, and - and known to be available at any time. So, I'm available but if they - they don't want me to be involved other than at compliance committee meeting, so be it.
The RM agreement doesn't necessarily transpire into what professionally occurs on
- in - in the business on a day-to- day and weekly basis, so I performed ... all requirements the firm wanted me to - to perform. I attended every compliance committee meeting.
At one compliance meeting a - a report was furnished from Xenia relating to those calls.
...at one of the compliance meetings there - there was one report, a one-page report by Xenia, that's the - the only report I ever saw.
...one of the compliance meetings... the Xenia report is attached along with the... agenda.
I was required to complete 20 CPD points under the responsible manager programme, so I did that and completed 21 CPD points in - in early December of 2020.
...overall it is you're expected ... to make sure the licence operates under the Corporation Act, and - and all of the very facets of it are all adhered to. There's - there's a lot of - I - there's lots of things you have to do and - to - to be compliant ...
So that's when... I asked the question of, "Who are the salespeople, where are they and are they - have they got RG 146?
...The answer given to me was that it's within the company's group, where they've got multiple licences, sales would cover their - by those people, and - and they had RG 146, and I said, "Are they talking to Australian residents?" And, they said, "No."
It was around the phone calls made by our salespeople within the - within the group to potential or ...existing clients... on reading Xenia's document, it was around, you know, kind of, high-pressure sales, I suppose, to - to sign people up.
I - I did ask, "Well, what is the advice being given, you are giving general product advice"? And, the answer came back... from Jonathan that the - the advice is - is general product advice.
...I was hoping to be terminated anyway in - in December of last year and I had found it very frustrating whilst I'd been on the - a responsible manager on the AFSL, I had - I had to - actually before the - the dates you've got mentioned here, I had to go to the office three times actually in 2019 to try and get them to pay my bill, but the office was locked. So, that wasn't even COVID ... Office - office was just
... And so, if - if I showed you my invoices you'd see that they were ... meant to be paid monthly, but three of them were in quarterly blocks, because no one could make contact with Michael Sawyer or Kara Ordway. Or the office phone is - is not answered.
I'd actually been wanting to get off the - the AFSL, and I actually - was announced that I'd retire the - funnily enough, the week before and I was so busy with a deadline we had at work that I - I got a fulltime job, because we were launching a new platform, that I didn't get around to it, and then you called me on Friday afternoon, probably wondering why it was so loud, because I was going on a holiday the next day and - and I went, and then I was - I'd be - been wanting to leave, anyway, so I resigned on the Monday.
I didn't look in the business on a day-to-day basis, it felt like to me, like, there were
- it - it was, like a - I had to get out anyway because whatever information I - I asked or received was - is going to be manufactured.
I'd gone to ASIC professional registers to have a look at their licence and it hadn't been updated, it was still the same, kind of thing, because I was concerned because Michael Sawyer was still there as a key person and we're almost, like, you know, one year on - well, we are one year on, you know, 55 weeks on from when he left the company. ... I looked in and I went, the licence has been varied, because it was
What - what I'm saying is - is suspicions I had about the company were - were raised
So maybe I get the gun in the head, and they don't.
interview, and the hardship he expected to experience as a consequence of a banning order.
and 83, I believed it was moving in the right direction and would start to function better.
...On 22 March 2021 I emailed Naomi Sparks for a copy of the January 2021 Compliance Committee minutes. I either had not read the minutes until Naomi emailed them to me on 22 March 2021, or looked at them briefly them before deleting them. Those minutes noted that a breach report about the conduct identified by Xenia had been lodged. I do not recall reading that in the minutes until I was preparing for the s 920A ASIC hearing, and read the minutes fully... The lodging of the breach report was not discussed at the January meeting, despite what is recorded in the minutes.
21. My day typically commences at around 7:00AM Sydney time as this is when the New York Market closes. My day would typically finish around midnight, Sydney time.
27 A key part of the duties of the CEO is managing the launch of a new platform with the global IT team based in the US. Ukraine, and Bulgaria. BMFN Group Holdings owns a software called Boston UniSoft ("BUS"), which provides website creation services and platform development. BUS is in the process of creating a new platform for AMFEX ("AMFEX.com"), which is a highly intensive technological process. AMFEX.com will allow clients to engage in CFD and foreign exchange trading.
32 Upon the start of the day in Boston, I would typically have a daily meeting with the CEO of BGH, based in the US, to discuss the expectations from the day in the US. These conversations typically included discussion over the anticipated market performance in the US, the financial status of AMFEX and the BGH any concerning political factors and any other general business issues regarding either AMFEX or the BGH more generally.
Unlike in SFM, all information required to perform the duties of RM is made available to me at AMFEX.
The reality is that Mr Bringans probably could not have effectively performed his RM and KP role for Sirius, nor could he have provided the services required under the RM agreement, because he was working in a full-time role at AMFEX between about 7am and midnight on business days. Although he attended a few monthly compliance meetings for Sirius, he apparently did very little else, even when he became aware of some of the exposures from the compliance reports.
a) about 60% of my working hours were very flexible. I was required to be generally available during these times, 7 days a week, to attend to calls and/or correspondence with their Bulgarian and Boston offices, which were on different time zones to Sydney; > > b) I had become very used to managing my workflow and routine over the years that I had this job and found that most of my dedicated, unbroken time required to fulfil my functions were 7am to 8am (with the New York close) and 2pm to 3pm (with the Bulgaria market open), with the rest of the day completing short ad-hoc tasks or other tasks which I could easily schedule to complete as suited; > > c) I typically found myself with several hours of spare time (i.e. not engaged in any BMFN/AMFEX related work) during the Sydney "9 to 5" standard weekday hours; and > > d) on average my full time role at BMFN/AMFEX demanded no more than 5 to 6 hours per day.
ASIC: And you say there, 'Until June 2020 compliance committee meeting, I did not know that Sirius had engaged Toyga'. Now, that's incorrect, isn't it? You knew about Toyga's existence earlier than that, didn't you?
A: ---I hadn't -didn't really know too much about them until then when I was still doing things with - well, because all of the compliance reports. So yes, I didn't know - I didn't know anything about - I had been - I had had no information about Toyga given to me before then.
ASIC: You knew of their existence - - - GENERAL MEMBER: Just let him finish?
A: ---Yes, so I didn't have any details about them, because it wasn't - it was not wanted to be disclosed to me for whatever reason.
ASIC: When did you become aware of their existence? Toyga's existence? A: ---Around that time of the year, yes.
ASIC: You'd heard the name earlier, hadn't you, than that?
A: ---There'd been some talk in the first compliance committee meeting. One of the interests of growth was Toyga, okay. And we were talking to other brokers. And yes, that kind of thing in the meeting, yes.
ASIC: So April 2022 meeting, they'd been talking about Toyga? A: ---April would've been the - yes.
ASIC: And what was - so you were saying there was talk in that April 2020 compliance meeting that Toyga was one of the introducing brokers. Is that right?
A: ---The name was mentioned as an introducing broker, yes.
ASIC: And there was an email you got sent in February 2020 from Ms Gerber. That was also sent to some other Sirius associate people?
A: ---Yes.
ASIC: And some of those had @toyga in their email domain. Is that right? A: ---Yes. One or two of them had - yes.
ASIC: My suggestion to you is that you did remember the name at the time and you deliberately said no, that you didn't remember the name because - just wait because the reason that was because you didn't want ASIC to know that you had an awareness of Toyga and the issues that it had caused for Sirius?
A: ---No.
The events involving Toyga were serious and had just happened. Toyga was being discussed in the Compliance Committee Meetings as far back as April 2020. The idea that Mr Bringans suddenly could not "recall the name" after those events is either deeply concerning or simply not credible.
ASIC: Did you have any contact with Mr Sawyer between January 2019 and May 2019?
A: ---No. I don't think there was any contact then.
ASIC: So you had no conversations with Mr Sawyer in the first half of 2019, did you?
A: ---We had, I saw him actually in the street, and we had a conversation which obviously we can't record unless you want me to get a recording from George Street outside Australia Square. And he said, 'Oh, look, we're just trying to get it going. And we're moving offices from Barangaroo to here, and we need more capital, and just kind of like, we can't get going'.
ASIC: So you told me a moment ago you didn't have any contact with him in that period?
A: ---Other than seeing him in the street.
ASIC: Okay. So other than seeing him in the street you didn't have any other contact with Mr Sawyer in the first half of 2019?
A: ---No. He said, 'I'll come back to you when it's all ready to go'.
ASIC: Okay. So you didn't have any phone conversations with him in the first half of 2019?
A: ---No.
ASIC: Could I just ask you to go to your May 2022 affidavit? Do you have that? A: ---Yes, go ahead.
ASIC: If you could go to page 7 of that affidavit. So if I could take you to paragraph 41 of that affidavit, and I'll just read this out. Paragraph 41 you say:
In or around early 2019 my friend, Sargon Elias, informed me that his company, Rockfort, was sending business to CGM, Cardiff. Rockfort was a New Zealand company that did foreign exchange trading. From that interaction I understood that CGM had started, or was trying to start, trading in Australia. Around this time, because I could not get any information from Michael or anyone else at CGM, I checked the CGM website for information about how it was operating. I went through the 'open new account' process on the website to the final step. A few days after checking the website I had a phone conversation with Michael and said to him words to the effect of...
And then you've set out the phone conversation. Now, you've just given evidence that in the first half of 2019 you had no telephone conversations with Mr Sawyer. I would suggest to you that paragraphs 41, 42 and 43, in light of that evidence you've just given are false?
A: ---No, that's wrong. They were all correct actually. What I said before was false. I got my timeline wrong.
ASIC: Okay. So the evidence you gave before, you say, was false? A: ---Yes.
merely heard it being talked about. When taken to the contradictory statement in the May 2022 Affidavit, the Applicant stated:
A: No, that paragraph is true because it was a discussion in a compliance meeting. So I can't remember who was all speaking at the same time. I was speaking to Oskar, and then Jonathan would have said something. I said, 'You've got to lodge a breach report.' And that was it, so we haven't got Oskar, what he said, there, so.
ASIC: The evidence that you gave before was that Mr Schneider might have overheard but you didn't have direct discussions with him about the breach report. That's the evidence you gave. This paragraph 78, this must be untrue, mustn't it?
A: ---It's not untrue.
ASIC: Paragraph 78 does not say anything about you having a discussion with Mr Pecyna, does it?
A: ---It talks about compliance committee meeting where there's four people on an open chat conversation and messaging. So four people are listening at the same time.
ASIC: It doesn't say anything about you having a direct discussion with Mr Pecyna in paragraph 78, does it?
A: ---Not at 78, but we had a discussion before on the phone, and then we talked about it at the meeting.
ASIC: It doesn't say at all in your affidavit of May 2020 that you had a discussion with Mr Pecyna about a breach report in that September 2020 compliance committee meeting, does it?
A: ---We had a discussion in the September 2020 compliance meeting about lodging a breach report.
September 2020 compliance committee meeting, did not mean that the conversation did not take place, because there were other instances where matters raised by the Applicant were not recorded in the minutes.
Mr Bringans gave extensive oral evidence. He was cross-examined for approximately three days. Mr Bringans was not a perfect witness. His recollection of some events - in particular of events long ago - was far from perfect and from time to time his evidence was confusing.
Although Mr Bringans was not a perfect witness and on some topics his recollection was poor, he was an honest witness. He made a number of concessions, frequently when they were adverse to his interests.
By way of example, Mr Bringans conceded that he did not decide how Cardiff's or Sirius' financial services were to be provided, that the details about his work day contained in his January 2024 affidavit probably should have been provided earlier but were not, and that, notwithstanding that Sirius may have refused to provide him with information in response to his requests, he should have pushed for more information.
Consistently with the principles in Fox v Percy, the Tribunal ought not reject Mr Bringans' evidence unless that evidence was inconsistent with facts which were "incontrovertibly established by the evidence", or "glaringly improbable". (Fox v Percy (2003) 214 CLR 118; [2003] HCA 22 at [41]- [42] (Gleeson CJ, Gummow and
Kirby JJ), [48], [65]-[66] (McHugh J), [106] (Callinan J))
(a) if it appears to the court or tribunal that:
(i) the absent witness is dead or is unfit, because of physical or mental incapacity, to attend as a witness; or
(ii) the absent witness is outside the State or Territory in which the proceeding is being heard and it is not reasonably practicable to secure his or her attendance; or
(iii) all reasonable steps have been taken to find the absent witness but he or she cannot be found; or
(b) if it does not so appear to the court or tribunal--unless another party to the proceeding requires the party tendering evidence of the statement to call the absent witness as a witness in the proceeding and the tendering party does not so call the absent witness.
(1) This section applies where evidence of a statement made by a person at an examination of the person is admitted under section 77 in a proceeding.
(2) In deciding how much weight (if any) to give to the statement as evidence of a matter, regard is to be had to:
(a) how long after the matters to which it related the statement was made; and
(b) any reason the person may have had for concealing or misrepresenting a material matter; and
(c) any other circumstances from which it is reasonable to draw an inference about how accurate the statement is.
(3) If the person is not called as a witness in the proceeding:
(a) evidence that would, if the person had been so called, have been admissible in the proceeding for the purpose of destroying or supporting his or her credibility is so admissible; and
(b) evidence is admissible to show that the statement is inconsistent with another statement that the person has made at any time.
(4) However, evidence of a matter is not admissible under this section if, had the person been called as a witness in the proceeding and denied the matter in cross - examination, evidence of the matter would not have been admissible if adduced by the cross - examining party.
The transcripts are of examinations conducted in 2021 and related to events at Cardiff/ Sirius from 2019 (in respect of the transcripts of Mr Schneider, Mr Pecyna and Mr Liu) and late 2020 (in respect of Mr Tjahja and Mr Jiang). They are fairly 'current' and each witness was no doubt aware of the regulatory context in which the examinations were taking place. There is a risk that the witnesses may have misrepresented their knowledge of Sirius' non-compliance, or the extent of the measures they took to monitor Sirius' compliance with its financial services laws. In all the circumstances, statements made in the examination transcripts should be treated with a degree of caution, save for where they are supported by other evidence (and especially contemporaneous documentation).
Cardiff". The conversation the Applicant claims to have had about being taken off Cardiff/SFM's AFSL is with Mr Sawyer.
The Applicant, in his January 2024 affidavit, in his oral evidence, and in his Closing Submissions makes extremely serious allegations against Sophie Gerber and her law firm, Sophie Grace. No allegations of that serious nature were made against Ms Gerber during the Applicant's s 19 examination; in the Applicant's submissions and affidavit for the Delegate hearing; during the oral hearing before the Delegate; in the submissions and affidavit in support of the stay application; nor during the oral hearing of the stay application. If the allegations had substance, then one would have expected the Applicant to have raised them at an earlier stage in the process.
The allegations made by the Applicant are of a kind that may warrant serious disciplinary consequences for Ms Gerber and her firm. The Applicant has called no corroborative witnesses at all in support of those allegations. In light of no corroborative witnesses being called, the Tribunal would have to be very reluctant to find truth in those allegations and make serious findings against Ms Gerber when she has not been given an opportunity to respond to those allegations.
Findings on Applicant's credibility and reliability
ASIC: you say after dealing with any consequences arising from the US office - so what do you mean by dealing with any consequences arising from the US office?
A: ---So 7 am is the New York - it's 5 pm New York that's the close. So obviously, that's the end of their day, and it's the start of 30 our day. So consequences just means anything that might be open.
ASIC: September 2019. You didn't do anything for Sirius during that month, did you?
A: ---I would need to look back at - I don't - don't recall anything.
ASIC: October 2019. You didn't do anything for that month for Sirius, did you? A: ---No, I was trying to contact Mike. There's - it's in the text trails.
ASIC: You didn't do anything for Sirius over that period of time in October 2019, did you?
A: ---Yes, I called - I tried to call - I instigated a text to Mike Sawyer.
ASIC: Other than trying to contact someone you did not do any tasks for Sirius in October 2019, did you?
A: ---No.
ASIC: Other than looking at a few forms which you've mentioned in your evidence, in November 2019 - - -?
A: ---Yes.
ASIC: - - - you didn't anything else for Sirius in that month, did you? A: ---No.
ASIC: February 2020 you didn't do anything for Sirius in that particular month, did you?
A: ---Well what happened that month is Sophie - sorry - is Mike Sawyer suddenly left. And then I was - my form had been finally lodged to ASIC to take me off, but that hadn't been processed.
ASIC: And there was no task that you undertook for Sirius in that particular month, was there?
A: ---No task. Well I - no. Because I was in hiatus.
ASIC: And in March 2020. There were no tasks that you undertook for Sirius in that month, was there?
A: ---No. To my recollect - recollections, no.
ASIC: From April 2020 onwards the only thing you did up to your resignation in 2021 was attend compliance meetings, wasn't it?
A: ---Yes, it was COVID-19.
ASIC: The only thing you did over that period of time, April 2020 up to your 15 resignation in 2021, was to attend compliance meetings. You agree with that?
A: ---Yes.
ASIC: From the time when Sirius took over from Cardiff, in 2019, at the very most, each month, at the very maximum, you spent one-third of a day on Sirius's affairs. Do you agree with that?
A: ---It was eight hours a week was the - was proposed so over any three days. So yes, that's about right.
ASIC: I'm not asking - I should have clarified this. I'm not asking what was proposed, I'm asking what you actually did. So in terms of what you actually did, the number of hours that you actually did from when Sirius took over in 2019 at the very, very most it was a maximum of one-third of a day per month, wasn't it?
A: ---More than that per month.
ASIC: So you've told me just now that it was more than a third of the day each month, so what's the correct estimate? Is it more than a third of the day which you say now or is it what you told ASIC in the section 19 examination?
A: ---Well, I said half of - a day.
ASIC: Well, then you've changed your answer though, haven't you and you said, 'Not even that, maybe a third of a day'?
A: ---A third of a day, just - is general like it depends what you define as a day. ASIC: Well, how do you define the day, Mr Bringans?
A: ---A day I suppose would be like four and a half hours - I - I did nine hours a day - eight and a half, nine hours, (indistinct) day.
ASIC: Okay, so typical month at Sirius, how many hours were you doing?
A: ---So half of that is like four and a quarter. So that was then but it - it should have been you know, at least, you know, twice that.
ASIC: So you attended the compliance meetings, didn't you? A: ---Yes.
ASIC: And how long did the compliance meetings typically last? A: ---Between half an hour and 45 minutes.
ASIC: So half an hour and 45 minutes. And you started those in April 2020, didn't you?
A: ---Yes.
ASIC: And they were once a month, weren't they? A: ---Yes.
ASIC: it says under, 'role': 'Mr Bringans responsibilities include implementing regulatory improvements.' Your responsibilities at Sirius didn't include implementing regulatory improvements, did they?
A: ---Well - - -
ASIC: Is that a 'yes' or a 'no'?
A: ---As far as like, well, it means - it kind of doesn't really - just improving around the licence.
ASIC: Your responsibilities at Sirius include, 'implementing regulatory improvements'?
A: ---No.
ASIC: So this is inaccurate where it says here your responsibilities include implementing regulatory improvements, isn't it?
A: ---It's phrased - should be phrased differently.
ASIC: It's not just the phrasing. It's just wrong, isn't it? Your responsibilities at Sirius did not include implementing regulatory improvements, did they?
A: ---It depends how you define regulatory improvement.
ASIC: Well, how did you define regulatory improvements in this document, Mr Bringans?
A: ---I think in the context of this I think it means overview of the AFSL.
ASIC: But you say in the context of this, you provided this information to Moga, didn't you?
A: ---Yes. Some of it was in a template by their - by their lawyers.
ASIC: But this is information specific to you, so this information would have come from you?
A: ---Most of the information did, yes.
ASIC: The information on your experience at Sirius, that would have come from you, wouldn't it?
A: ---I'd need to look back to what was sent over to Moga's lawyers.
ASIC: Well, they wouldn't have had any knowledge about your experience at Sirius, would they?
A: ---They knew about my experience at AMFEX.
ASIC: This part here, 'Responsibilities include implementing regulatory improvements', that information came from you, didn't it?
A: ---That is - I'm not - I'm not sure because it's in - it's in the - further over in the (indistinct) regulatory improvements, so that would, yes, be there - come from me, and that - - -
ASIC: You did not have a responsibility at Sirius for implementing regulatory improvements, did you?
A: ---Not in the context of Sirius.
ASIC: If you didn't have that responsibility, this statement that your responsibilities include implementing regulatory improvements is inaccurate, isn't it?
A: ---That bullet point.
ASIC: That's a yes, Mr Bringans? A: ---Well, yes to that bullet point.
To the extent the Tribunal gives it any weight, which it ought not, the Tribunal would not infer that Mr Bringans was attempting to deceive ASIC; the more likely explanation is that he did not thoroughly review the forms in circumstances where the responsibility for their preparation was borne by Moga's legal representatives.
Specifically, I do not accept the Applicant's evidence in that statement that by referring to a "no-show RM" in his s 19 Examination:
My understanding of that phrase was that it referred to a person who is a responsible manager but is not an employee of the business. That is what I intended to convey by using it. I believe that I read the term on an industry website, though I do not remember which site. When I used that phrase I understood that I was using industry jargon.
As far as Mr Bringans was ever aware, and as he understood had been represented to ASIC, during the Relevant Period, he:
a) was one of a number of other responsible managers of SFM;
b) was not a senior manager, employee or officer of SFM;
c) was only ever an external adviser to SFM;
d) was expected to spend less than one day per week attending to external advisory services in relation to SFM's provision of financial services;
e) held commitments as a responsible manager and full-time employee and director of an unrelated entity, on a full time basis; and
f) was always one of at least two key persons listed on SFM's licence condition, with Mr Bringans carrying out a limited role and with the other key person at all times being a full-time senior executive or officer within SFM.
During the Relevant Period, Mr Bringans made himself available to assist the officers of SFM, and, whilst there may have been periods where he was less involved, Mr Bringans was still available as required and was on hand to engage further on special projects or issues which could, at any given time, arise.
entirely dependent on what the AFSL directors required him to do. Where he was a director of the licensee, or held other responsibilities as an officer or employee, he fulfilled those roles, and being the person nominated as the RM / KP on the AFSL did not, in his view, impose any real additional obligations on him.
146 compliant? Are the customers Australian residents? - but was reassured by the answers given. The evidence before the Tribunal is that there was more extensive documentation on compliance available to the meeting participants, and there were reports displayed on the screen during these online meetings. The Applicant clearly did not review those reports at the time or otherwise during the Relevant Period, because he did not recall
them when he was asked during the s 19 Examination. He was therefore unaware of the extent or nature of the compliance issues raised in those reports, at the time that they were provided to him.
... from around October 2020, I held the position of compliance officer of SFM, in conjunction with the compliance committee. I acted in an advisory, monitoring and control capacity. I also monitored external service providers to ensure that they acted in accordance with the terms of their appointment and AFSL obligations. At no time was I solely or ultimately responsible for compliance at
SFM...
...from April 2020 to February 2021, I provided training to SFM's staff and contractors. I, alongside Xiaoshu Liu, the principal of Xenia Compliance Consulting Pty Ltd (Xenia), in delivering training to Toyga account managers, who were communicating with Australian consumers. During 2021 I oversaw the training of the sales team, which were later hired by SFM to operate within Australia (Sydney Sales Team). This included planning and conducting training and reviewing the training requirements of the Sydney Sales Team.
Mr Bringans is not a fit and proper person to provide one or more financial services, or perform one or more functions as an officer of an entity that carries on a financial services business, or control an entity that carries on a financial services business as provided by s920A(1)(d).
In Schroeder v ASIC [2021] AATA 3519 the Tribunal found the power to ban a senior executive was enlivened based on that person not being a fit and proper person under s 920A(1)(d) of the Act due to his failures to take his obligations seriously and perform them diligently. Similar circumstances arise in respect of Mr Bringans, who failed to take any of his obligations seriously, or to perform any of them diligently.
ASIC effectively relies on only two contentions to say that s920A(1)(d) of the Act is made out. Firstly, that he failed to take any of his obligations seriously and secondly, that he failed to perform any of them diligently.
Mr Bringans disputes these contentions on the basis that:
a) the contentions are misconceived on the bases set out above and in any event are insufficient to enliven this ground;
b) the principles in Schroeder are misapplied and misconceived in relation to Mr Bringans' circumstances; and
c) ASIC has failed to properly balance and take into account the mandatory considerations in s913BB of the Act.
The matters ASIC considers relevant to Mr Bringans' fitness and propriety are set out in this section of the submissions and in the corresponding section of the SFIC. ASIC considers that the factual matters set out in section IV of these submissions (knowing involvement in contraventions of the Act by SFM), and in section V of these submissions (likely to contravene a financial services law), and in section VI of these submissions (inadequate training or lack of competence) are also relevant to whether Mr Bringans is a fit and proper person. Those factual matters demonstrate his lack of understanding of his roles as responsible manager and key person and his near complete abrogation of those roles, whilst taking fees for little or no work.
[91] Mr Schroeder occupied senior management roles in the Spectrum business. He was a director (in fact an executive director), responsible manager and key person. The duties which ordinarily attach to the office of director are well-understood. The general duties are spelled out in ss 180 and 181 of the Corporations Act, and the scope of the role is clear. Relevantly, directors must familiarise themselves with the affairs of the company, and they would be expected to pay particular attention to the company's financial state and the health of its core functions and any other function that generates risk, including regulatory risk. A director who pleads ignorance of problems because he was bullied or ignored by other directors or officers should not expect to be excused.
Where the failure to take action or resign from the position appears to be prompted by concerns for the director's own welfare and economic interests
_ - which is what happened in this case - the failure is worse._
[92] The same analysis applies to Mr Schroeder's failure to discharge the focused obligations that are incumbent on a responsible manager and key person. The best that can be said for Mr Schroeder is that he failed to embrace his obligations and perform them diligently. At a minimum, he knowingly allowed himself to be held out to ASIC and (presumably) the wider public that
he was diligently discharging the roles when on his evidence he occupied a more confined role.
[93] Mr Schroeder's evidence that he allowed himself to be bullied and ignored by other corporate officers even as he knew he was being held out to others (and to the regulator) as an officer, responsible manager and key person is sufficient reason on its own to find he is not a fit and proper person to provide financial services or to be involved in a financial services business. As the report of the recent Royal Commission shows, it is vitally important that senior managers are aware of, and fulfill, their obligations in financial services business. They must take those obligations seriously and perform them diligently and fearlessly. Mr Schroeder did not do that.
The Applicant's attempt to distinguish Schroeder's case on the basis that Mr Schroeder was also a director should be rejected for the reasons given earlier. As the Tribunal in Schroeder stated at [92], the "same analysis applies to Mr Schroeder's failure to discharge the focused obligations that are incumbent on a responsible manager and key person". Further, the Applicant did allow himself to be held out to ASIC as a responsible manager and as a key person on the AFSL of Cardiff/Sirius, despite doing practically nothing in the role.
inaccurate information is provided to ASIC. The Applicant has admitted to knowing that false information was provided to ASIC in an AFSL variation application form submitted by Moga. That occurred after the Applicant's experiences at Sirius. The Applicant did not learn from that experience. A person of that character is not fit and proper to be involved in any aspect of the financial services industry. The risk to the investing public and the integrity of the regulatory regime in general is too great.
First, ASIC advances this contention based upon Schroeder v ASIC [2021] AATA 3519, however the decision of Schroeder is clearly distinguishable for at least three very significant reasons:
Second, ASIC's contention that Mr Bringans is not fit and proper ignores the very significant body of law pertaining to what it means to be a "fit and proper person".
ASIC does not allege that Mr Bringans acted dishonestly in performing his role, or otherwise point to some defect in his character or reputation.
By contrast to the facts in Schroeder, nowhere in the SFIC or SSFIC does ASIC allege that Mr Bringans was aware that Sirius had misrepresented his role to ASIC during the Period. In particular, Mr Bringans:
Third, there is again a real vice in the contention that Mr Bringans' failed to "take his obligations seriously". This contention begs the question as to what are the relevant obligations and what is the relevant standard against which he is to be judged? There is no evidence concerning how a competent RM/KP (not being an employee or officer of an AFSL) performs their obligations. Moreover:
Fourth, for the reasons at paragraph 2 above, there is little doubt that Mr Bringans is a deep subject matter expert on derivatives and CFD. His competency in those areas is clear.
Fifth, for the purposes of determining whether ASIC has reason to believe Mr Bringans is not fit and proper within the meaning of s 920A(1)(d), ASIC was required to have regard to the matters at s 913BB(2) of the Act, which include (among other things) whether the person has ever been subject to a banning order or been disqualified from managing corporations. Mr Bringans has not been subject to any other banning order or disqualification.
Findings of fact and conclusion on the fit and proper person issue
He was happy to take his monthly fee for many years without engaging at all in his roles. He was the epitome of a "no show" responsible manager of the type that threatens the integrity of the financial licensing system. Mr Bringans should have been a safeguard against the "financial heroin" being pumped into the veins of vulnerable Australian customers, as he was at AMFEX, but he failed in that regard. If he had properly fulfilled his roles, or informed ASIC of the issues then it is likely that the conduct could have been stopped earlier and fewer vulnerable persons would have been harmed by it.
SECTION 920A(1)(DA) - ADEQUATELY TRAINED AND COMPETENT
...it is open to conclude that Mr Bringans is not adequately trained and is not competent, to provide one or more financial services, perform one or more functions as an officer of an entity that carries on a financial services business, or control an entity that carries on a financial service business, as:
(a) SFM paid him $4,000 per month to be a disengaged, disinterested responsible manager and key person;
(b) he ignored his main duties as a responsible manager and key person, including to ensure that SFM was complying with financial services laws; had he performed the duty SFM's contraventions most likely would have been for a lesser period, less numerous, or both;
(c) it was his responsibility, as SFM's responsible manager, to be aware of what SFM was doing in the context of its obligations under financial services laws - he did not make himself aware of what SFM was doing; and
(d) if SFM was not providing him with information to enable him to perform the role of a responsible manager properly, he did not resign, but instead enabled SFM to continue to represent to third parties that Mr Bringans was its responsible manager and key person, and, by necessary implication, to also represent that Mr Bringans was adequately performing those roles.
There is no contention by ASIC that Mr Bringans does not have the appropriate training required to perform any of the roles within the scope of s920A(1)(da) of the Act. In any event, Mr Bringans does have adequate training and experience in this respect.
Mr Bringans admits he was paid $4,000 per calendar month by SFM/Alastor (at A[80]) and that he did say during his s19 Examination that he was not involved in the day-to-day business of the company (at A[85]). However, these admissions are inconsequential in the above referred circumstances, including in light of his actual role and responsibilities, and in light of what he did, in fact, do in fulfilment of those responsibilities.
Being "adequately trained" and being "competent" are two separate requirements and a failure to satisfy either of them is enough to enliven the power to make a banning order.
The adequate training and competence required relates separately to the three matters set out in the preceding paragraph. This limb of the banning power must be construed harmoniously with the fact that the Act contains other provisions which seek to protect the community from inadequately trained or incompetent advisers. Here, vulnerable customers of SFM have not been protected, partly due to Mr Bringans' failure to fulfil properly his role as responsible manager and key person. That failure stems, in part, from a lack of adequate training as to what his role was and his duties were, and a lack of competence that role.
It is not in dispute that Mr Bringans did have some training. Having training is not, however, sufficient. The training needs to be "adequate". It is open for the Tribunal to infer that Mr Bringans' training was not "adequate" based on his conduct. There was a failure to understand the roles of responsible manager and key person, which Mr Bringans now characterises as being "only ever an external adviser to SFM".
The evidence establishes that Mr Bringans is not adequately trained and is not competent to provide one or more financial services, perform one or more functions as an officer of an entity that carries on a financial services business, or control an entity that carries on a financial service business. The evidence discloses that:
(a) Mr Bringans was a disengaged and disinterested responsible manager and key person, notwithstanding that SFM paid him $4000 per month pursuant to his RM Agreement with SFM;
(b) Mr Bringans ignored his main duties as a responsible manager and key person for SFM's AFSL, including his responsibility to ensure that SFM was complying with financial services laws;
(c) Mr Bringans failed to properly acquit himself of his responsibility to know what SFM was doing in the context of its obligations under financial services laws;
(d) if SFM was not providing him with information to enable him to perform the role of a responsible manager properly, he did not resign but instead enabled SFM to continue to represent to third parties that Mr Bringans was its responsible manager and key person, and, by necessary implication, to also represent that Mr Bringans was adequately performing those roles.
Having regard to the scope of Mr Bringans responsibilities and his position as a key person, had Mr Bringans properly performed his duties, SFM's contraventions of financial services laws most likely would have been for a lesser period, less numerous, or both. The evidence underscores an abrogation by Mr Bringans of his duties as a responsible manager and key person. It is accordingly open to the Tribunal to draw an inference that he either did not properly understand what he was required to do in those roles (and so was inadequately trained) or was not competent at the time of the contraventions.
In Schroeder, the Tribunal found that s 920(1)(da) was satisfied on the basis of Mr Schroeder's unsatisfactory approach to carrying out his roles as an officer and responsible manager. The same could be said of Mr Bringans' approach to his roles as responsible manager and key person. The approach taken in Schroeder was cited with approval by President Kyrou in Karamian at [209]. In respect of this contention, ASIC relies not just on the factual matters set out in this section of the submissions, but also on those factual matters set out in section IV of these submissions (knowing involvement in contraventions of the Act by SFM) and in section V of these submissions (likely to contravene a financial services law).
... even if those matters were established and relevant, it does not lead to the conclusion that Mr Bringans is not adequately trained and is not competent, to provide one or more financial services, perform as an officer of an entity that carries on a financial services business, or control an entity that carries on a financial service business, noting that:
First, Mr Bringans, is highly trained and experienced in providing financial services, which (prior to the ban) he had carried out for almost 40 years. Every year since 2014, Mr Bringans attended the Derivatives Compliance FormForum "CFDs Compliance Forum", which was attended by compliance officers, directions and RMs of over-the-counter derivatives and contract for difference issuers. From 2014-2018, Mr Bringans attended the annual iFX EXPO where there were presentations from legal and compliance industries who would provide updates on regulatory and compliance matters. Notably his answers in cross-examination about CFDs illustrated his broad knowledge on the topic.
Second, Mr Bringans was not providing financial services at Sirius. Indeed during the Period he was in fact providing financial services at BMFN, about which ASIC makes no complaint.
Third, Mr Bringans was not an officer of Sirius and no complaint has been levied against him concerning his conduct as an officer of any entity which carries on a financial service business.
Fourth, as explained above, ASIC's complaints that Mr Bringans' breached an unidentified 'obligation' or 'duty' as an RM/KP, is based upon a misreading of RG 105.
...the applicant was a 'relevant provider' as defined in s 910A of the Corporations Act and was authorised to provide personal advice to retail clients in relation to
relevant financial products. He was also then an 'existing provider' as defined in s 1546A by virtue of being a relevant provider.
Under sub-ss 1684D(1), (5) and (7) of the Corporations Act, existing providers ceased to be relevant providers (and thus ceased to be authorised to provide personal advice to retail clients in relation to relevant financial products) if they did not meet the education and training standards set out in s 921B (including the requirement to pass the Exam) by 1 January 2022.
Existing providers who ceased to be relevant providers on 1 January 2022 because they failed the Exam - as was the case with the applicant - could become relevant providers after that date if they meet the education and training standard which requires a person to have:
(a) a bachelor's degree or higher degree, approved by the Minister: s 921B(2); Corporations (Relevant Providers Degrees, Qualifications and Courses Standard) Determination 2021;
(b) passed the Exam: s 921B(3); and
(c) undertaken at least 1 year of work and training, supervised by somebody who has at least 2 years' experience working as a relevant provider: 921B(4); Corporations (Work and Training Professional Year Standard) Determination 2018.
SECTION 920A(1)(F) - LIKELY TO CONTRAVENE A FINANCIAL SERVICES LAW
(a) he ignored one of his main duties as a responsible manager, namely, to ensure that SFM was complying with financial services laws; > > (b) had he performed the abovementioned duty, SFM's contraventions most likely would have been for a lesser period, less numerous or both; > > (c) he lacks the necessary professionalism, integrity, and diligence to play a role regarding financial services and financial service providers; > > (d) it was his responsibility, as SFM's responsible manager, to be aware of what SFM (both directly and via its representatives) was doing in the context of its obligations under financial services laws, despite which he failed to properly inform himself of what SFM was doing; and > > (e) in ignoring one of his main duties, he either did not understand that duty, or understood the duty but chose to disregard it, and accordingly, he cannot be relied upon to discharge the duties imposed by the Act on a provider of financial services.
Given Mr Schroeder failed to resign out of concern for his personal interests and continues to protest he was impotent in his role in the governance and management arrangements at Spectrum until late in the day, we do not have a high level of confidence that he will learn from the experience.
ASIC has failed to assert with adequate specificity the actual bases for their contentions. It is not clear, for example, whether ASIC asserts that each, or only particular matters, in A[107] are necessary to be proven in order to establish s920A(1)(f). ASIC has also failed to identify what "evidence" it relies on and the particular facts and circumstances it relies on to draw each of the conclusions at A[107]. For example, ASIC provides no reasons for its contentions at A[107(b)] regarding 'professionalism, integrity and diligence.'
In any event:
a) in light of Mr Bringans' actual role and in light of what is set out above, these contentions cannot be sustained;
b) ASIC has misconstrued and misapplied the principles of Schroeder in Mr Bringans' circumstances;
c) Mr Bringans has not made any excuses, but rather has sought to explain the entirety of the circumstances in which relevant events took place.
In relation to A[110-111]:
a) during the time that Mr Bringans was a responsible manager for Moga International Group Pty Ltd (Moga), AMFEX was undergoing a trading platform change and was not engaging in significant activity, with the business experiencing a significant operational slow-down through this period;
b) Ms Bringans was a secretary of AMFEX whilst it was not engaging in activity as identified above; and
c) Ms Bringans did by that stage have experience in the finance industry.
Mr Bringans' substantive case appears to be that he 'appropriately relied upon' those who had been engaged to undertake key day-to-day responsibilities in relation to tasks otherwise within the purview of a responsible manager and key person, including his reliance on Xenia, Mr Schneider, Mr Pecyna and Ms Gerber.
Contrary to Mr Bringans' assertions, the evidence demonstrates that Mr Bringans repeatedly and consistently ignored his duty to ensure compliance with financial services laws. This demonstrates both a disregard of Mr Bringans duties as responsible manager and key person.
Even at the point in time when Mr Bringans says he knew that SFM had contravened the Act in August 2020, he did not resign or take any concrete steps.
... he was ignorant of the potential conflicts of interest and did not do anything to address them.
Mr Bringans failed absolutely in his duties and has no insight or remorse into his conduct. Instead, he has continually throughout the ASIC process relied upon excuses for his behaviour and blamed others for his failures, rather than taking any responsibility. In respect of this contention, ASIC relies upon, not just the factual matters set out in this section of the submissions, but also those factual matters set out in section IV of these submissions (knowing involvement in contraventions of the Act by SFM).
First, ASIC contends that Mr Bringans failed to perform his responsibilities as an RM and KP under Sirius' AFSL, that he lacks the necessary "professionalism, integrity, and diligence" to play a role in the provision of financial services, and that he cannot be relied upon to discharge his responsibilities. For the reasons already given at
paragraphs [129] to [149] of these submissions, the Tribunal would not accept that contention.
Moreover, a number of the propositions which ASIC says follow from this failure (which is not conceded) are not established on the evidence. While ASIC asserts that Mr Bringans lacks the necessary "integrity" to play a role in the provision of financial services, the evidence reveals no dishonesty on the part of Mr Bringans in the course of his long employment in the financial services industry. ASIC also claims that had Mr Bringans performed his duties, "Sirius' contraventions most likely would have been for a lesser period, less numerous or both". That contention rises no higher than speculation and should not be accepted by the Tribunal.
Second, ASIC contends that Mr Bringans "had not learnt from taking on a critical position which he did not have the time to properly fulfil", in becoming RM for Moga for a period of 13 months from February 2021, while he was the CEO, RM and KP for AMFEX.... To the contrary, the circumstances of Mr Bringans' resignation from Moga is evidence of the fact that Mr Bringans exercised proper judgment in circumstances where he did not consider himself to have the time required to carry out his functions as RM at multiple companies.
Third, ASIC contends that Mr Bringans allowed his wife, Ms Rachel Bringans, to be a secretary of AMFEX in circumstances where she had and has "no discernible experience", and that after the banning order came into effect, he caused her to be appointed as a Director of AMFEX. Ms Bringans' appointment as secretary was made following a review of the requirements necessary for company secretary, and following discussion with the shareholders of AMFEX... The evidence does not establish that Ms Bringans' appointments were in any way improper or inappropriate.
SECTION 920A(1)(G) - KNOWINGLY INVOLVED IN CONTRAVENTIONS OF A FINANCIAL SERVICES LAW
He only resigned after he became aware that ASIC was requiring him for a section 19 Examination. Mr Bringans knew about the issues that had occurred with Toyga, but did very little to address those issues and did not resign.
a) A Schedule of Further Documents for Tender which sets out, for any documents which have not already been admitted into evidence during the hearing on Friday 9 May 2025, or otherwise: > > 1. A reference to at least one place where the document was referred to in the parties' various submissions, various Statements of Facts, Issues and Contentions, in the hearing transcript or otherwise, including identification of all documents which are said to have been raised by matters in cross-examination (together with references to relevant passages of the transcript); and > 2. For any documents which have not been referred to in the parties' various submissions, various Statements of Facts, Issues and Contentions, in the hearing transcript or otherwise, a summary of the reasons why that document should be admitted into evidence. > > b) A Notice to Admit Facts, including the identification of the contraventions by Sirius Financial Markets Pty Ltd upon which it relies with respect to its contention that the Applicant was knowingly involved in the contraventions committed by Sirius Financial Markets Pty Ltd (including those contraventions which were not considered by the Delegate); and > > c) A document identifying the evidence upon which it relies to support the contention that the Applicant was knowingly involved in each of the identified contraventions by Sirius Financial Markets Pty Ltd.
a) Any response to the Respondent's amended Schedule of Tendered Documents; and > > b) Any Notice to Dispute Facts in response to the Respondent's Notice to Admit Facts; and > > c) Written submissions in reply to the Respondent's submissions served on 5 May 2025.
(a) A 40 page document titled "Notice to Admit Facts - Contraventions by Sirius Financial Markets in which the Applicant was knowingly involved" (Notice to Admit Facts), comprised of the following tables:
(xii) Table A.1: Contraventions by Sirius Financial Markets in which the Applicant was knowingly involved;
(xiii) Table A.2: Contraventions by SFM generally;
(xiv) Table A.3: Other facts;
(xv) Table B.1: Documents referred to in Annexure A, Schedule 1 of Attachment A to Notice of Hearing;
(xvi) Table B.2: Documents referred to in Schedule 1 of Attachment A to Notice of Hearing;
(xvii) Table C: Documents referred to in Schedule 2 of Attachment A to Notice of Hearing;
(b) A 44 page document titled "Evidence relied upon by ASIC in respect of allegation the Applicant was knowingly involved in SFM contraventions", (Knowing Involvement document) comprised of the following tables:
(xviii) Section 912A(1)(a) and (ca) of the Act;
(xix) Section 911A(1) of the Act;
(xx) Section 949A of the Act; and
(xxi) Section 1041H of the Act - Toyga.
Admit that the conduct referred to in each item of the table and in the underlying documents / transcript occurred.
NB* The matters stated below in the column headed 'Submission' are not intended to be an exhaustive particularisation of all circumstances which give rise to the Applicant's 'knowing involvement' with respect to the relevant contraventions. The Respondent also refers to and relies upon its written opening and closing submissions previously filed in the proceeding, the SFIC and Supplementary SFIC and the tables forming part of the notice to admit. The below table should be read together with those documents. This table and those documents constitute the
Respondent's case in respect of knowing involvement. The omissions that the Respondent alleges in respect of the knowing involvement allegation are set out in the Respondent's SFIC, and opening and closing submissions.
ASIC has prepared a 40 page document (Order 1(b) Document) with six separate tables. Of these tables, it appears that only the first table (Table A1) is in fact responsive to the Tribunal's direction. That table at least purports to set out contraventions by Sirius in which ASIC says that Mr Bringans was knowingly involved. To the extent that that table does identify clearly identify the relevant alleged contraventions, a response has been provided. However some of the items in Table A1 and most of the other tables served by ASIC are regretfully confusing and it has not been possible to provide a clear response.
At times, ASIC seeks admissions by simply listing Xenia reports and does not identify with any precision the facts about which an admission is sought. By way of example, Item 3 of Table A1 (page 5) asks that Mr Bringans "admit the failures to give general advice risk warnings as set out in the Xenia reports" and then lists seventeen Xenia reports, but ASIC has not identified the contraventions about which they want admissions. Rather ASIC has left it to Mr Bringans to interpret whether statements in Xenia reports such as "The general advice warning needs to be provided on each call"33 is one that ASIC alleges to be a contravention. And, of course, this statement itself is ambiguous.
Other than Table A1 (being the first 8 pages of the document), the remaining tables in this document seek admissions of facts on which ASIC does not rely for its knowing involvement case.34 ASIC has not explained why it seeks those admissions.
In response to the direction that ASIC prepare a document identifying the evidence upon which it relies to support its contention that Mr Bringans was knowingly involved in each of Sirius' contraventions, ASIC served a 44 page table (Order 1(c) Document). This document fails to achieve its purpose - in part because of ASIC's failure to serve a document which precisely set out what it says were Sirius' contraventions.
(a) Between 14 April 2020 to 30 November 2020, SFM:
(i) failed to "do all things necessary to ensure that the financial services covered by the licence are provided efficiently, honestly and fairly" in contravention of s912A(1)(a) of the Act; and
(ii) Failed to take "reasonable steps to ensure that its representatives comply with the financial services laws" in contravention of s912A(1)(ca) of the Act.
(b) Between 4 March and 31 October 2020, SFM, through the conduct of Toyga account managers provided a 'financial service' comprising 'personal advice' contrary to the terms of its AFSL and thereby contravened s 911A(1) of the Act.
(c) From 4 March to 31 October SFM, through the conduct of Toyga account managers, engaged in conduct regarding CFDs that was misleading or likely to mislead or deceive and thereby contravened s 1041H(1) of the Act.
(a) PDS dated 15 May 2018; > > (b) PDS dated 1 November 2019 (Second PDS); and > > > (c) PDS dated 22 February 2021 (Third PDS).
On 12 January 2021, SFM sent a breach report to ASIC in accordance with s912D (Breach Report) notifying ASIC of potential contraventions by SFM as a result of conduct carried out by 'overseas call centre staff' acting as SFM representatives.
In the Breach Report, SFM said that 'potential breaches...have been brought to [SFM's] attention by way of internal and ASIC investigations and subsequently, from advice obtained from its external advisers...
The Breach Report also said that:
(a) SFM terminated the Toyga Media Ltd Service Agreement as part of a process of restructuring its 'compliance structure to ensure that similar breaches will not occur in the future'; and
(b) 'from December 2020, client communication functions shifted to Sydney via the formation of a highly experienced team' (Sydney Sales Team) 'with the overseas call centres role reduced to basic customer support'.
evidence at the hearing and any consideration by the Tribunal of it, in those circumstances would constitute a serious denial of procedural fairness.
have requested time to consider and deal with the allegations, which may have involved putting on additional evidence or spending significantly longer at hearing in evidence.
He was a member of the Compliance Committee and he was a key person and responsible manager. Furthermore, there were compliance issues set out in the reports prepared by Xenia. Mr Bringans has admitted in his 16 May 2022 affidavit that he saw multiple Xenia reports. In any event, given his position within SFM, for
at least some of the Relevant Period Mr Bringans was wilfully blind to the breaches committed by SFM.
Even where, as with the present charges, actual knowledge is either a specified element of the offence charged or a necessary element of the guilty mind required for the offence, it may be established as a matter of inference from the circumstances surrounding the commission of the alleged offence. However, three matters should be noted. First, in such cases the question remains one of actual knowledge: Giorgianni v R [1985] HCA 29; (1985) 156 CLR 473 at 504-7; [1985] HCA 29; 58 ALR 641; He Kaw Teh (CLR at 570). It is never the case that something less than knowledge may be treated as satisfying a requirement of actual knowledge. Secondly, the question is that of the knowledge of the accused and not that which might be postulated of a hypothetical person in the position of the accused, although, of course, that may not be an irrelevant consideration. Finally, where knowledge is inferred from the circumstances surrounding the commission of the alleged offence, knowledge must be the only rational inference available. All that having been said, the fact remains that a combination of suspicious circumstances and failure to make inquiry may sustain an inference of knowledge of the actual or likely existence of the relevant matter. In a case where a jury is invited to draw such an inference, a failure to make inquiry may sometimes, as a matter of lawyer's shorthand, be referred to as wilful blindness. Where that expression is used, care should be taken to ensure that a jury is not distracted by it from a consideration of the matter in issue as a matter of fact to be proved beyond reasonable doubt. [emphasis added]
Pereira requiring that knowledge be the "only rational inference available" was only applicable to criminal liability, and not applicable to civil liability. In a civil context, the test was whether it was "the most likely inference" (at [23]):
...circumstantial facts can be relied upon to prove another fact if the inference is the most likely inference on the balance of probabilities. It is unnecessary to exclude all other available inferences.
In order to establish that Mr Bringans was wilfully blind as to any of Sirius' contraventions, it is not sufficient for ASIC to establish that Mr Bringans did not take the effort to find out more about contraventions (which, in any event, is not accepted). ASIC must go the step further and satisfy the Tribunal that Mr Bringans' deliberately refrained from seeking further information in order to maintain a state of apparent ignorance. That is a high threshold.
We should begin by emphasising that the aim of imposing a banning order is not to punish Mr Schroeder for anything that occurred. These are regulatory proceedings. Our focus is, first and foremost, on the public interest. The public interest forms the basis for the objectives set out in s 760A of the Corporations Act, which says:
The main object of [Chapter 7] is to promote:
(a) confident and informed decision making by consumers of financial products and services while facilitating efficiency, flexibility and innovation in the provision of those products and services; and
(b) fairness, honesty and professionalism by those who provide financial services; and
(c) fair, orderly and transparent markets for financial products; and
(d) the reduction of systemic risk and the provision of fair and effective services by clearing and settlement facilities.
By not speaking up (to the regulator, if necessary) or stepping down, he helped allow this culture to flourish. That culture lies at the heart of the behaviour which has been recently highlighted in the Royal Commission, and which threatened achievement of the objectives in s 760A. The seriousness of Mr Schroeder 's shortcomings weighs heavily in favour of a ban.
Mr Schroeder sought to disclaim responsibility for some of the issues on the basis that he was operating under constraints in his various roles. That is not good enough. The regulatory regime cannot achieve the objectives set out in s 760A of the Corporations Act if officeholders in various roles do not faithfully, competently, fearlessly and diligently discharge their obligations. Mr Schroeder's passivity in the face of improper constraints is not adequate conduct.
A ban is necessary to communicate a message to the wider public which will promote confidence in the regulatory system. Quite apart from that, a ban is also justified in order to deter similar conduct by others in the industry. We reach that view notwithstanding the evidence Mr Schroeder provided which set out the personal hardship he has already experienced following the regulatory action. We have also taken account of the fact we have not been provided with clear evidence that any individual client was exposed to substantial detriment or unacceptable risk as a direct consequence of Mr Schroeder 's conduct. We have also considered the fact Mr Schroeder has hitherto enjoyed a good record and appears to be a man of good character.
If the Tribunal determines that a banning order is justified, that order should not extend to prevent Mr Bringans from performing any function involved in the carrying on of a financial services business, in any capacity. It is noteworthy that no such order was made in respect of Mr Schneider and Mr Pecyna, notwithstanding significantly greater involvement in Sirius than Mr Bringans. The facts of this case, as with the facts in Sherwal and Australian Securities and Investments Commission [2022] AATA 4192 at [177] are not so "extreme" that there would be such an
apprehension about Mr Bringans' honesty and future compliance with financial services law that he should be precluded from any function involved in carrying on a financial services business. In all the circumstances, he ought be permitted to work as an employee or a contractor (but not a director or officer) of a financial services business.
ASIC's June 2021 ban decision extended to ban Mr Sherwal from "performing any performing any function involved in the carrying on of a financial services business (including as an officer, manager, employee, contractor or in some other capacity)". This decision was supported partly on the basis of the nature of the contravention findings made against Mr Sherwal, partly on the basis of an express finding that he was not a fit and proper person "to participate in the financial services industry" and partly because of the related proposition that Mr Sherwal had "no place in the financial services industry".
There may be circumstances where the conduct of a particular person, and the apprehensions about their honesty and future compliance with financial services laws, is so serious that they should be precluded from any function involved in carrying on a financial services business. But those circumstances are likely to be extreme, and they do not exist in the present case. It would be unacceptably ironic, and inappropriate, to preclude Mr Sherwal from "any function" involved in the carrying on of a financial services business, when no such preclusion applied to Mr Joshua Fuocco, given his apparent role as the influential mind behind the implementation of the cash rebate "scheme", at least at WRM.
In my view, given the nature of the findings I have made, and the extent of Mr Sherwal's past activities in the conduct of a financial services business, it is both appropriate and sufficient for achievement of the Chapter 7 objectives if the scope of the ban extends only to the provision of financial services and to the performance of any function "as an officer or manager of an entity that carries on a financial services business".
role at AMFEX on a day-to-day basis, fulfilling his duties as CEO, Director, RM and KP on its AFSL, and there was no allegation by ASIC that AMFEX had contravened the Act.
From controlling an entity that carries on a financial services business or performing any executive or management role in relation to a financial services business.
...it is highly relevant that Mr Pecyna's ban was reduced to 4 years and 9 months. ASIC, as a regulator with public functions, was required to be satisfied of the
appropriateness of any reduction in length that it agreed to following its conciliation with Mr Pecyna. Moreover, ASIC publicly disclosed the outcome of its confidential conciliation with Mr Pecyna. Mr Bringans' does not suggest that the Tribunal can or should simply adopt that length of time in respect of any banning order that this Tribunal might make; the Tribunal must of course consider what order is appropriate having regard to the material before it - but in circumstances where the material before it demonstrates that Mr Pecyna was significantly more involved in the affairs of Sirius than Mr Bringans, it would be open (and indeed, appropriate) for the Tribunal to determine that the length of any banning order imposed on Mr Bringans should be lesser in length, and scope, than that ultimately imposed on Mr Pecyna.
[142] Each matter must be assessed objectively based on its own facts. DP McCabe cautioned in Ridden v Tax Practitioners Board [2020] AATA 422 ("Ridden"), at [40] that "[t]here is some danger in rifling through reported cases in search of comparisons". The Tribunal agrees with this notion to the extent that other cases should not be slavishly followed. The Tribunal must exercise independent discretion based on the unique facts before it. It is also important that there is consistency in Tribunal decisions. Although the Tribunal is not bound by other decisions, it can be guided by them, with a view to ensuring that parties are treated equally and fairly and providing a form of precedence that the public can take notice of. In Drake Brennan J (as President of the AAT) noted (at 643) that consistency with comparable cases and decisions is "[o]ne of the factors to be considered in arriving at the preferable decision".
After his cross-examination, the Applicant's conduct now well and truly falls within the "Banning for 10 or more years and permanent banning" section of table 3 of RG 98, rather than the 3-10 years section. Referring to the factors in that section of the table:
(a) There are now issues of Mr Bringans' honesty arising from his cross-examination.
(b) The Applicant knew that false information was provided to ASIC in the Moga AFSL application. That occurred after the events with Sirius. Providing ASIC with information that is false in a material particular or materially misleading is one example of conduct that falls into the 10 year or more banning category.
(c) The Applicant now admits (contrary to his previous position) that he knew there were issues with Toyga as far back as April 2020. He knew there were contraventions of the law for months and months, but did nothing to prevent those contraventions, or to inform ASIC of them.
(d) There was a disregard by Mr Bringans of his obligations as responsible manager and key person. He knew what those obligations were, but chose to ignore them. Even now, he effectively claims that he had no obligations at all in those roles.
(e) Mr Bringans' conduct shows serious incompetence and irresponsibility. There was a total abrogation of responsibility and serious lack of competence displayed. This went on for a long period of time after Mr Bringans' initial engagement by Fibo. His failure to perform his duties was not just limited to the 18-month period during which Sirius contravened its obligations. Having a general lack of understanding of and regard for compliance is an example of conduct falling within the 10 year or more banning category, as is conduct indicating a systemic failure. (f) If the Applicant had properly performed his roles, or informed ASIC of the issues, then it is highly likely that the period during which Sirius' contravening conduct occurred would have been shorter and many customers would not have been subjected to the behaviour of Toyga. His conduct had a serious impact on customers, and not just the four customers who were selected as case studies by ASIC.
(g) The conduct has a significant adverse impact on confidence in, or the integrity of, the financial services industry. Investors and ASIC are entitled to expect that those who take on the roles of responsible manager and key person actually do their duties. The phenomenon of "no show" responsible managers can have a significant risk adverse risk on confidence and integrity.
(h) The conduct is also significantly inconsistent with the orderly operation of the financial markets. If a derivatives business, for example, engages responsible managers and key persons who do nothing then there can be some serious market impacts as demonstrated by the current case.
171. Although there are now a number of factors falling within the "Banning for 10 or more years and permanent banning" category, ASIC still only seeks to have the 8 year banning period affirmed. That is lenient given the now increased seriousness of the case.
Commission v McCormack [2017] FCA 672, and Hewish and ASIC [2025] ARTA 1822.
The multifactor considerations relevant to the selection of an appropriate ban period are extensively discussed in ASIC's regulatory guide 98. That discussion is amenable to summarisation to the following effect:-
(a) conduct involving mere lack of knowledge or lack of care, involving no substantiated loss to others, might attract a ban period of less than three years, particularly where the person had conceded or displayed awareness of their fault and had not inappropriately sought to deflect responsibility for it:-
(b) conduct involving a disregard for financial services laws, self-interested preference for personal advantage (particularly involving repeated conduct) and conduct involving significant loss or disadvantage to others, will likely merit a ban period in the (wide) range between three and ten years:-
(c) a ban period greater than ten years is likely to be appropriate in cases involving dishonest conduct, intentional fraud, deliberate or sustained knowing conventions.
ASIC justifies a longer banning period for the Applicant in these proceedings, in those circumstances.
On 28 June 2024, the Administrative Appeals Tribunal varied ASIC's banning order so that the period of the banning was reduced to 4 years and 9 months. The order was made following conciliation between ASIC and Mr Pecyna prior to the hearing of Mr Pecyna's application. Mr Schneider's application was withdrawn.
(a) substituting "4 years" for "8 years"; and
(b) substituting "performing any function as an officer, manager, unsupervised employee or contractor of an entity that carries on a financial services business" for "performing any function involved in the carrying on of a financial services business (including as an officer, manager, employee, contractor or in some other capacity)".
Solicitors for the Applicant: Counsel for the Applicant:
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