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[2025] ACTSC 396
Supreme Court of the ACT
2025-09-04
McWilliam J
Original judgment source is linked above.
Source: the ACT Courts (www.courts.act.gov.au). Converted to plain text by ZoeLaw. Not the official version.
SUPREME COURT OF THE AUSTRALIAN CAPITAL TERRITORY
Case Title: Williams v Director-General of the Justice and Community Safety Directorate Citation: [2025] ACTSC 396 Hearing Date: 17, 23 February 2023, 6 – 10 March 2023, 30 May 2023 Decision Date: 4 September 2025 Before: McWilliam J Decision: The plaintiff is entitled to declaratory relief to the effect that the use of force and strip search to which she was subjected on 11 January 2021 at the Alexander Maconochie Centre was conduct incompatible with her rights under the Human Rights Act. Catchwords: HUMAN RIGHTS – PRISON AUTHORITIES – detainee on remand – refusal of request for funeral leave – whether conduct incompatible with human rights – right to enjoy culture and maintain cultural and kinship ties – right to privacy HUMAN RIGHTS – PRISON AUTHORITIES – detainee on remand – planned use of force – strip or body search – whether conduct incompatible with human rights – right to humane treatment while deprived of liberty – right to protection from degrading treatment – right to privacy – right to appropriate treatment for person on remand EVIDENCE – PRIVILEGES – PARLIAMENTARY PRIVILEGE principles applying in the Territory – functional connection required – objective test – where statute required report to be laid before Legislative Assembly – where statutory purpose for scrutiny by Legislative Assembly – functional connection established – privilege attached EVIDENCE – PRIVILEGES – Human Rights Commission Act 2005 (ACT), ss 73 and 75 – whether privilege against exposure to civil penalty applied – whether letter notifying complaint constituted an exercise of statutory coercive power to request information – where letter in response provided information voluntarily – no privilege attached STAUTORY CONSTRUCTION – Human Rights Act 2004 (ACT), s 40B(1)(b) – proper consideration – whether higher test imposed than that at common law – ordinary common law principles apply STATUTORY CONSTRUCTION – Human Rights Commission Act 2005, ss 45(2), 72 and 73 – scope of power to request documents – whether statutory power to obtain information limited to a coercive power contained in s 73 of the Act WORDS & PHRASES – Human Rights Act 2004 (ACT), s 40B(1)(b) – “proper consideration” – manner in which “proper” qualifies consideration PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE – HUMAN RIGHTS PROCEEDINGS – operation of Court Procedures Rules 2006, rr 33 and 34 – where proceeding commenced by application – appropriateness of pleadings in circumstances where complex factual and legal issues involved – whether Territory appropriate defendant Legislation Cited: Administrative Decisions (Judicial Review) Act 1989 (ACT) s 5 Australian Capital Territory (Self-Government) Act 1988 (Cth) s 24, pt III Bill of Rights 1688 (UK) art 9 Charter of Human Rights and Responsibilities Act 2006 (Vic) ss 7(2), 10(b), 22(1) Corrections Management (Detainee Requests & Complaints) Policy 2019, cl 4.4 Corrections Management (Detainee Requests and Complaints) Operating Procedure 2019, cls 1.2, 5.1 Corrections Management (Human Rights Principles for ACT Correctional Centres) Direction 2019 Corrections Management (Management of At-Risk Detainees) Policy 2019, cls 4, 8.9, 11.1, 11.7, 11.9 Corrections Management (Searching) Policy 2010 Corrections Management (Use of Force and Restraint) Policy 2020, cls 4, 5.2, 5.3, 5.4, 6, 8, 9, 10 Corrections Management Act 2007 (ACT) ss 7, 9, 107, 108, 113, 113A, 113B, 113C, 114, 115, 126, 137, 138, 139, 140, 141, 142, 208, 209, 222, 223(3), pts 9.4, 9.7, 12.2, divs 9.4.1, 9.4.3, 9.4.4 Court Procedures Rules 2006 (ACT) (Republication No 64) rr 407A, 407B Court Procedures Rules 2006 (ACT) rr 33(2), 34(2), 218, 220, 6022 Crimes (Sentence Administration) Act 2005 (ACT) s 149(2) Custodial Inspector Act 2017 (ACT) ss 6, 17, 18(c), 25(4), 29, 30, Dictionary Discrimination Act 1991 (ACT) Evidence Act 2011 (ACT) ss 56, 59, 76, 135 Human Rights (Complaints) Legislation Amendment Act 2023 (ACT) Human Rights Act 2004 (ACT) ss 10(1), 12, 19(1), 19(3), 27, 28, 30, 36, 40, 40B, 40C, sch 1 Human Rights Commission Act 2005 (ACT) (Republication No 33) ss 45, 75 Human Rights Commission Act 2005 (ACT) ss 14, 15, 42, 45, 47, 72, 73, 74, 75, divs 4.2, 4.4 Human Rights Commission Amendment Act 2023 (ACT) Inspector of Correctional Services Act 2017 (ACT) ss 6, 9, 17, 18(1)(c), 25(4), 27, 28, 29, 30, pt 3 Justice and Community Safety Legislation Amendment Act 2025 (ACT) Legislation Act 2001 (ACT) ss 126(4), 127, 142, 146, Dictionary Migration Act 1958 (Cth) s 5(1) Monitoring of Places of Detention Legislation Amendment Act 2024 (ACT) Parliamentary Privileges Act 1987 (Cth) s 16 Cases Cited: Ainsworth v Criminal Justice Commission (1992) 175 CLR 564 Allan v United Kingdom [2002] IX Eur Court HR 41 Amann Aviation Pty Ltd v The Commonwealth (1988) 19 FCR 223 Andrews v Thomson [2018] ACTCA 53; 340 FLR 439 Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corporation (1948) 1 KB 223 Australasian Oil Exploration Ltd v Lachberg (1958) 101 CLR 119 Australian Competition and Consumer Commission v MSY Technology Pty Ltd [2012] FCAFC 56; 201 FCR 378 Bare v Independent Broad-based Anti-corruption Commission [2015] VSCA 197; 48 VR 129 Bay Simmer Investments Pty Ltd v New South Wales [2017] NSWCA 135 Blacktown City Council v Hocking [2008] NSWCA 144 BMI Ltd v Federated Clerks Union of Australia (1983) 51 ALR 401 British American Tobacco Australia Ltd v Secretary, Department of Health and Ageing [2011] FCAFC 107; 195 FCR 123 Brown v Director-General of the Justice and Community Safety Directorate [2021] ACTSC 320; 364 FLR 155 Carrascalao v Minister for Immigration and Border Protection [2017] FCAFC 107; 252 FCR 352 Carrigan v Cash [2017] FCAFC 86 Carrigan v Honourable Senator Michaelia Cash [2016] FCA 1466 Castles v Secretary, Department of Justice [2010] VSC 310; 28 VR 141 Cenbauer v Croatia [2006] III Eur Court HR 261 Certain Children v Minister for Families and Children (No 2) [2017] VSC 251; 52 VR 441 Certain Children v Minister for Families [2016] VSC 796; 51 VR 473 Crime and Corruption Commission v Carne [2023] HCA 28; 280 CLR 555 Davidson v Director-General, Justice and Community Safety Directorate [2022] ACTSC 83; 18 ACTLR 1 Deng v Australian Capital Territory [2024] ACTCA 10 Dixon v Todd (1904) 1 CLR 320 Eastman v Chief Executive Officer of the Department of Justice and Community Safety [2010] ACTSC 4; 4 ACTLR 161 Egan v Willis [1998] HCA 71; 195 CLR 424 Forster v Jododex Australia Pty Ltd (1972) 127 CLR 421 Hakimi v Legal Aid Commission (ACT) [2009] ACTSC 48; 3 ACTLR 127 HJ (a pseudonym) v Independent Broad-Based Anti-Corruption Commission [2021] VSCA 200; 64 VR 270 In the Matter of The Board of Inquiry into Disability Services [2002] ACTSC 28; 167 FLR 262 Ireland v The United Kingdom (1978) 25 Eur Court HR (ser A) Islam v Director-General Justice and Community Safety Directorate (No 3) [2016] ACTSC 27 Islam v Director-General of the Department of Justice and Community Safety Directorate [2018] ACTSC 322 Islam v Director-General of the Justice and Community Safety Directorate [2015] ACTSC 20 Islam v Director-General, Justice and Community Safety Directorate [2021] ACTSC 33 Islam v Director-General, Justice and Community Safety Directorate [2024] ACTCA 22 Islam v Director-General, Justice and Community Safety Directorate [2022] ACTSC 124; 369 FLR 417 John Fairfax & Sons Ltd v Police Tribunal of New South Wales (1986) 5 NSWLR 465 Jones v Dunkel (1959) 101 CLR 298 Kalashnikov v Russia [2002] VI Eur Court HR 93 Knight v General Manager, HM Prison Barwon [2017] VSC 135 Kunstler v Kunstler [1969] 1 WLR 1506 Martin v Taylor [2000] FCA 1002 Millard v Collins [2021] ACTSC 216 Millington v Peach (No 2) [2025] ACTSC 21 Minister for Aboriginal Affairs v Peko-Wallsend Ltd (1986) 162 CLR 24 Minister for Home Affairs v Omar [2019] FCAFC 188; 272 FCR 589 Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs v Anthonypillai [2001] FCA 274; 106 FCR 426 Minogue v Thompson [2021] VSC 56 Momcilovic v The Queen [2011] HCA 34; 245 CLR 1 Neeta (Epping) Pty Ltd v Phillips (1974) 131 CLR 286 Nicolae Virgiliu Tănase v Romania (European Court of Human Rights, Grand Chamber, Application No 41720/13, 25 June 2019) Novoselov v Russia (European Court of Human Rights, First Section, Application No 66460/01, 2 June 2005) PLA and Puncernau v Andorra [2004] VIII Eur Court HR 179 Plaintiff M1/2021 v Minister for Home Affairs [2022] HCA 17; 275 CLR 582 Plaintiff S157/2002 v Commonwealth [2003] HCA 2; 211 CLR 476 Płoski v Poland (European Court of Human Rights, Fourth Section, Application No 26761/95, 12 November 2002) Pretty v United Kingdom [2002] III Eur Court HR 155 Project Blue Sky Inc v Australian Broadcasting Authority [1998] HCA 28; 194 CLR 355 R v A2 [2019] HCA 35; 269 CLR 507 R v Chaytor [2010] UKSC 52; 1 AC 684 R v Collaery (No 6) [2020] ACTSC 164 R v Roy (No 3) [2025] ACTSC 5 RHG Mortgage Ltd v Ianni [2015] NSWCA 56 Rich v Howe [2017] VSC 483 Rowley v O’Chee [2000] Qd R 207 Rural Press Ltd v Australian Competition and Consumer Commission [2003] HCA 75; 216 CLR 53 Russian Commercial & Industrial Bank v British Bank for Foreign Trade Ltd [1921] 2 AC 438 Sagacious Legal Pty Ltd v Wesfarmers General Insurance Ltd [2011] FCAFC 53 Soenen v Thomas [1983] 8 CCC (3d) 224 Stewart v Ronalds [2009] NSWCA 277; 76 NSWLR 99 SZTAL v Minister for Immigration and Border Protection; SZTGM v Minister for Immigration and Border Protection [2017] HCA 34; 262 CLR 362 T v The United Kingdom (European Court of Human Rights, Grand Chamber, Application No 24724/94, 16 December 1999) The Dairy Farmers’ Co-operative Milk Co Ltd v The Commonwealth (1946) 73 CLR 381 Thompson v Minogue [2021] VSCA 358; 67 VR 301 Tobacco Institute of Australia Ltd v Australian Federation of Consumer Organisations Inc (No 2) [1993] FCA 105; 41 FCR 89 Tyrer v United Kingdom (1980) 26 Eur Court HR (ser A) Unions NSW v New South Wales [2023] HCA 4; 277 CLR 627 University of New South Wales v Moorhouse (1975) 133 CLR 1 V v United Kingdom [2000] 7 BHRC 659 Wainwright v United Kingdom [2006] X Eur Court HR 223 Warramunda Village Inc v Pryde [2001] FCA 61; 105 FCR 437 Wotton v Queensland (No 5) [2016] FCA 1457; 352 ALR 146 Y.F. v Turkey [2003] IX Eur Court HR 171 Yarrabee Coal Co Pty Ltd v Lujans [2009] NSWCA 85 Zurich Australian Insurance Limited v CIMIC Group Limited & Ors [2024] NSWCA 229; 115 NSWLR 297 Texts Cited: Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms, opened for signature 4 November 1950, 213 UNTS 221 (entered into force 3 September 1953) Explanatory Statement, Human Rights Bill 2003 (ACT) Human Rights Committee, General Comment No. 23: Article 27 (Rights of Minorities), 50th sess, UN Doc CCPR/C/21/Rev.1/Add.5 (8 April 1994) Human Rights Committee, Views: Communication No th 1184/2003, 86 sess, UN Doc CCPR/C/86/D/1184/2003 (27 April 2006) Human Rights Committee, Views: Communication No 511/1992, nd 52 sess, UN Doc CCPR/C/49/D/511/1992 (8 November 1994) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, opened for signature 16 December 1966, 999 UNTS 171 (entered into force 23 March 1976) Joint Committee on Parliamentary Privilege, Parliamentary Privilege (House of Lords paper 43-1, House of Commons paper 214-1, Session 1998-99) Universal Declaration of Human Rights, GA Res 217A (III), UN GAOR, UN Doc A/810 (10 December 1948) Parties: Julianne Francis Williams (Plaintiff) Director-General of the Justice and Community Safety Directorate (First Defendant) Jon Peach (Second Defendant) A Corrective Services Officer (redacted) (Third Defendant) ACT Human Rights Commission (Intervenor) Representation: Counsel M Dennis SC, P Tierney (Plaintiff) H Younan SC, N Oram (Defendants) S Fitzgerald (Intervenor) Solicitors Ken Cush & Associates (Plaintiff) ACT Government Solicitor (Defendants) ACT Human Rights Commissioner (Intervenor) File Number: SC 480 of 2021 Contents The application ...................................................................................................................9 Summary of the result .......................................................................................................10 The parties ........................................................................................................................10 The nature of the statutory cause of action .......................................................................11 The appropriate respondent to the Application ..................................................................12 The procedure for bringing a complaint under the Human Rights Act before the court ......13 The conduct the subject of complaint ................................................................................16 The issues ........................................................................................................................18 The evidence ....................................................................................................................19 Inferences to be drawn from CCTV and handheld camera footage................................19 Jones v Dunkel inferences ............................................................................................20 Credit findings after delay ..............................................................................................21 The plaintiff’s cultural heritage .......................................................................................21 The plaintiff’s status in the AMC in January 2021 ..........................................................22 The plaintiff’s involvement in, and efforts to attend, her grandmother’s funeral on 12 January 2021 ................................................................................................................23 A breakdown in the progress of the Leave Application occurs .......................................25 The 11 January scuttle to facilitate an escort .................................................................27 The second defendant’s decision and the basis of the refusal of funeral leave ..............29 A concern arises about the plaintiff’s intention to self-harm ...........................................31 The treatment of the plaintiff at the CSU ........................................................................33 A decision to use force to facilitate a strip search is made .............................................33 The use of force is implemented....................................................................................35 The plaintiff initiates a surrender and negotiate response to the conduct .......................36 The conduct of the strip search in the bathroom ............................................................36 The Human Rights Act ......................................................................................................38 General principles in interpreting human rights ..............................................................38 General principles in interpreting other laws which interact with human rights ...............39 The court’s task in evaluating whether conduct of a public authority is or was in breach of a human right ............................................................................................................39 The court’s task in determining whether a public authority failed to give “proper consideration” to the human right identified in making a decision ..................................42 The right to protection from cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment ...............................48 Humane treatment when deprived of liberty ..................................................................52 The right to privacy ........................................................................................................55 The right to enjoy culture and maintain cultural and kinship ties ....................................56 What was the content of the human rights identified? .......................................................57 The statutory framework limiting the plaintiff’s rights .........................................................59 General provisions directed to protection of human rights .............................................61 Specific provisions dealing with the conduct the subject of complaint ............................62 Policies giving content to the rights limited by law .............................................................69 ‘At-Risk’ Policy ..............................................................................................................69 Searching Policy............................................................................................................70 Use of Force Policy .......................................................................................................71 Issue 1: Was the Funeral leave decision a breach of any of the human rights relied upon by the plaintiff?..................................................................................................................73 Section 27 and the right to enjoy cultural practices and maintain kinship ties ................74 Section 12(a) - The right to no unlawful and arbitrary interference with family ...............80 Sections 19(1) and 19(3) – The right to treatment with humanity and respect for inherent dignity when deprived of liberty, including appropriate treatment when detained on remand ..........................................................................................................................80 Issue 2: Was the lack of a review of the Funeral leave decision a breach of the plaintiff’s human rights? ...................................................................................................................81 Issue 3: Was the use of force on 11 January 2021 conduct incompatible with the plaintiff’s human rights? ...................................................................................................................82 Issue 4: Was the strip search in the cell conduct incompatible with the plaintiff’s human rights? ...............................................................................................................................84 Issue 5: Was the strip search or body search in the CSU bathroom conduct incompatible with the plaintiff’s human rights? .......................................................................................86 Evidentiary issues: The parliamentary privilege dispute ....................................................87 What is meant by parliamentary privilege? ....................................................................88 The source of the privilege in the Territory.....................................................................89 Principles applying to questions of parliamentary privilege ............................................90 The requirement for a functional connection, objectively considered .............................91 Was there a functional connection here? .......................................................................93 The competing arguments .............................................................................................95 Consideration ................................................................................................................97 Evidentiary issues: The response letter dispute ................................................................99 What relief follows from the findings of a breach of human rights? ..................................109 Costs .............................................................................................................................. 111 Conclusion and Orders ...................................................................................................112 McWILLIAM J:
The Human Rights Act 2004 (ACT) (Human Rights Act) is a law that applies to every person in the Territory. It deals with things many take for granted, such as the right to life, the protection from torture or cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment, the right to freedom from slavery – things so basic that it is hard to believe the Territory needs a law to spell them out. Yet this law is significant, not only for those who are already able to play the game of navigating societal and communal interactions and administrative requirements; it is for those who are just trying to get to the field in the first place. And sometimes, it is a prism through which social justice issues speak; a lawful means of saying to those in power, you have got to do better for those people.
This is a claim about human rights brought by the plaintiff, Ms Julianne Williams, a Ngunnawal woman who was detained on remand at the Alexander Maconochie Centre (AMC) from 12 September 2020 pending the resolution of criminal charges. The proceeding concerns two incidents that happened while she was detained.
As to the first incident, while in custody on 6 January 2021, the plaintiff learned that her grandmother had died. In the days leading up to the funeral, the plaintiff attempted to seek leave from the AMC to attend the funeral, which was to be held on 12 January 2021. Her request was unsuccessful, and the funeral occurred without the plaintiff being physically present or otherwise being able to view the funeral proceeding from the AMC.
The second incident arose out of the first. The plaintiff was notified of the outcome of her request on 11 January 2021 and was not informed about any opportunity to review that decision. Upon learning she would not be permitted to travel to attend the funeral, the plaintiff’s mental health deteriorated. She was transferred to the Crisis Support Unit (CSU) within the AMC on 11 January 2021. While in that unit, she was subjected to the use of force for the purpose of carrying out either a strip or a body search, which is alleged to have been first attempted in her cell but ultimately carried out in the bathroom. Those are the essential facts which have brought the plaintiff to court.
The application
By originating application filed on 18 November 2021 and amended on 13 July 2022 (Application), the plaintiff sought declarations under s 40C of the Human Rights Act that each of the named defendants breached her human rights in a number of ways. She alleged breaches of her right to protection from inhuman and degrading treatment, her right to privacy, her right to humane treatment and preservation of her inherent dignity as a human being, and her right as an Aboriginal woman to maintain her connection to culture and kinship ties.
The plaintiff sought the following declaratory relief: (a) A declaration pursuant to s 40C of the Human Rights Act that the first and second defendants breached the plaintiff’s human rights under ss 10(1), 12(a), 19(1), 19(3) and 27(2) of the Human Rights Act; and (b) A declaration pursuant to s 40C of the Human Rights Act that the third defendant breached the plaintiff’s human rights under ss 10(1), 12(a), 19(1) and 19(3) of the Human Rights Act.
The declarations sought against the defendants were divided because the human rights alleged to have been breached arose out of separate conduct.
The plaintiff also sought costs.
Summary of the result
It should be stated at the outset of this judgment that it is a complex, difficult and often thankless job to manage and work in the Territory’s prison and corrective services force. This case demonstrates that difficult decisions must be made by those staff under pressure, both temporal and otherwise. However, at the heart of those decisions there lies a significant responsibility to maintain respect for the rights and liberty of individuals detained by the Territory, however curtailed those rights or liberties may be by the fact of incarceration.
For the reasons that follow, the plaintiff has established that aspects of the conduct that occurred on 11 January 2021 were incompatible with her right to be treated humanely, her right to privacy, her right as a person on remand to be treated in an appropriate way, and her right to protection from degrading treatment, and the court will grant declaratory relief accordingly.
The parties
The first defendant is the Director-General of the Justice and Community Safety Directorate. The Justice and Community Safety Directorate (Directorate) is the department of the ACT Government which has a range of responsibilities corresponding to its name. These include the responsibility for the management of the AMC pursuant to the provisions of the Corrections Management Act 2007 (ACT) (Corrections Act). The Director-General is the public official (that is, the statutory office holder) who is given the primary functions of managing and operating corrective services under the Corrections Act. This includes the operation of the AMC.
The second defendant is Mr Jon Peach. At the relevant time, Mr Peach was the Commissioner for ACT Corrective Services (ACTCS). ACTCS is part of the Directorate. Among other things, he was responsible for the management of the AMC. The Commissioner for ACTCS sits at the head of ACTCS and, relevantly, has responsibility for custodial operations. He was the person who made the decision to refuse the plaintiff’s request to attend her grandmother’s funeral.
The third defendant was a Correctional Officer (CO) at the AMC at the relevant time. The third defendant had the role of Area Manager – Operations. In that role, the third defendant was responsible for admissions, visitors, the security team, the gatehouse, the management unit, and any escorts from the AMC. She was the person who authorised the use of force on the plaintiff and the conduct of the strip or body search.
The ACT Human Rights Commissioner (Intervenor) was joined to the proceedings on 18 March 2022 by order of Elkaim J, following an application pursuant to s 36 of the Human Rights Act. That section allows the Intervenor to intervene in court proceedings that involve the application of the Human Rights Act (with leave of the court). The Human Rights Commissioner is the head of the ACT Human Rights Commission (HR Commission).
The nature of the statutory cause of action
The Application sought relief solely under s 40C of the Human Rights Act. The cause of action is thus a statutory one, created by ss 40B and 40C of the Human Rights Act. The operative part of the section is s 40B(1): 40B Public authorities must act consistently with human rights (1) It is unlawful for a public authority— (a) to act in a way that is incompatible with a human right; or (b) in making a decision, to fail to give proper consideration to a relevant human right.
It can be seen that there are two limbs. The first is substantive. The second is procedural. This was discussed in Certain Children v Minister for Families and Children (No 2) [2017] VSC 251; 52 VR 441 (Certain Children (No 2)) at [177], and confirmed in Thompson v Minogue [2021] VSCA 358; 67 VR 301 (Thompson) at [79] in relation to an equivalent section of the Charter of Human Rights and Responsibilities Act 2006 (Vic) (Victorian Charter). The plaintiff relies on both limbs in this Application. What constitutes ‘proper consideration’ is discussed separately below.
Section 40B(2) provides for circumstances where the section does not apply. They are immaterial to the present dispute.
Section 40C(1) and (2) then create a right to bring a proceeding in the Supreme Court: 40C Legal proceedings in relation to public authority actions (1) This section applies if a person— (a) claims that a public authority has acted in contravention of section 40B; and (b) alleges that the person is or would be a victim of the contravention. (2) The person may— (a) start a proceeding in the Supreme Court against the public authority; or (b) rely on the person's rights under this Act in other legal proceedings. The appropriate respondent to the Application
In my view and subject to hearing from the parties, the Territory was the proper defendant in lieu of the second and third defendants. Under s 223(3) of the Corrections Act, any civil liability that would attach to a person who has exercised a function under the Corrections Act or has otherwise been involved in the administration of the Corrections Act instead attaches to the Territory if the act or omission was done honestly and without recklessness for the Corrections Act. That is the case here.
Reinforcing that view, subsequent to the hearing, the Human Rights (Complaints) Legislation Amendment Act 2023 (ACT) (HR Complaints Amendment Act) has brought about a number of amendments to the Human Rights Act. Section 40C(5) of the Human Rights Act in its current form stipulates who the appropriate respondent to a proceeding brought under s 40C is (emphasis added): (5) The respondent to a proceeding started under subsection (2)(a) is— (a) if the public authority is a public authority mentioned in section 40(1)(a) to (e) or (g)—the public authority; or (b) if the public authority is a public employee who is a statutory office-holder—the statutory office-holder; or (c) if the public authority is any other public employee—the Territory; or (d) if the public authority is an entity for whom a declaration is in force under section 40D—the entity.
The procedure for bringing a complaint under the Human Rights Act before the court
The plaintiff and the defendants were at odds as to whether the proceeding should properly have been brought as an originating claim, rather than by an originating application.
The defendants argued that the proceeding should have been commenced by originating claim, relying on r 33(2) of the Rules, which provides for a default position subject to a territory law providing otherwise.
The plaintiff relied on r 34(2) of the Rules, which provides that a proceeding must be started by originating application if a territory law requires or allows a person to apply to the court for an order or another kind of relief (which s 40C of the Human Rights Act plainly does), and the law does not state the kind of originating process to be used. That was the case here, in that the Human Rights Act is silent on the point.
In Millard v Collins [2021] ACTSC 216, Elkaim J considered the interaction between rr 33 and 34 of the Rules and concluded at [27] that it is open to a plaintiff to commence a human rights proceeding by either originating process.
His Honour was there considering rr 407A and 407B of the Rules, concerning what the plaintiff must state when bringing a proceeding under the Human Rights Act. Those rules have since been repealed (on 1 July 2023) and are now located (in substance) in r 6022 of the Rules. The wording of r 6022 confirms that a party may make a claim via either an originating application or an originating claim (accompanied by a statement of claim), but in either case, certain matters must be set out, being: (a) the human right relied on, including the content of the right and any particular aspect of the right relied upon; (b) the facts on which the party relies to assert that the Human Rights Act applies to the proceeding; (c) the breach of the human right identified and the details of the breach; and (d) the relief sought.
The choice under the Rules to permit litigants to commence a human rights proceeding by way of originating application or originating claim recognises the diverse range of circumstances which may bring a person seeking to enforce their human rights to court. The Rules attempt to facilitate those who may not have ready access to a lawyer and whose case may be factually straightforward or confined to a question of law or principle. In this way, the Rules accommodate access to justice issues, so that a requirement to plead a case is not itself seen as a barrier to a person enforcing their human rights.
Here, the proceeding involved a complex factual matrix likely to be contested, as well as numerous breaches of human rights, some of which overlapped. The application of the law to the facts was not straightforward (as evidenced by the Intervenor’s involvement and the submissions made by the parties) and all parties were legally represented from the outset. In such circumstances, it was preferable or convenient for the proceeding to either start or continue according to pleadings, to ensure clarity as to what the issues were and precisely what conduct was alleged to amount to a breach of the human rights specified.
The conduct the subject of complaint
2․ The right of persons not to have their privacy, family, home or correspondence interfered with unlawfully or arbitrarily: s 12(a).
3․ The right of persons deprived of liberty to be treated with humanity and with respect for their inherent dignity: s 19(1).
4․ The right of accused persons deprived of liberty to be treated in a way that is appropriate for a person who has not been convicted: s 19(3). (The Application also raised s 10(1) of the Human Rights Act but the plaintiff properly did not press that right in respect of this complaint in closing argument.) (b) The first and second defendants did not facilitate a review of that decision or notify the plaintiff she had a right of review (Failure to review). Again, in the way that the plaintiff closed her case, this conduct was said to be a breach of the following rights under the Human Rights Act: 1․ The distinct cultural right of Aboriginal peoples to maintain cultural heritage and distinctive spiritual practices, observances and kinship ties: s 27(2).
2․ The right of persons not to have their privacy, family, home or correspondence interfered with unlawfully or arbitrarily: s 12(a).
3․ The right of persons deprived of liberty to be treated with humanity and with respect for their inherent dignity: s 19(1).
4․ The right of accused persons deprived of liberty to be treated in a way that is appropriate for a person who has not been convicted: s 19(3). (Again, the Application also raised s 10(1) of the Human Rights Act but the plaintiff properly did not press that right in respect of this complaint in closing argument.) (c) The third defendant made a decision, which was implemented, to use force against the plaintiff while she was detained at the CSU at the AMC (Use of force). This conduct was said to be a breach of the following rights under the Human Rights Act: 1․ The right of persons to protection from being treated or punished in a cruel, inhuman or degrading way: s 10(1)(b).
2․ The right of persons not to have their privacy, family, home or correspondence interfered with unlawfully or arbitrarily: s 12(a).
3․ The right of persons deprived of liberty to be treated with humanity and with respect for their inherent dignity: s 19(1).
4․ The right of accused persons deprived of liberty to be treated in a way that is appropriate for a person who has not been convicted: s 19(3). (d) The first defendant (as a result of conduct by the third defendant) attempted to strip search or body search the plaintiff while in the cell at the CSU (the cell search). This conduct was said to be a breach of the following rights under the Human Rights Act: 1․ The right of persons to protection from being treated or punished in a cruel, inhuman or degrading way: s 10(1)(b).
2․ The right of persons not to have their privacy, family, home or correspondence interfered with unlawfully or arbitrarily: s 12(a).
3․ The right of persons deprived of liberty to be treated with humanity and with respect for their inherent dignity: s 19(1).
4․ The right of persons deprived of liberty to be treated in a way that is appropriate for a person who has not been convicted: s 19(3). (e) The first defendant (as a result of conduct by the third defendant) conducted a body search of the plaintiff in the bathroom at the CSU (the bathroom search). 1․ The right of persons to protection from being treated or punished in a cruel, inhuman or degrading way: s 10(1)(b).
2․ The right of persons not to have their privacy, family, home or correspondence interfered with unlawfully or arbitrarily: s 12(a).
3․ The right of persons deprived of liberty to be treated with humanity and with respect for their inherent dignity: s 19(1).
4․ The right of accused persons deprived of liberty to be treated in a way that is appropriate for a person who has not been convicted: s 19(3).
The issues
Whether those five matters breached any of the plaintiff’s human rights respectively form the five overarching issues for determination. If any of the breaches alleged is established, then there is a further issue as to what relief ought to follow.
In addition, there were two vigorously contested evidentiary rulings for which reasons were reserved at the time (as they involved matters of statutory construction that were not straightforward). The first arose from the operation of s 25(4) of the Inspector of Correctional Services Act 2017 (ACT) (ICS Act) which led to the rejection of a report prepared by the Inspector of Correctional Services on a different ground, that of parliamentary privilege (privilege ruling). That statute has since been replaced by the Custodial Inspector Act 2017 (ACT) (Custodial Inspector Act), by virtue of the Monitoring of Places of Detention Legislation Amendment Act 2024 (ACT) which came into force on 18 September 2024. The statutory provisions that were in question at the time of the ruling are markedly different now.
The second was the admission of a letter of response from the second defendant to the ACT Discrimination Commissioner dated 22 February 2021 (response letter). The dispute about that evidence related to a different privilege available under the Human Rights Commission Act 2005 (ACT) (HRC Act), a statute which has also been amended since the hearing and those amendments are part of the reasons dealing with the ruling below.
The evidence
Inferences to be drawn from CCTV and handheld camera footage
The evidence also included video footage of the use of force against the plaintiff on 11 January 2021 and stills derived from that footage. In that regard, I have exercised caution in interpreting photographic evidence (including the CCTV and handheld camera footage), in accordance with the authorities to that effect: Yarrabee Coal Co Pty Ltd v Lujans [2009] NSWCA 85 at [20]-[28] and the cases there-cited, including Blacktown City Council v Hocking [2008] NSWCA 144 (Blacktown) at [8]-[11] and [167]-[170]. Although not dealing with cases involving human rights, the reasoning is about fact-finding from visual records in civil cases and applies equally here.
Ultimately, it was not in dispute that force was used on the plaintiff, nor was the nature or manner of that force used. Accordingly, this is not a case where it was necessary to determine any factual issue using the visual evidence as the sole means for a particular finding: c.f. Blacktown at [169] per Tobias JA. There is no doubt that such evidence may be used as an aid to determine which of the explanations given by the various witnesses appears to be most worthy of acceptance (following Blacktown at [167] per Tobias JA) and this is at times how I have used the evidence.
The following factual findings are made on the balance of probabilities as to what happened over the course of 6-11 January 2021. There were many versions of the same events given, with each witness remembering what occurred through their own lens and recall ability. There was no one witness that I generally preferred or considered to be more reliable than another. As will be seen, there are specific parts of the plaintiff’s evidence that I do not accept because I considered her memory to be unreliable when regard was had to the documentary evidence and evidence given by other witnesses, but there are also parts of the defendants’ evidence that fall into that category. Contrary to the plaintiff’s submissions, no findings of deliberate dishonesty are made in respect of any of the defendants’ witnesses.
Jones v Dunkel inferences
I have also not found it appropriate to draw inferences against the defendants in reliance upon the commonsense principle derived from Jones v Dunkel, which is that the “unexplained failure by a party ... to call witnesses ... may in appropriate circumstances lead to an inference that the uncalled evidence ... would not have assisted that party’s case”: RHG Mortgage Ltd v Ianni [2015] NSWCA 56 per McColl JA (Emmett JA and Sackville AJA agreeing) at [75]. Where the plaintiff sought that such an inference be drawn, it was not appropriate to draw the inference for one or other of the following two reasons: (a) I was not satisfied that the inference was material, because I did not consider the balance of the evidentiary record to be equivocal (as to which see Sagacious Legal Pty Ltd v Wesfarmers General Insurance Ltd [2011] FCAFC 53 at [78]- [79]). For example, on the evidence as it was, I did not accept the evidence of another witness on the point and found the fact in issue in favour of the plaintiff, meaning that any inference in respect of a different witness fell away. (b) The articulation of the case on systemic failures was not as clear as it ought to have been, given the submissions that were made about it, which meant that it could not fairly be said that the witness about which the inference was sought was one whom the defendant might have been expected to call. The simple explanation for why the witness was not called may have been that the person was not the decision-maker whose conduct was under question or that the person had since left the AMC and were not obviously a material witness in this case such as to warrant efforts to locate them.
Similarly, I did not draw a Jones v Dunkel inference in respect of the plaintiff in not initially referring to matters that might have been thought to be critical by the end of the hearing. She made herself available for cross-examination and I was not satisfied the proper explanation for the gaps in her evidence was due to a forensic choice not to present the evidence (due to a concern that it did not assist her case). Credit findings after delay
To the extent that there are any concerns arising about credit findings made after such a lengthy delay between the hearing and the judgment, the findings as to credit derive from my views and notes made during the hearing and upon its conclusion, as well as having refreshed my memory from the transcript and the parties’ submissions in light of the legal principles to be applied to those facts. Judgments are iterative and the court’s consideration may be given to factual matters and questions of credit significantly earlier than the date of final judgment suggests.
What is set out is what I consider to be the most consistent thread to be drawn from the various accounts, what was recorded on the documents (including the CCTV and handheld camera footage), what the witnesses recalled, as well as reasons given to the plaintiff and later to the HR Commission for particular decisions.
The plaintiff’s cultural heritage
Starting with some uncontroversial facts, the plaintiff was born in NSW in 1983. Her mother is from Ngunnawal country and her father is from Wiradjuri country. She identifies as a Ngunnawal woman.
It was not disputed that the plaintiff belonged to an ethnic minority and had a strong connection to the Aboriginal culture. The plaintiff lived in Yass, Queanbeyan and the ACT during her childhood. She previously danced in an Aboriginal dance group named Fully Dreaming. She would attend schools and teach students about Aboriginal dance and culture. When the plaintiff visited Narrandera growing up, her father would take her yabbying and fishing on the Murrumbidgee River. Her father painted and made digeridoos, and he taught his family how to make didgeridoos. Her father would often take her into the bush to look for native plants and medicines. He took her rabbiting and taught her how to skin a rabbit. He taught the plaintiff stories of the dreaming, language and culture. The plaintiff learnt to speak Wiradjuri.
When the plaintiff was 21, she moved to Alice Springs to live with her father. She continued to dance, performing in many shows. She worked as an artist and trained with Indigenous artists in Alice Springs. She has had her artwork shown at exhibitions in Alice Springs and Canberra. In her paintings, she utilised stories passed down by her family.
It was also not disputed that the plaintiff had a strong personal connection to her paternal grandmother, who lived in Narrandera in NSW and was often visited by the plaintiff before she died. She had stayed with her grandmother for around two to three months every year growing up. The plaintiff was also assisted by her grandmother in raising her own daughter.
The plaintiff’s status in the AMC in January 2021
The plaintiff was a sentenced prisoner who had been released into the community on parole in August 2019. While on parole, the plaintiff was taken into custody on 11 September 2020 in relation to further charges. She was detained on remand at the AMC from 12 September 2020, pending the resolution of those charges.
Subsequently, on 3 March 2021, the plaintiff was found guilty of attempting to use a false document and was sentenced to three months’ full-time detention which was backdated to commence on 11 September 2020. Upon conviction, the parole order was automatically cancelled pursuant to s 149(2) of the Crimes (Sentence Administration) Act 2005 (ACT). Other charges were subsequently dealt with on 19 May 2021.
The consequence of this is that as at 6-11 January 2021, the plaintiff was technically a sentenced prisoner, not a detainee on remand. However, that fact arises from a retrospective operation of legislation. For the purposes of assessing the content of the plaintiff’s human rights and whether they were infringed, the assessment takes place as at the date of the conduct (and not by reference to subsequent events or automatic consequences pursuant to legislation). Accordingly, as at 6-11 January 2021, the plaintiff had the status of a detainee on remand.
The evidence disclosed that the plaintiff had physical and mental health challenges leading up to the incidents the subject of the proceedings. She was in segregation at the AMC from 1 January 2021 for disciplinary related issues, including an allegation of a serious assault of another detainee. These are relevant background context for what occurred, but I have endeavoured to avoid detailing health or other disciplinary matters in this judgment.
For the claims under consideration here, there was a real question as to whether the plaintiff’s conduct while in custody affected the assessment of her as a security risk for the purposes of considering her application for funeral leave or otherwise influenced the decision-making processes in respect of the conduct that occurred. This included the parties engaging on whether any assessment by the corrections officers involved was justified. On the facts that I have found, it has not been necessary to traverse all the evidence and submissions devoted to that topic. The plaintiff’s involvement in, and efforts to attend, her grandmother’s funeral on 12 January 2021
On Wednesday 6 January 2021, the plaintiff learned that her paternal grandmother had died. She was upset and initially asked to be left alone. As she processed the news, she accepted peer support and moved to dealing with the question of attending the funeral.
The plaintiff was the first-born child of her father and the family’s representative. It was her responsibility to read the eulogy at her grandmother’s sorry business.
The third defendant was aware on 6 January that the plaintiff intended to apply for funeral leave. She advised the plaintiff to get the paperwork in as soon as possible.
A breakdown in the progress of the Leave Application occurs
The plaintiff believed that she told two corrections officers the details of the funeral on 7 January, namely that it was to be held in Narrandera and at the lawn cemetery, when they came to perform a segregation review.
From the documentary record, that segregation review occurred on Friday 8 January. The record includes the plaintiff’s mother telling ILO 2 that she only found out the details of the funeral on Friday 8 January. There were also two emails from one of the corrections officers who performed the segregation review to ILO 1. The first requested ILO 1 to confirm that the plaintiff’s grandmother had passed away that week, and the second requested her to confirm that the funeral was on Tuesday at 2pm and to “please confirm the place”. That second email was sent at 6:25pm on the Friday on a day when ILO 1 was on leave and was scheduled to be on leave over the next three days.
ILO 1’s evidence was that even though she was on leave on Friday 8 January, she responded to emails while on leave. She did respond to the first email sent to her. However, she did not respond to the second email requesting her to confirm the time and location of the funeral. ILO 1’s evidence (which I accept) was that this may have been because she did not see the second email as she was drafting a response to the first email. However, the position was that an ILO who was on leave was dealing with the issue late on a Friday evening, rather than any handover of the issue occurring at the AMC.
A separate point of significance of ILO 1 being on leave is that it provides a further reason why the plaintiff’s recollection that she filled out the Leave Application with ILO 1 in person on 8 January once the funeral details were known cannot be accepted.
The funeral was actually at 2:30pm. It is not to the point that there was half an hour difference in the time. That would have been remedied on confirmation. Regrettably, that did not occur over the weekend. Whether it could have occurred is thus a moot point.
There was a corrections officer copied into ILO 1’s correspondence. It was not apparent whether that was a matter of standard practice or whether that was because the particular corrections officer was working over the weekend and tasked with the duty of confirming the funeral. That officer did not give evidence in the proceeding.
Accordingly, by 6:25pm on Friday 8 January 2021, the details of the funeral were known by the plaintiff, and that officers at the AMC knew the date, general location (Narrandera) and approximate time of the funeral. However, there was a disconnect, in that even those details were not communicated to those responsible for actioning the request in terms of an escort.
Nothing was progressed over the weekend of 9-10 January. An ILO did not work over the weekend, but it is not only ILOs who can progress outstanding paperwork. The evidence of the second defendant was that other corrections officers were employed over the weekend and part of their role was to support all detainees throughout all periods. The lack of an ILO working over the weekend was not the issue. The issue was the lack of a handover to someone else to progress the request (if possible) over the weekend.
The 11 January scuttle to facilitate an escort
On the morning of 11 January, the third defendant arrived at work and checked the pigeonholes. She discovered the Bluey and observed that there was no Leave Application attached. She requested a ILO 2 to obtain the Leave Application from the plaintiff. The third defendant deposed to also finding the funeral information letter dated 11 January 2021 with the Bluey.
The defendants were critical of the plaintiff failing to adduce the email which confirmed details of the funeral. Equally though, there was no affidavit from ILO 2 as to how he came into possession of the letter from the funeral service provider.
I did not accept the evidence that the letter confirming the funeral details was in the pigeonhole when the third defendant arrived at work. The following surrounding evidence established the confirmation letter being obtained by ILO 2 following his visit to the plaintiff on the morning of 11 January: (a) First, ILO 1 did not give evidence that after receiving the email late on Friday 8 January, she then contacted the funeral service provider. Her evidence was that she did not see that last email. (b) Second, the case note that was contained in the third defendant’s own affidavit stated that ILO 2, “obtained the funeral service confirmation from the Funeral Director”. (c) Third, the funeral letter was also dated 11 January, which makes it unlikely that it was sitting in the pigeonhole when the third defendant arrived at work and more likely that it was sent in response to ILO 2 actioning the third defendant’s request to confirm the funeral details.
In any event, I find that the Bluey and the completed Leave Application were first submitted on the morning of Monday 11 January 2021.
Things moved quickly from there. A request was made in respect of the ACT Victims Register to confirm whether there were any issues that needed to be considered in respect of any victim if the plaintiff were to attend the funeral. The answer came back promptly that there were no registered victims and no known concerns with the escort request.
The third defendant attended the Hume Health Centre within the AMC to seek advice on any medication risks to the plaintiff in undertaking the proposed travel. The response again was prompt, and she was advised that the health risk to the plaintiff due to the proposed travel could be managed by medication.
However, notwithstanding those two matters, the third defendant recommended that the plaintiff not be granted prisoner leave, writing on the Prisoner Leave Application: Detainee has been displaying difficult behaviours in recent times. Funeral information was received with 24 hours notice, the funeral is a significant distance away and poses fatigue risk to staff.
That does not quite accord with what she wrote on the Detainee Request Form which was as follows: Family are supportive of detainee attending funeral. Funeral notice/confirmation received 11/01 leaving 24 hours notice. Funeral is in Narrandera NSW.
A concern arises about the plaintiff’s intention to self-harm
The plaintiff was told by ILO 2 that her request for funeral leave had been refused at approximately 4:15pm. Her reaction to that news was not good. It suffices to state that she was crying, swearing and threatening self-harm by cutting her pacemaker out with a razor. One CO employed by the AMC completed a ‘Referral for An ‘At Risk’ Assessment’ Form. Another CO attended the plaintiff’s cell to observe the plaintiff (observing officer) and his evidence was that he attempted to deescalate her distress. An ILO visited the plaintiff’s cell, but she refused to speak with them.
During that time, the observing officer saw the plaintiff place a hand with toilet paper down her pants to her crotch area. The plaintiff was menstruating and attempting to attend to that without discussion with the male CO. However, in the context of the threats of self-harm that were occurring at the time, the officer did not appreciate that was a possible explanation for the conduct and instead became concerned that the plaintiff had secreted a razor blade (hence the need to wrap it in toilet paper).
Following the referral for an ‘At Risk’ assessment, Forensic Mental Health considered that it was in the plaintiff’s interests for her to be transferred to the CSU. An interim risk management plan was prepared at 5.50pm. The notes stated: Client highly upset as not able to attend funeral, refusing to talk to mental health, threatening to pull out pacemaker.
The plaintiff refused to be transferred. She appeared exhausted. It is at that point that the third defendant was informed that the plaintiff refused to move to the CSU. She considered that the use of force may be necessary to move the plaintiff from the Special Care Centre (SCC) which was being used to accommodate women detainees to the CSU.
Around 6pm, the third defendant telephoned a doctor who was a visiting medical officer at the AMC (the VMO) prior to him leaving for the day. She discussed the plaintiff’s threats of self-harm, and the doctor agreed that given her distress, she would be safer, better monitored and better supported at the CSU.
The doctor was asked about the plaintiff’s physical condition and whether a pacemaker could be dislodged or damaged if force was used when she was moved. The third defendant initially gave evidence that she told the VMO that a use of force might be needed to extract the plaintiff from the SCC cell and take her to the CSU. She subsequently believed that she did not tell the doctor the reason for the use of force. I have rejected that later evidence as it was inconsistent with the doctor’s clear recollection and it was also inconsistent with the third defendant’s contemporaneous report (extracted below).
The VMO explained that pacemakers are usually removed surgically by specialists when required but are otherwise secure unless there is trauma to the pacemaker site, which should be avoided. There was some suggestion that there were questions about whether a razor could be used to cut out a pacemaker. The VMO did not recall that question being asked and I do not accept that was a topic of discussion between the third defendant and the doctor.
A decision to use force to facilitate a strip search is made
Upon receiving the information that the detainee had threatened self-harm, had refused to participate in a strip search upon entry to the CSU (which she believed at the time was a mandatory procedure), was refusing to engage with the mental health team and the observing officer’s concern about a concealed razor blade, the third defendant (as the “Officer in Charge”) decided upon a course of action that involved the use of force to conduct a strip search, described as a non-compliant strip search, in the plaintiff’s cell in the CSU.
As to the third defendant’s belief that a strip search was mandatory, any such belief she had arose under the Corrections Management (Management of At-Risk Detainees) Policy 2019 (At-Risk Policy). That policy is discussed at [226]-[272] below as part of the limits informing the content of the plaintiff’s human rights at this point.
The following is what the third defendant wrote in an Incident Report Form on 11 January 2021 reporting what occurred. Because of its evidentiary importance, it is appropriate to extract the full account up to the point of decision: On Monday 12th January 2021 I was rostered on duty as Operations Area Manager [from] 0730-1930 hours and [wish] to report the following: At 1625 hours [the plaintiff] was deemed At Risk by SCC staff. At 1750 she was assessed by mental health, she would not engage with mental health and therefore CSU placement and S2 x 15 minute observations were required. CO2 … contacted me to advise that the [plaintiff] was refusing to move from SCC to CSU. I asked CO2 … to speak to [the plaintiff] further and explain that she had to move to CSU and it was non-negotiable, he agreed to have this conversation but advised that she would likely refuse. Due to current policy and the time of day I took this opportunity to contact [the VMO] and advise that there may be a use of force in order to relocate the detainee. [The VMO] agreed that a use of force would be appropriate to maintain safety and security. I questioned [the VMO] about [the plaintiff’s] pacemaker, he stated that it should not be a problem. A short time after this [the plaintiff] compliantly relocated to CSU. Upon placement in CSU [the plaintiff] refused to participate in a mandatory strip search. I attended CSU to speak with [the plaintiff], it was clear she was not going to comply with the strip search. Multiple staff members attempted to communicate with [the plaintiff] to gain compliance with no success. Staff were advised to maintain constant observations on her until a plan was put in place. Whilst exiting CSU [the observing officer] informed me that whilst performing observations he had witnessed [the plaintiff] with her hands in her groin area, he was of the belief she may have been attempting to secrete a razor or something to harm herself with. I contacted Duty Manager … to brief her on the situation. Due to the [plaintiff’s] current risk, what [the observing officer] had witnessed and the requirement to strip search a detainee on entry into CSU it was proposed that a team of staff apply PPE and remove the [plaintiff’s] clothes in a non-compliant strip search. This was agreed upon.
The use of force is implemented
Drawing from the CCTV footage, the handheld camera footage and the witness accounts, the third defendant oversaw the use of force on the plaintiff between 6:48pm to 6:55pm.
The footage showed the plaintiff lying on her bed. She refused to submit to the strip search. The footage shows the third defendant speaking outside the door to the plaintiff’s cell and announcing that force was about to be used.
The plaintiff’s evidence was that she did not hear what was said through the door. There was no evidence as to what could be heard. Four female corrections officers in helmets and carrying shields then entered her cell. They dragged her onto the floor, lay on top of her and directed her to comply with a search.
The plaintiff said loudly several times, “I can’t breathe”. She also mentioned pain in her chest.
At the time this occurred, one of the officers was carrying a Hoffman knife or clothing removal scissors, with the intention that it would be used to cut the plaintiff’s clothes from her. During the operation, the third defendant asked, “who’s got the knife?” One of the corrections officers handed her the clothing removal scissors. The third defendant thought she would have to remove the plaintiff’s clothes “if the use of force reached that point”.
The use of force was viewed by a number of corrections officers, including male corrections officers. They mainly stood outside the cell with a view through the window and open door. However, a number of male corrections officers came in and out of the cell at different times.
The plaintiff initiates a surrender and negotiate response to the conduct
The plaintiff was clearly in visible distress. I accept her evidence that she could not breathe.
She yelled out that if the corrections officers got off her, she would go with the CSU Supervisor. The CSU Supervisor attempted to come into the room to assist. She was sent away. The plaintiff’s pleas to go with the CSU Supervisor continued. Eventually, someone gave the direction to release the plaintiff, and the CSU Supervisor was permitted to enter the cell and attend to the plaintiff.
The CSU Supervisor spoke to the plaintiff and the plaintiff asked for toilet paper, indicating that she was menstruating. The plaintiff was provided some toilet paper which she used to wipe her face and which she also placed down her underwear. This was all in full view of a number of corrections officers watching.
The CSU Supervisor sat with the plaintiff providing support. After the plaintiff had sat for a little while and recovered, the plaintiff was then escorted from her cell to the CSU bathroom.
The conduct of the strip search in the bathroom
The plaintiff went with the CSU Supervisor and another corrections officer to the bathroom. The plaintiff was asked by either the other corrections officer or the CSU Supervisor to remove the clothes on the top half of her body. The clothes were passed to the other officer and examined to make sure that nothing was concealed within that item. The plaintiff was then handed back her clothes for the top half of her body and put them back on.
The same process was then repeated with the clothes on the lower half of the plaintiff’s body, including her shoes and socks.
Contrary to the plaintiff’s evidence, there was no request to the plaintiff to squat and cough and she was not fully naked at any one time. I have rejected that aspect of the plaintiff’s evidence as unreliable, as I consider the evidence of the CSU Supervisor and the other corrections officer, to be the more likely scenario for the following reasons: (a) They were each consistent in their accounts that neither of those things occurred. Both were cross-examined and were credible in the witness box. (b) The plaintiff’s initial letter of complaint spoke about the degradation of the attempted strip search and discussed the use of force with the intention of cutting her clothes off in her cell. She did not refer to the strip search that was actually conducted in the bathroom, which lends some support for the fact that the strip search in the bathroom was conducted in the manner in which the corrections officers remembered. (c) Listening to the plaintiff in the witness box, I had concerns that her memory may have been affected on this point by her trauma and the passage of time. (d) There was also a personal injury claim form which was in evidence and filled out on the plaintiff’s behalf. It expressly referred to the plaintiff taking her clothes off “half at a time”. That account can only have come from the plaintiff, and it was prepared at a time before this proceeding commenced. It again supports the version of events given by the corrections officers involved.
Further, although I accept that she was asked to pull her ears forward, I did not accept that any officer looked inside her ears. There was evidence that the plaintiff was told to put her finger in her mouth and run her finger inside her mouth and that she complied with that request. Given the definition of “body search” in the Corrections Act below, that may arguably have been sufficient to amount to examination of an orifice or cavity of the detainee’s body. However, it may also be argued that what constitutes a “body search” was not what occurred because the plaintiff used her own finger. My view of the corrections officers who gave evidence and my acceptance of their account in respect of the manner of the search as explained above led me to accept their evidence that on the balance of probabilities, they did not carry out a body search (which would have been unlawful without the presence of a medical practitioner under div 9.4.4 of the Corrections Act). Ultimately, the findings on this aspect of the search do not turn on whether the search carried out was a strip search or a body search. What occurred following the strip search
The Human Rights Act
General principles in interpreting human rights
The rights set out in the Human Rights Act are drawn primarily from the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, opened for signature 16 December 1966, 999 UNTS 171 (entered into force 23 March 1976) (ICCPR): Explanatory Statement to the Human Rights Bill 2003 (ACT) at 3. That has a consequence for how they should be interpreted, with a broader range of jurisprudence informing the words of the Human Rights Act.
In Islam v Director-General, Justice and Community Safety Directorate [2021] ACTSC 33 (Islam), I explained the interpretive tools the court uses at [77]-[79]: 77. The protection of human rights crosses borders, with the human rights set out in the ICCPR having been implemented and considered in a number of other jurisdictions. The task of interpreting and applying the Human Rights Act may therefore be assisted by reference to the judgments of international and foreign domestic courts which have logical or analogical relevance to the interpretation of a statutory provision, with due caution exercised for the particular statutory and constitutional framework in the jurisdiction and any variations in the words used of the sections under consideration: Momcilovic v R [2011] HCA 34; 245 CLR 1 (Momcilovic) at [18] per French CJ; at [146] per Gummow J. 78. This is reflected in s 31 of the Human Rights Act, which expressly provides that international law, and the judgments of foreign and international courts and tribunals, relevant to a human right may be considered in interpreting the human right. 79. Further, each right is to be construed in “the broadest possible way”: see Certain Children by their Litigation Guardian Sister Marie Brigid Arthur v Minister for Families and Children [2016] VSC 796; 51 VR 473 (Certain Children) at [143] and the authorities there-cited. General principles in interpreting other laws which interact with human rights
Given that the Corrections Act governed the operations at the AMC that are under scrutiny and some words of the statute are considered later in these reasons, it is worth briefly noting s 30 of the Human Rights Act, which provides: So far as it is possible to do so consistently with its purpose, a Territory law must be interpreted in a way that is compatible with human rights.
This requires no different approach to statutory interpretation: Momcilovic v The Queen [2011] HCA 34; 245 CLR 1 (Momcilovic) at [565], a case which concerned the Victorian Charter but was applied in respect of the Human Rights Act in Andrews v Thomson [2018] ACTCA 53; 340 FLR 439 (Andrews) at [46]-[47]. It requires that, when interpreting legislation, a construction that is compatible with human rights is to be preferred, so far as it is possible to do so consistently with the law’s purpose.
The process of interpreting a Territory law is not impacted by s 28 of the Human Rights Act, which is directed to the different task of examining the content of a human right and how it may be limited: Momcilovic at [574]-[575], cited in Andrews at [53]. The terms of s 28 are dealt with separately in addressing the content of the rights in question in this proceeding.
The court’s task in evaluating whether conduct of a public authority is or was in breach of a human right
The court’s task is simply to determine whether a statutory entitlement, being the human right identified, has been denied, either because of conduct which was incompatible with the right (s 40B(1)(a)), or because of a decision that was made without taking the person’s human rights into account (s 40B(1)(b)). It is a question of fact and degree to be assessed in all the circumstances: Islam v Director-General of the Justice and Community Safety Directorate [2015] ACTSC 20 per Mossop M (as his Honour then was) at [87]. If the court finds that the conduct complained of is, or was, incompatible with a plaintiff’s human right, the task turns to considering the appropriate remedy under s 40C(6) (as it is now), which permits the court to grant “the relief it considers appropriate except damages.”
For completeness, at the time this proceeding was commenced the relevant power to grant relief was s 40C(4). It was in the same terms. The current numbering was brought about on 11 June 2024, as a result of the commencement of amendments made by the HR Complaints Amendment Act. Nothing turns on that amendment.
Some of the parties framed their submissions around a series of questions derived from cases such as Hakimi v Legal Aid Commission (ACT) [2009] ACTSC 48; 3 ACTLR 127 at [51]-[53] and other Victorian authorities. The Intervenor and the plaintiff proposed that the court address a series of questions, with a subset of questions, under five headings: (a) The relevance or engagement question – is any human right relevant to the decision or action that a public authority has made, taken, proposed to take or failed to take? (b) The limitation question – if so, has the public authority done or failed to do anything that limits that right? (c) The proportionality or justification question – if so, is that limit set by laws reasonable and demonstrably justified having regard to the matters set out in the Human Rights Act? (d) The proper consideration question – even if the limit is proportionate, if the public authority has made a decision, did it give proper consideration to the right? (e) The inevitable infringement question – was the act or decision made under an Act or instrument that gave the public authority no discretion in relation to the act or decision, or does the act confer a discretion that cannot be interpreted in a way that is consistent with the protected right?
I have not set out the subset of questions. The questions posed in the authorities appeared to me to be an attempt to ensure that the different sections of the Human Rights Act or the Victorian Charter were not overlooked. Having considered those cases and the Intervenor’s submitted approach, in my view, caution should be exercised in setting up a series of questions to be answered, lest this inadvertently substitute the questions for the statutory task. It is not what the statute requires and may divert the consideration unnecessarily, or even impermissibly conflate notions of an incompatible act with an incompatible law. The considerations are different and the complaint here was not that a particular law was incompatible.
The right to protection from cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment
Section 10 of the Human Rights Act is in the following terms: 10 Protection from torture and cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment etc (1) No-one may be— (a) tortured; or (b) treated or punished in a cruel, inhuman or degrading way. (2) No-one may be subjected to medical or scientific experimentation or treatment without their free consent.
At the time of the incidents, s 10(2) used the words “his or her” instead of “their”. The amendment was made by the HR Complaints Amendment Act (which came into force after the matter was heard).
The authorities dealing with the right contained in s 10 of the Human Rights Act have been dealt with in Islam at [82]-[97] and I have again drawn on that summary in what follows. What constitutes cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment is not defined in the Human Rights Act.
However, due to this human right being included in international and domestic obligations, there is a substantial body of jurisprudence dealing with the human right set out in s 10 of the Human Rights Act.
First, schedule 1 to the Human Rights Act confirms that the relevant article of the ICCPR which has been implemented is art 7, the words of which are as follows: No one shall be subjected to torture or to cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment. ...
Those words are also to be found in art 5 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, GA Res 217A (III), UN GAOR, UN Doc A/810 (10 December 1948) (Universal Declaration) and in art 3 of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms, opened for signature 4 November 1950, 213 UNTS 221 (entered into force 3 September 1953) (ECHR), which reads: “No one shall be subjected to torture or to inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment”. Again, there is no definition of the phrase in either the ICCPR, the Universal Declaration or the ECHR.
Secondly, the words of the section as extracted above are almost identical to the language found in s 10(b) of the Victorian Charter, save that the opening words of that section commence: ‘a person must not be’. The phrase is not defined in the Victorian Charter either.
A number of applicable principles may be extracted from this jurisprudence. Having regard to the facts of this case, the focus is on what constitutes “inhuman or degrading treatment”.
Conduct is said to be ‘degrading’ when it is such as to arouse feelings of fear, anguish and inferiority in a victim, capable of humiliating and debasing a person: Kalashnikov v Russia [2002] VI Eur Court HR 93 (Kalashnikov) at [95]. The right is concerned with the deliberate imposition of severe suffering: Certain Children v Minister for Families [2016] VSC 796; 51 VR 473 (Certain Children) at [163].
Not every finding that conduct was cruel, inhuman or degrading will amount to a contravention of the Human Rights Act. What is required is an assessment of the severity of the conduct, with a minimum or threshold level of severity required before it will be found to contravene the Human Rights Act: Islam at [87] and [99]; and Kalashnikov at [95], cited in Islam v Director-General Justice and Community Safety Directorate (No 3) [2016] ACTSC 27 at [158] per Mossop AsJ (as his Honour then was). That principle was subsequently referred to as being well-established in Islam v Director- General, Justice and Community Safety Directorate [2024] ACTCA 22 at [74].
Humane treatment when deprived of liberty
Section 19 of the Human Rights Act is in the following terms (emphasis added to highlight the parts relied on here): 19 Humane treatment when deprived of liberty (1) Anyone deprived of liberty must be treated with humanity and with respect for the inherent dignity of the human person. (2) An accused person must be segregated from convicted people, except in exceptional circumstances. … (3) An accused person must be treated in a way that is appropriate for a person who has not been convicted.
The section is specifically directed to ensuring that public authorities preserve the humanity and inherent dignity of those who are in custody and are a particularly vulnerable section of the community as a result of that fact. The words ‘with respect for’ in s 19(1) do no more than state that the right of persons who are deprived of liberty to their inherent dignity is to be respected. They are not words that create an internal limit on the right: Thompson at [69].
In Thompson, the Victorian Court of Appeal discussed the content of the right under s 22(1) of the Victorian Charter, which is the equivalent of s 19(1) of the Human Rights Act. The Court of Appeal started by explaining what the right is protecting at [61]-[65] (footnotes omitted): 61. The precise content of the dignity right in s 22(1) of the Charter has not been determined. Nor have the courts formulated a test for determining when the dignity right is limited. That is not surprising because the scope of the right, and the circumstances in which it can be limited, will be informed by the nature, extent and purpose of the deprivation of a person’s liberty. 62. Self-evidently, some attributes of a person’s dignity may be restricted as a necessary feature of the deprivation of liberty to which the person is subject. For example, members in the general community might regard the freedom to choose the clothes they wear, the food they eat and the people with whom they associate as matters that affect their dignity. Those freedoms are necessarily restricted for persons serving a term of imprisonment in a maximum security prison. 63. In considering the content of the dignity right in s 22(1) of the Charter, a relevant factor is that individuals who are deprived of their liberty may be vulnerable in that they may not be able to resist incursions upon their dignity in the same way as members of the general community. An involuntary patient in a psychiatric institution with a severe cognitive impairment would fall within this category. 64. In the case of prisoners, the content of the dignity right will be informed by the legal and practical realities of incarceration. As Emerton J stated in Castles v Secretary of the Department of Justice: [F]or the period of their imprisonment, [prisoners] are largely deprived of their freedom of association and, to a significant extent, their autonomy. Hence, although prisoners do not forgo their human rights, their enjoyment of many of the rights and freedoms enjoyed by other citizens will necessarily be compromised by the fact that they have been deprived of their liberty. ... [T]he effects of the deprivation of liberty are profound. Rights and freedoms which are enjoyed by other citizens will necessarily be ‘curtailed’, ‘attenuated’ and ‘qualified’ merely by reason of the deprivation of liberty. 65. However, the fact that the enjoyment of many rights and freedoms by prisoners is curtailed merely by reason of the deprivation of their liberty does not mean that the dignity right is nominal or that the arbiters of its content are the public officials who manage the prison. For all persons whose liberty is curtailed at the hands of the State, the dignity right is an important protection against abuse.
The right to enjoy culture and maintain cultural and kinship ties
Section 27 of the Human Rights Act is in the following terms: 27 Cultural and other rights of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander peoples and other minorities (1) Anyone who belongs to an ethnic, religious or linguistic minority must not be denied the right, with other members of the minority, to enjoy their culture, to declare and practise their religion, or to use their language. (2) Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander peoples hold distinct cultural rights and must not be denied the right— (a) to maintain, control, protect and develop their— (i) cultural heritage and distinctive spiritual practices, observances, beliefs and teachings; and (ii) languages and knowledge; and (iii) kinship ties; and (b) to have their material and economic relationships with the land and waters and other resources with which they have a connection under traditional laws and customs recognised and valued. Note The primary source of the rights in s (2) is the United Nations Declaration on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples, art 25 and art 31.
Once again, the section previously used gendered pronouns which have now been replaced.
As submitted by the Intervenor and relevant to the facts under consideration here, the scope of this right includes the right to participate in what may be described as cultural practices: Human Rights Committee, General Comment No. 23: Article 27 (Rights of Minorities), 50th sess, UN Doc CCPR/C/21/Rev.1/Add.5 (8 April 1994).
As submitted by the plaintiff, the concept of culture is not defined in the Human Rights Act. It includes the maintenance of ties with a person’s community and preservation of the person’s identity: Brown v Director-General of the Justice and Community Safety Directorate [2021] ACTSC 320; 364 FLR 155 at [124], [163]. The concept is not static, but may evolve over time: Human Rights Committee, Views: Communication No 511/1992, 52nd sess, UN Doc CCPR/C/49/D/511/1992 (8 November 1994) at [9.3].
What was the content of the human rights identified?
As the plaintiff in this proceeding was detained in custody at the time of the conduct involved, the content of her human rights was limited by her environment. That process is facilitated by s 28 of the Human Rights Act, which is in the following terms: 28 Human rights may be limited (1) Human rights may be subject only to reasonable limits set by laws that can be demonstrably justified in a free and democratic society. (2) In deciding whether a limit is reasonable, all relevant factors must be considered, including the following: (a) the nature of the right affected; (b) the importance of the purpose of the limitation; (c) the nature and extent of the limitation; (d) the relationship between the limitation and its purpose; (e) any less restrictive means reasonably available to achieve the purpose the limitation seeks to achieve.
I discussed the process by which human rights may be limited pursuant to s 28 of the Human Rights Act in Islam v Director-General of the Department of Justice and Community Safety Directorate [2018] ACTSC 322 (Islam (2018)) at [41]-[44]. The matters to understand are as follows: (a) Section 28 acknowledges that the human rights under the Human Rights Act are not absolute or always completely consistent with each other. It produces a conclusion that where a law limits a human right under the Human Rights Act, the statute itself permits the right to be reduced, subject to the limitation being justified or reasonable. In that way, the right and the statutory provision are rendered compatible following adjustment: Momcilovic at [572] per Crennan and Kiefel JJ; at [684] per Bell J. (b) If the limitation is not reasonable, then the conduct in question will be incompatible with the relevant human right under the Human Rights Act. Various considerations for reasonableness under s 28 of the Act invoke what is known as the proportionality test: Momcilovic at [22] and [34] per French CJ; at [432] per Heydon J; and at [555]-[557] per Crennan and Kiefel JJ. Again, Momcilovic was dealing with s 7(2) of the Victorian Charter. (c) Three components provide a framework for assessing proportionality (Momcilovic at [553] per Crennan and Kiefel JJ): 1․ The nature (and inferentially the importance) of the right affected;
2․ The importance and purpose of the limitation; and
3․ The extent to which the limitation operates on the right. (d) That framework is reflected in the considerations set out in s 28(2) of the Human Rights Act. The court objectively assesses the relationship between the purpose of the limit and the nature and extent of the limit on the right: Certain Children at [206]-[208]; and Rich v Howe [2017] VSC 483 at [161].
The onus of establishing that a human right has been limited lawfully (in accordance with s 28) is on the person alleging the limitation: Thompson at [47].
The Intervenor submitted that the assessment that was required under s 28 was closer to merits review than is usual in judicial review, relying on Certain Children (No 2). Language directed to the assessment being closer to merits review also appears to have been indirectly adopted in Davidson at [362]. However, I do not accept that submission. This is not a judicial review proceeding and the assessment task under s 28 is entirely different.
On this point, it is appropriate to exercise caution before adopting what has been said in the authorities in respect of the Victorian Charter. The words used in s 7(2) of the Victorian Charter are “[a] human right may be subject under law only to such reasonable limits …”, whereas the words of the Human Rights Act speak of a limit “set by law”. Although I accept substantial similarity, the words of the Victorian Charter do not operate as a gloss on the words of the section applicable in the Territory. The task under s 28 of the Human Rights Act is one of assessing the proportionality of the limit on the right “set by law”.
The assessment of proportionality required under s 28 is thus concerned with whether the law imposing the limit (including any policies lawfully made under statute) is proportionate or justified. It is not directed to assessing the proportionality of a discretionary decision carried out in accordance with a limit. It is important not to conflate the two. As submitted by the defendants, it is necessary to first work out what the content of the identified right was, before looking at the conduct complained of and determining whether that conduct was compatible with the specific human right as limited by law.
The statutory framework limiting the plaintiff’s rights
All parties agreed that the plaintiff’s rights were limited by the Corrections Act. The Corrections Act was drafted quite deliberately with a focus on protecting human rights within the prison management setting and directly references s 28 of the Human Rights Act, as seen in the extract that follows. Given that all parties referred to the drafting of the legislation as being undertaken with a keen eye on the extent to which the fact of incarceration impinged upon human rights, I have set out what was said in Islam at [21]- [23] as capturing the point: 21. At the time this legislation was presented in the form of the Corrections Management Bill 2006 (ACT) (the Bill), there was a very deliberate drafting focus, referred to in the Supplementary Explanatory Statement to the Bill as follows: The Bill is informed by human rights principles and jurisprudence as it stands at the time of the Bill’s introduction to the Assembly. Powers and decisions contemplated by the Bill are also crafted to reflect contemporary administrative law principles, which in many cases are also an expression of human rights jurisprudence. 22. That extract is part of an earlier expression of the Legislative Assembly’s intent when presenting the Bill (on 14 December 2006), through the Presentation Speech of the then Attorney-General, Mr Simon Corbell (Presentation Speech) (emphasis added): [T]he government has publicly stated that the Alexander Maconochie Centre will be a secure and safe place that will have a positive effect on the lives of prisoners held there, and on staff who work there. The aim of the prison's management and operations is to give substance to Sir Alexander Paterson's observation that offenders are sent to prison "as punishment, not for punishment". The primary function of a prison or a remand centre is to hold people in secure custody. This function is a means to both uphold the law and provide protection to the community from people who pose a risk to the community in the context of criminal justice. Along with the powers to manage detainees, the bill also governs the lawful treatment of detainees. To this end, the bill is informed by human rights principles and international cases. The powers provided by the bill are also crafted to reflect modern administrative law principles. The bill aims to leave no doubt as to what is intended to be lawful and what is not. The bill clearly sets the boundaries of any power allocated to the territory's government and corrections authority. The ACT's Human Rights Act 2004 protects fundamental rights. Any limits on these rights are only permissible if they are authorised by a territory law, they are reasonable and they are justifiable in a democratic society. The Human Rights Act 2004 is not a criminal's charter, as has been suggested by some in this Assembly. Human rights law recognises all of the conditions of humanity, from positive to negative. Consistent with section 28 of the Human Rights Act 2004, the bill sets out reasonable limitations upon a sentenced offender's human rights and other detainees' rights, consistent with the objects of the bill. The bill stipulates the minimum conditions and management of people whose right to liberty is lawfully limited. These minimum conditions are akin to the best practice of jails in Australia, New Zealand, Canada and the United Kingdom. To meet the primary function of holding detainees in secure custody, the bill creates a range of powers that uphold the safety and good order of corrections centres. The bill includes extensive powers and procedures to prevent weapons, illegal drugs and other contraband from being smuggled into the prison. The bill enables corrections staff to separate, and if necessary segregate, prisoners who are at risk of harm, at risk of causing harm or at risk of spreading disease. A modern procedure for dealing with disciplinary breaches is also included. The disciplinary system used by the bill will also enable a clear delineation between prosecutions for criminal offences and the imposition of administrative penalties for disciplinary breaches. Historically, prisons were seen as the absolute realm of governments and the agencies assigned to run prisons. There was an underlying idea that prisoners were no longer part of the community and a fear that a recognition of any rights would undermine the purpose of imprisonment. Over the years, that position has changed. Prisoners are part of the community, and as a community we should be satisfied that the punishment imposed upon an offender is being carried out. We should also be satisfied that the administration of the imprisonment is humane and fair. There is little merit in applying the full force of the criminal law to a person while hypocritically treating a person as if they had no legal rights. To ensure our prison and remand centres work according to law, the bill includes provisions for the inspection of correctional centres and the investigation of complaints made by detainees. The bill also sets out rights of review for detainees who are segregated or disciplined. These protections allow the community to see that detainees are not treated arbitrarily. These protections for detainees protect us all. 23. Explanatory statements and presentation speeches in the Legislative Assembly are extrinsic materials that have at times been viewed as being of little assistance and directed more towards serving political ends, rather than as an aid to statutory construction. Nevertheless, they remain a legitimate contextual tool (see items 4 and 5 of Table 142 in s 142 of the Legislation Act 2001 (ACT)) and in this particular case, the lengthy passage above serves to drive home the legislative purpose behind the disciplinary scheme that has been put in place by the Corrections Act. It not only speaks to the primary function of managing the secure custody of prison detainees, but (as seen in the emphasised parts of the above extract) ties the disciplinary scheme directly to the protection of the human rights of prison detainees. …
General provisions directed to protection of human rights
9 Treatment of detainees generally Functions under this Act in relation to a detainee must be exercised as follows: (a) to respect and protect the detainee’s human rights; (b) to ensure the detainee’s decent, humane and just treatment; (c) to preclude torture or cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment; (d) to ensure the detainee is not subject to further punishment (in addition to deprivation of liberty) only because of the conditions of detention; (e) to ensure the detainee’s conditions in detention comply with section 12 (Correctional centres—minimum living conditions); (f) if the detainee is an offender—to promote, as far as practicable, the detainee’s rehabilitation and reintegration into society.
Specific provisions dealing with the conduct the subject of complaint
(a) The power to grant leave
The power to grant leave to attend an interstate funeral is prescribed in ss 208 and 209 of the Corrections Act. The material parts of s 208 are as follows: 208 Interstate leave permits (1) The director-general may, by written notice (an interstate leave permit) given to a full-time detainee, give the detainee leave to travel to and from, and remain in, a participating State. (2) An interstate leave permit must include the following details: (a) the State or Territory to which the permit applies; (b) the purpose for which the leave is granted; (c) the period, not longer than 7 days, for which leave is granted. … (6) An interstate leave permit may be issued— (a) for a full-time detainee with a high security classification—only if the leave is to enable the detainee to receive a health service or for a compassionate reason; or (b) in any other case—for any purpose the director-general believes, on reasonable grounds, is appropriate. (7) An interstate leave permit is subject to the following conditions: (a) any condition prescribed by regulation; (b) any other condition, consistent with the conditions (if any) prescribed by regulation, that— (i) the director-general believes, on reasonable grounds, is necessary and reasonable; and (ii) is stated in the permit. Examples of conditions stated in interstate leave permits 1 a condition that an escort officer stated in the permit escort the detainee 2 a condition prohibiting association with a particular person or being near a particular place 3 a condition that an indigenous detainee travelling interstate to mark the birth or death of a relative be escorted by an indigenous elder or relative
Other parts of the section deal with extension of permits and are immaterial here. The examples are part of the Act: s 126(4) of the Legislation Act. It can be seen from the example given in the section that it expressly envisages interstate leave being given (potentially with conditions) for the very purpose under consideration here.
On 15 May 2019, a statutory instrument specific to human rights was made: the Corrections Management (Human Rights Principles for ACT Correctional Centres) Direction 2019. It includes the following within it: The distinct cultural rights of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander detainees should be respected, including the rights relating to cultural heritage and spiritual practices, language and kinship ties.
The applicable policy dealing with leave requests (among other things) was the Corrections Management (Detainee Requests & Complaints) Policy 2019, which includes within it cl 4.4: The General Manager Custodial Operations will establish operational procedures for the management of Detainee Request Forms.
The procedure for processing a detainee request is then contained in the Corrections Management (Detainee Requests and Complaints) Operating Procedure 2019 (Request Procedure), which has been in force since October 2019. In relation to requests, relevant parts include the following: 1. Detainee Request Forms … 1.2 Where a detainee requires assistance to complete the detainee request form, Officers should assist them to complete the form. … 5.1 If detainees request to appeal the outcome of their complaint, Officers are to provide them with [the relevant] form located on CIS.
(b) The power to use force
The power to use force is contained in s 137, located in Part 9.7 of the Corrections Act. It is in the following terms: 137 Managing use of force (1) The director-general must ensure, as far as practicable, that the use of force in relation to the management of detainees is always— (a) a last resort; and (b) in accordance with this part. (2) Without limiting section 14 (Corrections policies and operating procedures), the director-general must make a corrections policy or operating procedure in relation to the use of force, including provision in relation to the following: (a) the circumstances, and by whom, force may be used; (b) the kinds of force that may be used.
Section 138 then provides for the conditions in which force may be authorised. Material to the circumstances of this case, it provides: 138 Authorised use of force (1) A corrections officer may use force that is necessary and reasonable for this Act, including for any of the following: (a) to compel compliance with a direction given in relation to a detainee by the director-general; (b) to act under section 126 (Searches—use of force); … (g) to prevent a detainee from inflicting self-harm; (h) anything else prescribed by regulation. (2) However, a corrections officer may use force only if the officer believes, on reasonable grounds, that the purpose for which force may be used cannot be achieved in another way.
Section 126 of the Corrections Act is relevant here. Among other things, it provides that a corrections officer may use force to carry out a search or assist at a body search, but may only do so in accordance with pt 9.7.
Those requirements include the manner in which force may be used. Section 139 provides: 139 Application of force (1) A corrections officer may use force under this part only if the officer— (a) gives a clear warning of the intended use of force; and (b) allows enough time for the warning to be observed; and (c) uses no more force than is necessary and reasonable in the circumstances; and (d) uses force, as far as practicable, in a way that reduces the risk of causing death or grievous bodily harm. (2) However, the corrections officer need not comply with subsection (1) (a) or (b) if, in urgent circumstances, the officer believes, on reasonable grounds, that doing so would create a risk of injury to the officer, the detainee or anyone else. Example of urgent circumstances the detainee is assaulting someone or engaging in self-harm
Section 140 of the Corrections Act provides the power to use a weapon, which includes a knife or clothing removal scissors. The terms of that section are: 140 Use of restraints or weapons (1) The use of force under this part includes the use of restraints and weapons. (2) The director-general must ensure, as far as practicable, that the use of force involving a restraint or weapon is proportionate to the circumstances, and in particular that— (a) the circumstances are sufficiently serious to justify the use; and (b) the kind of restraint or weapon is appropriate in the circumstances; and (c) the restraint or weapon is used appropriately in the circumstances. (3) The director-general must also ensure that restraints and weapons are only used under this part— (a) by corrections officers trained to use them; and (b) in accordance with a corrections policy or operating procedure that applies to their use. (4) A health practitioner appointed under section 22 (Health practitioners—non-therapeutic functions) may administer a drug as a restraint, or direct the use of another form of restraint, if the health practitioner believes, on reasonable grounds, that is necessary and reasonable— (a) to treat a detainee, particularly where the detainee's behaviour cannot be controlled otherwise; or (b) to prevent a detainee inflicting self-harm, or harming someone else, particularly where other forms of restraint are unlikely to be effective; or (c) to prevent the escape of a detainee, particularly while being transferred to or from a correctional centre or other place. (5) The director-general must ensure that firearms are not used under this part unless someone's life is under threat or a detainee or other person offers armed resistance to a corrections officer or police officer exercising a function under this Act or another Act. (6) In applying force under this part, a corrections officer may use a restraint or weapon, including any of the following: (a) body contact; (b) handcuffs, restraint jackets and other restraining devices; (c) riot control equipment; (d) a chemical agent; (e) a gas gun; (f) a firearm; (g) anything else prescribed by regulation.
(c) The power to search a detainee
The power to search a detainee is in pt 9.4 of the Corrections Act. There was a dispute in this case as to whether what was attempted to be carried out (and ultimately was carried out) was a body search or a strip search. Each of those types of searches are defined in s 107 (div 9.4.1 of the Corrections Act): In this Act: body search, of a detainee, means a search of the detainee’s body, including an examination of any orifice or cavity of the detainee’s body. frisk search means … ordinary search means a search of a person, or of articles in a person’s possession, that may include— (a) requiring the person to remove the person’s overcoat, coat or jacket and any gloves, shoes or hat; and (b) an examination of those items. scanning search means … strip search, of a detainee, means a search of the detainee, or of articles in the detainee’s possession, that may include— (a) requiring the detainee to remove all of the detainee’s clothing; and (b) an examination of the detainee’s body (but not the detainee’s body orifices or cavities) and of that clothing.
The proportionate limit, balancing the human right to privacy and inherent dignity of the person with the objectives for which the power to search a detainee was granted, is contained in s 108 of the Corrections Act: 108 Intrusiveness of searches The person conducting a search of a person under this part must ensure, as far as practicable, that— (a) the search is the least intrusive kind of search that is reasonable and necessary in the circumstances; and (b) the search is conducted in the least intrusive way that is reasonable and necessary in the circumstances. Example searching for a prohibited thing by a frisk search (rather than an ordinary search) with the assistance of a corrections dog
There are highly prescriptive requirements for the conduct of both strip and body searches in divs 9.4.3 and 9.4.4 of the Corrections Act. In summary: (a) The searches relate to looking for “seizeable items” which are defined in s 113. Relevantly here, the definition includes any prohibited thing or thing that may be used by the detainee in a way that may involve a risk to their personal safety. (b) A detainee may be strip searched only if the director-general gives a direction. Such a direction may only be given in limited circumstances: s 113A. (c) Those circumstances are when: (i) The director-general suspects on reasonable grounds that the detainee has a seizeable item concealed on them: s 113B; or (ii) The director-general believes on reasonable grounds that it is prudent to search the detainee for a seizeable item that may be concealed on the detainee because the detainee: 1. Has recently not been under the control or immediate supervision of a corrections officer for a period; and 2. During the period, may have had an opportunity to obtain a seizeable item; and 3. A scanning search may assist in detecting the item but the means of conducting the search is not available; or if the means of conducting the search is available, the scanning search is not likely to detect more than a limited range of seizeable items; or the search could only be carried out using force that would be likely to make it ineffectual; and 4. A frisk or ordinary search is not likely to detect more than a limited range of seizable items: s 113C.
Policies giving content to the rights limited by law
‘At-Risk’ Policy
When the plaintiff started to threaten self-harm, she moved to the CSU and her environment, and her rights, became subject to a further layer of limitation under the At- Risk Policy.
The principles of the policy should be noted as they guided the exercise of the decisions to be made under the policy. They were contained in cl 4 (emphasis added): 4.1 Detainees at-risk of self-harm or suicide are identified. 4.2 Detainees are assessed on admission to a correctional centre to identify any risk or issues that may render a detainee vulnerable and at-risk. 4.3 Staff receive appropriate training in identifying and managing at-risk detainees. 4.4 The treatment, care and support of at-risk detainees will be managed through a multi-disciplinary response by ACTCS and Justice Health Services. 4.5 All appropriate and necessary precautions are taken to ensure the safety and wellbeing of at-risk detainees during escort. 4.6 Positive staff engagement with at-risk detainees is encouraged to reduce social isolation. 4.7 CCTV is not used to conduct observations on detainees managed under this policy.
The policy recognised that death of a loved one may increase the risk of a deterioration in a detainee’s mental health, as seen in cl 8.9: A detainee who has returned to a correctional centre following compassionate leave will be closely monitored by custodial officers for signs they may be at-risk.
The policy provided for the CSU as the unit accommodating “detainees who have engaged in suicidal or self-harming behaviour or who are being managed under this policy”: cl 11.1.
Clause 11.7 provided: All detainees will be searched on arrival to the CSU in accordance with the Searching Strategy.
No Searching Strategy was in evidence. A document purporting to match that description was sought to be tendered but rejected as its provenance and date of compilation was entirely unknown. The references among the witnesses to “my belief” and “it was standard practice”, rather than any knowledge of an actual formally approved strategy that the At-Risk Policy required, suggests that what was in place was an adopted practice that led corrections officers to believe that it was mandatory for a person who had just been moved to management under the At-Risk Policy to be subjected to a strip search. That was not consistent with the At-Risk Policy, nor was it consistent with the general searching policy discussed below, nor would an automatic mandatory strip search upon entry to the CSU arguably have been consistent with ss 113-113C of the Corrections Act, but given the evidence, it was not necessary to decide that matter.
Indeed, cl 11.9 provided: As far as practicable, the restriction of access to in-possession property items must be consistent with managing the risk posed by a detainee and not be automatic. Searching Policy
If the “Searching Strategy” referred to in the At-Risk Policy was simply a reference to the standard Corrections Management (Searching) Policy 2010 (Searching Policy) that was in force at the time of the incidents (and has since been twice replaced), then that policy included the following (emphasis added): Searching people Prior to a scanning, ordinary, frisk or strip search being performed, the corrections officer must ask the person who is being searched if they wish to declare any items that may be contraband or prohibited. Other than scanning searches, this request will be asked as part of the standard search declaration made by corrections officers. … Intrusiveness and privacy The type of search conducted must be the least intrusive type of search appropriate to the situation considering the circumstances and desired outcome. All searching must be conducted in a physical location appropriate to the type of search being conducted (eg. strip searches will be conducted in private).
Issue 1: Was the Funeral leave decision a breach of any of the human rights relied upon by the plaintiff?
I have considered the Funeral leave decision itself (conduct of the second defendant) and the process by which it came to be made (conduct of the correctional officers and ILOs at the AMC).
The Intervenor submitted that the second defendant should only have refused the plaintiff’s attendance at the funeral of a close loved one if there were compelling reasons and if no alternative solution could be found. The decision was not made in accordance with the discretion conferred by s 209 of the Corrections Act. Alternatively, if the refusal was in accordance with law, it was nevertheless incompatible with the right as limited because it was arbitrary. The plaintiff supported that submission.
The Intervenor and plaintiff’s submissions were broadly that: (a) To the extent that the refusal was based on operational reasons, those operational difficulties resulted from the failure of the prison authority to promote and facilitate the plaintiff’s attendance at her grandmother’s funeral at a practical level. (b) To the extent that the refusal was a result of the plaintiff’s previous behaviour, that was also arbitrary, because it amounted to a refusal to facilitate a human right because of past poor behaviour. Such conduct “inhumanely uses funeral attendance as a behaviour management consequence”. (c) Unless a prisoner’s past behaviour makes the attendance of the prisoner at the funeral “impossible to manage” without a genuine threat to the safety of others, past behaviour should not be grounds for refusing attendance at a funeral. The plaintiff’s past behaviour did not indicate that she would pose an insurmountable safety risk.
The defendants argued that the refusal was in no way arbitrary (capricious or unjust). There was no evidence to suggest that funeral leave was refused to punish the plaintiff for her behaviour while in custody. The rights of the plaintiff were necessarily limited by the custodial environment and subject to the discretion of the second defendant as a result. That discretion was exercised taking the plaintiff’s rights into account but also balancing the other statutory objectives of the Corrections Act, which he was entitled to do.
Section 27 and the right to enjoy cultural practices and maintain kinship ties
On the basis of the cultural heritage evidence set out above, I accept that the plaintiff belonged to a minority group and had a right to enjoy her culture with other members. On the authorities discussed above, that included the right to participate in sorry business.
Here, the right was limited by the fact of the plaintiff being lawfully held in custody. The limits imposed on the exercise of the right were that the right to participate in sorry business was not totally prohibited but instead was subject to the discretion of the Commissioner at the AMC. As set out above, that was a reasonable limit in that it was proportionate and set by laws (including policies which carry the force of a statutory instrument in this context) justified by the requirement for good order and management at the AMC. The AMC itself does not operate with unlimited resources.
As to the substance of the Funeral leave decision, the discretion was exercised against the plaintiff in this instance, but in the circumstances that is not to be viewed as a product of a blanket discretionary denial of her right, as she had been granted funeral leave in the past. I have not found as a fact that the decision was in any way based on the plaintiff’s behaviour in custody. I have assumed (without deciding) that the plaintiff may have required an escort of three officers as opposed to two officers, along with an ILO who had volunteered to accompany the escort but not in a security role. However, as will be explained, the decision did not turn on that extra resource.
As to the matters taken into account in making the decision, it is not the case that no consideration was given to the plaintiff’s right to maintain cultural and kinship ties. The evidence of the second defendant to the extent that it was accepted above (including what was written to the HR Commission) made it clear that this is something that the Commissioner attempted to facilitate as a starting point, both as a matter of practice and in this particular case. The evidence that the second defendant was “acutely aware of the importance of funerals to Indigenous detainees” was not a convenient platitude or a “boilerplate statement”, as the Intervenor submitted. Such a submission paid scant regard to the many years of experience the second defendant had in dealing with the applications from Aboriginal detainees to participate in sorry business. Further, the AMC had ILOs employed to assist with the process of applying for leave, which included funeral leave. There was an Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander policy statement in the court book which specifically referred to the ILOs facilitating cultural practices. Although it was not formally tendered as an exhibit, the parties treated the policy documents of the AMC as being before the court. There was a policy for assessment, and the AMC had some capability to support funeral leave, subject to resourcing on any particular day. I accept that the importance of facilitating sorry business was well within the second defendant’s awareness and consideration.
Section 12(a) - The right to no unlawful and arbitrary interference with family
The same reasoning applies in respect of the plaintiff’s right to family (if, contrary to my preliminary view expressed above, this aspect of the right was engaged). The content of the plaintiff’s right was limited by the Corrections Act. The same decision-making process was followed. To the extent that the plaintiff’s right was interfered with, it was not unlawful, nor was it arbitrary as that term is understood in the authorities, discussed above at [226].
The Intervenor relied heavily on Płoski v Poland (European Court of Human Rights, Fourth Section, Application No 26761/95, 12 November 2002) (Ploski) in arguing that the Funeral leave decision was incompatible with s 12(a). However, as explained in discussing the content of the right under s 12(a) as limited above, even with a broad construction, I do not accept that this right is directed to ‘family life’ in the context in which it sits in this section, and the purpose of the right having regard to the legislative history founding the section. Even if it were, the factual circumstances of that case were different as the authorities involved in the decision to refuse funeral leave were found not to have even considered whether escorted leave was available: Ploski at [36].
Sections 19(1) and 19(3) – The right to treatment with humanity and respect for inherent dignity when deprived of liberty, including appropriate treatment when detained on remand
I have first considered the plaintiff’s humanity and inherent dignity under s 19(1). Taking into account the fact that the plaintiff’s rights in this regard were lawfully attenuated in content by her custodial environment, it is difficult to see how the Funeral leave decision separately impacted upon this aspect of the right. She was afforded a humane process of applying for funeral leave that respected her inherent dignity. That the decision did not fall in her favour does not mean that the decision was treatment without respect for her dignity and humanity.
As to the requirement for appropriate treatment when detained on remand, while the plaintiff’s case for attending the funeral was undoubtedly strengthened by the fact that she was on remand, she was equally not on bail seeking to travel interstate; she was in custody. I accept that her challenging history meant that on no view was unescorted interstate travel appropriate. The fact that there were limits in that regard, and that such limits were discretionary, does not mean that the limit on her rights was arbitrary.
Otherwise, for the conduct in question, being applications for a leave permit from the prison, I have been unable to discern any relevant distinction arising from the plaintiff’s status as a prisoner on remand when considering the requirement for “appropriate treatment” of such detainees under s 19(3). Specifically, that difference in custodial status did not require any different policy or process to be applied when it came to considering questions of leave. The plaintiff’s right to attend a funeral while detained in custody was limited in the same way that a sentenced prisoner’s right was limited, and subject to the same resourcing considerations.
This was an important occasion for the plaintiff and the Funeral leave decision plainly caused her great personal distress, but that result was not conduct that fell short of the obligation to treat the plaintiff humanely while deprived of her liberty, nor did it fall short of the obligation to treat the plaintiff appropriately while on remand.
Issue 2: Was the lack of a review of the Funeral leave decision a breach of the plaintiff’s human rights?
The plaintiff put this complaint as a failure to facilitate a review of the Funeral Leave decision or to notify the plaintiff that she had a right of review. She argued that this was incompatible with the rights under ss 12(a), 27(2), 19(1) and 19(3) of the Human Rights Act.
The defendants argued that the plaintiff had not addressed how the right to an urgent review of the second defendant’s decision formed any part of the content of the rights relied upon. I accept the defendants’ submissions that this aspect of the plaintiff’s complaint failed to grapple with those matters.
I have earlier dealt with the content of each of the rights to maintain cultural and kinship ties, the right to protection from unlawful or arbitrary interference with family, the right to humane treatment when deprived of liberty and to appropriate treatment when detained on remand.
The limits which affected the content of each of those rights were found to be lawful limits. There was no suggestion that the lack of an urgent review mechanism (or the “failure” to explain any right of urgent review) meant that an otherwise appropriate limit on the rights involved became unjustified.
The plaintiff is correct when she states that she was not advised of any avenue available for review and she is also correct in submitting that there was no right of review within the AMC or otherwise provided by the Corrections Act.
The Corrections Act provides a very detailed regulatory framework for reviewing disciplinary decisions, as well as policies which include review mechanisms for addressing complaints by detainees. There is no opportunity to review detainee requests. Decisions about “requests” as a category of decisions made at the AMC are not decisions for which internal review mechanisms exist.
That does not mean that there was no review available at all. There remains an external review mechanism for decisions made under an enactment (which the Funeral Leave decision was), namely the avenues of administrative review and supervisory judicial review by the Supreme Court.
In the circumstances here, it was obviously not feasible for the plaintiff to invoke any of those rights. However, what the court is concerned with is whether the lack of any review of the Funeral Leave decision was incompatible with any of the rights on which the plaintiff relied. I see no basis on which to find that the absence of a review mechanism or notification of avenues of external review was conduct incompatible with any of the rights propounded by the plaintiff.
Issue 3: Was the use of force on 11 January 2021 conduct incompatible with the plaintiff’s human rights?
The plaintiff argued that the use of force was conduct incompatible with the rights under ss 10(1)(b), 12(a), 19(1) and 19(3) of the Human Rights Act.
In the circumstances of this case, the decision to use force on 11 January 2021 for the purpose of a strip search was incompatible with the plaintiff’s human rights. As will be explained, it was inconsistent with the policies that provided the proportionate limits to the content of the plaintiff’s human rights. I have dealt with the manner in which the use of force was implemented separately as part of Issue 4.
The circumstances which are relevant to consider are that this was a person who was on remand and “At-Risk”. She had lost her grandmother and had her request to attend the funeral where she was to represent her family denied. She was in a high state of grief and distress. All of this was known to those managing the plaintiff in custody.
What did those circumstances call for? They called for treatment, care and support of an at-risk detainee, managed through a multi-disciplinary response by ACTCS and Justice Health Services. That is what the At-Risk Policy required.
It did not matter that the Officer in Charge (being the third defendant) had spoken with a medical practitioner earlier in respect of the practicalities of the use of force on this detainee and that the potential for physical injury to her pacemaker had already been discussed. That was a different discussion about physical medical consequences arising from a potential use of force in a different context.
It was also not to the point that the plaintiff herself had not engaged with the mental health team when she initially arrived at the CSU. That did not prevent the third defendant from communicating with the mental health team or another medical practitioner about advice on practicable solutions. What the policy required was a ‘multi-disciplinary response’. That meant the involvement of a health practitioner qualified to consider not only the physical but the psychological health of a vulnerable detainee and what was the best way to progress the refusal to comply with the direction of a strip search.
There was nothing in any of the policies that were before the court that required a person in the plaintiff’s position to be subjected to a strip search within the first hour of entry to the CSU, let alone that required such a search to be carried out in the manner implemented (discussed below).
Here, there was a misunderstanding that a mandatory strip search was required under the Corrections Act upon entry to the CSU. That was not the case. There was also a view that a strip search was appropriate because of a suspicion about a seizeable item. Again, that was a discretionary decision, not an automatic one and in the circumstances as outlined above, it required careful management.
Issue 4: Was the strip search in the cell conduct incompatible with the plaintiff’s human rights?
The plaintiff argued that the intended strip search in the cell, which was part of the implementation of the use of force, was conduct incompatible with the rights under ss 10(1)(b), 12(a), 19(1) and 19(3) of the Human Rights Act.
The circumstances here were that a highly vulnerable plaintiff had refused a strip search. She was otherwise quiet and lying on her bed.
Part of ensuring there was a ‘clear’ warning about the planned use of force is ensuring that the warning can be heard, not delivering the requisite warning through a closed cell door. In addition, contrary to what the officers believed, they did not allow enough time for the warning to be observed. There was no reason why the officers could not have given the CSU Supervisor a further opportunity to take the plaintiff to the bathroom once the warning had been given.
The planned use of force was only the first step in an operation that involved a clear intention to conduct a non-compliant strip search of the plaintiff in the cell. That called into consideration additional requirements for the implementation of the decision to use force, as the conduct squarely gave rise to considerations for the plaintiff’s right to privacy, attenuated as that right was.
In that regard, the manner in which the use of force was carried out was in breach of the Searching Policy. Four corrections officers, kitted up in personal protection equipment including defensive shields, entered the plaintiff’s cell for the purpose of cutting her clothes off in front of male corrections officers not only standing outside the cell observing, but moving in and out of the cell. The presence of the camera may have been required by the Use of Force Policy, but it was not permitted under the strip search measures in the Searching Policy. That tension was not considered or reconciled before the force was implemented.
If the Officer in Charge believed that contingent reinforcements were necessary, then it should have been made very clear to all involved that the use of force was to cause the plaintiff to be moved to the bathroom and not with any suggestion of cutting her clothes off in her cell. Alternatively, if resources permitted, the additional officers awaiting direction should have been female. However, it is not for the court to offer suggestions about how the decision (which itself was unlawful) could have been implemented in a way that was consistent with the applicable policies. It is enough to find that this particular operation did not so comply. The method in which the search was initially attempted was not done in a way that minimised embarrassment for the detainee. The breach in that regard was severe enough to constitute conduct incompatible with the plaintiff’s right to privacy.
In addition, the implementation of the use of force decision did not involve the minimum amount of force necessary and was inconsistent with the Use of Force Policy. Even having heard the evidence as to the standard practice being to force the detainee to the floor, this was a detainee who was already lying on her bed.
Issue 5: Was the strip search or body search in the CSU bathroom conduct incompatible with the plaintiff’s human rights?
The plaintiff argued that the search in the bathroom was conduct incompatible with the rights under ss 10(1)(b), 12(a), 19(1) and 19(3) of the Human Rights Act.
I did not find that the strip search that was conducted in the bathroom was a body search. Insofar as the manner in which the strip search in the bathroom was conducted, it was in accordance with the requirements of the Searching Policy discussed above. That is, it was carried out in a private location, with no camera, by only two corrections officers. Those officers were of the same gender. They did not touch the plaintiff. Compliance with their requests did not result in the plaintiff being completely naked at any one time.
However, the thing that troubles me is that the obtaining of the plaintiff’s consent and the search itself was a result of conduct that I have accepted was unlawful and was incompatible with the plaintiff’s human rights. The plaintiff’s consent was obtained in circumstances of severe distress and degradation. Having closely considered whether the conduct of the strip search in the bathroom can be divorced from what occurred in the cell, my view is that although the manner in which the search was conducted was proper and there is no criticism of the officers who carried out the search itself, the circumstances in which the strip search was brought about were tainted. Moreover, they were tainted to a degree of severity that leads me to I find that this conduct also was in breach of the plaintiff’s right to privacy under s 12 of the Human Rights Act. Had I found that a body search was conducted, that finding would have been made with greater force.
For similar reasons, the search was also in breach of the plaintiff’s right to appropriate treatment while detained on remand under s 19(3) of the Human Rights Act.
However, because of the manner in which the search was conducted, which was sensitive to the plaintiff’s privacy and did not involve the actual use of force, I am not persuaded that the conduct itself was degrading to the level of severity required for the conduct to be incompatible with the rights under s 10 or s 19(1) of the Human Rights Act.
Evidentiary issues: The parliamentary privilege dispute
On 24 February 2023, I made an advance evidentiary ruling following a contested interlocutory application in this matter, filed by the defendants on 18 November 2022 and amended on 20 February 2023. At that time, I indicated that my reasons for those orders would be provided as part of the substantive reasons in the matter, following trial.
The ruling concerned the admissibility and/or use of the affidavit of Mr Neil McAllister, the ACT Inspector of Correctional Services, affirmed 2 June 2022, in its entirety including Annexure A to that affidavit. Annexure A is a report (the Report) produced by the ACT Inspector of Correctional Services (the Inspector).
The defendants argued the affidavit was inadmissible because: (a) it was contrary to ss 56, 59, 76 and 135 of the Evidence Act 2011 (ACT) (Evidence Act); (b) it was subject to parliamentary privilege; or alternatively (c) it was protected by s 25(4) of the ICS Act, now s 25(4) of the Custodial Inspector Act which dealt with the privilege against self-incrimination and exposure to civil penalty.
During the hearing of the application on 23 February 2023, I indicated (after submissions from the parties) that the question of whether parliamentary privilege applied to the Report would be dealt with in advance of the substantive trial. If parliamentary privilege did not extend to the Report, the arguments concerning admissibility under the Evidence Act and immunity under the ICS Act were to be heard during the course of the substantive trial.
For the reasons that follow, I ruled (on 24 February 2023) that the Report was not able to be used in the proceedings, as it was covered by parliamentary privilege. The remainder of the affidavit was not covered by parliamentary privilege.
Had I determined that the Report was not protected by parliamentary privilege, I may nevertheless have found that it was not relevant to the issues before me. The Report was not prepared for contested litigation. It served a different statutory function from the matters in dispute here. It was prepared on the basis of different evidence, certainly without the detailed affidavits prepared for this proceeding, and may have relied on material that would not have been admissible in a court. The fact that someone else had expressed a view about conduct that also arose in this contested litigation in the court did not make the Report setting out that opinion relevant. The Report did not purport to constitute expert evidence. Indeed, it may have been unfairly prejudicial (to either party depending on its findings) and excluded altogether on that basis.
Acknowledging that full argument was not heard on the issue due to the ruling explained below, although the admissibility of the Report was vigorously contested and comprehensively argued, my preliminary view was that the evidence was likely to have been excluded for other reasons. I have explained that to put the parliamentary privilege ruling in perspective. Ultimately, it is unlikely to have made a difference to the tender of the Report.
What is meant by parliamentary privilege?
The privilege that has come to be known as parliamentary privilege derives from art 9 of the Bill of Rights 1688 (UK) (Article 9), which is in the following terms: That the [Freedom] of Speech and Debates or Proceedings in [Parliament] ought not to be impeached or questioned in any Court or Place out of [Parliament].
That section was enacted into Australian law by s 16 of the Parliamentary Privileges Act 1987 (Cth) (Privileges Act), the terms of which are set out below.
It is useful to start this consideration with a statement from Crime and Corruption Commission v Carne [2023] HCA 28; 280 CLR 555 (Carne), a case that came before the High Court after the interlocutory application in this proceeding was heard and determined. At [106], Gordon and Edelman JJ (agreeing with the plurality but writing separately) summarised the foundations of the privilege as follows (footnotes omitted): Parliamentary privilege is a "bulwark of representative government". It has long antecedents. It allows Parliament to perform its functions without obstruction. Parliamentary privilege shields certain areas of legislative activity from judicial or executive review, thereby giving "the legislative branch of government the autonomy it requires to perform its constitutional functions". Parliamentary privilege operates to ensure that a person who participates in parliamentary proceedings can do so knowing, at the time of that participation, that what they say cannot "later be held against them in the courts", thereby ensuring that such a person is not inhibited in providing information to the Parliament or in otherwise participating in parliamentary proceedings. This is the "basic concept underlying article 9" of the Bill of Rights 1688. The source of the privilege in the Territory
The Territory became self-governing in 1989 through operation of the Australian Capital Territory (Self-Government) Act 1988 (Cth) (Self-Government Act), pt III of which establishes the Legislative Assembly as the legislature of the Territory.
Section 24 of the Self-Government Act declares the powers, privileges and immunities of the Legislative Assembly, which are expressed to be the same as the House of Representatives unless the Legislative Assembly makes a law with respect to its powers. The Legislative Assembly has not, thus far, made a law with respect to its powers, a fact not disputed by the parties, and therefore, its powers, privileges and immunities remain the same as those of the House of Representatives (including its members and committees).
Parliamentary privilege in court proceedings, for the Legislative Assembly as for the House of Representatives, is thus sourced from s 16 of the Privileges Act. The privilege is incorporated by section 16(1): 16 Parliamentary privilege in court proceedings (1) For the avoidance of doubt, it is hereby declared and enacted that the provisions of article 9 of the Bill of Rights, 1688 apply in relation to the Parliament of the Commonwealth and, as so applying, are to be taken to have, in addition to any other operation, the effect of the subsequent provisions of this section.
Principles applying to questions of parliamentary privilege
Before dealing with the statute that governed the publication of the Report, some general principles should be understood.
First, it is for the courts to determine whether or not the privilege attaches to a document: Egan v Willis [1998] HCA 71; 195 CLR 424 (Egan) at [27], cited in R v Collaery (No 6) [2020] ACTSC 164 (Collaery (No 6)) at [3]. The privilege does not attach simply because the Legislative Assembly, the Territory or the report writer holds a view that the document is one to which s 16 of the Privileges Act applies.
Second, whether the document in question was prepared “for purposes of or incidental to … the transacting of the business of a House” is largely a question of fact: Carne at [34].
Third, it is the functional connection, objectively considered, between the document in question and the Legislative Assembly or committee which must be considered. The mere preparation of a document for the Assembly or committee, or presentation of a document to them, by a third party will not suffice if there is no other connection to their work at the time the document was prepared: Carne at [35]-[36].
Fourth, in resolving the question of whether parliamentary privilege applies, the court may receive and consider evidence concerning parliamentary proceedings: Carrigan v Cash [2017] FCAFC 86 at [42], cited in Collaery (No 6) at [3]. That means that here, the court was not limited to construing the statute under which the Report was prepared. Although the intentions of those preparing the document will generally say nothing about the requisite connection with the work of the Assembly or a committee, there are occasions where the purpose for which the work is being transacted may be informed by statements of intention by third parties, such as the preparer of the document: Carne at [37].
The requirement for a functional connection, objectively considered
In determining whether parliamentary privilege exists, the relevant purpose or purposes that are the subject of inquiry are those of the Assembly or a committee. That inquiry is objective. What is meant by the consideration being objective was explained in Carne at [111] (citing Rowley v O’Chee [2000] 1 Qd R 207 (Rowley) at 220) as being: [Whether an act is] “done… for the purposes of [the Assembly or] a committee” - is an objective inquiry in the sense that it involves the drawing of inferences from objective facts.
Gordon and Edelman JJ went on in the same paragraph to make the point that when construing the objective purpose of Parliament in passing legislation, one does not equate the subjective purpose of a given individual with the objective purpose of the institution of which they are a part: Carne at [111] and the cases there-cited.
The reasoning of the plurality in Carne was to similar effect. Prior to Carne, the word “purposes” in the expression “for purposes of or incidental to” the transaction of Assembly business might have been interpreted as introducing an element of subjectivity or intention which existed at the time the document was prepared, as mentioned by McPherson JA in Rowley at 220-221. However, in Carne (at [34]), the plurality drew attention to the fact that McPherson JA actually went on to apply an “independent basis or reason” (that is, an objective consideration) in concluding that the documents in question were prepared for the requisite purpose.
As to understanding what is meant by a functional connection, it may assist to return to first principles supporting the privilege. In R v Chaytor [2010] UKSC 52; 1 AC 684 , Lord Phillips PSC stated at [47]: … the principal matter to which article 9 is directed is freedom of speech and debate in the Houses of Parliament and in parliamentary committees. This is where the core or essential business of Parliament takes place. In considering whether actions outside the Houses and committees fall within parliamentary proceedings because of their connection to them, it is necessary to consider the nature of that connection and whether, if such actions do not enjoy privilege, this is likely to impact adversely on the core or essential business of Parliament.
His Lordship went on to state at [61] that that there are good reasons of policy to give Article 9 a narrow ambit, restricting it to the purpose for which it was enacted – for the Parliament to conduct its business without interference from the Crown or the courts (originally the Crown’s judges).
At [73], his Lordship cited an extract from the Joint Committee on Parliamentary Privilege, Parliamentary Privilege (House of Lords paper 43-1, House of Commons paper 214-1, Session 1998-99) to the effect that the nearest definition (of the dividing line between privileged and non-privileged activities) is that the areas in which courts ought not intervene extends beyond proceedings in Parliament, but the privileged areas must be so closely and directly connected with proceedings in Parliament that the intervention would be inconsistent with Parliament’s sovereignty as a legislative and deliberative assembly.
The role of the Inspector
The position of Inspector was created by the ICS Act. The Object of the ICS Act provided (the section has been replicated in s 6 of the Custodial Inspector Act): 6 Object of the Act (1) The main object of this Act is to promote the continuous improvement of correctional centres and correctional services. (2) This is to be achieved particularly by providing a framework for— (a) the systematic review and scrutiny of the correctional centres and services; and (b) independent and transparent reporting.
Section 9 established the role of Inspector and provided that they are to be appointed by the Executive.
Part 3 of the ICS Act was titled “Inspector’s functions and powers”. Section 17 concerned functions of the Inspector and was in the following terms (emphasis added): 17 Functions—generally (1) The inspector has the following functions: (a) to examine and review correctional centres; (b) to examine and review correctional services; (c) to review critical incidents at correctional centres or in the provision of correctional services; (d) to report under part 4 (Reports by inspector); (e) to exercise any other function given to the inspector under this Act or another territory law. (2) In this section: critical incident means any event in a correctional centre or in the provision of correctional services that involves any of the following: (a) the death of a person; (b) a person’s life being endangered; (c) an escape from custody; (d) a person being taken hostage; (e) a riot that results in significant disruption to a centre or service; (f) a fire that results in significant property damage; (g) an assault or use of force that results in a person being admitted to a hospital; (h) any other incident identified as a critical incident by a relevant Minister or relevant director-general.
The same functions appear in s 17 of the Custodial Inspector Act, although not with the same nomenclature (they are no longer contained in a sub-section). The definition of a ‘critical incident’ has been relocated to the dictionary of the Custodial Inspector Act. The emphasised words are those that operated in the present case and they remained part of the relocated definition.
Thus, s 17(1)(c) (or s 17(c) in the Custodial Inspector Act) gave the Inspector the function of reviewing a ‘critical incident’, as defined. This was the function the parties agreed the Inspector was exercising in producing the Report. The Inspector may review a critical incident on their own initiative or when requested by either the relevant Minister or the relevant director-general: s 18(1)(c) of the ICS Act (or s 18(c) of the Custodial Inspector Act).
Section 27 concerned the production of a report with respect to the exercise of a function under s 17. It provided: 27 Inspector to give reports to Legislative Assembly (1) The inspector must give a report on each examination and review conducted by the inspector to the Legislative Assembly within 6 months of completing the examination and review. (2) A report must include the following: (a) an evaluation of the correctional centre and correctional services that were subject to examination and review; (b) an assessment of the delivery of correctional services and the operation of correctional centres that were subject to examination and review; (c) an assessment about whether the rights under international and territory law of detainees at a correctional centre subject to review are protected; (d) an assessment about whether law, policy and procedures applying to the correctional centre or service subject to review reflect best practice standards; (e) any recommendations of the inspector in relation to changes required to the infrastructure at correctional centres, correctional policies and procedures or the law applying to correctional centres or services; (f) a statement about a matter that has been referred under section 32 (Inspector may refer matter to investigative entity) or section 34 (Oversight entities may refer matter to inspector); (g) a statement about whether any part of the report is to be kept confidential due to public interest considerations against disclosure. (3) The relevant Minister may extend a period mentioned in subsection (1) by an additional period of no more than 12 months.
The competing arguments
The defendants argued that the requirements of the ICS Act mandated the preparation and presentation of the Report to the Legislative Assembly and hence squarely fell within the definition in s 16(2) of the Privileges Act, in that the Report constituted “the presentation or submission of a document to a House or a committee,” or “the preparation of a document for purposes of or incidental to the transacting of any such business.”
The functional connection was established through the objects of the ICS Act, being the systematic review and scrutiny of the corrections centres and services, through independent and transparent reporting. Through the reporting obligations that are then set out in the ICS Act, it can be seen that the apparent purpose of the legislative scheme was to provide for scrutiny of correctional services by the Legislative Assembly.
Further, the defendants argued that the reports prepared by the Inspector are done so with the knowledge that the reports receive the same privileges as if the scrutiny was presented through debate in the Legislative Assembly and are thus safe from examination or subsequently being impugned in a court. That facilitates full, frank and complete information being provided both to and by the Inspector, in line with the purposes of the ICS Act.
The plaintiff submitted that the Report was requested by a member of the Executive and prepared by a member of the Executive for the purposes of the Executive and hence did not attract the privilege (as the functional connection was insufficient). In support of that argument, the plaintiff drew attention to the contents of the Report itself, in that it contained within it recommendations directed to the procedures of corrective services staff, being part of the Executive.
Alternatively, the plaintiff submitted that the Report was published on the website of the ACT Inspector of Correctional Services, and the public copy was not subject to parliamentary privilege.
The Intervenor’s submissions supported the conclusion for which the plaintiff contended. In summary, the Intervenor contended: (a) Privilege does not attach to all copies of documents that are tabled in the Legislative Assembly; (b) The Report is a distinctly Executive publication, initiated at the request of the Executive; (c) The Inspector is an independent statutory decision-maker; (d) The objects of the ICS Act and the functions of the Inspector are not of a kind that constitute “purposes of or incidental to the transacting of the business of a House or of a committee”. (e) Performance of those statutory functions does not bring the Report within “proceedings in Parliament” irrespective of the fact that reports are ultimately provided to the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly; and (f) Section 28 of the ICS Act deals with issues of confidentiality, and that context also indicates that the Legislature did not intend parliamentary privilege to apply to reports produced under the ICS Act.
Consideration
Like the legislation under consideration in Carne, the ICS Act requires the tabling of the report provided to it in the exercise of its statutory functions. However, there is a difference here, in that the ICS Act contains no express provision to the effect that, once tabled, the report is given all the immunities and privileges of a report tabled and published by the Legislative Assembly.
The court must therefore construe the ICS Act, with the ultimate question being whether the preparation of the Report was for the purposes of, or incidental to, the business of the Legislative Assembly.
The parties’ submissions set out the various contextual and purposive indicators. The “functional connection” inquiry considers the connection between critical incident reports produced under the ICS Act (which was how the Report came to be generated) and the purposes of the Legislative Assembly. Applying Carne at [112]: ... the relevant purpose or purposes that are the subject of inquiry in determining whether parliamentary privilege exists are those of the Assembly ...
Having regard to the objects of the ICS Act in s 6, I accepted that the purpose of the mandatory requirement to give the report to the Legislative Assembly under s 27 of the ICS Act was to enable the Legislative Assembly to scrutinise the conduct of the correctional centres. The stated purposes in the ICS Act thus had a functional connection to the business of the Legislative Assembly.
I did not accept that this was a distinctly Executive publication for the distinctly Executive purpose of self-scrutiny. The requirement under the ICS Act was not that the report be provided to the relevant director-general (a defined term in the ICS Act) or even the relevant Minister (who requested the report), it was that the report be provided to the Legislative Assembly and tabled by the Speaker.
Further, the circumstances of the Report’s creation were statutory, in that it was triggered on the application of the critical incident criteria set out in the ICS Act and requested by the Minister. The Minister is part of the Legislative Assembly. The mandated process culminated in the provision of the Report to the Legislative Assembly. This was not a report prepared by the Inspector for its own oversight or purposes.
That in itself carries some significance. In Carne, the plurality pointed (at [38]) to the fact that the investigation that led to the report there under consideration was not directed by the relevant parliamentary committee, as being indicative of a lack of functional connection. In a circumstance where the committee had directed the investigation, the report writer “is obliged to report to the Committee with respect to such an investigation”.
Here, the opposite is the case. The Legislative Assembly did in substance direct the investigation, acting through the Minister, and through the statute also directing any report that resulted from such an investigation to be provided to the Legislative Assembly (effectively obliging the writer to report to the Legislative Assembly).
Evidentiary issues: The response letter dispute
The second evidentiary ruling for which I indicated I would set out the reasons in the published judgment arose from the defendants’ objection to the tender of the response letter, being the second defendant’s response to the ACT Discrimination Commissioner dated 22 February 2021, the contents of which I have accepted.
The basis of the objection was that the response letter attracted the protection of s 75(4) of the HRC Act, which limited the admissibility of certain information provided to the HR Commission. Again, the legislation has since been amended by the Human Rights Commission Amendment Act 2023 (ACT) (which came into force on 7 January 2024) (Amendment Act) and the substance of the applicable provision is now s 75(5). The plaintiff and the Intervenor both argued that the response letter was admissible and did not attract this protection.
In order to resolve the dispute about admissibility, it was necessary to work out whether the response letter was information required by the HR Commission to be given or produced, pursuant to the exercise of a coercive power under the HRC Act. If it was, then there was a protection against the evidence being used in a proceeding where the person producing the information was exposed to self-incrimination or a civil penalty (which was the case here). However, if the information contained in the response letter was provided merely in response to an invitation made by the HR Commission, then such a protection did not apply.
The answer to that question required a consideration and understanding of the relevant statutory framework. It is to these matters that I now turn.
The HR Commission’s letter generating the response letter
The HR Commission sent a letter on 2 February 2021 (request letter). It contained the following: Notification of [the plaintiff’s] discrimination complaint The ACT Human Rights Commission has received a discrimination complaint from [the plaintiff] against ACT Corrective Services (ACTCS) alleging discrimination on the basis of race, sex and disability in the area of provision of goods, services and facilities. I attach a copy of the complaint together with the sections of the Discrimination Act 1991 … which appear to be relevant. Requirement to deal with complaints promptly and efficiently Under section 45 of the … [HRC Act]… the Commission must deal with complaints promptly and efficiently. It is therefore very important that you provide information to support your response as soon as possible, and within any deadlines set by the Commission. However, the Commission’s consideration of this complaint is impartial, and you will be given fair opportunities to put your point of view. Dealing with the complaint Early conciliation The Commission can attempt to assist the parties to resolve the matter…
The letter then dealt with a number of other matters before stipulating a deadline for response: Deadline for response Noting that the Commission has power to require the production of documents or information, pursuant to section 73 of the [HRC Act], I would appreciate receiving your response by 23 February 2021. Should you wish to discuss this complaint and our consideration process before preparing your response, or if we can provide any further information, please contact…
The letter raised a number of issues, and the second defendant was invited to provide all background information regarding the issues raised.
The relevant legislation
The HR Commission considers complaints it receives pursuant to a statutory process.
Section 14 of the HRC Act describes the functions of the HR Commission. They relevantly include: 14 Commission’s functions (1) The commission has the following functions: (a) encouraging the resolution of complaints made under this Act, and assisting in their resolution, by providing an independent, fair and accessible process for resolving the complaints; ... (d) identifying, inquiring into and reviewing issues relating to the matters that may be complained about under this Act; (e) exercising any other function given to the commission under this Act or another Territory law. …
Section 15 of the HRC Act states: 15 Functions and human rights The commission must act in accordance with the human rights under the Human Rights Act 2004 when exercising a function under this Act or a related Act.
Section 42 of the HRC Act specifies what complaints may be made under the HRC Act to the HR Commission. Relevantly, the section includes complaints about unlawful acts under the Discrimination Act 1991 (ACT). Such a complaint was made by the plaintiff to the HR Commission.
Section 45 of the HRC Act, as in force at the time of the incidents and the second defendant’s engagement with the HR Commission, set out the HR Commission’s obligations. They included (emphasis added): 45 Commission’s obligation to be prompt and efficient (1) The commission must deal with complaints promptly and efficiently. (2) In particular, the commission must— … (c) unless subsection (4) applies—before considering the complaint, tell the complainant and the person complained about, in writing, that the complaint is to be considered; and … (4) Also, the commission need not give notice under subsection (2) to the person complained of if, because of subsection (3), it decides— (a) not to consider the complaint; or (b) not to consider the complaint further.
The significance of the emphasised words is that this is what the plaintiff and the Intervenor argued occurred with respect to the correspondence under consideration here – the HR Commission sent a notification of complaint letter under s 45(2) of the HRC Act (now s 45(3)) to the second defendant and invited a response “before considering the complaint”. The questions that were asked were by way of preliminary enquiry prefatory to considering the complaint, although not pursuant to the express power which was inserted as the new s 45(2) (as that provision did not exist at the time the request letter was sent).
The Justice and Community Safety Legislation Amendment Act 2025 (ACT) (which came into force on 27 February 2025) amended s 45 of the HRC Act. Among other things, the following was inserted: (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the commission may make any preliminary inquiry it considers necessary and appropriate to decide how to deal with a complaint.
Other legislation providing context
The defendants also relied on s 222 of the Corrections Act as being context relevant to the investigative powers being construed under the HRC Act. That section is in the following terms (with emphasis added in s 222(3)(b)): 222 Confidentiality (1) In this section: corresponding corrections law means a law of a State or another Territory declared to be a corresponding corrections law under section 225. court includes a tribunal. Note A tribunal includes any entity authorised to hear, receive and examine evidence (see Legislation Act, dict, pt 1). divulge includes communicate. person to whom this section applies means a person who— (a) exercises, or has exercised, a function under this Act; or (b) is, or has been, otherwise involved in the administration of this Act. produce includes allow access to. protected information means information about a person that is disclosed to, or obtained by, a person to whom this section applies because of— (a) the exercise of a function under this Act by the person or someone else; or (b) the involvement of the person, or someone else, in the administration of this Act. (2) A person to whom this section applies commits an offence— (a) if the person— (i) makes a record of protected information about someone else; and (ii) is reckless about whether the information is protected information about someone else; or (b) if the person does something that divulges protected information about someone else and is reckless about whether— (i) the information is protected information about someone else; and (ii) doing the thing would result in the information being divulged to someone else. Maximum penalty: 50 penalty units, imprisonment for 6 months or both. (3) Subsection (2) does not apply if the record is made, or the information is divulged, by the person as follows: (a) under this Act or another territory law; (b) in relation to the exercise of a function under this Act or another territory law; (c) for the Crimes (Sentencing) Act 2005, section 136 (Information exchanges between criminal justice entities); (d) to a person exercising a function under, or otherwise involved in the administration of, a corresponding corrections law; (e) to a law enforcement agency; Note Law enforcement agency is defined in the dictionary. (f) to an entity prescribed by regulation; (g) otherwise in relation to the administration of this Act or another territory law. (4) Subsection (2) does not apply to the divulging of protected information about someone— (a) with the person’s consent; or (b) if authorised by the director-general under subsection (5); or (c) if the information only tells someone of the place where a detainee is held in detention; or (d) if the information is disclosed under a regulation. (5) The director-general may, in writing, authorise the divulging of protected information about a person if the director-general believes, on reasonable grounds, that divulging the information is— (a) necessary to protect someone whose life or safety is in danger; or (b) otherwise in the public interest.
Information about what occurred to the plaintiff in this case in relation to her unsuccessful request for funeral leave and the strip search falls plainly within the definition of “protected information” and the confidentiality provisions apply. The emphasis in s 222(3)(b) is to draw attention to an exception featuring in the statutory construction exercise that follows.
Parties’ submissions Defendants’ submissions
The defendants submitted that the legislation and the power of the HR Commission to obtain information must be construed in the context of the scheme of laws that protect privacy of information, including any relevant privacy principles pursuant to s 12 of the Human Rights Act and s 222 of the Corrections Act. To divulge information such as that contained in the response letter voluntarily would incur a liability. As a result, the information must be divulged only through the compulsory process provided for by s 73 of the HRC Act, so as to obtain the protection pursuant to s 75 of the HRC Act.
The defendants relied upon a number of indicia supporting that construction: (a) The HR Commission is given coercive powers, to request documents under s 73 and to require attendance under s 74. (b) There are no other express provisions empowering the HR Commission to request information or documents for the purposes of considering a complaint. (c) Section 75 expressly abrogates a fundamental right, being the privilege against self-incrimination. The carve out in s 75(4) (before the Amendment Act) is an exception to that. (d) That the statutory scheme confines the HR Commission’s power to obtaining documents and information by coercion is consistent with the broader statutory obligations of confidentiality, as seen in s 222 of the Corrections Act, and supports the protection of the right to privacy under the Human Rights Act.
The defendants accepted that the contents of the letter here did not expressly state that it was a notice issued pursuant to s 73 and it uses language that invites a person to respond rather than requiring a person to respond. They argued that even if that was a technical deficiency, the response was still a request for documents and could only have been issued pursuant to s 73. It cannot be the case that a person who responds to a request for information that is bad in form loses the protection of the immunity provided by s 75(4) (before the Amendment Act) purely because of that defect or ambiguity in the notice.
The defendants argued that explicit reference was made in the notice to s 73, which supported an interpretation of the letter being one where coercive power to require the production of information and documents was being exercised.
Plaintiff’s and Intervenor’s submissions
It is convenient to deal with the positions of the plaintiff and the Intervenor together as they arrived at the same construction of the HRC Act and conclusion. The material submissions were: (a) Sections 45 and 72 of the HRC Act, properly construed, were sufficient to give the HR Commission a broad power to inform itself however it wishes. This includes sending an initial invitation to respond to a complaint or by exercising coercive powers under ss 73 and 74. (b) That construction is not affected by the statutory right to privacy and statutory obligations of confidentiality such as that provided by s 222 of the Corrections Act. Section 222(3)(b) of the Corrections Act provides a relevant exception which covers the present circumstances. (c) The construction for which the defendants contended would mean that every initial communication from the HR Commission notifying a person of a complaint and requesting a response would be construed as the exercise of a coercive power to obtain information. That is not the proper construction of the requirement to notify a respondent of a complaint under s 45(3)(c) of the HRC Act.
The plaintiff and the Intervenor argued that the request letter was sent at the start of the conciliation process. It was sent pursuant to the power under s 72 of the HRC Act, giving the HR Commission the power to control the manner in which it considered complaints in the exercise of the function under s 14(1)(a) of encouraging their resolution.
The terms of the request letter make it clear it is an invitation to respond to the complaint, not a notice sent under s 73. There is nothing in the nature of compulsion in the request letter, and this is evident from the final paragraph that notes (but does not invoke) the coercive power available.
If the purpose of the letter was to invoke the coercive power under s 73, it was so deficient in form as to fail to achieve that intention.
Insofar as s 222 of the Corrections Act is engaged in its application to the factual circumstances here, s 222(3)(b) applies as a clear exception to the confidentiality obligation. Any divulging of information in response to a non-coercive request by the HR Commission in considering a complaint is one that relates to “the exercise of a function under another territory law”. That is because the functions of the HR Commission include inquiring into and encouraging the resolution of complaints: see s 14 of the HRC Act set out at [429] above.
Ruling – the response letter was admissible
I ruled that the letter was admissible, accepting the submissions of the plaintiff and the Intervenor that I considered to be material to the question of construction and have summarised above. Applying the same principles of statutory construction as those set out at [162]-[163] above, I determined first, that there was an implied power to obtain information through invitation and not exclusively by the exercise of coercive power; and second, that such a power was exercised in the circumstances of this case.
The words of s 45 of the HRC Act require the commission to deal with complaints “promptly and efficiently” and notify a respondent to the complaint of the fact that a complaint has been made. Section 72 facilitates that mandate, permitting the HR Commission to consider the complaint “in the way the commission decides”
These sections should be construed as permitting the seeking of information by invitation if that is the way the HR Commission decides will best further its prompt and efficient mandate. They do not expressly exclude non-coercive requests for information and the purpose of the Act as a whole is best promoted by such a construction.
In terms of the notification requirement in s 45, the purpose of notifying the respondent is plainly one of procedural fairness; that is, to enable the person a fair opportunity to be heard on the issues. The statutory context supporting that construction is that the HR Commission’s functions, which include encouraging the resolution of complaints and providing “a fair” and accessible process for resolution of complaints: s 14 of the HRC Act. They also include identifying, inquiring into and reviewing issues relating to those complaints.
Without going into yet another area of legal discourse on the question of procedural fairness, it is shaped by the words of the statute in which the obligation arises. Here, a fair process would include making the respondent to a complaint aware of the issues identified by the HR Commission as arising for consideration of the complaint and giving the respondent the opportunity to comment or make submissions or otherwise respond. Although such an opportunity may be given later in the process of consideration, the process is expressly flexible by virtue of s 72. There is nothing in the HRC Act to prevent the HR Commission from giving the person the opportunity to provide information as part of carrying out its statutory obligation of notification. Indeed, it is more efficient to send one letter rather than two.
Given the prompt, efficient, flexible and fair process that is woven into the statutory fabric of the HRC Act, there was no basis for construing the exercise of that the HR Commission’s power to be one of coercive investigative powers only, even taking into account the broader statutory context of the HRC Act and the privacy considerations that extend to statutory obligations in other legislation.
What relief follows from the findings of a breach of human rights?
As discussed in Islam (2018) at [73] and the cases there-cited, the determination of appropriate relief requires a balancing process guided by four objectives: (a) Addressing the wrong occasioned by the contravention of the Human Rights Act that has been established; (b) Deterring future violations; (c) Making an order that can be complied with; and (d) Ensuring fairness to all those who might be affected by the relief.
The Human Rights Act is directed to protecting human rights. Accordingly, where an infringement of an individual’s human rights has occurred, the concern will usually be to bring the infringement to an end: see Islam (2018) at [71] and the cases there-cited.
Here, the conduct was isolated to a specific period that had passed. Accordingly, if a breach of the Human Rights Act was established, the only relief sought was the discretionary remedy of declaratory relief. Guidance on the exercise of the power to grant declaratory relief is provided by a number of established principles, which should not be elevated to rigid restraints on a discretionary decision of this nature. They are not controversial and have been set out in various ways in many different authorities. I have set them out again here primarily for the benefit of the plaintiff, who may be unfamiliar with the considerations that feed into the court’s discretion to grant the relief she sought.
First, the discretion to make a declaration is wide: University of New South Wales v Moorhouse (1975) 133 CLR 1 at 9 per Gibbs J. Although it is neither possible nor desirable to fetter the discretion to grant declaratory relief by laying down rules as to the manner of its exercise, the discretion is to be exercised judicially: Ainsworth v Criminal Justice Commission (1992) 175 CLR 564 at 581-582.
Second, declaratory relief should be directed to the determination of legal controversies concerning rights, liabilities and interests of a kind which are protected or enforced in the courts: Egan at [5]. In Warramunda Village Inc v Pryde [2001] FCA 61; 105 FCR 437 the Full Court of the Federal Court said at [8]: … The remedy of a declaration of right is ordinarily granted as final relief in a proceeding. It is intended to state the rights of the parties with respect to a particular matter with precision, and in a binding way. …
Third, there must be some utility in granting the declaration: Neeta (Epping) Pty Ltd v Phillips (1974) 131 CLR 286 at 307.
Fourth, the court must be satisfied that the making of the declarations sought is appropriate, even where parties have jointly proposed the relief. Because a declaration is a judicial act, it ought not to be made merely on admissions of counsel or by consent, but only if the court is satisfied by evidence: BMI Ltd v Federated Clerks Union of Australia (1983) 51 ALR 401 at 412. Whether it will be appropriate to grant such relief depends upon the requirements of justice in the particular case: John Fairfax & Sons Ltd v Police Tribunal of New South Wales (1986) 5 NSWLR 465 at 470.
Costs
The plaintiff has succeeded in her statutory claim. Applying the guiding principle in the exercise of the court’s discretion, she is entitled to her costs. It is appropriate that such an order be made, subject to first ensuring that the declaratory relief is granted against the appropriate party (with the appropriate costs liability attaching to the party), and to any party making an application for a different costs order within seven days of the publication of these reasons. Conclusion and Orders
I cannot leave this case without observing that this was a very challenging plaintiff, personally facing difficult circumstances. This created a confluence of policy and management issues at the AMC that escalated to a crisis point. The law, and the courts who implement it with the tacit reflection of community expectation, do not require perfection from those entrusted with the management of detainees. That is recognised in the severity considerations when evaluating conduct through the prism of protecting human rights. I have found that the circumstances of this case brought about conduct that was unlawful under the Human Rights Act. However, it cannot be extrapolated from these findings alone that the policies and procedures at the AMC in managing risk, security, logistics and challenging situations are deficient in protecting human rights for members of the community who are detained, nor that the corrections officers systemically disregard the human rights of detainees. If there is anything to take away from the conduct that occurred, it is that those who are applying the policies and their requirements daily need all the support they can get from those who lead them, the detainees they manage and the community they protect.
For the above reasons, the plaintiff is entitled to the following declaratory relief: (a) A declaration that the use of force on the plaintiff on 11 January 2021 was incompatible with the plaintiff’s human rights under ss 19(1) and 19(3) of the Human Rights Act; (b) A declaration that the attempted strip search of the plaintiff in the cell at the Crisis Support Unit (CSU) on 11 January 2021 was conduct incompatible with: 1․ the plaintiff’s rights to humane and appropriate treatment while deprived of liberty on remand, under ss 19(1) and 19(3) of the Human Rights Act,
2․ the plaintiff’s right to privacy under s 12 of the Human Rights Act, and
3․ the plaintiff’s right to protection from degrading treatment under s 10 of the Human Rights Act; and (c) A declaration that the conduct of a strip search in the bathroom at the CSU on 11 January 2021 was conduct incompatible with: 1․ the plaintiff’s right to humane and appropriate treatment while deprived of liberty on remand, under ss 19(1) and 19(3) of the Human Rights Act, and
2․ the plaintiff’s right to privacy under s 12 of the Human Rights Act.
I certify that the preceding four hundred and seventy-nine [479] numbered paragraphs are a true copy of the Reasons for Judgment of her Honour Justice McWilliam.
Associate: Date:
Williams
Director-General of the Justice and Community Safety Directorate [2025] ACTSC 396
(1992) 175 CLR 564
(1988) 19 FCR 223
(1958) 101 CLR 119
(1983) 51 ALR 401
(1904) 1 CLR 320
(1972) 127 CLR 421
(1986) 5 NSWLR 465
(1959) 101 CLR 298
(1986) 162 CLR 24
(1974) 131 CLR 286
(1946) 73 CLR 381
(1975) 133 CLR 1
Understanding that section requires an understanding of the definition of “public authority”, which is set out in s 40 of the Human Rights Act: 40 Meaning of public authority (1) Each of the following is a public authority : (a) an administrative unit; (b) a territory authority; (c) a territory instrumentality; (d) a Minister; (e) a police officer, when exercising a function under a Territory law; (f) a public employee; (g) an entity whose functions are or include functions of a public nature, when it is exercising those functions for the Territory or a public authority (whether under contract or otherwise). Note A reference to an entity includes a reference to a person exercising a function of the entity, whether under a delegation, subdelegation or otherwise (see Legislation Act, s 184A (1)). (2) However, public authority does not include— (a) the Legislative Assembly, except when acting in an administrative capacity; or (b) a court, except when acting in an administrative capacity.
Public employee is defined in the Legislation Act 2001 (ACT) (Legislation Act) as: (a) A public servant; or (b) A public sector member; or (c) A person employed by a territory instrumentality.
As made clear by the Application, the second defendant and the third defendant were each sued in their capacity as a ‘public authority’ and were each a ‘public employee’. Neither was the statutory office holder. Applying the current s 40C(5)(c), the respondent named should have been the Territory.
Given that the first respondent was the statutory office holder for the Executive of the Territory and the joint representation of all the defendants, I have taken the view that the Territory’s position was properly before the court. Accordingly, even if the second and third defendants were incorrectly included, this issue has not prevented the court deciding the proceeding: r 218 of the Court Procedures Rules 2006 (ACT) (Rules).
However, there may be a significant consequence for any declaratory relief and who the declaration should bind. There remains utility even at this stage of the proceeding in substituting the Territory for the second and third defendants. This may be done pursuant to r 220 of the Rules, which permits an order including an appropriate or necessary party at any stage of the proceeding.
The procedural choices made by the parties in the present case (either the plaintiff in the manner in which the proceeding was commenced, or the defendants who equally could have sought for the case to be pleaded out) had a consequence, in that the manner in which the proceeding unfolded was to plunge the parties and the court into a wide-ranging enquiry of the policies and procedures at the AMC and the implementation of them with regard to applications for leave to attend funerals and strip or body searches.
It also led to each party criticising the other. For example, the plaintiff criticised the defendants for the failure to call witnesses said to be relevant to a particular breach or issue, giving rise to a number of submissions that Jones v Dunkel (1959) 101 CLR 298 (Jones v Dunkel) inferences ought to be drawn. In turn, the defendants argued a lack of notice as to how some issues constituted a breach of the Human Rights Act (with regard to alleged systematic failures or the lack of any review of the decision to refuse funeral leave).
More significantly, because the issues were not defined by pleadings, the amount of evidence that was collectively adduced by the parties was unconfined, with two thousand pages of documentary evidence (affidavits and exhibits) in addition to extensive oral evidence. Hundreds of pages of submissions were filed and were accompanied by thousands of pages of authorities. The Intervenor’s bundle of authorities alone ran to six volumes. That in turn has an impact on the court and judicial resources that are then required to consider and decide the case.
It is appreciated that parties are seeking to assist the court by providing the most comprehensive and thorough examination of the evidence and authorities as their resources permit, and it should be clear from these reasons that considerable assistance has been derived from the parties’ efforts. However, whatever material is put before the court needs to be sifted through and considered by the judicial officer hearing the case. The conduct under scrutiny was submitted to amount to 22 breaches of human rights. Apart from the two that were not pressed by closing submissions, they have all been considered. The scattergun approach to claims under the Human Rights Act is to be discouraged. Closer attention to the content of the particular right at the initial stage (brought about by the discipline of a pleading) may have assisted in ascertaining whether those rights were truly engaged.
Here, the unconfined approach to the issues, and the evidence that was then considered necessary to address them, contributed in part to the regrettably considerable delay in the parties receiving judgment. This is not intended to direct the responsibility for discharging the judicial function in a timely manner away from the court. It is to encourage parties to think about how they can best assist the court to discharge that function given the heavy workload placed on judges in a smaller jurisdiction. In any contested litigation, but particularly sizeable and complex matters such as this one, vigilance is required as to what it was about the conduct that is the subject of complaint that was incompatible with the human right identified and whether the amount of material being filed will assist the decision-maker to determine the real issues in dispute, or whether it is intended to demonstrate (either to the court or a client) that no stone was left unturned factually or legally.
The reasons that follow focus on the conduct that I understood to be the plaintiff’s case on each right said to have been breached under the Human Rights Act, as identified in the Application. That does not mean that the totality of the material before the court was not considered. It is to explain why many of the issues ventilated during the hearing – such as whether policies were followed or whether different policies should have been in place, whether staffing at the AMC on a weekend was adequate, or expert evidence about the potential for injury to the plaintiff – have been either eschewed or referred to without detail in these reasons, because such aspects of this proceeding ultimately were not necessary to traverse in my path of reasoning in order to decide this case.
The plaintiff filled out a Detainee Request Form colloquially called a “Bluey” (because the paper used is blue) with the assistance of an Indigenous Liaison Officer (ILO 1). It said: Provide request details: Escort to my Grand mothers (sic) funeral in Narrandera…
ILO 1 then commented: We would like to support this application for a funeral escort. ILO Barry Parker would attend if approved.
Next to Supervisor Comments the following words appear: See attached application.
It is not clear when those words were written or who actually wrote them. Contact details for family members were written and that entry was signed by the person responsible on 6 January 2021.
There were other entries on the form dated 11 January (see below). However, that form was only part of the paperwork required. A “Prisoner Leave Application Form” (Leave Application) was also required.
The plaintiff believed that she filled out a second form on the same day applying for funeral leave. However, she said this all happened on 8 January, when she knew the funeral details. She believed that the date on the Bluey was wrong.
Heavy reliance was placed by the plaintiff on the writing on the Bluey that said: “see attached” as being evidence of the said Leave Application being attached on 6 January. I do not give those words the weight that the plaintiff did. The person filling out the entry on the form may well have intended to attach the document and that is why those words were written at the time the Bluey was completed. However, when it came to filling out the second form, it was clear that it could not yet be completed as the funeral details were unknown on 6 January. That there was intended to be a Leave Application attached, but that it was not yet attached, is consistent with the Bluey being left in a pigeonhole on 8 January (see below).
The relevant officer who wrote those words was not called to give evidence and the plaintiff was critical of that gap.
There is evidence of two forms filled out on that day. One was the Bluey relating to escort arrangements for the funeral. The other was a second Bluey for an “inter jail” visit.
The relevant documentary record for 6 January 2021 states: Entered into CSU at 1300hr. Has had visits from ALO, MH and an external visitor. She has spoken to her Mum on the phone and filled in two blueys in regards to Escort arrangements for her Grans funeral and also an inter jail visit.
That record does not refer to filling in the Leave Application and there is no Leave Application dated 6 January 2021 (either partial or complete) in the records.
Part of the relevant evidence on this point is also derived from ILO 1 and a corrections officer to whom I will refer as the CSU Supervisor, who features critically again below and appears to have had a rapport with the plaintiff. What was required to commence an application for funeral leave (according to the evidence of ILO 1, which I accept) were details of the date, time and place of the funeral. The inclusion of this information on the Leave Application was critical before it could be submitted. Among other uses, those details facilitate confirmation of the funeral with the relevant funeral home, assessment of the various security risks and consideration of what logistics would need to be put in place in order to facilitate the request. Their evidence confirms that the funeral details were not known on 6 January and that as a result, the Leave Application could not go forward for consideration.
The documentary evidence also accords with common sense, in that it is far more likely that on receiving the news on 6 January, the plaintiff would have taken immediate steps to start the process of applying for funeral leave, which was the date recorded on the Bluey and ultimately accepted by the plaintiff in closing submissions to be correct. The process of applying for funeral leave was a process which (on her own evidence) she had undertaken twice before in relation to funerals of other relatives, and she knew that such leave took time to organise.
The plaintiff may have started filling out a Leave Application, albeit on 6 January, and that is what she remembers, but it was plainly not completed as the plaintiff did not at that time know the funeral details. Alternatively, she may have misremembered what she ultimately did with a second ILO on 11 January as having been done on 8 January. Whatever the reason, when the documentary evidence is taken in its totality, the plaintiff’s memory as to the date she completed the Leave Application was shown to be unreliable.
Accordingly, I do not accept that the Application Form was completed on 6 January along with the Bluey, nor that it was attached incomplete and submitted or was subsequently lost. However, it is clear that the plaintiff had made staff at the AMC aware of the impending funeral and that escort arrangements would be required. On Thursday 7 January, the plaintiff still did not know the details of the funeral, but she had applied for day release to obtain funds from the bank to pay for the funeral.
Separately on 6 January, the plaintiff had been admitted to the CSU at 1pm and spoken with a mental health nurse at some time that afternoon. The record indicated that she told the nurse she had a razor blade and was prepared to use it if she were to remain in the CSU overnight. She said the razor was hidden where no one will find it.
In that regard, I find that on this occasion, there was a breakdown in the process of facilitating requests by an Aboriginal detainee that was being handled by ILOs during the week. The uncompleted request was not handed over for management by a corrections officer with weekend duties.
The difficulty that emerges is that the plaintiff had a mistaken view that her paperwork was in order. That was not the case. The paperwork had been left in a pigeonhole over the weekend. It does not matter which one and the processes of the AMC in that respect were not identified by the plaintiff in her Application as being under the spotlight in this proceeding. The most obvious inference to draw from the placement of paperwork in a pigeonhole is not an inference of neglect, but rather that the officers involved knew that the plaintiff’s paperwork was incomplete and when they had confirmed the funeral details, they intended to insert them on the form or attach the confirmation and action the leave request.
The consequence was that by 10 January 2021 (two days before the date leave was required) no application for leave had in fact yet been made, the person who was best placed to support the request (either ILO 1 or a second ILO (ILO 2)) was not at the AMC over the weekend, and no one else had been specifically tasked with a follow-up over the weekend, in circumstances where the application for leave clearly required urgent consideration if it was to have any chance of success. Critically, over 8-11 January, nobody was yet factoring into the prison management logistics the personnel required on Tuesday 12 January to provide an escort to Narrandera for the plaintiff.
In her affidavit, the third defendant maintained that she did not support the application for security reasons. In oral evidence, she said that the distance of the location had an impact on part of the recommendation but the fact that the location had not previously been assessed was not a fact. She denied that the security risk assessment that she completed had any bearing on her recommendation.
The plaintiff strongly contended that security was not a factor in refusing the funeral leave request. I have passed over that factual discrepancy as the third defendant was not the ultimate decision maker, the evidence did not rise as high as suggesting that her personal view fed into the thinking of the person who was (the second defendant), and it is largely overtaken by my factual findings in respect of later evidence.
That recommendation then went to Executive Support within the AMC and ultimately to the Deputy Commissioner, Custodial Operations at the AMC, who recommended to the second defendant that the plaintiff’s application to attend the funeral be refused. The second defendant’s decision and the basis of the refusal of funeral leave
The second defendant’s decision was made quickly over a phone call with the Deputy Commissioner in the afternoon on 11 January 2021. The fact that it was made in that way was a product of the urgency arising from the funeral being scheduled to occur the following afternoon. Due to the location of the funeral being approximately four hours’ drive away, if leave were to be granted, the plaintiff would have needed to leave the AMC by approximately 10am the following morning.
The reasons recorded on the Leave Application were as follows: Confirmation of funeral details rec’d on 11/01/21. Not operationally feasible to organise and facilitate this escort due to short notice and current officer staffing obligations.
The second defendant was later asked by the ACT Discrimination Commissioner to explain (among other things) what consideration was given to the plaintiff’s cultural rights, including in relation to her cultural observances and kinship ties, when making the decision regarding the plaintiff’s attendance at her grandmother’s funeral and the decision for refusing funeral leave. The reasons he gave in that responding letter (which was the subject of one of the admissibility rulings discussed below) were: Ms Williams first requested to attend the funeral on 6 January 2021, details about the service were not received until 11 January 2021, with the funeral being held on 12 January 2021 in New South Wales. ACTCS makes every practicable effort to support funeral escorts wherever possible, particularly for Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander detainees. Unfortunately, Ms Williams’ request was ultimately declined on this occasion due to the short notice, distance, and staffing concerns.
This was supplemented by a “Timeline of events” which included the following dot points in the column relevant to 11 January 2021: • The Detainee Request Form, funeral notice and prisoner leave application is provided to the Deputy Commissioner Custodial Operations (DCCO). The Operations Area Manager and DCCO discuss the staffing struggles, that the rosters were significantly short and that areas of the Alexander Maconochie Centre (AMC) had recently been locked-in due to the inability to fill posts with overtime • The DCCO contacted the Commissioner, ACT Corrective Services (ACTCS) to discuss the situation. It was noted that the applicant was Indigenous and ACTCS’ desire to support attendance at funerals where possible. It was discussed that details and confirmation of the funeral had only been received that day and the only possible way to support he escort would be to lockdown portions of the detainee population in order to ensure that staff would be removed from a post and reassigned to the escort • It was agreed that the escort could not be accomplished due to the short notice and current staffing obligations
In cross-examination, the second defendant distanced himself from the contents of that letter (which he signed), saying that it was prepared for him and did not reflect his personal deliberations. Unfortunately, he missed that there was no mention of the security risk assessment when he signed the letter, although the reference to staffing concerns did relate to the security concerns of staff in accompanying the plaintiff.
In affidavit and oral evidence, the second defendant expanded quite substantially on all the matters that apparently were taken into account in making the decision during the short phone call. He said that he considered: (a) The relationship between the detainee and the deceased; (b) The impact on the individual detainee – as this was a question of decency; (c) In relation to Indigenous detainees, that there were wider notions of kinship and he recognised that family ties were much broader; (d) His practice of approving applications where there was a kinship relationship subject to considerations of community safety or it being operationally impossible to facilitate the detainee attending the funeral; (e) The public and community safety, which was always a priority consideration and involved consideration of the safety of the public, the detainee and the staff escorting the detainee, including not only the corrections officers but any ILO accompanying the escort; (f) The detainee’s recent history of behaviour at the AMC as a predictor of the detainee’s behaviour when attending a funeral, which included violent conduct, threats and abusive behaviour towards staff and a failure to comply with directions; (g) Advice from either the General Manager or Deputy Commissioner in relation to the running and good order of the AMC as to the impact of the approval of the leave, and a recommendation as to whether or not they thought that the leave should be approved.
In relation to the advice he received, the second defendant further explained that, as part of his reasoning process, he did not always accept that advice. He would weigh the impact of the operations of the AMC with that of cultural considerations, particularly kinship considerations for Indigenous detainees, and the threat to community, good order and security of the AMC. He stated that as Commissioner, he was in a position to take a broader consideration of the application beyond the direct impact of the request on the operations of the prison.
The carefully crafted and comprehensive reasons were set out in an affidavit prepared for the purpose of litigation (and confirmed in oral evidence), in circumstances where the second defendant knew the decision was the subject of scrutiny, and with full access to all the documentary records as to the plaintiff’s history and what had transpired in the lead up to the decision. They are all matters that a prudent decision maker would factor into any decision being made about an application by an Aboriginal detainee on remand for funeral leave, if that decision were being made in an ideal world with access to that full suite of information, and without any urgency or competing demands on time.
However, I do not accept that all those matters were in fact considered and weighed by the second defendant at the time he made the decision to refuse the plaintiff’s application for funeral leave in the brief phone call regarding the issue. The second defendant was a highly experienced decision-maker, and I accept that part of his experience included a general awareness and understanding about all those matters. Even so, it is one thing to know the matters that should be considered, and another to intellectually engage with the matters that ought to bear upon the decision in the heat of the moment when an urgent decision is being made over the telephone. His evidence was wishful thinking in that regard.
I consider that the more persuasive evidence as to the material reasons for the refusal is what was communicated to the plaintiff and to the Discrimination Commissioner at a time more proximate to the event in question.
The plaintiff subsequently agreed to move from the SCC to the CSU shortly after 6pm without the use of force. As she was walking to the CSU (or when she arrived), she was told that she would need to undergo a strip search because she had threatened self-harm. Her response was to the effect that she would refuse to participate in that procedure. The treatment of the plaintiff at the CSU
The plaintiff was assisted onto the cell bed by the CSU Supervisor and the observing officer. The plaintiff stated that she was very tired and wished to sleep.
The observing officer told the plaintiff that a strip search was required (which was his belief) but the plaintiff did not respond. The officer gave the plaintiff the option of the strip search occurring in the bathroom, to have a shower and pass the clothes to the female correctional officers conducting the search. The plaintiff declined to cooperate with the strip search when requested.
The observing officer and the CSU Supervisor then left. The observing officer spoke to the third defendant and made her aware that the plaintiff had refused a strip search. The observing officer also told her that he had seen the plaintiff put her hand down into her crotch and that she had possibly placed a weapon down her pants (being a razor blade).
The last paragraph of that extract is what I find the third defendant considered when determining to use force. The third defendant’s subsequent affidavit evidence was that: (a) She had received training in the use of pat searches and strip searches. (b) Her view was that a pat search was not appropriate for the risk identified (a concealed razor blade). (c) She understood the gravity of the decision to strip search the plaintiff. (d) She considered her decision to be made in circumstances of last resort. (e) She was concerned the plaintiff would hurt or kill herself. She wanted to take all available steps to minimise that risk. (f) She knew that the use of force on a detainee creates a risk of injury to the detainee and the correctional officers involved. (g) She weighed up whether undertaking the search was going to put the plaintiff at more risk than not undertaking the search. (h) She decided that there was a greater risk to the plaintiff and to staff if the search did not occur. (i) She believed that she followed a practice of reviewing the plaintiff’s case notes, although she did not recall whether she identified anything significant in the case notes.
In oral evidence the third defendant said she considered putting the detainee on constant observations when she considered a non-compliant strip-search.
The third defendant gave two other contextual points relevant to the circumstances in which she made her decision: (a) She did not know whether anyone had asked the plaintiff whether she had any weapons or other dangerous items concealed on her person, but she would have made the same decision even if the plaintiff had denied concealing any items. She did not believe the plaintiff could maintain her own safety. Her focus was on making sure the plaintiff and the current and oncoming night-shift staff were safe. (b) Her view was that there is a greater risk to staff and detainee safety overnight at the AMC. This is because there are less correctional officers on shift and the medical officers from the Hume Health Centre are not available. If there was a medical emergency at night, she knew the practice would be to call as many staff as possible to the cell, breach the door and call an ambulance.
I consider that this evidence was also the product of a carefully crafted post-event rationalisation of what occurred (as submitted by the plaintiff). The matters that I find operated on her consideration were those set out at [124] above, as evidenced in the contemporaneous report.
The third defendant obtained approval for the use of force by the Duty Manager and briefed the 4 female corrections officers who were to participate in the use of force.
The plaintiff was escorted back to her cell in the CSU. The plaintiff was later taken to Hume Health Centre for a medical assessment where an electrocardiogram was performed. The plaintiff was observed by the nurse at the Hume Health Centre to be “very distressed but able to transfer self to clinic, pale in complexion and using accessory muscles to breathe, talking in short full sentences aware on time and place, denied any loss of consciousness”. The plaintiff made a complaint of “non radiating and sharp stabbing pain on the chest and that she was finding it hard to breathe even after she was released from Officers use of force”.
There were no signs of bruising on her rib cage and chest. After the check-up, the plaintiff was observed to have settled. The plaintiff was then returned to the CSU. The on-call doctor at the Hume instructed the registered nurse to arrange for the plaintiff to be transferred to the Canberra Hospital for a review. At 7:40pm that night, the plaintiff was taken to Canberra Hospital.
The plaintiff presented with lower chest pain and the Canberra Hospital Discharge Letter was in evidence. It is unnecessary to record the detail. The plaintiff was discharged and was provided a script for Panadeine Forte.
One example of how compartmentalising through a question chain might divert the consideration is that an act which is incompatible with a particular human right may be found to be the result of the imposition of a limitation on a human right which is in turn found to be proportionate or justifiable, and which was in every other respect lawful, yet the manner of its implementation fundamentally breaches the statutory protection afforded.
Further, some of the questions proposed were couched in the language of judicial review, because of the nature of the challenge in those cases. Here, as the present case does not seek judicial review, the starting point is not to ask what decision is under challenge (which was the first question posed in Hakimi and proposed by the Intervenor and the plaintiff). The starting point is an Aboriginal plaintiff who was incarcerated as a detainee on remand. Her human rights were protected under the Human Rights Act, but the content of those rights may have been subject to reasonable limitation, which is permissible in accordance with s 28 of the Human Rights Act. The onus of establishing that a human right has been limited is on the person alleging the limitation: Thompson at [47].
While the protection of human rights is universal, the content of those human rights in a given situation is highly fact dependent, as is the question of whether a public authority has acted incompatibly with a human right, either as a matter of substance or in the process of making a decision affecting the person.
For these reasons, and acknowledging that different judicial officers will take different approaches to the task, I have avoided a formulaic set of detailed questions and have instead focussed on: (a) the statutory human right identified by the plaintiff; (b) the content of that right in the circumstances of this case, including whether it was reasonably limited (under s 28 of the Human Rights Act); (c) the nature of the conduct said to infringe the right; and (d) whether the conduct was incompatible with the right identified, or in the case of a decision, whether the decision was made without ‘proper consideration’ of the right identified. The court’s task in determining whether a public authority failed to give “proper consideration” to the human right identified in making a decision
The requirement of s 40B(1)(b) is that in making a decision, a public authority must give “proper consideration to a relevant human right.”
What is meant by the term ‘proper consideration’? The reasoning that follows applies the established approach to statutory construction. The court’s task in construing those words is to attempt to give effect to the intention of Parliament as disclosed by the language used in the statute: Dixon v Todd (1904) 1 CLR 320 at 326-7; and Project Blue Sky Inc v Australian Broadcasting Authority [1998] HCA 28; 194 CLR 355 at [78]. That is, what did Parliament mean by the words that it used?
In R v A2 [2019] HCA 35; 269 CLR 507, Kiefel CJ and Keane J stated (Nettle and Gordon JJ agreeing) at [32]-[33] (footnotes omitted): 32. The method to be applied in construing a statute to ascertain the intended meaning of the words used is well settled. It commences with a consideration of the words of the provision itself, but it does not end there. ... 33. Consideration of the context for the provision is undertaken at the first stage of the process of construction. Context is to be understood in its widest sense. It includes surrounding statutory provisions, what may be drawn from other aspects of the statute and the statute as a whole. It extends to the mischief which it may be seen that the statute is intended to remedy. “Mischief” is an old expression. It may be understood to refer to a state of affairs which to date the law has not addressed. It is in that sense a defect in the law which is now sought to be remedied. The mischief may point most clearly to what it is that the statute seeks to achieve.
Here, starting with the provision itself, the word ‘proper’ qualifies the consideration. It simply means consideration that is ‘proper’ for the decision being made. That qualification recognises that there are a multitude of decisions being made by public authorities in the Territory every day, with varying degrees of impact on human rights. In a prison setting, what constitutes ‘proper’ consideration of a detainee’s human rights for a decision to conduct urinalysis may not be proper for a decision where a remanded detainee with mental health challenges is moved to segregation for a lengthy period of time. That is the mischief to which the word ‘proper’ is directed.
That is a different construction from a previous decision of this court in Davidson v Director-General, Justice and Community Safety Directorate [2022] ACTSC 83; 18 ACTLR 1 (Davidson) which construed proper consideration at [365]-[376]. However, Davidson relied heavily upon reasoning in Minogue v Thompson [2021] VSC 56 (Minogue). After the court in Davidson made orders but before reasons were given, Minogue was overturned by the Victorian Court of Appeal in Thompson, including expressly on this aspect of statutory construction concerning proper consideration: Thompson at [87]. It appears the Court of Appeal decision was not drawn to the court’s attention prior to the delivery of reasons in Davidson.
In Thompson, the Victorian Court of Appeal similarly referred (at [87]) to flexibility in the nature of the consideration to be given, adopting the principle derived from Castles v Secretary, Department of Justice [2010] VSC 310; 28 VR 141 (Castles) at [185] that “the procedural limb does not involve a sophisticated legal exercise and that there is no formula for compliance with it.” The Court went on to say in the same paragraph: … As explained in Castles, a sophisticated legal exercise is not required because the procedural limb applies generally to decision-making by Victorian public authorities. That decision-making includes decisions of a repetitive or routine nature by junior officers and decisions that must be made in circumstances of urgency. Further, persons whose human rights are limited retain the protection of the substantive limb, which requires that the impugned conduct be compatible with those rights.
The Intervenor relied on a further aspect of the Court’s reasoning at [91] (footnotes omitted, emphasis added): However, the need for flexibility does not detract from the requirement that the consideration that is given to relevant human rights must be one of substance rather than tokenistic. The adjective ‘proper’ means that the standard of consideration must be higher than that generally applicable at common law to taking into account relevant considerations. That is consistent with the model of the Charter as intended to have a normative effect on the conduct of public authorities.
The authority cited in the footnote for interpreting ‘proper’ as requiring a higher standard of consideration was Bare v Independent Broad-based Anti-corruption Commission [2015] VSCA 197; 48 VR 129 (Bare) at [235] and [275]–[276].
I agree with the emphasised words and the first sentence, which I understand to be the critical aspect of the Victorian Court of Appeal’s reasoning. However, fully cognisant of the highly persuasive nature of appellate decisions in other jurisdictions, I respectfully disagree with the second sentence as to the adjective ‘proper’ meaning that a higher standard of consideration must be applied than that at common law. The Intervenor relied on that construction and accordingly, I will explain why that construction of the same words in the Human Rights Act has not been adopted here.
In Bare, Tate JA stated at [235]: … The ‘proper’ consideration to be given to human rights by those engaged in public administration demands a higher standard of consideration than that generally applicable at common law to the taking into account of relevant considerations. What is required is a weighing up, or balancing, of human rights against countervailing public and private interests. To treat the obligation to give proper consideration to human rights as an obligation of some stringency is consistent with the model of the Charter as intended to have a normative effect on the conduct of public authorities.
The common law obligation was later identified at [275]-[276] (emphasis added): 275. In Minister for Aboriginal Affairs v Peko-Wallsend Ltd [ (1986) 162 CLR 24], Mason J described what was required to discharge the common law obligation in terms that suggested only that the decision-maker ‘must call his own attention to the matters which he is bound to consider’. At least where the factors to be taken into account are only implied by an Act, the obligation to take into account a relevant consideration is unlikely to entail the giving of ‘proper, genuine and realistic’ consideration to the relevant factors [Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs v Anthonypillai [2001] FCA 274; 106 FCR 426 at [59]–[66]]. … 276. I agree. The difference between the statutory language in s 38(1) and the manner in which the common law ground of review is expressed supports the view that s 38(1) is intended to impose a test that is more strict than that applicable at common law. The word ‘proper’ must be given work to do in accordance with the maxim that all words in a statute must be given meaning and effect [citing among others, Project Blue Sky Inc v Australian Broadcasting Authority [1998] HCA 28; 194 CLR 355 at [71]]. This is particularly so given that the word ‘proper’ describes the nature of the consideration that is to be given; it qualifies the exercise in which a decision-maker is obliged to engage.
These paragraphs were then picked up in Thompson at [91].
Fundamentally, the obligation to consider a relevant matter is different from what weight might be given to it. Unless the statute indicates otherwise, it is a matter for the decision-maker and not the court to determine the weight to be given to various matters which must be taken into account in exercising a statutory power. That was the point being made in Minister for Aboriginal Affairs v Peko-Wallsend Ltd (1986) 162 CLR 24 (Peko- Wallsend) at 41. The reference to the statement of Lord Greene MR in Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corporation (1948) 1 KB 223 at 229 that a person entrusted with a discretion “must call his own attention to the matters which he is bound to consider” (cited in Bare at [275]) was made in support of the established proposition that a ground of failure to take into account a relevant consideration can only be made out if a decision-maker fails to take into account a consideration which he is bound to take into account in making that decision. That is, the statement from Peko- Wallsend, which was relied upon in Bare as encapsulating the common law obligation, was directed to a different point.
There is a second difficulty with what was described as the common law obligation in Bare at [275] concerning what it means to ‘consider’ a statutorily mandated consideration. That arises from the juxtaposition of the single statement in Peko- Wallsend on a different point with a statement from a decision of the Full Court of the Federal Court of Australia considering words in the Migration Act 1958 (Cth) (Migration Act). Critically, the Migration Act had expressly excluded the common law concepts of consideration and the “proper genuine and realistic consideration” formula or similar tests at common law, as was made clear in Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs v Anthonypillai [2001] FCA 274; 106 FCR 426 (Anthonypillai) at [38]. Moreover, Anthonypillai was decided before the High Court of Australia intervened in that legislative space with Plaintiff S157/2002 v Commonwealth [2003] HCA 2; 211 CLR 476. The discussion relied upon in Bare, with regard to common law principles of consideration and why they differed, was, respectfully, entirely inapt for the conclusion then drawn that a “more strict” test was imposed by the words used under the Victorian Charter. As the emphasised words in the above extract make clear, even the caveat in Bare was not analogous. The words “[a]t least where the factors to be taken into account are only implied by an Act” do not equate with the statutorily mandated considerations such as the human rights involved here.
Subsequent authorities establish that, with regard to what it means to consider a matter mandated by statute, the position at common law is actually the opposite. It is not enough for a decision-maker to tick the box or pay mere lip-service to a mandatory consideration – there must be a level of active intellectual engagement: see Carrascalao v Minister for Immigration and Border Protection [2017] FCAFC 107; 252 FCR 352 at [33]-[35] and [45]-[46]; and Minister for Home Affairs v Omar [2019] FCAFC 188; 272 FCR 589 at [36]. That is consistent with the requirement discussed in Thompson that the consideration given to relevant human rights must be one of substance rather than tokenistic.
Caution has been expressed in the common law context about articulating requirements or tests for ‘consideration’. The High Court in Plaintiff M1/2021 v Minister for Home Affairs [2022] HCA 17; 275 CLR 582 (Plaintiff M1) (Kiefel CJ, Keane, Gordon and Steward JJ) stated at [26] (footnotes omitted): Labels like "active intellectual process" and "proper, genuine and realistic consideration" must be understood in their proper context. These formulas have the danger of creating "a kind of general warrant, invoking language of indefinite and subjective application, in which the procedural and substantive merits of any [decision-maker's] decision can be scrutinised". That is not the correct approach. As Mason J stated in Minister for Aboriginal Affairs v Peko-Wallsend Ltd, "[t]he limited role of a court reviewing the exercise of an administrative discretion must constantly be borne in mind". The court does not substitute its decision for that of an administrative decision-maker.
The High Court in Plaintiff M1 had earlier referred (at [24]-[25]) to a failure to consider a mandated representation as a failure to “identify, understand and evaluate” the relevant matter “within the bounds of rationality and reasonableness”.
A similar warning was issued by Basten JA (with whom Leeming JA and Sackville AJA agreed) in Bay Simmer Investments Pty Ltd v New South Wales [2017] NSWCA 135 at [56] (footnotes omitted, emphasis added): ... It has sometimes been said that the obligation is to give “proper, genuine and realistic consideration” to the matter. This language has been referred to in a series of cases (including recently in Minister for Immigration v SZJSS, an authority not referred to in Warkworth). Accepting that the weight to be given to a particular factor is a matter for the decision-maker and not the court on a judicial review application, the difficulty is to articulate a legal standard between a level of consideration which appears to be cursory or dismissive (and therefore inadequate) and a level of consideration which requires an assessment of the conclusions reached by the decision-maker (and is therefore beyond the role of the court). Little more can be said by way of judicial exegesis than that the standard will depend upon the subject matter and purpose of the consideration, in a given statutory context.
These decisions confirm that at common law, the standard of consideration will depend upon the subject matter and purpose of the consideration, in a given statutory context. Applying Momcilovic, the consideration prescribed in s 40B(1)(b) of the Human Rights Act requires no different construction.
Here, the statutory context is broader than the Human Rights Act. A separate reason supporting a construction of ‘consideration’ consistently with that required under ordinary common law principles is because the Human Rights Act operates alongside other rights, including the right under s 5 of the Administrative Decisions (Judicial Review) Act 1989 (ACT) (ADJR Act) to apply for judicial review. That section expressly includes the following note: Note: The Human Rights Act 2004, s 40B(1)(b) makes it unlawful for a public authority to fail to give proper consideration to a relevant human right when making a decision.
While the note itself is not part of the ADJR Act (s 127 of the Legislation Act), notes do assist in working out the meaning of a provision (s 142 of the Legislation Act). That there is an express reference to s 40B(1)(b) in the ADJR Act at the point where the right of review is created and the ground of failure to take into account a relevant consideration is identified is significant in assisting with working out the meaning of the consideration intended under the Human Rights Act. It is a clear indicator that the intention of the legislative scheme was to include the mandatory consideration of human rights in decision-making as part of the existing legislative scheme, within the established requirements at common law for determining whether relevant considerations have been taken into account. The intention was not to create a separate “higher”, or “more strict” test for consideration in the Human Rights Act. The sections between those two statutes must be construed harmoniously, otherwise the legislative scheme is unworkable.
That does not mean that the word ‘proper’ in s 40B(1)(b) of the Human Rights Act has no work to do, which was a concern in Bare with regard to the same words in the Victorian Charter at [276]. In that regard, I respectfully agree with the substance of the learned appellate judge’s point, which is that the word ‘proper’ qualifies the exercise in which a decision-maker is obliged to engage. However, as I have said, the qualification achieved by the word ‘proper’ is not directed to increasing the stringency of the consideration or the weight of human rights considerations, having regard to the context of the section (decision-making), the purpose of the section, and the Human Rights Act as a whole. The qualification is directed to the breadth of decisions that are captured by the provision and to recognising that what is required or is ‘proper’ will fluctuate depending on the nature of the decision involved and its consequences.
For similar reasons and contrary to the submissions of the Intervenor, I do not consider it appropriate to apply the ‘HJ test’ that was adopted in Thompson at [83]. There, it was held that there were four requirements involved in a decision-maker giving ‘proper consideration’ to a human right, derived from HJ (a pseudonym) v Independent Broad- Based Anti-Corruption Commission [2021] VSCA 200; 64 VR 270 (HJ) at [155]. The decision-maker must: (a) Understand in general terms which of the rights of the person affected by the decision may be relevant and whether, and if so how, those rights will be interfered with by the decision; (b) Seriously turn their mind to the possible impact of the decision on a person’s human rights and the implications for the affected person; (c) Identify the countervailing interests or obligations; and (d) Balance competing private and public interests as part of the exercise of justification (Castles at [185]-[186], applied in Thompson at [83]).
That test appears to have evolved from the construction of consideration as requiring more stringent consideration, an interpretation that I do not favour for reasons just explained.
In R v Roy (No 3) [2025] ACTSC 5, McCallum CJ considered the passage from HJ setting out the above four requirements and stated at [252]-[253] (emphasis added): 252․ I do not understand those remarks to mean that every decision-maker bound by the Charter must know the terms of the Charter or consult its terms before making a decision. My conclusion on that issue is reinforced by the fact that, two paragraphs earlier in Thompson v Minogue, the Court also cited with approval a passage from the decision of Emerton J in Castles that included the following statement: Proper consideration need not involve formally identifying the ‘correct’ rights or explaining their content by reference to legal principles or jurisprudence. Rather, proper consideration will involve understanding in general terms which of the rights of the person affected by the decision may be relevant and whether, and if so how, those rights will be interfered with by the decision that is made. 253. In my respectful opinion, it is enough in accordance with those authorities for the decision-maker to consider the substance of the relevant rights. If I have misunderstood the Victorian Court of Appeal’s decisions on that issue, I respectfully disagree. I do not see why a decision-maker in the Territory must necessarily know the terms of the Human Rights Act in order to comply with s 40B. The critical question is whether, as a matter of substance rather than form, [the decision-maker] acted in a way that was incompatible with the accused’s right to privacy or failed to give proper consideration to that right.
I respectfully agree with the opinion of the Chief Justice (the emphasised words) as to what is sufficient. Again, applying Momcilovic, the statute is to be construed in the same way as any other statute. The words of the statute do not impose such a test or obligation on decision-makers, nor do they necessarily imply those explicit steps from the two words, ‘proper consideration’. The provision creates a statutory obligation under s 40B(1)(b) that applies to every decision made by a public authority in the Territory. Requiring decision-makers to engage in a ‘test’ formulated for every decision made appears to be contrary to the court’s later application of the principle that “the procedural limb does not involve a sophisticated legal exercise and there is no formula for compliance with it”: Thompson at [87], citing Castles at [185].
That is not to say that the four considerations outlined in HJ are irrelevant. For many decisions the intellectual engagement required may well reflect the four components set out above. However, the words ‘proper consideration’ in the Human Rights Act are not to be construed as requiring a test in the above terms, because such a test has the capacity to import the very danger identified by the High Court in Plaintiff M1.
Relevantly here, degrading treatment involves more than the usual element of humiliation which follows from the very fact of being convicted and punished by a court: Certain Children at [162]. The cases there-cited are Tyrer v United Kingdom (1980) 26 Eur Court HR (ser A) at [30] and [33] and V v United Kingdom [2000] 7 BHRC 659 at [69]. In respect of the latter case, it appears that the reference should in fact be to T v The United Kingdom (European Court of Human Rights, Grand Chamber, Application No 24724/94, 16 December 1999) at [69].
The assessment undertaken by the court as to whether a particular threshold of severity has been met is a relative assessment, in that it depends on all the circumstances of the case. Without limitation, the type of considerations that may inform the assessment include the “duration of the treatment, its physical and mental effects and, in some cases, the sex, age and state of health of the victim”: Ireland v The United Kingdom (1978) 25 Eur Court HR (ser A) at [162], cited in Knight v General Manager, HM Prison Barwon [2017] VSC 135 (Knight) at [25]; and Novoselov v Russia (European Court of Human Rights, First Section, Application No 66460/01, 2 June 2005) (Novoselov) at [39].
Other factors a court may take into account include: the purpose for which the ill-treatment was inflicted, together with the intention or motivation behind it; the context in which the ill-treatment was inflicted (such as an atmosphere of heightened tension and emotions); and whether the victim was in a vulnerable situation: Nicolae Virgiliu Tănase v Romania (European Court of Human Rights, Grand Chamber, Application No 41720/13, 25 June 2019) (Tănase) at [121]. Although the context is important, a victim’s behaviour is not usually relevant of itself: Novoselov at [38].
The minimum level of severity usually involves actual bodily injury or intense physical or mental suffering, although treatment that humiliates or debases an individual and is capable of breaking an individual’s moral and physical resistance may also suffice: Tănase at [118].
A lack of intention to humiliate or debase a person may be a factor to be taken into account, albeit any lack of intention will not be determinative in ruling out a breach of the human right: Kalashnikov at [101]. The case of Kalashnikov was considered in SZTAL v Minister for Immigration and Border Protection; SZTGM v Minister for Immigration and Border Protection [2017] HCA 34; 262 CLR 362 at [19], although that was a decision where degrading treatment was expressly defined in s 5(1) of the Migration Act, with the definition including intention as an element.
The principle that a lack of intention is relevant but not determinative has been expressly referred to in this court: see Eastman v Chief Executive Officer of the Department of Justice and Community Safety [2010] ACTSC 4; 4 ACTLR 161 at [94], citing Cenbauer v Croatia [2006] III Eur Court HR 261 at [43]-[44].
Conduct that is otherwise legitimate treatment or punishment does not contravene the right, even though there may be a degree of inevitable humiliation connected with the treatment: Wainwright v United Kingdom [2006] X Eur Court HR 223 (Wainwright) at [41], discussed in Knight at [25]. Examples of legitimate treatment that does not contravene the right might be the lawful deprivation of liberty and the consequent loss of privacy, or the conducting of a strip search. The European Court of Human Rights went on to state in Wainwright at [42]: The Court has already had occasion to apply these principles in the context of strip and intimate body searches. A search carried out in an appropriate manner with due respect for human dignity and for a legitimate purpose (see, mutatis mutandis, Yankov v. Bulgaria, no. 39084/97, §§ 166-67, 11 December 2003, where there was no valid reason established for the shaving of the applicant prisoner’s head) may be compatible with Article 3. However, where the manner in which a search is carried out has debasing elements which significantly aggravate the inevitable humiliation of the procedure, Article 3 has been engaged: for example, where a prisoner was obliged to strip in the presence of a female officer, and his sexual organs and food were touched with bare hands (see Valašinas, cited above, § 117), and where a search was conducted before four guards who derided and verbally abused the prisoner (see Iwańczuk v. Poland, no. 25196/94, § 59, 15 November 2001). …
Before treatment will be found to be in breach of the human right in question, the suffering and humiliation involved must go beyond that connected with a given form of legitimate treatment or punishment: Novoselov at [38]. However, even when official conduct does go beyond legitimate treatment, and does not accord with “rigorous adherence to procedures and all due respect to [a prisoner’s] human dignity” (Wainwright at [44]), that may not necessarily amount to conduct that is ‘degrading’.
Similarly, official conduct which is excessive or disproportionate also does not necessarily contravene the right: see Wotton v Queensland (No 5) [2016] FCA 1457; 352 ALR 146 at [697] and the examples there-cited, which included the excessive use of pepper spray by police or handcuffing a person for a court appearance.
A number of examples of circumstances in a setting of incarceration assist with understanding where the courts have drawn the line on severity under the equivalent of s 10(1) of the Human Rights Act. They do not dictate any particular outcome here, but they are helpful in placing the present conduct in context.
First, the fact that a prisoner has been segregated from the prison community does not in itself constitute a form of inhuman treatment. Prolonged solitary confinement is undesirable, but regard must be had to the particular conditions, the stringency of the measure, its duration, the objective pursued and its effects on the person concerned: see Certain Children at [167] and the authority there-cited.
Second, the use of force in law enforcement may constitute cruel or inhuman treatment if it is grossly disproportionate to the purpose to be achieved and results in pain or suffering meeting a certain threshold: see Certain Children at [167] and the authorities there-cited.
Third, in Kalashnikov at [102], the European Court of Human Rights found that conditions of detention in Russia amounted to degrading treatment. The Court took into account, in particular, the severely overcrowded and insanitary environment and its detrimental effect on the applicant’s health and well-being, combined with the length of the period during which the applicant was detained (4 years and 10 months).
Fourth, courts have held that the treatment of remand prisoners, including limitation of visits, intimate body searches and delousing with pesticides, did not rise to the level of suffering inherent in the notions of cruel, degrading or inhuman treatment: Soenen v Thomas [1983] 8 CCC (3d) 224.
The Court of Appeal went on (at [66]-[69]) to set out the approach to be taken to the content of the right under the Victorian Charter. The reasoning applies by analogy to the Human Rights Act here, as follows: (a) The starting point is that prisoners should not be subjected to hardship or constraint other than that resulting from the deprivation of their liberty (applying Castles at [108]), but this alone does not identify the scope of the right: Thompson at [66]. (b) Hardship or constraints that are intrinsic to the loss of liberty do not engage the right: Thompson at [66]. (c) A limit (for example, a constraint imposed for prison discipline, security or the efficient management of the prison) can be legally effective if it meets the requirements of s 28 of the Human Rights Act: Thompson at [67]. (d) The content of the right must be determined objectively having regard to the provisions of the Human Rights Act and the foregoing principles (including the extract above): Thompson at [68]. th
In Human Rights Committee, Views: Communication No 1184/2003, 86 sess, UN Doc CCPR/C/86/D/1184/2003 (27 April 2006) (Brough v Australia) the United Nations Human Rights Committee dealt with a proceeding involving art 10 of the ICCPR, which is in these terms: 1. All persons deprived of their liberty shall be treated with humanity and with respect for the inherent dignity of the human person. …
The Committee held that the transfer of an Aboriginal young offender with a mild mental disability to a segregated area of an adult prison, together with treatment that included being locked in an isolated cell for long periods, placed under constant camera surveillance, and being forcibly stripped to his underwear, constituted “inhuman treatment” in violation of art 10. The Committee pointed to the particular vulnerabilities of the detainee, his status as an Aboriginal and his disability as being relevant to the requirements of the right against cruel treatment.
In Millington v Peach (No 2) [2025] ACTSC 21, I held that the transfer of a detainee who was on remand, to an interstate prison where he was to be segregated, without first complying with a statutorily mandated procedure that the segregation be reviewed before transfer, amounted to a breach of s 19(3) of the Human Rights Act. The impact of the extended segregation in the combination of circumstances in which the conduct arose was found to be severe enough to fall short of “appropriate treatment” for a person who had not yet been convicted: Millington at [72]. The right to privacy
Section 12 of the Human Rights Act provides: 12 Privacy and reputation Everyone has the right— (a) not to have their privacy, family, home or correspondence interfered with unlawfully or arbitrarily; and (b) not to have their reputation unlawfully attacked.
Again, at the time of hearing this case, s 12 used the language of gendered pronouns. This has since been amended to “their”, pursuant to the HR Complaints Amendment Act, with those amendments coming into force on 12 December 2023.
The present case is concerned with the person’s right not to have their privacy (in respect of the strip or body search) and their right to family (in respect of the Funeral leave decision) “interfered with unlawfully or arbitrarily”.
In respect of the right to “family”, the Intervenor argued that the right extended to “family life” which includes social, moral and cultural relations: PLA and Puncernau v Andorra [2004] VIII Eur Court HR 179 at [26]. I do not accept that submission, as the word used in the Human Rights Act was modelled on art 17 of the ICCPR, which is directed to a different concept as seen from the context in which “family” is used. The term was not about “family life”, being the language used in art 8 of the ECHR. There is a separate statutory human right dealing with cultural and kinship ties through s 27 of the Human Rights Act (discussed below). However, in light of other findings discussed below, it is unnecessary to deal further with the international jurisprudence addressing art 17 of the ICCPR and the meaning of “family”.
Relevant to the type of privacy under consideration in this case, the concept of privacy (falling within ‘private life’ in the international jurisprudence with regard to art 8 of the ECHR) embraces the personal autonomy of the individual: Pretty v United Kingdom [2002] III Eur Court HR 155 at [61]. It covers the physical and psychological integrity of a person. A person’s body concerns the most intimate aspect of one’s private life: Y.F. v Turkey [2003] IX Eur Court HR 171 at [33].
The right to privacy extends to a prisoner within their prison cell: Allan v United Kingdom [2002] IX Eur Court HR 41 at [35].
An unlawful interference with personal privacy is one which infringes an applicable law: Thompson at [49] and the authority there-cited.
An arbitrary interference extends beyond conduct which is unlawful. It is possible to have a lawful interference which is nevertheless arbitrary. An arbitrary interference with privacy is one which is capricious, or has resulted from conduct which is unpredictable, unjust or unreasonable in the sense of not being proportionate to the legitimate aim sought: Thompson at [55].
Mindful of the requirement for a contextual interpretation of the statute, in Deng v Australian Capital Territory [2024] ACTCA 10, the Court of Appeal has discussed the concept of arbitrariness in similar terms with respect of the right to liberty and security of person (s 18 of the Human Rights Act), citing (at [65]) Thompson at [55], among other authorities.
An example of an arbitrary interference with privacy in the context of a strip search is seen in Wainwright. The circumstances of that case involved a mother and her neurodiverse and physically disabled son. They were subjected to a highly invasive strip-search when visiting another son in prison. The mother’s genitalia were examined. The first son was stripped naked and his genitalia similarly examined in a highly intrusive way. Both were told that, if they did not consent, their visit would be denied. They were very shaken by the experience and alleged violation of their art 8 rights (among others). The European Court of Human Rights held that while such treatment did not rise as high as inhuman or degrading treatment to meet the minimum level of severity prohibited by art 3 of the ECHR, there was a violation of art 8 of the ECHR. The Court said that while it was satisfied the searches were lawful, it was not satisfied that the searches were proportionate to the legitimate aim (fighting the drugs problem in the prison), finding (at [48]) that “it behoves the prison authorities to comply strictly with those safeguards and by rigorous precautions protect the dignity of those being searched from being assailed any further than is necessary”.
One point of difference that arises here as opposed to what was under consideration in Islam is that the regime under the Corrections Act is directed to rights of review for decisions made concerning discipline and segregation. The decisions in question here were not disciplinary, nor were they matters of segregation. Indeed, as stated in the above explanatory statement, “the primary function of a prison or a remand centre is to hold people in secure custody.” The application for funeral leave constituted an exception to the primary function of the AMC.
The Request Procedure does not refer to any ability to appeal the outcome of a request that does not involve a complaint.
In practice, the evidence was that the general process adhered to for an Aboriginal detainee was as follows: (a) Once a detainee becomes aware of a funeral that they wish to attend, they fill out a Detainee Request Form, known colloquially as a “Bluey”. (b) The detainee must also complete a Prisoner Leave Application. (c) A corrections officer will assist the detainee to fill out the forms. (d) If the detainee is Indigenous, an Indigenous Liaison Officer (ILO) may also assist the detainee to make arrangements. (e) The ILO will ensure that the funeral provider has provided written confirmation of the time and date of the funeral as well as other relevant details such as the type of service. (f) The Unit Supervisor will add their own comments to the Request Form and Leave Application and provide them to the Area Manager for comment. The Area Supervisor will usually ensure that confirmation of the funeral has been provided and is included with the forms.
Section 141 of the Corrections Act provides for medical examination after the use of force and ensuring that appropriate health care is available to the detainee. That occurred in this case and there was no complaint about that aspect of the plaintiff’s treatment.
Section 142 of the Corrections Act requires that a record of the incident be kept and this was done.
The Corrections Act prescribes the conditions for the carrying out of the strip search (s 114): (a) The search must be done by a corrections officer of the same sex as the detainee and in the presence of one or more other corrections officers, each of whom must be of the same sex as the detainee: s 114(1). (b) The number of corrections officers present during the search must be no more than necessary and reasonable to ensure the search is carried out as safely and effectively as possible: s 114(2). (c) The corrections officer conducting the search may direct another corrections officer present to provide assistance that the conducting officer believes, on reasonable grounds, is necessary and reasonable for the search: s 114(3)). (a) A corrections officer may give directions to the detainee for the conduct of the search in accordance with s 114: s 114(4).
There are “general rules” set out in s 115 as follows (emphasis added): 115 Strip searches—general rules (1) A strip search must be conducted in a private area or an area that provides reasonable privacy for the detainee being searched. (2) The search must not be conducted— (a) in the presence of someone of the opposite sex to the detainee; or (b) in the presence or sight of someone else whose presence is not necessary for the search or the safety of everyone present. (3) The search must not involve— (a) the removal from the detainee of more clothes than is necessary and reasonable to conduct the search; or (b) the removal from the detainee of more clothes at any time than is necessary and reasonable to conduct the search; or (c) without limiting paragraph (b), both the upper and lower parts of the person’s body being uncovered at the same time. (4) Subject to section 126 (Searches—use of force), the search must not involve any touching of the detainee’s body by a corrections officer. (5) Each corrections officer present during the search must ensure, as far as practicable, that— (a) the search is done in a way that minimises embarrassment for the detainee; and (b) the search is done quickly; and (c) the detainee is allowed to dress in private immediately after the search is finished. (6) If clothing from a detainee is seized during a strip search, the director-general must ensure that the detainee is left with, or given, appropriate clothing to wear.
There must be a corrections policy or operating procedure in place in relation to strip searches carried out for reasons of prudence: s 113C(2).
There is a more prescriptive regime for body searches, and they may only be carried out in very specific circumstances. As I have not found on the facts of this case that a body search was either attempted or carried out, it is not necessary to set out the details of that carefully managed limit on a detainee’s human rights.
Under the heading “Strip Search”, the Searching Policy provided (materially to the circumstances of this case): This is a search of a prisoner, including all articles in the prisoner’s possession, which requires the prisoner to remove all of their clothes (though not all at the same time). The prisoner’s body and clothing will be searched. A strip search can only lawfully be authorised by a CO2 or above. In a non-Admissions strip search, authorisation should be given by as senior an officer as is operationally possible. … Strip searches must be conducted by two corrections officers of the same gender as the prisoner being searched. During the search, if the prisoner is compliant, corrections officers will have no physical contact with the prisoner.
The Searching Policy then referred to what a seizeable item is and when a corrections officer may conduct a strip search, echoing the statutory language of the Corrections Act set out above. It then inserted what constitutes a “reasonable suspicion” that a detainee is concealing a seizeable item: A reasonable suspicion arises where a corrections officer has grounds to believe that a prisoner is concealing a seizeable item. The grounds for this belief must be sufficient to satisfy another corrections officer that the prisoner may be concealing a seizeable item.
There was also an instruction from the General Manager of Custodial Operations, circulated on 20 September 2019 in evidence, concerning strip-searches, which stated: With immediate effect, detainees must not be required to ‘squat and cough’ during a strip-search under any circumstances. The reference to this practice in section 18 of the Searching Procedure 2010 is no longer in effect. Use of Force Policy
The third defendant made a decision to undertake a planned use of force on the plaintiff. That decision was made and purportedly implemented under the Corrections Management (Use of Force and Restraint) Policy 2020 (Use of Force Policy), which was in force at the time of the incidents. It has also been twice replaced since the incident.
Again, the principles underlying the implementation of the Use of Force Policy are relevant to the circumstances here. The material parts included: 4.1 Force must not be used as a means of punishment. 4.2 Staff must only use the minimal amount of force necessary where there are reasonable grounds to believe that the purpose for using force cannot be achieved in another way under the circumstances. 4.3 Any use of force must cease as soon as safety and security have been restored. 4.4 The use of force must be consistent with operating procedures, approved instruments and custodial officer training … 4.5 The duration of any use of mechanical restraints must be justified according to any continued risk to safety of the detainee or any other person. 4.6 Any staff member who uses force is required to justify their decisions and actions in order to meet reporting requirements … 4.7 The misuse of force may constitute: (a) misconduct; (b) a criminal offence … ; (c) a breach of section 10 of the Human Rights Act 2004 (ACT) protection from torture, or treatment or punishment in a cruel, inhumane or degrading way. …
Critically to this case, the Use of Force Policy included a very detailed section devoted to “Avoiding and Limiting the Use of Force or Restraint”, under which cls 5.2 and 5.3 state: 5.2 All reasonable efforts must be made to resolve a situation through dialogue according to section 6 [De-Escalation] without the use of force. 5.3 The use of force does not become necessary simply because a detainee has refused a staff member’s direction to do something. The staff member must take into consideration the consequences of the detainee’s non-compliance and the risk to the detainee or any else according to section 8 [Compliance use of force].
Clause 5.4 of the Use of Force Policy then includes the requirements of s 139(1) of the Corrections Act, set out above.
De-escalation was required under the Use of Force Policy. The material parts of that obligation were as follows: 6.1 Staff members must attempt to de-escalate each situation and respond to aggressive behaviour in a controlled and non-threatening manner. Verbal communication 6.2 As far as practicable, staff must speak slowly, calmly and confidently to explain the purpose or intention of resolving the situation. 6.3 When communicating with a detainee, staff must use clear, brief, assertive instructions and attempt to identify reasonable options for resolving a situation. …
What occurred in this case was a compliance use of force. That is dealt with in cl 8 (emphasis added): 8.1 A compliance use of force occurs in response to a detainee’s non-compliance with directions and warnings according to sections 5.4 and 5.5 where circumstances are sufficiently serious to justify the use. 8.2 Circumstances in which a compliance use of force may become necessary includes, but are not limited to: (a) searching a detainee in accordance with section 126 of the [Corrections Act] and Searching Policy … … 8.3 Staff must have regard to [the avoiding and limiting the use of force and de-escalation requirements of the policy] when deciding to use force to ensure a detainee’s compliance with directions.
The planned use of force carries with it a number of obligations on the Officer-in-Charge, relating to their attendance, their involvement, and their obligations. For the purposes of the planned use of force, the third defendant was the Officer-in-Charge. Material to the circumstances of this case are the following clauses: 9.4 As far as practicable, a Justice Health Doctor or Registered Nurse must attend a planned use of force to provide clinical advice to the Officer-in- Charge, or local commander in their absence. All clinical advice must be taken into consideration when making decisions. 9.5 The Officer-in-Charge must ensure: (a) all attempts have been made to resolve the situation through de-escalation; (b) that the use of force is the minimal amount necessary according to the risks; … (g) compliance with [the requirements of s 139(1) of the Corrections Act] …
There is a provision (cl 10) requiring, among other things, the video recording of the use of force on a hand-held camera in addition to the CCTV recording, which must include both the lead-up and aftermath of the incident.
There was no policy permitting the use of surgical scissors or a knife described as a Hoffman knife to be used as part of the use of force. To the extent that it was a ‘usual practice’ for a non-compliant strip search to have surgical scissors or a Hoffman knife present, that practice had no basis in any formal policy.
No party argued that these policies were incompatible with the statutory provisions. The arguments instead focussed on the lack of adherence to the policies and their implementation in the circumstances of this case. It is to those issues that I now turn.
What was not known to the Commissioner (and on the evidence, not known to either of the ILOs assisting the plaintiff with completing the form) was that the plaintiff was to read the eulogy at her grandmother’s sorry business, and the importance of her status and relationship with this particular deceased relative. This is not a criticism of either the plaintiff or the defendants and it is certainly not to be taken as saying that an Aboriginal person must justify the maintenance of the cultural practice or the strength of kinship ties. However, where the plaintiff was to be involved in such a critical role, those details of the funeral leave should perhaps have been mentioned when the applications for leave was being made. It is regrettable that the information was not before the second defendant. Whether it would have made any difference in the balancing exercise that was undertaken is unknown.
The key difficulty here was really that the funeral was in Narrandera. That created a resourcing issue for facilitating the exercise of the right for an individual in custody, in that the resource required was two to three officers for a considerable period of time, which required management of fatigue risk to the staff involved and had consequences for how the AMC was staffed with those officers away for the length of time. Ultimately, even if the plaintiff’s behavioural challenges required an extra officer, as I have said, nothing turned on that additional security measure. That was not the difference between approval and refusal of the leave.
I accept the resourcing difficulty was insurmountable by 11 January 2021, being the first time that an Application for Leave was submitted, which brought forward for consideration the logistics surrounding the plaintiff’s leave to maintain her cultural right.
What occurred on 11 January happened at speed. The third defendant was able to attend to the proper paperwork being completed, confirm the funeral details with the assistance of ILO 2, obtain the necessary security assessment (which was not high risk and therefore did not pose an insurmountable difficulty of itself, even accepting that what was required given the plaintiff’s history was an escort of three as opposed to two officers) and provide the material required for the making of the decision to executive support, who in turn was able to bring about a decision by the second-defendant by mid-afternoon. The only thing that required more time to arrange was the actual resourcing of the escort, given the broader consequences of that for the management of the detainee population at the AMC.
I therefore turn to the nature of the conduct insofar as it constituted the processes at the AMC. A lot of distress was caused, and a lot of ink has since been spilt, on the fact that the AMC should have been arranging to resource the escort on the evening of Friday 8 January 2021 at the latest, and that there was not an ILO working on the weekend. The plaintiff’s complaint about the systemic failure in that regard (objected to by the defendants as not being properly notified) must be put in perspective.
First, resourcing matters are management questions for the AMC. It is not for the court to pontificate about resources. Even on the Friday evening, it must have been unlikely that any application for leave to attend a funeral in Narrandera would be approved given the resourcing arrangements. They were as strained on the Friday evening as they were on the following Monday when the enquiries were made.
Second, how realistic it is to expect that anyone would be able to obtain a letter of confirmation from a funeral service provider over a weekend is a debateable proposition. The real issue was the fact that the confirmation was not obtained on the Friday. If the identity of the funeral provider had been known and supplied while the ILO usually attending to that task was on leave, any corrections officer could have made the phone call that secured the formal confirmation letter during regular business hours.
That is not to sanction the breakdown in the process on the Friday and over the weekend where the Application was not progressed. No doubt there is room for improvement, and it may be that the handover processes for outstanding requests being handled by ILOs have been revisited following the lacuna identified by this case. It is simply to explain why I do not accept that lack of resourcing constituted conduct incompatible with the plaintiff’s right under s 27.
A further aspect of the systemic failure about which the plaintiff complained was the failure to facilitate contingency planning such that a prompt final approval was able to be obtained, should there be a delay in ascertaining the exact location and time of the funeral. It was pointed out that from 6 January 2021, there was effectively a window of opportunity where corrections officers, including the third defendant, knew of the need to arrange an escort as a consequence of any leave being granted and that should have been sufficient time to address any logistics issues. The requirement to have the precise details meant that the metaphorical window gradually closed.
The defendants resisted any arguments as to systemic failure because they were not squarely put in the Originating Application so as to bring that issue properly before the court for hearing. I accept that difficulty arose to some extent in this case. It was a direct result of the manner in which this claim was brought forward and why an earlier part of these reasons attempted to provide guidance for parties as to when a pleading may be appropriate and the use it has in making sure that the parties in a human rights proceeding are not at cross-purposes as to the case to be resolved by the court. Accepting that human rights protection has at its core substance over form, that does not come at the cost of fair notice to a defendant.
However, when one steps back from all the paper in this case and the legal complexities, there are two perspectives that emerge. From the defendants’ perspective, the AMC is a big and busy place dealing with security and health challenges and many secure prisoner movements and requests every day. The requests for leave are a very small part of prison management and security. There have to be systems in place in order to manage those requests. Even where funeral leave for an Aboriginal detainee is at stake, applications for leave cannot just be approved in a broad-brush way or considered in advance of the material details being known, as it is those details that feed into resources and risk assessments, and what may be required to protect the community. If a detainee absconded while on prison leave or assaulted a victim who was not anticipating to be at an event with someone who was assumed to be lawfully held in custody, bigger questions will be asked about why leave was granted for the detainee to leave the AMC in the first place.
The defendants’ perspective was tellingly revealed in a number of submissions: (a) Strictly, it was the responsibility of the detainee to provide details about the funeral to enable the funeral arrangements to be confirmed, and to allow a decision to be made on the application. (b) The corrections officers (including ILOs who have greater cultural competency and stronger connections to the Aboriginal community) will assist detainees to complete the necessary paperwork and confirm funeral arrangements. (c) It was evident that the plaintiff has, after the fact, placed the responsibility for obtaining details of the funeral on ACT Corrective Services.
It is appreciated that in an ideal world, a fully completed application for leave submitted by a detainee more than two, three or even preferably even four days’ notice enables the timely arrangement of assessments and escorts to support funeral leave and the plaintiff’s human rights. That did not happen here. The plaintiff’s delay in receiving the required detail meant that the assessment and critically, the planned escort, was similarly delayed. That had a regrettable consequence for the plaintiff, materially due (as I have found) to matters outside the plaintiff’s control.
But the plaintiff does not live in an ideal world. From the plaintiff’s perspective, her first thought was whether there was even money for the funeral. Her second thought was how to get there given that she was in custody. She was overwhelmed by grief. She was unable to obtain the specific information she knew the AMC required, which was only supplied to her less than four days before the funeral. The plaintiff’s history was such that she has experienced generational social disadvantage (as acknowledged in the policy statement) which makes it harder for her to achieve what others may be able to rapidly progress. That was exacerbated by her being in custody.
These were part of this plaintiff’s circumstances which were a barrier to the exercise of her human right. Such fact is recognised in part by the employment of ILOs at the AMC in the first place, an attempt to level the playing field for this minority group. The plaintiff’s perspective which emerges (as I understood the overall thrust of her submissions), is to say to the custodial authorities one thing: that she depends on them. They have the discretionary exercise of power, she does not. She needs their systems to work effectively for her rights to be maintained. In this instance, reliance on the very system that was put in place to help her exercise her rights instead worked as a barrier against her. Through the forms, the processes that did not allow early planning or accommodate the provision of specific information later, and the reliance on ILOs who were then away without others picking up the task to get the requisite paperwork in order before the weekend, what was prescribed as permissible under the Corrections Act became unachievable.
This proceeding has shone a light on that friction, but it is not one the court can resolve through a finding of incompatible conduct in respect of s 27(1) of the HRC Act. That section does not guarantee a detained person an unconditional right to leave to attend a funeral of a relative. That is, because of her circumstances, the plaintiff did not have an unlimited right to maintain her cultural and kinship ties. In respect of that limit, the defendants had a process in place that I have accepted was lawful (reasonable and demonstrably justified) in accordance with the discussion of s 28 of the HRC Act above. They followed that process. The system that was in place similarly does not guarantee funeral leave as an outcome. That her right was not given effect in this instance does not mean that there has been incompatible conduct when the content of the right is taken into account.
To the extent that the system was imperfect or there were defects in the process – and accepting that the defects had a severe outcome for the plaintiff – any delay arising from the defect did not lie solely with the defendants. The staff involved at the AMC all acted in good faith in attempting to balance prison security and management alongside a human right that was difficult to support in this case due to the distance of the funeral from Canberra. Whether early planning for interstate escorts is something that the AMC management processes can improve or even accommodate is not for this court to determine. As a matter of law, taking into account all the circumstances, including the great distress that resulted to the plaintiff and the frustration that planning for an escort did not commence earlier, neither the Funeral leave decision nor the process deployed were incompatible with the rights (as limited) protected by s 27 of the Human Rights Act.
It remains to consider the alternative case founded on s 27, namely that brought under 40B(1)(b) of the Human Rights Act. I find that the second defendant discharged his obligation to give proper consideration (in accordance with the construction of that term above) to the plaintiff’s human rights when making the Funeral leave decision. In the urgent circumstances in which the decision was made, and taking into account the second defendant’s experience, the policies which factored in the importance of cultural practices and maintaining kinship ties in this instance through the input from the ILO in supporting the escort, and the countervailing factors that loomed large, the second defendant did not need to expressly record in writing all the matters he considered in order to demonstrate that proper consideration was given to the plaintiff’s human rights.
Separately though, even if it were accepted that there was a basis for the Officer in Charge to believe that a strip search was appropriate to guard against the risk of the plaintiff self-harming while in the CSU, the use of force policy made it clear that just because there was non-compliance with a direction did not mean that force must be used.
Nowhere does the third defendant as the Officer in Charge appear to have appreciated that she was dealing with a detainee on remand, who was grieving the loss of her grandmother and was being admitted to the CSU because she was considered to be at risk. This was a highly vulnerable plaintiff. The value of a multi-disciplinary response is that those who have experience with people in crisis can offer different perspectives and provide a more holistic balance of the considerations bearing on the ultimate decision to be made. In not involving the clinicians in the response and management of this plaintiff, the Officer in Charge deprived herself of key information and expertise. She also acted contrary to the At-Risk Policy.
Even accepting that the CSU Supervisor spoke to the plaintiff for half an hour, the evidence did not establish that all reasonable efforts were made to resolve the situation through dialogue or de-escalation strategies. The consequences of the detainee’s non-compliance (which the Use of Force Policy required to be taken into account) were that the plaintiff was going to require constant observation. However, because she was at risk, under the At-Risk Policy, aa heightened degree of observation was inevitable.
Additionally, there was no urgency for the decision to use force to be made at the time it was. The only reason there was any time pressure was because the Officer in Charge wanted to rule out the possession of a seizeable item on the plaintiff to avoid any incident later in the evening when personnel resources decreased. I do not accept that was a sufficient reason to ignore the very clear policy directives about avoiding the use of force, deescalating and attempting to identify reasonable options. The plaintiff was very much in the process of digesting the news of the Funeral leave decision and she was hostile to those who she thought had let her down. This included the ILOs. Another support person may have been appropriate in those circumstances, with observation in the meantime.
The authorisation of the use of force in the circumstances here was conduct incompatible with the plaintiff’s right to humane treatment while deprived of liberty and her right as a detainee on remand (who was At-Risk) to appropriate treatment, with what was appropriate being informed by the At-Risk and Use of Force policies. The plaintiff has thus established the authorisation of the Use of Force was incompatible with her rights under ss 19(1) and 19(3) of the Human Rights Act.
The plaintiff’s right to privacy (s 12) and her right to protection from degrading treatment (s 10(1)(b)) are more properly dealt with when addressing the implementation of the decision to use force for the purpose of a strip search under Issue 4.
If it is accepted that what occurred in terms of the movement of the plaintiff onto the floor was a reasonable use of force consistent with the Use of Force Policy, then the use of force did not cease as soon as ‘safety and security’ were restored. The plaintiff’s pleas that she could not breathe were apparently ignored in circumstances where she was not resisting and was calling out to a support person, with that support person being a corrections officer who was ready to assist but who was twice sent out of the cell.
I have taken into account that the conduct that is the subject of the complaint here occurred once, was short-lived and that the officers involved (including the Third Defendant) believed they were acting in good faith in ensuring that directions intended to protect the plaintiff from self-harm and the broader security of the AMC were adhered to.
Even so, the conduct unquestionably engendered feelings of fear in being unable to breathe and with the threat of her clothes being cut off in front of many people (male or female) while she was menstruating. The conduct plainly caused her anguish in what was occurring. The combined circumstances culminated in four officers sitting on top of her for a considerable period of time, while she pleaded to be left with the CSU Supervisor instead of having her clothes cut from her body with others observing, which is what the third defendant had readied herself to do by asking for “the knife”. That was a physical manifestation of the plaintiff’s inferiority. It humiliated and debased her. The conduct was of a level of severity that I find to be unlawful.
For those reasons, the implementation of the use of force and the attempted strip search in the cell was conduct incompatible not only with her rights to humane and appropriate treatment while deprived of liberty on remand, protected by ss 19(1) and 19(3), but with the plaintiff’s right to privacy under s 12, and with her right to protection from degrading treatment under s 10 of the Human Rights Act.
Recalling that Article 9 creates the privilege not only in relation to speeches and debates in Parliament, but also over “proceedings in Parliament”, s 16(2) then defines what is meant by that term (emphasis added): (2) For the purposes of the provisions of article 9 of the Bill of Rights, 1688 as applying in relation to the Parliament, and for the purposes of this section, proceedings in Parliament means all words spoken and acts done in the course of, or for purposes of or incidental to, the transacting of the business of a House or of a committee, and, without limiting the generality of the foregoing, includes: (a) the giving of evidence before a House or a committee, and evidence so given; (b) the presentation or submission of a document to a House or a committee; (c) the preparation of a document for purposes of or incidental to the transacting of any such business; and (d) the formulation, making or publication of a document, including a report, by or pursuant to an order of a House or a committee and the document so formulated, made or published.
The remainder of the section then prescribes the matters to which the privilege extends, with s 16(3) providing (emphasis added): (3) In proceedings in any court or tribunal, it is not lawful for evidence to be tendered or received, questions asked or statements, submissions or comments made, concerning proceedings in Parliament, by way of, or for the purpose of: (a) questioning or relying on the truth, motive, intention or good faith of anything forming part of those proceedings in Parliament; (b) otherwise questioning or establishing the credibility, motive, intention or good faith of any person; or (c) drawing, or inviting the drawing of, inferences or conclusions wholly or partly from anything forming part of those proceedings in Parliament.
The significance of the emphasised words in the section is to draw attention to what was under consideration here. A document will be protected by parliamentary privilege when it is created “for purposes of or incidental to ... the transacting of the business of a House ...”. In the Territory, “House” is read as though the reference was to the Legislative Assembly.
Here, the Report was a document which the plaintiff sought to tender for the purpose of inviting the court to draw inferences or conclusions from its contents. The issue was whether it was “proceedings in Parliament” in that it was created for the purpose just described.
A number of propositions flow from this understanding of the functional connection with the business of the Parliament. By way of examples taken from the authorities: (a) The privilege does not attach to every action of a parliamentarian in the pursuit of his or her vocation: Rowley at 221. (b) The privilege does not attach to all copies of a document prepared for a non-parliamentary purpose which is later used in Parliament: In the Matter of the Board of Inquiry into Disability Services [2002] ACTSC 28; 167 FLR 262 at [21]- [22]. (c) The privilege does not necessarily attach to a document prepared at the request of the Executive for the purposes of the Executive: Stewart v Ronalds [2009] NSWCA 277; 76 NSWLR 99 at [121]. Was there a functional connection here?
The legislation that has been considered below is that which was in force at the time the Report was published. For ease of comparison with regard to the legislation now in force, occasional reference has been made to the legislation now applying, being the Custodial Inspector Act.
That section has been substantially amended in the Custodial Inspector Act, and the mandatory requirements for the content of the report do not appear in the successor legislation. For the present exercise in statutory construction, what is material is the requirement to provide the report to the Legislative Assembly.
Section 28 allowed the Inspector to keep parts of a report confidential if there were public interest considerations against disclosure, and those considerations outweighed the public interest in favour of disclosure.
Section 29 dealt further with reports and provided when a report must be provided to the relevant Minister: 29 Draft report to relevant Minister and director-general (1) The inspector must give a draft copy of a report prepared under section 27 to the relevant Minister and relevant director-general at least 6 weeks before giving the report to the Legislative Assembly. (2) The relevant Minister and relevant director-general may provide comments in relation to the draft report to the inspector within the 6-week period. (3) The inspector— (a) must consider any comments made under subsection (2); and (b) may include the comments provided by the relevant Minister and relevant director-general as an attachment to the report; and (c) may, if the inspector is satisfied that amendment is an appropriate response to the comments, amend the draft report.
A similar but not identical provision appears in s 29 of the Custodial Inspector Act.
Finally, after provision of a draft report, s 30 provided for the presentation of the report to ACT Parliament: 30 Report to Legislative Assembly (1) The inspector must give a report prepared under section 27 to the Speaker. (2) The Speaker must present the report to the Legislative Assembly within 5 sitting days after receiving the report.
Section 30 has also been substantially amended in the Custodial Inspector Act but retains the requirement for the Inspector to give the report to the Speaker and the requirement for the Speaker to then present the report to the Legislative Assembly.
The fact that the Inspector was independent does not detract from that construction. That feature simply provides a layer of credibility to the scrutiny desired by the Legislative Assembly.
Those considerations led me to form the view that there was a functional connection between the Report and the purposes of the Legislative Assembly, such that the document was one to which parliamentary privilege attached.
As to the submission that this was a reproduction of the Report that was publicly available on a website, and that only the Report that was tabled in the Legislative Assembly attracted the privilege, the finding that there was a functional connection also means that any copy of the Report later reproduced for transparency on a website attracts the privilege.
To assist in explaining why, I have found it helpful to contrast the present Report with the example in British American Tobacco Australia Ltd v Secretary, Department of Health and Ageing [2011] FCAFC 107; 195 FCR 123 (British American Tobacco). In British American Tobacco, a document was prepared by the Executive and subsequently tabled before the Senate. The Full Federal Court held that whilst it attracted protection of s 16(3) of the Privileges Act upon being tabled (as the tabling was a “proceeding in Parliament”), subsequent republication of the document by the Executive was not “incidental” to the transacting of the business of the House, and no parliamentary privilege applied to the republished version: see [51]-[55] per Keane CJ, Downes and Besanko JJ.
This may be distinguished from circumstances where what was republished was a document that was not prepared at the behest of the Executive, but was instead prepared by virtue of the statute for purposes of or incidental to the business of the Legislative Assembly (as I have found). The legal status that attaches to such a document endures upon republication and thus the privilege endures: see Carrigan v Honourable Senator Michaelia Cash [2016] FCA 1466 (Carrigan) at [74]; and Amann Aviation Pty Ltd v The Commonwealth (1988) 19 FCR 223 (Amann) at 232-233.
The rationale behind the privilege applying in the latter case is that a party seeking to adduce direct evidence about proceedings in Parliament cannot escape the operation of the privilege simply by adducing a reproduced, altered or abstracted version of those proceedings. In Amann, a plaintiff was prevented from tendering a passage from Hansard, and likewise prevented from tendering a newspaper article that reproduced parts of the Hansard: see Amann at 232-233. In Carrigan, the plaintiff was prevented from tendering a publicly reproduced and redacted report that was previously tabled before the Senate: Carrigan at [74].
As the defendants submitted, to find otherwise would allow an absolute prohibition to be waived by a third party – a power that even the Parliament does not possess. To find otherwise would thus undermine the absolute nature of the privilege.
For those reasons, the Report was rejected as inadmissible.
The HR Commission deals with complaints in accordance with div 4.2 of the HRC Act. Section 47 of the Act provides that: (1) This division sets out how the commission deals with the complaints it receives. (2) In summary, complaints may, but need not, go through the following steps: (a) allocation; (b) consideration; (c) conciliation; (d) closure; (e) reporting. (3) Complaints need not go through the steps mentioned in subsection (2) in the order they appear in that subsection. …
For the “consideration” step, under div 4.4, and specifically s 72 of the HRC Act: A consideration in relation to a complaint must be conducted in the way the commission decides, unless otherwise expressly provided by this Act.
The language used in this section provides the Commission with a broad power as to procedure when considering complaints.
Section 73 of the HRC Act grants the HR Commission power to ask for information, documents and other things and is extracted below (emphasis added): 73 Power to ask for information, documents and other things (1) This section applies if the commission believes, on reasonable grounds, that a person can provide information or produce a document or something else relevant to a consideration in relation to a complaint. (2) The commission may, by written notice given to the person, require the person to provide the information or produce the document or other thing. (3) The notice must state how, and the time within which, the person must comply with the requirement. (4) A person commits an offence if— (a) the person is required by a notice under this section to provide information to the commission for a consideration in relation to a complaint; and (b) the person is not the complainant or the aggrieved person for the complaint; and (c) the person fails to provide the information to the commission as required. ...
The remainder of the section provides for further offences and exceptions and non-compliance with notices issued under s 73(2). That is important because it demonstrates that s 73 is a coercive power, backed by the threat of sanction.
It is only in circumstances where a notice is sent pursuant to s 73(2) of the HRC Act that the statutory privilege contained in s 75 of the HRC Act applies. Section 75 is in the following terms (italics added): 75 Privileges against self-incrimination and exposure to civil penalty (1) This section applies if a person is required by a notice under section 73 to provide information or produce a document or other thing. (2) This section also applies if— (a) a person is attending before an interviewer in accordance with a requirement under section 74; and (b) the interviewer requires the person to answer a question. (3) However, this section does not apply to a person mentioned in subsection (1) or (2) if the information, document or other thing to be produced, or question asked, relates to a consideration of a complaint under division 5.3 (Health care worker code of conduct). (4) The person cannot rely on the common law privileges against self-incrimination and exposure to the imposition of a civil penalty to refuse to provide the information, produce the document or other thing or answer the question. Note The Legislation Act, s 171 deals with client legal privilege. (5) However, any information, document or other thing obtained, directly or indirectly, because of providing the information, the producing of the document or other thing, or the answering of the question is not admissible in evidence against the person in a civil or criminal proceeding, other than a proceeding for— (a) an offence against this part; or (b) any other offence in relation to the falsity of the information, document, other thing or answer.
The italicised words are those that were inserted by the Amendment Act and indicate how the privilege in s 75(4) became s 75(5) in its current form, without any change to the substance of the provision.
The opening words of the provision make it clear that the section only operates if the person is required to produce information.
The above statutory framework thus provides for the HR Commission to determine the appropriate process for dealing with a complaint. It requires the HR Commission to notify the person who is the subject of the complaint. It permits the HR Commission flexibility as to how to obtain information.
I am fortified in that reading of the HRC Act by the amendments that were subsequently made. The context in which the preliminary inquiry power (now s 45(2), set out at [434] above) now sits includes the mandatory obligation to deal with complaints promptly and efficiently (s 45(1)) and the flexibility afforded in permitting the HR Commission to make the inquiries “it considers necessary and appropriate”.
As to the request letter itself, it was plainly not a letter issued pursuant to s 73 of the HRC Act. It was an initial letter of notification accompanied with an invitation to respond, backed by a thinly veiled threat that if the HR Commission were ignored, a compulsory notice was likely to follow.
As the response letter was not provided pursuant to a compulsory notice under s 73, the privilege under s 75(5) of the HRC Act did not apply. Accordingly, the response letter was admissible in the proceeding.
Consistent with those principles and applying Forster v Jododex Australia Pty Ltd (1972) 127 CLR 421 at 437-438, declaratory relief may thus be refused where: (a) The applicant does not have a real interest in the issue; (b) The issue is not real but hypothetical or theoretical (see also Russian Commercial & Industrial Bank v British Bank for Foreign Trade Ltd [1921] 2 AC 438 at 448); (c) The relief would fail to resolve the issues between the parties; or (d) There is no proper contradictor.
The difference between a “real” or “theoretical” issue was discussed in Martin v Taylor [2000] FCA 1002 at [27]. What constitutes a proper contradictor was discussed in Australian Competition and Consumer Commission v MSY Technology Pty Ltd [2012] FCAFC 56; 201 FCR 378 at [14]-[16]. Neither of those matters are in issue here.
Fifth, save in the case of a representative action (not this case), a declaration binds only the parties to the proceeding: see Australasian Oil Exploration Ltd v Lachberg (1958) 101 CLR 119 at 133-134. Ordinarily, a court will not make a declaration that certain rights or obligations exist, or do not exist, without the persons whose rights or obligations are in question being a party to the proceedings: Kunstler v Kunstler [1969] 1 WLR 1506 at 1509; and The Dairy Farmers’ Co-operative Milk Co Ltd v The Commonwealth (1946) 73 CLR 381 at 392.
Here, it is appropriate to grant declaratory relief for the following reasons: (a) The plaintiff does not have another remedy. (b) Past infringements of human rights may give rise to declaratory relief even without other legal consequences: Unions NSW v New South Wales [2023] HCA 4; 277 CLR 627 at [21]. (c) In the context where the limits on the Human Rights Act involve a discretionary exercise of public power, under a provision that authorises officers to impose detrimental consequences on a class of person who are generally not well-equipped to look after their own interests, the court should be slow to allow actions taken in excess of power to pass without comment or consequence, such that a broad approach to the availability of declaratory relief should be taken: Islam v Director-General, Justice and Community Safety Directorate [2022] ACTSC 124; 369 FLR 417 (Islam (2022)) at [67]. (d) Even if practices may have changed in the intervening period, there remains a public interest in defining and publicising the type of conduct that constitutes a contravention: see Rural Press Ltd v Australian Competition and Consumer Commission [2003] HCA 75; 216 CLR 53 at [95], cited in a human rights context in Islam (2022) at [64], which was in turn cited in Zurich Australian Insurance Limited v CIMIC Group Limited & Ors [2024] NSWCA 229; 115 NSWLR 297 at [588]. (e) At the very least, a declaration is appropriate to signify the court’s disapproval of the relevant conduct: Tobacco Institute of Australia Ltd v Australian Federation of Consumer Organisations Inc (No 2) [1993] FCA 105; 41 FCR 89 at 100, cited in Islam (2022) at [64].
The real question is who the declaration ought to bind. In my view, for reasons expressed at [19]-[25] above, the declaration should be made against the Territory in lieu of the second and third defendants.