[2022] NTSC 67
General information, not legal advice.
Supreme Court of the NT
2022-09-09
Burns J
Original judgment source is linked above.
STATUTES - Acts of parliament - Interpretation - Enabling Acts - Whole act to be considered
Application for leave to allege ICAC acted in bad faith pursuant to s 155 of the Independent Commissioner Against Corruption Act 2017 (NT) - Requirements necessary to establish tort of misfeasance in public office - Meaning of "substantial reasons for believing" in s 155(5) of the ICAC Act - Meaning of "bad faith" in s 155(5) of the ICAC Act - Meaning of "bad faith" and "good faith" will depend on nature of the act or omission alleged and elucidation of the purpose of the statute - Whether real reasons (as opposed to ephemeral or insubstantial reasons) for believing ICAC did not honestly believe they were acting in accordance with the ICAC Act - Onus on applicant to demonstrate substantial reasons - Application refused.
Abdel-Hady v Freund [2007] NSWSC 1247; (2007) 177 A Crim R 517, Applicant VEAL of 2002 v Minister for Immigration and Multicultural and Indigenous Affairs [2005] HCA 72; (2005) 225 CLR 88, Badawi v Nexon Asia Pacific Pty Ltd [2009] NSWCA 324; (2009) 75 NSWLR 503, Bankstown City Council v Alamdo Holdings Pty Ltd [2005] HCA 46; (2005) 223 CLR 660, Briginshaw v Briginshaw [1938] HCA 34; (1938) 60 CLR 336, Campbell v Northern Territory of Australia (No 3) [2021] FCA 1089, Cannane v J Cannane Pty Ltd (1998) 192 CLR 557, Director of Public Prosecutions v Losurdo [1998] NSWSC 16; (1998) 44 NSWLR 618, George v Rockett [1990] HCA 26; (1990) 170 CLR 104, Glynn v Independent Commission Against Corruption (1990) 20 ALD 214, Mauro v Hooper [2008] SASC 159, Mid Density Developments Pty Ltd v Rockdale Municipal Council [1993] FCA 408; (1993) 44 FCR 290, Northern Territory of Australia v Mengel (1995) 185 CLR 307, Obeid v Ipp [2016] NSWSC 1376; (2016) 338 ALR 234, Obeid v Lockley [2018] NSWCA 71; (2018) 98 NSWLR 258, Pharm-A-Care Laboratories Pty Ltd v Commonwealth of Australia (No 3) [2010] FCA 361; 267 ALR 494, Plaintiff M83A v Morrison (No 2) [2020] FCA 1198, Prior v Mole [2017] HCA 10; (2017) 261 CLR 265, Public Service Board of New South Wales v Osmand (1986) 159 CLR 656, Queensland Bacon Pty Ltd v Rees [1966] HCA 21; (1966) 115 CLR 266, Siano v Helvering (1936) 13 F Supp 776, Spencer v The Commonwealth of Australia [2010] HCA 28; (2010) 241 CLR 118, Tillmans Butcheries Pty Ltd v Australasian Meat Industry Employees' Union (1979) 42 FLR 331, Wingfoot Australia Partners Pty Ltd v Kocak [2013] HCA 43; (2013) 252 CLR 480, referred to.
Corruption (NT) & Ors [2022] NTSC 67
INDEPENDENT COMMISSIONER AGAINST CORRUPTION (NT)
(1) A person is not civilly or criminally liable for an act done or omitted to be done by the person in good faith when acting, or purportedly acting, in an official capacity.
(2) Subsection (1) does not affect any liability the Territory would, apart from that subsection, have for the act or omission.
(3) This section does not derogate from Part VIIA of the Police Administration Act 1978.
(4) If a person is alleged to have acted in bad faith when acting, or purportedly acting, in an official capacity, a civil or criminal proceeding for the act may only be brought by leave of the Supreme Court.
(5) The Supreme Court is not to grant leave unless satisfied there are substantial reasons for believing the person acted in bad faith.
(a) The PS contains allegations against the applicant that are false or misleading, in particular:
- The allegation that the applicant falsified student attendance records;
- The allegation that the applicant diverted and misapplied school funds away from educational resources and towards personal use;
- The allegation that the applicant undertook unjustified or improper travel at the School's expense;
- The allegation that the applicant failed to provide leadership and exhibited controlling behaviour, in that the School Council failed to hold a number of required Council meetings in 2018 and 2019, and failed to maintain proper and accurate minutes; and
- The allegation that the applicant employed four immediate family members under conditions or in circumstances that were unfavourable to the DOE or the School Council.
(b) Mr Fleming either knew these allegations were false or misleading, or was reckless as to that fact.
(c) The applicant was not provided with full and adequate particulars of the allegations sufficient for her to understand what was alleged against her and to provide a comprehensive response. The failure to provide these particulars "was made deliberately".
(d) The PS and the IR do not articulate any basis upon which it could be concluded that the applicant's denials of the allegations were unbelievable.
(e) Mr Fleming denied the applicant procedural fairness in:
- Making a decision to publish the PS to the public at large without giving the applicant prior notice and an opportunity to be heard in relation to the publication of the PS;
- Not giving the applicant a reasonable opportunity to respond to the draft IR; and
- Not including a fair summary of the applicant's responses to the draft IR in either the final IR or the PS.
(f) By reason of the above matters the PS was unlawful.
(g) In addition, the PS was unlawful because:
- It was not issued for a purpose authorised by s 55(2) of the ICAC Act;
- It contained adverse findings against the applicant, which is not permitted by s 55(2) of the ICAC Act;
- The making of the PS was an unreasonable exercise of power under s 55(2) of the ICAC Act; and
- Mr Fleming failed to consider relevant material, namely the applicant's responses to the allegations made in the draft IR.
(h) The IR was unlawful because of the matters set out at (a), (b), (c) and (d) above, and because:
- Mr Fleming failed to consider relevant material, namely the applicant's responses to the allegations made in the draft IR.
(i) By reason of the matters set out above, Mr Fleming engaged in the tort of misfeasance in public office in publishing and promoting the PS.
(j) Publication of the PS has caused the applicant harm.
(k) In publishing the PS, Mr Fleming intended to cause the applicant harm or was recklessly indifferent to causing her harm.
(l) In investigating the allegations made against the applicant, and in publishing and promoting the PS, Mr Fleming did not act in good faith as he made no real attempt to establish whether the allegations were true before publishing the PS, and he made no real attempt to comply with the applicable law, including the requirement for procedural fairness.
(m) The applicant also alleges that Mr Fleming had ulterior motives of "convenience and efficiency" in preparing the IR and PS, and in publishing the PS.
(a) "[I]t is my intention to prepare a Report pursuant to section 50 [of the ICAC Act] in respect of alleged corrupt conduct by you".
(b) "Before I finalise such a Report...I have an obligation to give you a reasonable opportunity to respond to any adverse material in such a Report."
(c) "I note that you attended an examination before Mr Rex Wild...over a number of days in 2020."
(d) "Please find attached the relevant parts of the draft report I have prepared in respect of the matter which I have been investigating involving corrupt conduct by you."
(e) "The statements in the draft report are tentative findings only on my part."
(f) "I will not make concluded findings in respect of your conduct until you have been given reasonable opportunity to respond..."
(g) "The adverse material consists of the matters I have recorded in the relevant part of the draft report."
(h) "In the event that I do not hear from you in that time, I will conclude my report."
The applicable principles concerning proof of the tort of misfeasance in public office were set out by Flick J in Pharm-a-Care Laboratories Pty Ltd v Commonwealth (No 3) [2010] FCA 361; 267 ALR 494 at [57]- [70], and also by Kenny J in Polar Aviation (No 4) at [101]-[111]. Her Honour appeared to cite with approval Flick J's descriptions of the tort in Pharm-a-Care. Their Honours' careful and thorough exposition of the authorities relieves me of the need to do more than adopt, with respect, their Honours' respective articulation of the applicable principles. Both of their Honours' summaries return to the High Court's decision in Northern Territory v Mengel [1995] HCA 65; 185 CLR 307 for first principles. I also accept the fundamental relevance to the issues on these applications of what was said by the House of Lords in Three Rivers. The following points are of significance in my reasoning on the present applications.
Misfeasance in public office is a "deliberate tort": Mengel at 345, 357, 370-371; Sanders v Snell [1998] HCA 64; 196 CLR 329 at [42]; Pharm-a-Care at [58]; Polar Aviation (No 4) at [102]; Obeid at [154], [171].
In Mengel, Brennan J explained what the state of mind required (at 357):
[T]he mental element is satisfied when the public officer engages in the impugned conduct with the intention of inflicting injury or with knowledge that there is no power to engage in that conduct and that that conduct is calculated to produce injury. These are states of mind which are inconsistent with an honest attempt by a public officer to perform the functions of the office. Another state of mind which is inconsistent with an honest attempt to perform the functions of a public office is reckless indifference as to the availability of power to support the impugned conduct and as to the injury which the impugned conduct is calculated to produce.
In his reasons in Mengel, Deane J described three ways in which the mental state could be satisfied where the act was done (at 370-371):
(a) "with an actual intention to cause such injury": or
(b) "with knowledge of invalidity or lack of power and with knowledge that it would cause or be likely to cause such injury"; or
(c) "with reckless indifference or deliberate blindness to that invalidity or lack of power and that likely injury".
The connection between the unlawfulness relied upon and the state of mind of a respondent was explained by Brennan J in Mengel (at 357):
The state of mind relates to the character of the conduct in which the public officer is engaged - whether it is within power and whether it is calculated (that is, naturally adapted in the circumstances) to produce injury.
In other words, it is the knowing abuse of public power which is the gravamen of the tort.
In Three Rivers at 191, Lord Steyn described the tort as involving "the unifying element of conduct amounting to an abuse of power accompanied by subjective bad faith". Just prior to this, his Lordship had observed on the same page that there were two different forms of liability for misfeasance:
First there is the case of targeted malice by a public officer, i.e. conduct specifically intended to injure a person or persons. This type of case involves bad faith in the sense of the exercise of public power for an improper or ulterior motive. The second form is where a public officer acts knowing that he has no power to do the act complained of and that the act will probably injure the plaintiff. It involves bad faith inasmuch as the public officer does not have an honest belief that his act is lawful.
At 192, Lord Steyn explained why English law should adopt the same approach already taken by the High Court in Mengel, and by the New Zealand courts, and recognise reckless indifference to the illegality as a state of mind sufficient for the tort:
The policy underlying it is sound: reckless indifference to consequences is as blameworthy as deliberately seeking such consequences.
In Commonwealth v Fernando [2012] FCAFC 18; 200 FCR 1, a case which involved misfeasance allegations based on an alleged unlawfulness by way of denial of procedural fairness, and therefore a situation with some similarities to the present set of allegations at least in MIPO 1, the Full Court said (at [130]):
A finding that a Commonwealth Government Minister has deliberately exercised an important statutory power knowing that, in doing so, he was acting unlawfully is properly to be characterised as grave. The legal consequences are potentially serious as too is the effect on the Minister's reputation. In circumstances in which, on the facts found, conflicting inferences are open and one of those inferences is favourable to the respondent, the Court will not be satisfied that the applicant's case has been proved to the necessary standard. For the reasons which we have explained this is such a case.
(a) The defendant must be the holder of a "public office"; and
(b) In the matter relevant to the claim, the defendant must have purported to exercise a power attached to that public office; and
(c) The exercise of the power must have been unlawful; and
(d) The defendant must have exercised the power:
- knowing that they were acting in excess of power and with the intention of causing harm to the claimant; or
- with reckless indifference to whether they were acting in excess of power and being recklessly indifferent to harm being suffered by the claimant; and
(e) The claimant must have suffered harm as a consequence of the exercise of the power.[4]
The meaning of "substantial reasons for believing" in s 155(5) of the ICAC Act
(a) The jurisdiction to terminate an action summarily is to be sparingly employed and only in clear cases, because a litigant ought not to be deprived of the opportunity to bring their case to trial in the ordinary manner unless the absence of merit is clearly demonstrated;
(b) In assessing whether to grant leave, the applicant's case should be taken at its highest;
(c) In assessing whether to grant leave, the Court should bear in mind that Mr Fleming will hold the onus of proving at trial that he acted in good faith and is entitled to the benefit of the defence under s 155 of the ICAC Act; and
(d) Where facts are peculiarly within a defendant's knowledge, a claim should not be summarily dismissed because of gaps in the claimant's case if the necessary evidence might be obtained as a result of discovery or interrogatories.
...The term "substantial" has been the subject of judicial pronouncement in many contexts. It was the subject of comment by the Court of Appeal in Director of Public Prosecutions (NSW) v Losurdo [1998] NSWSC 16; (1998) 44 NSWLR 618; 103 A Crim R 189 and by the Court of Criminal Appeal in R v Kennedy (1997) 94 A Crim R 341.
The analysis of the use of the term "substantial" generally commences with the oft cited passage in Tillmanns Butcheries Pty Ltd v Australasian Meat Industry Employees Union (1979) 42 FLR 331 at 348:
The word "substantial" is not only susceptible of ambiguity; it is a word calculated to conceal a lack of precision ... [I]t can, in an appropriate context, mean real or of substance as distinct from ephemeral or nominal. It can also mean large, weighty or big. It can be used in the relative sense or can indicate an absolute significance, quantity or size.
Usually it has two distinct meanings: either "of substance" or "in substance". As such it has two quite distinct effects. The first of them is to use the words "substantial" to qualify "existence at all" and is used in contra-distinction to the term "nominal" or "ephemeral" and can often mean "significant" (see for example Tillmanns Butcheries; O'Brien Glass Industries Ltd v Cool & Sons Pty Ltd [1983] FCA 191; (1983) 77 FLR 441).
The second or later use of the term "substantial", meaning "in substance", is used to qualify "totality" and is used in the sense of essential, primary examples of which would be "substantial compliance" or "substantially all" (see Bonnard v London General Omnibus (1921) 38 RPC 1; Re: Bonny [1986] 2 Qd R 80; Re: Migliorini; Ex parte Silk Bros (Interstate Traders) Pty Ltd (1973) 22 FLR 491; Marc A Hammond Pty Ltd v Papa Carmine Pty Ltd [1976] 2 NSWLR 124; Palser v Grinling [1948] AC 291; Chatsworth Investments Ltd v Amoco (UK) Ltd [1968] 1 Ch 665; Re Burford [1932] 2 Ch 122; AE Terry's Motors Ltd v Rinder [1948] SAStRp 19; [1948] SASR 167; Commissioner for Superannuation v Scott (1987) 13 FCR 404).[15]
A suspicion that something exists is more than a mere idle wondering whether it exists or not; it is a positive feeling of actual apprehension or mistrust, amounting to "a slight opinion, but without sufficient evidence", as Chamber's Dictionary expresses it.[18]
The objective circumstances sufficient to show a reason to believe something need to point more clearly to the subject matter of the belief, but that is not to say that the objective circumstances must establish on the balance of probabilities that the subject matter in fact occurred or exists: the assent of belief is given on more slender evidence and proof. Belief is an inclination of the mind towards assenting to, rather than rejecting, a proposition and the grounds which can reasonably induce that inclination of the mind may, depending on the circumstances, leave something to surmise or conjecture.[20]
The meaning of "bad faith" in s 155(5) of the ICAC Act
In Bankstown City Council v Alamdo Holdings Pty Ltd [2005] HCA 46; (2005) 223 CLR 660, the plurality (Gleeson CJ, McHugh, Gummow and Hayne JJ) also referred to the difficulty in defining the circumstances in which the immunity granted by a counterpart of s 215(2) may apply, at [50]:
[G]iven the range of advice, acts and omissions to which s 733(1) may apply, what is required for something to be done or omitted in good faith may vary from one case to the next. This makes it unwise, if not impossible, to place a definitive gloss upon the words of the statute.
However, some propositions emerge from the authorities:
(a) provisions such as s 215(2) are generally construed strictly: Board of Fire Commissioners (NSW) v Ardouin [1961] HCA 71, (1961) 109 CLR 105 at 116 (Kitto J); Puntoriero v Water Administration Ministerial Corporation [1999] HCA 45; (1999) 199 CLR 575 at [33]- [37];
(b) something more than the mere commission of a tort is necessary because, unless there be a tort, there would be no liability attracting the need for good faith defence for which the statute provides: Little v Commonwealth [1947] HCA 24; (1947) 75 CLR 94;
(c) depending on context, the term "good faith" may be a reference to an actual state of mind, irrespective of the quality or character of the causes which induce it, so that something will be done, or omitted to be done, in good faith if the party was honest, albeit careless. Alternatively, the term may be a reference to an objective standard ,i.e., requiring the exercise of the caution and diligence to be expected of an honest person of ordinary prudence: Mid Density Developments Pty Ltd v Rockdale Municipal Council [1993] FCA 408; (1993) 44 FCR 290 at 298; Cannane v J Cannane Pty Ltd [1998] HCA 26; (1998) 192 CLR 557 at 596 (Kirby J in dissent);
(d) a failure to attempt to discharge the function or duties conscientiously may amount to a lack of good faith, as may a conscious ignoring of the means by which a statutory duty or function may be discharged: Alamdo at [49];
(e) there may be a want of good faith even though the respondent has not acted dishonestly: Alamdo at [49];
(f) there will be an absence of good faith if the person had no intention of exercising the power for the purpose for which it was granted, or had no honest belief in the state of facts which would have excused the wrongful act: Webster v Lampard [1993] HCA 57; (1993) 177 CLR 598 at 606;
(g) good faith may require a state of mind or knowledge other than personal honesty and absence of malice: Alamdo at [50]; Mid Density Developments at 299. As already noted, in the latter case it was said, at 300, that good faith requires more than "honest ineptitude". In Mid Density Developments, that "something more" was lacking because of the absence of a "real attempt" by the offices of the Council to provide accurate information in response to a request made to it - see also State of South Australia v Clark [1996] SASC 5499; (1996) 66 SASR 199 at 234; and
(h) the respondents have the onus of establishing the defence: Vines v Djordjevitch [1955] HCA 19, (1955) 91 CLR 512 at 519; Webster v Lampard at 606; and Alamdo at [54].[22]
In the present case, it will be wrong to assume that when used in the relevant legislation the phrase "anything done or omitted to be done in good faith" (in s 582A (1) of the Local Government Act) and "in respect of any advice provided in good faith" (in s 149(6) of the EPA Act) operate to leave the respondent liable only in respect of dishonesty.
These provisions, on their face, are designed to strike a balance between (i) the interests of the authority which is funded by public not private funds and which, pursuant to statute, provides the information, and (ii) the interests of the recipient of the information and others reasonably acting upon it where, in the ordinary course, those persons may be expected to incur substantial liability on the face of what is disclosed by the authority. It is the individual interest to yield to what might be called the wider public interest unless the conduct of the authority may be stigmatised as dishonest? In our view, the statutes do not bring about that result.[26]
The statutory concept of "good faith" with which the legislation in this case is concerned calls for more than honest ineptitude. There must be a real attempt by the authority to answer the request for information at least by recourse to the materials available to the authority. In this case there was a failure to meet that standard.[27]
(a) the Council, as the issuing authority was a publicly funded body;
(b) the Council was aware that third parties relied on the contents of the certificates it issued in making decisions which could result in those parties incurring substantial liabilities; and
(c) the legislature had evinced in the relevant legislation a desire to balance the need to protect public funds and the legitimate interests of those who relied on the representations made by the Council.
The words "good faith" and "acted in good faith" appear in many statutes in virtually all countries of the common law. It would be erroneous to suggest that a single meaning could be adopted, indifferent to the particular statutory context. It has been remarked that, putting it broadly, the words "good faith", or their Latin equivalents, have received "two divergent meanings". The first is a broad or subjective view which requires inquiry into the actual state of mind of the person concerned, irrespective of the causes which produce it. The second involves the objective construction of the words by the introduction of such concepts as an absence of reasonable caution and diligence. The particular interpretation apt to the use of the words in a given legislative context will depend on the decision-maker's elucidation of the purpose of the legislature. Thus, a phrase in a taxing statute excusing "failure in good faith to observe and comply with the requirements of" specified laws has been held to involve something more than the state of mind of the taxpayer...[30]
Something first must be said respecting the sense in which the phrase "in good faith" is used in s 733(1)(b). Mid Density Developments Pty Ltd v Rockdale Municipal Council concerned the absence of any adequate system for the council to respond, when issuing certificates under s 149 of the EPA Act, to questions by the vendor and later the purchaser respecting the flooding of the particular land under contract. In that setting, it was held that, whilst not dishonest, the council had not acted in good faith. There had been no attempt to supply information by recourse to the council's records and there was no system in operation for doing so. Indeed, the council officer whose responsibility it was to deal with the requests for information had consciously ignored the very records which would have supplied it.
Reference was made in Mid Density to various examples in the law where "good faith" is used as a criterion requiring some state of mind or knowledge other than the personal honesty and absence of malice of the relevant actor. Moreover, given the range of advice, acts and omissions to which s 733(1) may apply, what is required for something to be done or omitted in good faith may vary from one case to the next. This makes it unwise, if not impossible, to place a definitive gloss upon the words of the statute.
In Mid Density, the standard of conduct against which the Council's conduct in issuing the s 149 certificates was to be assessed was apparent from the importance of the information sought for the routine processes of conveyancing.[32]
The object of this Act is to address wrongdoing in, or connected with, public administration by:
(a) preventing or minimising the occurrence of improper conduct; and
(b) improving public confidence that improper conduct will be detected and dealt with appropriately; and
(c) providing incentives and reducing disincentives to persons to assist in the detection, reporting, investigation, prosecution and prevention of improper conduct; and
(d) protecting persons who put themselves at risk of harm by exposing or reporting improper conduct; and
(e) augmenting the Territory's existing framework for responding to improper conduct by establishing an Independent Commissioner Against Corruption intended to:
(i) investigate the most serious, systemic and sensitive improper conduct; and
(ii) ensure that other improper conduct is dealt with, either by an appropriate existing entity or, if the ICAC considers it appropriate, by the ICAC; and
(iii) coordinate a response to improper conduct when multiple entities have jurisdiction in relation to the matter; and
(iv) facilitate the prosecution of offences involving improper conduct.
(a) to identify and investigate improper conduct;
(b) to protect persons who have assisted or may assist in detecting, preventing, investigating or otherwise responding to improper conduct;
(c) to prevent, detect and respond to improper conduct by:
(i) developing and delivering education and training; and
(ii) auditing or reviewing practices, policies and procedures of public bodies and public officers; and
(iii) developing and delivering advice, reports, information and recommendations; and
(iv) referring matters to a referral entity for investigation or further investigation, disciplinary action or prosecution; and
(v) making public comment;
(d) to oversee and direct, as required, how referral entities deal with matters referred to them by the ICAC;
(e) to perform other functions conferred on the ICAC under this or another Act.
(2) The ICAC may perform functions under this Act in relation to any matter that may involve improper conduct.
(3) Without limiting subsection (2), the ICAC is to:
(a) give priority to dealing with matters that, in the ICAC's opinion, may involve corrupt conduct or serious anti‑democratic conduct; and
(b) refer other matters that may involve improper conduct to a referral entity, unless there is a good reason for the ICAC not to refer the matter.
(4) Without limiting subsection (3)(b), it is a good reason for the ICAC not to refer a matter to a referral entity if referring the matter:
(a) may adversely affect the performance or future performance of the ICAC's functions; or
(b) may reveal the identity of a protected person.
(5) Subject to this Act, the ICAC may perform the ICAC's functions in any manner the ICAC considers appropriate.
Schedule 1 Matters ICAC to take into account in performing functions
(a) acting and being seen to act fairly and impartially
(b) not interfering with an individual's rights, privileges or privacy, beyond what is reasonably necessary to carry out ICAC's functions effectively;
(c) upholding the rule of law;
(d) the separation of powers, including the independence of the judiciary and the Legislative Assembly's right to control its own affairs;
(e) cultural sensitivity and the reasonable accommodation of persons with special needs;
(f) persons in positions of seniority or power in the public sector exhibiting appropriate behaviour commensurate with those positions;
(g) public officers and public bodies taking responsibility for ensuring improper conduct is detected and dealt with appropriately;
(h) ensuring offences involving improper conduct are investigated and prosecuted;
(i) the general deterrence of improper conduct;
(j) the ICAC obtaining, and continuing to be able to obtain, information about improper conduct;
(k) minimising the risk of retaliation;
(l) the proper functioning of democratic processes;
(m) avoiding prejudice to current and possible future prosecutions.
(a) the ability and capacity of public officers and public bodies to perform their functions, especially if those functions involve critical or front-line services;
(b) investigations by law enforcement agencies;
(c) current and possible future legal proceedings.
(a) considering alternatives to carrying out an investigation in order to prevent or minimise improper conduct;
(b) prioritising the most serious, systemic and sensitive matters;
(c) prioritising matters with present relevance;
(d) considering relevant statutory timeframes for related prosecution or disciplinary action;
(e) considering the extent to which a matter has already been investigated;
(f) considering the extent to which relevant and reliable evidence of improper conduct is available;
(g) referring matters to a referral entity;
(h) giving directions and guidance to a referral entity;
(i) taking back a matter from a referral entity;
(j) declining to investigate matters as appropriate;
(k) generally altering a course of action according to information received in order to meet changing circumstances.
(a) the desirability of the public sector being open and accountable to the public;
(b) the benefit of exposing improper conduct to public scrutiny;
(c) the extent to which allegations of improper conduct are already in the public domain;
(d) the extent to which allegations of improper conduct raise issues of continuing public interest;
(e) the risk that a person may suffer undue hardship, including undue prejudice to the person's reputation;
(f) the needs of persons who have assisted in identifying or investigating improper conduct and particularly the need to protect information that may identify those persons;
(g) any views expressed by persons who would be affected by a decision whether to handle a matter in private or public;
(h) the educational value and benefit to research and policy development of sharing details of matters about which the ICAC has particular knowledge.
(a) By making no real attempt to determine the truth of the allegations against the applicant before publication of the reports.
(b) By making no real attempt to comply with the provisions of the ICAC Act or to afford procedural fairness.
(c) By prejudging the outcome of the investigation and being motivated to publish the reports by irrelevant considerations.
No real attempt to determine the truth of the allegations before publication of the reports
(a) the nature and extent of the false and misleading content in the IR and PS;
(b) the irrational or incomplete reasoning contained in the IR and PS in support of the allegations;
(c) the general and conclusory way in which the allegations are expressed in the IR and PS without reference to specific incidents or factual allegations;
(d) the ease with which the respondents could have checked the truth and accuracy of the content of the IR and PS by reference to the extensive investigative powers of the respondents, and the persons and records identified by the applicant as relevant;
(e) the steps taken within the investigation which prevented the applicant from being able to effectively respond to the allegations including:
- providing the applicant only limited and misleading information about the subject-matter of the investigation in advance of her examination;
- prohibiting the applicant from speaking to Milingimbi School staff or others about the allegations;
- removing the applicant from Milingimbi School and with it her ability to access to relevant records;
- expressing the allegations in general and conclusory terms in the IR and PS without reference to specific incidents of facts, and failing to identify the material facts underlying the allegations;
- restricting the applicant's access to evidence relied upon by the ICAC; and
- limiting the applicant's time to respond;
(f) the simplistic engagement of the IR and PS with complex issues;
(g) the failure of the IR and PS to identify and meaningfully grapple with the applicant's response to the allegations given during her examination and in response to the draft proposed IR and PS;
(h) the failure of the IR and PS to offer any serious explanation for why evidence of the applicant (including documentary evidence) was rejected save asserting in general and impenetrable terms that her explanations (not identified in the IR or PS) were against the "weight of the evidence" (also not identified in the IR or PS) and could not be believed; and
(i) the failure to obtain evidence from relevant staff at Milingimbi School involved in the financial decision-making and other conduct the subject of the investigation.
The Commission's function in a public enquiry is investigative. It bears no relation to a civil or criminal trial before a court with jurisdiction to resolve factual and legal issues in a dispute between contending parties: Duncan v Independent Commission Against Corruption [2016] NSWCA 143 at [690].
There is no right to cross-examine at a public enquiry. This may only occur with the leave, and the area of questioning is restricted to any matter that the Commission considers relevant (s 34). The obligation does not extend to giving all of the procedural and evidentiary protections of adversarial proceedings. There is no right for affected persons to call further evidence and there is no obligation on the Commission, akin to the prosecutorial duty, to call all material witnesses.
To satisfy the condition of procedural fairness, ICAC was obliged to adopt a procedure which conformed to that procedure which a reasonable and fair repository of the power to be exercised would adopt in the circumstances: Kioa v West [1985] HCA 81; (1985) 159 CLR 550 at 627; WZARH v Minister for Immigration and Border Protection (2015) 90 ALJR 25 at [53].[65]
Inevitably such an Inquiry will expand and moved into new or different areas, within its terms of reference, as it progresses. What is necessary is that by the end of the hearing, a party potentially affected by an adverse finding have the opportunity to meet it by submission, and if necessary, by evidence.[67]
Whether or not...the content of the report can be justified as a real attempt to determine the truth of the matters with which it deals is a complex question of mixed fact and law to be determined at trial by reference to the explanations given at trial for deficiencies in the report. The Defendants have elected on the application for leave not to adduce any evidence providing a factual foundation for the serious allegations made in the report.
No real attempt by the ICAC to comply with the provisions of the ICAC Act or to afford procedural fairness
(1) The ICAC may make a report (an investigation report) on an investigation to a responsible authority for a public body or public officer whose conduct is the subject of the investigation.
(2) If the ICAC proposes to make an adverse finding about a person or body in an investigation report, the ICAC must give the person or body a reasonable opportunity to respond to the adverse material and include a fair representation of the response in the report.
(a) contain as much information as the ICAC considers appropriate in relation to the subject matter of the investigation to which the inquiry relates; and
(b) include a finding as to whether a person has engaged in, is engaging in or is about to engage in, improper conduct; and
(c) include information as to whether an allegation of improper conduct has been referred to, or in the ICAC's opinion warrants referral to, a referral entity.
An investigation report may contain recommendations - see section 56.
(4) However, an investigation report must not include a finding:
(a) as to whether a person has committed, is committing or is about to commit, an offence or a breach of discipline; or
(b) as to the prospects of success of any current or future prosecution or disciplinary action.
(5) For subsection (4), a finding that a person has engaged, is engaging or is about to engage in improper conduct is not a finding that the person is guilty of or has committed, is committing or is about to commit an offence or a breach of discipline.
(6) For an investigation report made to the Speaker or Deputy Speaker, the Speaker or Deputy Speaker must table a copy of the report in the Legislative Assembly on the next sitting day after the Speaker or Deputy Speaker receives the report.
(a) for a public body or public officer other than a minister or an MLA:
(i) an entity having authority to deal with one or more matters relating to improper conduct the subject of the investigation to which the report relates; or
(ii) an entity whose functions include making future decisions in the public interest that may be better informed by receipt of the investigation report; or
(b) for a minister or an MLA other than the Speaker - the Speaker; or
(c) for the Speaker - the Deputy Speaker.
(1) This section applies in relation to a particular matter that the ICAC is dealing with or has dealt with, including a matter the ICAC has referred to a referral entity.
(2) The ICAC may make a statement in relation to the matter for any of the following purposes:
(a) to provide information about action taken or that may be taken by the ICAC in relation to the matter;
(b) to indicate that it would be inappropriate for the ICAC to comment on the matter;
(c) to refuse to confirm or deny anything in relation to the matter;
(d) to seek evidence in relation to the matter in the course of preliminary inquiries into, or an investigation of, the matter;
(e) to provide information about a referral, including the outcome of the referral;
(f) to address public misconception about a person or issue of which the ICAC has particular knowledge;
(g) to request the Legislative Assembly to authorise the publication, or disclosure to the ICAC, of information or an item that is or may be the subject of parliamentary privilege.
(3) The ICAC may make a public statement, in a manner determined by the ICAC, to:
(a) the public at large; or
(b) a section of the public; or
(c) a particular person or body.
(a) after 31 January 2021, the ICAC released five public statements before Mr Fleming left office;
(b) it was the practice of Mr Fleming to release public statements where adverse findings were to be made, but not otherwise.
(a) the refusal by Mr Fleming on 28 May 2021 to grant the applicant an extension of time in which to provide a response to the draft IR;
(b) the timing of the release of the PS on 5 July 2021, being Mr Fleming's last day in office; and
(c) the "unsatisfactory way" in which the PS addressed the applicant's response and the lack of any evidence of investigation of the matters raised in that response.
(a) "There are five reports that we should hand down before I leave, and there are another three matters that may be coming close to completion before I leave as well"; and
(b) "The five matters will garner a lot of public interest".
I am informed by the Deputy Chief Executive Officer of the Office of the Independent Commissioner Against Corruption of the Northern Territory and believe that it was a practice of the former Independent Commissioner Against Corruption to make a public statement where findings of improper conduct were made.
[2] Northern Territory of Australia v Mengel (1995) 185 CLR 307 at 345; Obeid v Lockley [2018] NSWCA 71; (2018) 98 NSWLR 258 at [225].
[3] [2020] FCA 1198 at 306 [58]- [66].
[4] See generally, Pharm-A-Care Laboratories Pty Ltd v Commonwealth of Australia (No 3) [2010] FCA 361; 267 ALR 494 at [57]- [70] and the cases cited therein.
[5] Badawi v Nexon Asia Pacific Pty Ltd [2009] NSWCA 324; (2009) 75 NSWLR 503 at [82].
[6] Tillmans Butcheries Pty Ltd v Australasian Meat Industry Employees' Union (1979) 42 FLR 331 at 348.
[7] Tillmans Butcheries Pty Ltd v Australasian Meat Industry Employees' Union (1979) 42 FLR 331 at 348.
[8] See generally, Spencer v The Commonwealth of Australia [2010] HCA 28; (2010) 241 CLR 118.
[9] [1938] HCA 34; (1938) 60 CLR 336 at 362 per Dixon J.
[10] [2017] HCA 10; (2017) 261 CLR 265 at [24] per Gaegler J.
[11] Prior v Mole [2017] HCA 10; (2017) 261 CLR 265 at [4] per Kiefel and Bell JJ, at [24] per Gaegler J and at [100] per Gordon J.
[12] Director of Public Prosecutions v Losurdo [1998] NSWSC 16; (1998) 44 NSWLR 618 at 622G.
[13] Macquarie Dictionary Eighth Edition (2020).
[15] Abdel-Hady v Freund [2007] NSWSC 1247; (2007) 177 A Crim R 517 at [31]- [34] per Rotham J.
[16] Briginshaw [1938] HCA 34; (1938) 60 CLR 336 at 362-363 per Dixon J.
[18] Queensland Bacon Pty Ltd v Rees [1966] HCA 21; (1966) 115 CLR 266 at 303 per Kitto J.
[19] [1990] HCA 26; (1990) 170 CLR 104 at 115-116.
[20] [1990] HCA 26; (1990) 170 CLR 104 at 116.
[22] Campbell v Northern Territory of Australia (No 3) [2021] FCA 1089 at [821]- [822] per White J.
[23] Campbell v Northern Territory of Australia (No 3) [2021] FCA 1089 at [823].
[25] Mid Density Developments Pty Ltd v Rockdale Municipal Council [1993] FCA 408; (1993) 44 FCR 290 at 298.
[26] Mid Density Developments Pty Ltd v Rockdale Municipal Council [1993] FCA 408; (1993) 44 FCR 290 at 299.
[27] [1993] FCA 408; (1993) 44 FCR 290 at 300.
[29] (1936) 13 F Supp 776 at 780.
[30] Cannane v J Cannane Pty Ltd (1998) 192 CLR 557 at 596 per Kirby J.
[32] Bankstown City Council v Alamdo Holdings Pty Ltd [2005] HCA 46; (2005) 223 CLR 660 at 674 [49]- [51].
[33] Cannane v J Cannane Pty Ltd (1998) 192 CLR 557 at 596 per Kirby J.
[60] Public Service Board of New South Wales v Osmand (1986) 159 CLR 656; Wingfoot Australia Partners Pty Ltd v Kocak [2013] HCA 43; (2013) 252 CLR 480.
[63] [2016] NSWSC 1376; (2016) 338 ALR 234 at [84] per Hammerschlag J.
[64] Applicant VEAL of 2002 v Minister for Immigration and Multicultural and Indigenous Affairs [2005] HCA 72; (2005) 225 CLR 88 at 93.
[65] Obeid v Ipp [2016] NSWSC 1376; (2016) 338 ALR 234 at [87]- [89] per Hammerschlag J.
[67] (1990) 20 ALD 214 at 218-219.
Sherrington
Independent Commissioner Against Corruption
(2005) 225 CLR 88
(2009) 75 NSWLR 503
(2005) 223 CLR 660
(1938) 60 CLR 336
(1998) 192 CLR 557
(1998) 44 NSWLR 618
(1990) 170 CLR 104
(1993) 44 FCR 290
(1995) 185 CLR 307
(2016) 338 ALR 234
(2018) 98 NSWLR 258
(2017) 261 CLR 265
(1986) 159 CLR 656
(1966) 115 CLR 266
(2010) 241 CLR 118
(1979) 42 FLR 331
(2013) 252 CLR 480
(1983) 77 FLR 441
(1973) 22 FLR 491
(1987) 13 FCR 404
(1961) 109 CLR 105
(1999) 199 CLR 575
(1947) 75 CLR 94
(1993) 177 CLR 598
(1996) 66 SASR 199
(1955) 91 CLR 512
(1985) 159 CLR 550
(2015) 90 ALJR 25