[2025] WADC 70
General information, not legal advice.
District Court of WA
2025-10-03
Mr J
Original judgment source is linked above.
What are the circumstances of this application?
(a) this action against the defendant, PGQW, as his employer at the time of the incident; and
(b) another action[4] against the Partnership which, he claimed, was responsible for his 'supervision, management and occupational, health and safety' in the course of his employment with PGQW at the time of the incident.
(a) at all material times, there was a contract of services between PGQW and the Partnership pursuant to which Bradley Shackleton was to provide his services as a manager of PGQW (Management Contract);
(b) the Management Contract was partly written, partly oral and partly to be inferred;
(c) by reason of the Management Contract, Mr Shackleton owed to PGQW's employees (including Mr Preitz):
(i) a common law duty of care to discharge his obligations as manager competently so as not to expose them to unnecessary risk of injury; and
(ii) a statutory duty of care[8] to take such practicable measures as to ensure that persons at the workplace were not exposed to hazards;
(d) Mr Shackleton breached those duties, including by failing to:
(i) implement safe systems and procedures of work in connection with the use of flammable substances and welding;
(ii) adequately train and supervise Mr Preitz in connection with the use of flammable substances and welding; and
(iii) train and instruct workers on the location of fire extinguishers;
(e) if PGQW is liable in damages to Mr Preitz then the Partnership is liable to indemnify PGQW in respect of those damages or, alternatively, to contribute to them as a joint tortfeasor.[9]
(a) denies the Management Contract asserted against it;
(b) pleads that from or about 1998, Mr Shackleton was employed by PGQW;
(c) says that in about 2004, the principal of PGQW proposed that the Partnership be created and that the Partnership then enter into a profit share agreement with PGQW;
(d) says that despite the Partnership being created and occasionally rendering invoices to PGQW:
(i) the Partnership never received a share of profit from PGQW;
(ii) Mr Shackleton continued to work for PGQW as an employee; and
(iii) PGQW did not relinquish control or supervision to Mr Shackleton or the Partnership;
(e) pleads that PGQW owed its employees duties pertaining to the health and safety and processes and procedures in the operation of its business, and did not delegate those duties to Mr Shackleton; and
(f) says that PGQW is not entitled to be indemnified by, or to claim a contribution from, the Partnership.
(a) subpars 4.5.8 and 4.5.9 contain minor proposed amendments, which are not contentious[10] and are not addressed in these reasons;
(b) the substantive proposed amendments are contained in pars 8.7, 8.8, 10, 11 and 12 of the Minute;
(c) subpar 8.7 is to the effect that PGQW held Mr Shackleton out as its manager when it knew or ought to have known that he had no training, qualifications or experience in that role (and particulars of the alleged knowledge are given);
(d) subpar 8.8 is to the effect that PGQW knew that Mr Shackleton had no training, qualifications or experience in occupational health and safety role (and particulars of the alleged knowledge are given);
(i) at all material times, Mr Shackleton acted on the instructions of PGQW;
(ii) at all material times, it was an implied term of the contract between PGQW and Mr Shackleton that PGQW would indemnify Mr Shackleton for any negligent acts in carrying out those instructions; and
(iii) in the circumstances, pursuant to s 7(1)(c) and s 7(2) of the Contribution Act, PGQW is precluded from recovering from the Partnership and/or the Partnership should be exempt from making any contribution;
(f) par 11 is to the effect that, if Mr Shackleton was an employee of PGQW then he is entitled to be indemnified under a workers' compensation and employer's liability policy held by PGQW;
(g) par 12 is to the effect that, if Mr Shackleton was not an employee of, but was a manager of, PGQW, then the Partnership is entitled to be indemnified under a 'Business Pack Policy' held by PGQW; and
(h) PGQW has raised objection to the amendments proposed in pars 8.7 and 10, but is otherwise silent as to the substance of the proposed amendments.
(a) a certificate is tendered under DCR r 43(3A)(a)[12] on behalf of any party in the case; or
(a) that have arisen since the time expired for amending a pleading without the court's leave; and
(b) that ground the party's or the legal practitioner's argument that the amendment is necessary.
(a) impose responsibilities, not just on the court, but on legal practitioners to assist the court so as best to ensure the attainment of the objects in the conduct of litigation;[15] and
(b) are relevant to the exercise of discretion, in the interests of justice, to grant leave to amend pleadings under RSC O 21 r 5.[16]
(a) the effect of an amendment on the court and on other litigants is relevant;
(b) there is no right to amend to introduce an arguable case and it is wrong to say that only in extreme circumstances would a party be shut out from litigating an arguable case;
(c) justice requires that parties have a proper opportunity to plead their case, but limits may be placed on repleading when delay and cost are taken into account;
(d) a just resolution does not mean that a party will always be permitted to raise any arguable case at any point in the proceedings, on payment of costs, even indemnity costs;
(e) the inevitable strains of litigation must be taken into account in weighing the adverse consequences of delay - this applies to natural persons and other litigants;
(f) the nature and importance of the amendment to the party amending must be taken into account;
(g) attention must be given to the extent of the delay, and the costs associated with it, the prejudice which might reasonably be assumed to follow from it and any prejudice that is shown;
(h) the point in the litigation relative to the trial may be an important consideration;
(i) where a discretion is sought to be exercised in favour of a party, an explanation will be called for;
(j) the point can be reached where a party has had a sufficient opportunity to put its case.
(a) a court will not grant leave to amend a pleading into a form which is liable to be struck out - that is, where it is vague, ambiguous or pleaded at too great a level of generality so as to leave the other party in doubt as to how to respond to the pleading;
(b) however, the approach to be taken to objections to proposed pleadings requires a degree of flexibility and must be directed to the attainment of the objectives set out in RSC O 1 r 4B; and
(c) while it is necessary that a pleading set out with reasonable clarity and detail the case that the other party must meet, the focus must be on whether the pleading is sufficient for the fair and proper disposition of the case, not whether it complies meticulously with the rules of pleading.
Should leave to amend be given and, if so, on what terms?
(a) although the certificate of the plaintiff's counsel was filed on 30 June 2025, that certificate is expressly confined to the pleadings as between the plaintiff and the defendant;
(b) on 4 July 2025, counsel for PGQW filed a certificate in terms of DCR r 43(3A)(a); and
(c) accordingly, pursuant to DCR r 48A(3), I find that leave to amend any pleadings in the TPP was required after 4 July 2025.
(a) although the action has been on foot since 2021, the TPP have only been on foot since 28 April 2025;
(b) the only party opposing the application is PGQW, and the plaintiff has made no submissions in relation to delay, and so the issue of delay is properly assessed in the context of the TPP;
(c) PGQW filed and served a statement of claim in the TPP on 15 May 2025 and the Partnership, having sought and been refused an extension of time to file a defence,[20] filed its defence on 9 June 2025;
(d) the need for leave to amend arose on 4 July 2025 upon the filing by PGQW of a pleadings certificate; and
(e) the application was brought on 19 August 2025 (being around two months from the date of the defence and a little over a month from the date that leave became necessary).
(a) on 27 May 2025 the Partnership's lawyers wrote to PGQW's lawyers seeking a modest extension of time (from 29 May to 20 June 2025) within which to file a defence, citing various steps that it sought to take; and
(b) on 29 May 2025, PGQW's lawyers responded in terms that that request was declined on the basis that:
(i) the Partnership had 'been on notice' for some time and had consented to third party directions (which included the time for filing a defence); and
(ii) the plaintiff's solicitors had resisted any delay;
(c) although the action against the Partnership had been commenced in 2021, there were no pleadings or discovery in those proceedings and the Partnership was not copied into the pleadings or discovered documents in the present proceedings until it was joined;[21]
(d) PGQW's list of discoverable documents was served on 7 July 2025 and inspected on 28 July 2025;[22]
(e) the Partnership's lawyers took further instructions from Mr Shackleton, related to the proposed amendments, on 10 July 2025.[23]
(a) contrary to DCR r 22(1) - r 22(2), the Partnership did not confer and has not filed a certificate of conferral in relation to the application;[24]
(b) the affidavit evidence does not state the grounds for the application 'as required by RSC O 59 r 3(3)'[25] - although I note that, in the present context, that requirement is contained in DCR r 48A(3)(b).
(a) the Partnership was joined relatively recently to the action and, prior to that time, had not been served with the plaintiff's statement of claim and PGQW's amended defence in the action;
(b) at the time of filing its defence, the Partnership:
(i) had requested copies of insurance policies held by PGQW at the time of the incident, which requests had been refused;
(ii) had requested an extension of time to file its defence, which request was refused by PGQW;
(iii) filed a defence based on the evidence available to it at that time; and
(iv) had not inspected the documents listed in PGQW's list of documents (which was served on 9 July 2025);
(c) the Partnership has now inspected the documents listed in PGQW's list of documents, a limited number of which were directly relevant to the TPP; and
(d) the Partnership has made a claim of indemnity under policies of insurance held by PGQW at the time of the incident.
(a) seeks to raise a defence in terms of pars 11 and 12 of the Minute, but did not have the relevant policies of insurance at the date of filing its defence; and
(b) seeks to raise a defence as to the nature of Mr Shackleton's role with PGQW, and the implications of the asserted nature of that role on the respective liability of the parties in the TPP, but did not (and does not) have all the documents relevant to that issue at the time of filing the defence.
(a) PGQW was on notice from 27 May 2025[28] that the Partnership considered it needed more time to file a defence because it sought to:
(i) seek further and better particulars of the statement of claim in the TPP;
(ii) make further enquiries about the policies of insurance held by PGQW; and
(iii) issue fourth party notices (against the relevant insurers);
(b) at the listing conference on 7 July 2025, and in a subsequent pleadings certificate filed on 16 July 2025, the Partnership again raised the issue of amending its defence. Accordingly, PGQW could not be taken by surprise by the application, although it was also not given the opportunity to consider the particular amendments before the application was brought; and
(c) given PGQW's attitude to extending time to file a defence (in circumstances where the basis for the request was articulated and where the Partnership had only recently been joined), I do not consider that compliance would have averted the need to make the application.[29]
Are the disputed amendments defective or embarrassing?
The Defendant held Bradley Shackleton out as the Defendant's Manager when at all material times the Defendant knew or ought to have known that Bradley Shackleton had no training, qualifications or experience in that role.
(a) inconsistent with the Partnership's denial that Mr Shackleton was a manager; and
At all material times, there was a contract for services between the Defendant and the Third Party, the terms of which included that Mr Shackleton would provide his services as Manager of the Defendant in consideration for which the Defendant would pay the Third Party the fixed sum of $6,600 per fortnight including GST.
10.1. At all material times Bradley Shackleton was acting on instructions from in the Defendant;
10.2. At all material times, at law, it was an implied term of the employment contract between the Defendant and Bradley Shackleton that the Defendant would indemnify Bradley Shackleton for any negligent acts which arose from carrying out those instructions;
10.3. Pursuant to s 7(1)(c) of the Law Reform (Contributory Negligence and Tortfeasors' Contribution) Act 1947, the Defendant is precluded from recovering contribution from Bradley Shackleton or Larelle Shackleton in respect to any liability to the Plaintiff; and
10.4. Further and in the alternative, by reason of the matters pleaded in paragraphs 4 and 8 above, the court should exempt Bradley Shackleton and Larelle Shackleton from liability to make any contribution, pursuant to s 7(2) of the Law Reform (Contributory Negligence and Tortfeasors' Contribution) Act 1947.
Is it in the interests of justice to grant leave to amend?
(a) the respective responsibilities of PGQW and the Partnership for the safety of Mr Preitz; and
(b) PGQW's claim for indemnity or contribution in relation to its liability to Mr Preitz arising from its admitted breach of the duty it owed to him.
(b) has, throughout the proceedings, known of the identity and involvement of Mr Shackleton;
(d) some five months later, on 22 March 2022, filed an amended defence; and
(e) some three years after the action commenced, sought leave, and less than three months before the action was listed for trial, obtained leave, to join the Partnership as a third party on the basis that it was in the interests of justice that the issues between them be tried in the action.[41]
(a) at the time it brought the application, only been involved in the action for around three months;
(b) having been joined to the proceedings, but before having been served with the statement of claim in the TPP, consented to the third party directions; and
(c) following receipt of the statement of claim in the TPP, requested and was refused a three-week extension of time within which to file its defence.
(a) the uncontested affidavit evidence is that the Partnership had not received the pleadings in the action before it was joined;
(b) although the Partnership knew of the action and the circumstances giving rise to it, that could not put it in a position to know the pleaded cases of the plaintiff and defendant in the action, let alone the case that would be put against it by PGQW;
(c) when the Partnership consented to the third party directions, it had not yet been served with the statement of claim in the TPP; and
(d) although the interests of the plaintiff in progressing the action are clearly relevant, it is difficult to see how the need to file an incomplete defence on 9 June 2025, and then make the present application to amend it, has assisted.
(a) my conclusions in relation to the disputed amendments; and
(b) the absence of particular objection having been raised as to the balance of the proposed amendments, and my conclusions in relation to the procedural objections,
I am satisfied that leave should be granted to amend the defence in terms of the Minute, subject to the requirement to provide particulars.[42]
I certify that the preceding paragraph(s) comprise the reasons for decision of the District Court of Western Australia.
[1] In these reasons, PGQW refers to the defendant and its predecessor, Boxline Industries Pty Ltd.
[2] Reliance Capital Pty Ltd v Caratti [No 6] [2024] WASC 21 (Reliance Capital) [3].
[3] Mann v Bankwest - A Division of Commonwealth Bank of Australia [2020] WASCA 35 (Mann) [80].
[4] District Court No. CIV 3573 of 2021.
[5] Affidavit of Alison Frances Hagan, made on 9 September 2025 (Second Hagan Affidavit), par 17; third party's outline of submissions filed 11 September 2025 (TP Submissions), pars 7 - 8.
[6] Defendant's amended defence filed 18 March 2022, pars 2.9 - 2.11.
[7] Service of the third party notice was effected on 28 April 2025: Affidavit of Alison Frances Hagan made on 16 July 2025 (First Hagan Affidavit), par 24.
[8] Pursuant to s 22 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act 1984 (WA) (ceased) (OSH Act).
[9] Pursuant to the Law Reform (Contributory Negligence and Tortfeasors' Contribution) Act 1947 (WA) (Contribution Act).
[10] Subparagraphs 4.5.8 and 4.5.9 of the Minute: Defendant's outline of submissions filed 11 September 2025 (Defendant's Submissions), par 8.
[12] Being a certificate that the legal practitioner who will appear at trial for the party has reviewed the pleadings and is satisfied that they adequately define all the issues of fact or law that the party contends will need to be determined at trial.
[13] And subject to RSC O 18 r 6, r 7 and r 8 and O 20 r 19(2) - r 19 (5).
[15] Hooper v Cockles Pty Ltd [2025] WASCA 143 [14] - [16].
[16] Mann [80]; Aon Risk Services Australia Ltd v Australian National University [2009] HCA 27; (2009) 239 CLR 175 (Aon Risk Services) [111].
[17] Hightime Investments Pty Ltd v Lungan [No 2] [2010] WASC 296 (Hightime) [52].
[18] Frank Jasper Pty Ltd v Deloitte Touche Tohmatsu (a firm) [2006] WASC 24 (Frank Jasper) [11] - [13], with authorities cited therein.
[19] Water Corporation v Cardno BSD Pty Ltd [2009] WASCA 212 [19].
[20] First Hagan Affidavit, pars 13 - 14.
[21] Second Hagan Affidavit, pars 13, 17, 25 - 26 and 35.
[22] Second Hagan Affidavit, pars 34 and 39.
[23] Second Hagan Affidavit, pars 36 - 38.
[24] Defendant's submissions, par 7(a) - 7(b).
[25] Defendant's submissions, par 7(c).
[26] In support of the application, the Partnership has filed the First Hagan Affidavit, the Second Hagan Affidavit and the affidavit of Natasha Simone Barton made on 19 August 2025 (Barton Affidavit).
[27] First Hagan Affidavit, pars 18 - 24; Second Hagan Affidavit pars 34 - 40.
[28] First Hagan affidavit, pars 13 - 14.
[29] See, for example, Argosy Strata Plan SP 21513 v CHU Underwriting Agencies Pty Ltd [No 3] [2015] WADC 37.
[30] Defendant's submissions, pars 9 - 11; ts 12 - ts 15.
[31] Koolan Iron Ore Pty Ltd v GHD Pty Ltd [No 2] [2022] WASC 442 [39].
[32] See, for example, Reliance Capital [35].
[34] Frank Jasper [16] - [17]; Kernel Holdings Pty Ltd v Rothmans of Pall Mall (Australia) Pty Ltd [1991] FCA 557; (1991) 217 ALR 171, 173.
[36] Defendant's Submissions par 10, citing Lister v Romford Ice & Cold Storage Co Ltd [1956] UKHL 6; [1957] AC 555; Voli v Inglewood Shire Council [1963] HCA 15; (1963) 110 CLR 74, 100 and Munting v Pollard [2024] TASSC 30 [338].
[40] Third party submissions, pars 20 - 26.
[41] That application was supported by the affidavit of Zan Bosman, filed on 28 November 2024, setting out the inquiries and investigations leading to the application.
[42] As set out in [49] - [51] hereof.
Aon Risk Services Australia Ltd v Australian National University [2009] HCA 27; (2009) 239 CLR 175
Argosy Strata Plan SP 21513 v CHU Underwriting Agencies Pty Ltd [No 3] [2015] WADC 37
Frank Jasper Pty Ltd v Deloitte Touche Tohmatsu (a firm) [2006] WASC 24
Hightime Investments Pty Ltd v Lungan [No 2] [2010] WASC 296
Hooper v Cockles Pty Ltd [2025] WASCA 143
Kernel Holdings Pty Ltd v Rothmans of Pall Mall (Australia) Pty Ltd [1991] FCA 557; (1991) 217 ALR 171
Koolan Iron Ore Pty Ltd v GHD Pty Ltd [No 2] [2022] WASC 442
Lister v Romford Ice & Cold Storage Co Ltd [1956] UKHL 6; [1957] AC 555
Mann v Bankwest - A Division of Commonwealth Bank of Australia [2020] WASCA 35
Munting v Pollard [2024] TASSC 30
Reliance Capital Pty Ltd v Caratti [No 6] [2024] WASC 21
Voli v Inglewood Shire Council [1963] HCA 15; (1963) 110 CLR 74
Water Corporation v Cardno BSD Pty Ltd [2009] WASCA 212
(2009) 239 CLR 175
(1991) 217 ALR 171
(1963) 110 CLR 74