[2026] WASC 64
General information, not legal advice.
Supreme Court of WA
2026-03-13
Gething J
Original judgment source is linked above.
Application deemed withdrawn without exercise of due diligence by AHPRA in April 2020. Deeming provisions arbitrary (commencement, duration, reversal, definition, discretion, exercise) Serious Economic Loss; Irreversible damage to medical practice and standing of medical practitioner Denial of natural justice in non-appealable decision not to renew and to apply as new registrant Information sought recorded with and available to AHPRA for several years. Abuse of process by AHPRA in (a) failing to allow renewal (b) delay in implementing lapse causing loss of ability to deal with application as a renewal rather than new application de novo (c) failure to consider impact on retrospective lapsing of medical registration on practitioner, patients and damage to medical practice No provision in Act to lapse of licence and registration retrospectively No provision in Act to register unrestricted for 6 months, then withdraw registration Refund of registration fees unsolicited Patient and other provider claims made during period of registration (lapsed retrospective to Sept. 2019) declared null and void, causing hardship and loss to patients, practitioner and loss to 3rd party service providers. Retrospective lapse and delay to implement (January to April) caused practitioner to sustain losses of supplies ordered and not useable due to loss of license, legal obligations entered into as medical practitioner in the belief that full medical registration was accepted by AHPRA. Unconscionable conduct by AHPRA in their excessive and reckless use of statutory power. Unreasonable delay in attending to and limiting damage caused by unappealable decision not to renew license. Change of registration status applied by AHPRA (Sept'19 - Mar'20) after accepting renewal has legal implications for services rendered during the registration period, later withdrawn by AHPRA. Failure by AHPRA to consider hardship on practitioner - who has solo medical practice in limbo, unable to earn an income in the interim when matter is being adjudicated (e.g. locum, emergency, areas of need). Inability to be listed in the Pandemic register. Disproportionate sentence on practitioner for any error in form-filling of Renewal of Registration. Practitioner performing essential service in community. Breaches by AHPRA of Regulatory Principles for the National Scheme. Reckless action by AHPRA in the administration of the National Scheme resulting in damage to the public, other health service providers and the practitioner. Unnecessarily punitive action taken against practitioner without decision by a properly constituted Board, Panel or Tribunal. Authorisation by middle management to take severe action such as deemed withdrawal of licence without specific evidence of such - causing loss of licence to practice, economic hardship to practitioner and family, damage to medical practice during pandemic already affecting nation. Damage to public in removing a currently practising medical practitioner from active near full-time community medical practice when AHPRA has organised Pandemic Register to bring health practitioners with lapsed registrations (up to 3 years). Delay by AHPRA to redress registration renewal 'deficit/s' Excessive use of powers available to AHPRA as a registration body.
(a) failed to ensure that medical records were held securely and not subject to unauthorised access;
(b) failed to facilitate the appropriate transfer or management of patient records on closing or relocating a practice;
(c) failed to appropriately store medication;
(d) failed to provide information to the Board; and
(e) failed to notify AHPRA of a change of his principal place of practice and/or address the Board should use to send correspondence.
Jurisdictional Error
Denial of procedural fairness
Breach of model litigant obligations
Errors of Law
In the interest of justice
My medical registration, renewed unconditionally annually since 1975, was renewed in September 2019 (unconditionally) despite 2 complaints AHPRA received in 2018. AHPRA renewed my registration whilst investigating the complaints.
In March 2020, AHPRA caused my registration to be cancelled by deeming my renewal application a primary application for registration which was withdrawn. Absent were the pre-requisite requirements under National Law (notice, show-cause, hearing, appeal, review period). I discovered my cancellation when Medicare payments ceased payments, telling patients I was no longer registered. I could not work unregistered.
I commenced action against AHPRA in May 2020 at SAT (VR50/2020). SAT restored registration unconditionally after 3 months and I was required to withdraw my action. The matter did not go to trial, so enabling AHPRA/Medical Board to bring the current action
VR53/2020 the following month, based on the same facts seeking a conduct finding, fine, legal costs and registration encumbrances, thus avoiding issue estoppel and res judicata. (Grounds listed in annexure)
This matter was raised in case management of VR53/2020 and Justice Pritchard advised a formal application was required to reopen VR50/2020.
Pursuant to s 47(1) of the State Administrative Tribunal Act 2004 (WA) (SAT Act), the proceedings in VR 71/2021 are dismissed on the basis that they are misconceived, alternatively, to the extent that s 49 of the SAT Act applies, leave to commence the proceedings is refused.
(1) This section applies if the Tribunal believes that a proceeding -
(a) is frivolous, vexatious, misconceived or lacking in substance; or
(b) is being used for an improper purpose; or
(c) is otherwise an abuse of process.
(2) If this section applies, the Tribunal may order that the proceeding be dismissed or struck out and make any appropriate orders.
(3) The Tribunal's powers to act under subsection (2) are exercisable only by a legally qualified member.
(4) The Tribunal may act under subsection (2) on the application of a party or on its own initiative.
That brought an end to the proceeding in VR 50 of 2020. That outcome reflected the fact that Dr Nugawela had had success, in the sense that the relief that he sought, namely his reregistration, was achieved and that he was registered as a medical practitioner from September 2020.
In this case, the proceeding in VR 50 of 2020 was withdrawn. The only decision that Dr Nugawela seeks to have reviewed by virtue of the application in VR 71 of 2021 is the deregistration decision. As I have said, that decision has been overtaken by events, namely, that Dr Nugawela's registration was, in fact, reinstated and he presently remains a registered medical practitioner. It is far from apparent that the Tribunal could take any action or make any order which would achieve an outcome different from that which Dr Nugawela has already achieved himself, namely, that the deregistration decision was set aside and a new decision made, to register Dr Nugawela as a medical practitioner. There would, therefore, be no utility in the 'reinstatement' (to use Dr Nugawela's description in VR 71 of 2021) of the proceeding in VR 50 of 2020.
That is not the end of the matter. The purpose behind the application in VR 71 of 2021 appears, on the face of the application and having regard to what Dr Nugawela has said today, to be something different from securing Dr Nugawela's registration. In effect, Dr Nugawela is concerned that at least one of the issues that underlay the deregistration decision is now being litigated by the Board as part of disciplinary proceedings in another matter in the Tribunal, in VR 53 of 2020.
This application (in VR 71 of 2021) appears really to be motivated by a desire on Dr Nugawela's part to achieve an order which he has described as a stay of VR 53 of 2020, pending the determination of issues 4 and 6 in the context of proceedings akin to those in VR 50 of 2020. I do not see any basis to 'reinstate' the proceeding in VR 50 of 2020. Nor do I see any utility in doing so, in order to postpone the disciplinary proceedings in VR 53 of 2020, which have been on foot since June 2020.
Drawing all those threads together, the conclusion I have reached is that if this is a case in which the leave of the Tribunal is required under s 49 for Dr Nugawela to proceed with VR 71 of 2021, then leave should be refused. I do not see how the Tribunal would have any jurisdiction to grant the relief sought by Dr Nugawela, which would effectively be no different from the relief that he effectively achieved in VR 50 of 2020. There is certainly no utility, on the basis of the information presently available to me, in the Tribunal permitting a proceeding of that kind to proceed.
If the present proceeding, in VR 71 of 2021, is simply regarded as the commencement of a new proceeding, so that leave is not required, then I am not persuaded that the proceeding should be permitted to continue. The proceeding, in my view, is misconceived and should be dismissed under s 47 of the SAT Act.
Third Application - Court of Appeal CACV 102 of 2021
(a) the decision in the Second Application be stayed pending determination of the Third Application;
(b) the Second Application be reopened to allow determination of unresolved issues in the First Application; and
(c) the hearing of the proceedings in the 2020 Disciplinary Application (VR 53 of 2020) be vacated and rescheduled, pending determination of the appeal (that is, the Third Application).
I add that the hearing in VR 53 of 2020 was scheduled for the following day, 27 October 2021.
It was our view that the appellant's application to extend time dated 7 October 2022 should be dismissed, for the following reasons.
First, the appellant's conduct of the appeal up to and including 16 September 2022 has been characterised by chronic delays, only part of which, in the period December 2021 to April 2022, could plausibly be explained by ill health. Secondly, there is no cogent explanation for failing to comply with the order of 26 August 2022. The matters referred to by the appellant in his affidavit... are difficult to accept at face value, and without further explanation, given that, on 26 August 2022, his application to consolidate this appeal with CACV 70 was dismissed. Thirdly, the proposed grounds of appeal do not engage with the judge's reasons in the primary decision. Ground 1 is expressed in sweeping terms, the meaning and effect of which (making due allowance for the appellant as an unrepresented litigant) is not evident. It is not a proper ground of appeal and the appeal against the primary decision could not sensibly proceed on the basis of proposed ground 1 as presently articulated. Ground 2 seems to be a complaint directed more to the adequacy of reasons given by the Tribunal in its decision on 30 June 2020 in giving the appellant leave to withdraw VR 50 and for ordering that VR 50 was thereby withdrawn. Such a complaint, even if it had merit - which appears to be doubtful, given that the appellant had moved for such orders on that occasion - could not reasonably arguably constitute a ground establishing error by the Tribunal in the primary decision on 12 October 2021. Again, the appeal could not sensibly proceed on that basis. Moreover, to the extent that the appellant has a complaint about the withdrawal of VR 50, his other appeal, in CACV 70, seeks to deal with that matter directly. An appellant's case in that matter is due on 9 December 2022. Fourthly, the submissions which the appellant has filed in support of his application for an extension of time identify a number of potential grounds of appeal which do not form part of his appellant's case. Although the appellant has attached a minute of his proposed appellant's case to his affidavit in support of his application for an extension of time, it would appear that the appellant's case is not in its final form.
Finally, there is no reason to think that any further extension of time would result in the production of an appellant's case containing reasonably arguable errors in relation to the primary decision. In all the circumstances, it is not in the interests of justice to grant leave to extend time.
Fourth Application - Court of Appeal CACV 70 of 2022
We have examined the document purporting to be an appellant's case provided to the court on 9 December 2022. Making due allowance for the appellant's position as a self-represented litigant, ... we are satisfied that it is not an appellant's case in accordance with r 32(4), (4A), (5), (6) and (9) and r 38(2) - (4A) of the Rules. Moreover, the nature of the document is such that it is not one that could sensibly be used by either the court or the respondent to determine an appeal against the orders for leave to withdraw VR 50 made on 30 June 2020.
In relation to the specific complaints raised by the appellant:
9, 10
& 11 There was no obligation on the part of the registrar to give any further opportunity to attend to show cause why the document should be accepted for filing. That is particularly so where there have been delays in the prosecution of the appeal, a springing order had been made and, moreover, where the appeal itself was commenced over two years out of time. The springing order operated according to its terms once the appellant had failed to file and serve an appellant's case in accordance with the terms of the order. The occasion for the appellant to challenge the registrar's decision was by way of review under r 15 - which the appellant has now done.
Considering the matter afresh, and looking at it as a matter of substance, the appellant's document purporting to be an appellant's case was correctly rejected for filing.
(a) could only practice in a place of practice approved by the Board, with consent being given to the Board to seek information the senior person at the practice; and
(b) must undertake treatment with a psychiatrist.
This question has provided puzzlement to the legal practitioners involved despite my explanation. The very nature of anxiety is that attacks can be triggered by certain situations. In the past such anxiety was known as situational anxiety or phobic anxiety although the American Psychiatric Association has changed the emphasis renaming it panic disorder. A very common example is that panic attacks are triggered by crowded noisy places such as shops or social occasions. In the case of Dr Nugawela they are triggered by the extremely difficult situation in which the legal system has put him. Not only does he experience the extreme discomfort of anxiety when thus provoked but the effect on his thought processes would make it near impossible for him to represent himself. Throughout this he has assured me that he does not experience that sort of anxiety in the clinical situation. The occasional contacts that I have with him referring patients confirm this in my own observation.
In other words, Dr Nugawela was fit to practice as a medical practitioner, but not fit to participate in the disciplinary proceedings bought against him.
On the application of the parties to settle the proceedings:
The Tribunal notes:
The Applicant alleged that there is proper cause for disciplinary action against the Respondent under s193(1)(a)(i) of the Health Practitioner Regulation National Law (WA) Act 2010.
At the Mediation conducted on 8 September 2022 the parties agreed the substantive terms upon which the proceedings could be settled.
The facts agreed by the parties are contained in Annexure A.
The Tribunal is satisfied that proper cause exists for disciplinary action against the Respondent.
The Tribunal orders:
To give effect to the agreed terms of settlement, it is ordered that:
a) The Respondent must be supervised by another registered medical practitioner (the supervisor) in respect of the maintenance and storage of clinical records and storage of medicines.
For the purposes of this condition, 'supervised' is defined as:
The Practitioner must consult with the supervisor, who is to be accessible by telephone or other means of telecommunication and available to attend the workplace to observe and discuss the maintenance and storage of clinical records and storage of medicines, when necessary and otherwise at fortnightly intervals.
b) Within 28 days of the notice of the imposition of these conditions, the Respondent must, on the approved form (HPN10), nominate a primary supervisor and at least one alternate supervisor to be approved by Chair of the Medical Board of Australia (Chair of the Board).
c) The Respondent must ensure that each nomination is accompanied by an acknowledgement, on the approved form (HPNA10), from each nominated supervisor that they are willing to undertake the role of supervisor and are aware that AHPRA will seek reports from them.
d) In the event that no approved supervisor is willing or able to provide the supervision required, the Respondent must cease practice immediately and must not resume practice until a new supervisor has been nominated by the Respondent and approved by the Chair of the Board.
e) Within 14 days of the notice of the imposition of these conditions, the Respondent is to provide to AHPRA, on the approved form (HP10) acknowledgement that AHPRA may obtain information and/or a report from the approved supervisor on a monthly basis, or as required.
f) The Respondent must undertake and successfully complete a program of education, approved by the Chair of the Board and including a reflective practice report, in relation to the following topics;
- record keeping and storage;
- the Medicines and Poisons Regulations 2016 (WA) including the storage of Schedule 4 and 8 medicines;
- transitioning/closing a Practice; and
- Good Medical Practice: A Code of Conduct for Doctors in Australia.
g) Within 1 month of the notice of the imposition of these conditions, the Respondent must make a nomination to undertake either one on one education or a formal education course (the education) as follows:
On the approved form (HPN24), nominate for approval by the Chair of the Board an education course, assessment or program (the education) addressing the topics required. The Respondent must ensure the nomination includes a copy of the curriculum of the education.
The Respondent must ensure that the nomination of an educator is accompanied by acknowledgement, on the approved form (HPNA11), from the nominated educator and by an education plan outlining the form the education will take and how the topics of the education will be addressed.
h) The education must consist of a minimum number of 2 hours per Topic.
j) Within 1 month of the completion of the education, the Respondent must to provide to AHPRA:
- evidence of successful completion of the education for each Topic; and
- a reflective practice report demonstrating, to the satisfaction of the Board, that the Respondent has reflected on the issues that gave rise to this condition and how the Respondent has incorporated the lessons learnt in the education into the Respondent's practice.
k) Within seven days of commencement of practice at any new place of practice, the Respondent must provide to AHPRA, on the approved form (HPC), the contact details of a senior person (if applicable), such as the Director of Medical Services, Senior Practice Manager, Senior Manager, Senior Partner, or equivalent (the senior person) at each current place of practice, or notify AHPRA that there is no senior person (in the event he remains a sole practitioner in that practice).
In providing this form, the Respondent acknowledges that AHPRA will contact the senior person and provide them with a copy of the conditions on the Respondent's registration or confirm that the senior person has received a copy of the conditions from the Respondent.
The facts agreed by the parties reflect the allegations which I have summarised at [20].
The effect on the applicant's livelihood, while he fails to comply with the conditions imposed, is relevant but not sufficient to require the grant of a stay. First, the applicant is currently registered. He has not presented evidence that he was unable to comply with the conditions imposed by the Tribunal or that compliance would be unduly onerous. Second, the appeal can be heard relatively quickly. There is no evidence that the applicant would suffer irremediable prejudice from the refusal of a stay for that period. Third, the applicant has not shown how it would be in the public interest for him to practice unrestricted while the appeal is pending. On the facts agreed in the Tribunal, even if there is no immediate threat to public health or safety, the public interest is served by conditions requiring the applicant to be supervised in his practice and to receive the further education ordered.
Dr Nugawela was ordered to pay the Board and AHPRA's costs of the application, to be fixed at $2,227.[74].
In terms of the legal findings, the consent orders only have the effect of the parties accepting that the legal findings are established and the disposition is appropriate. However, ultimately it was for the SAT member to be independently satisfied of this. As I have explained, in my view, the SAT member was independently satisfied that the proposed legal findings and disposition were established and appropriate.
A further matter which Mr Nugawela emphasised in his oral submissions was he expected there to be a further hearing at which the appropriateness of the disposition reflected by the consent orders could then be agitated. Mr Nugawela seemed to suggest that at a later stage he could agitate the appropriateness of the orders to which he had consented... If that is what Mr Nugawela is suggesting, there is an air of unreality to it. On the one hand, by signing the consent orders, Mr Nugawela has conveyed that the consent orders reflect an appropriate disposition of the matter and that he accepts the facts as set out are proven. Yet, on the other hand, Mr Nugawela would be able to agitate at a later hearing that the disposition was not appropriate. In any event, there is no evidence before me to the effect that Mr Nugawela understood the consent orders to only reflect an indicative position on his part.
For these reasons, ground 1 is not made out
His Honour did, however, grant leave to appeal on ground 1.
I have not been taken to any case authority that suggests incompetent legal representation provides an arguable basis to set aside orders made by an administrative body. The Medical Board says that complaints of ineffective legal representation are not questions of law and thus do not constitute an available ground of appeal for that reason.
I do not need to determine whether the allegations comprised in ground 2 articulate an available ground of appeal. I have come to the view that ground 2 is not made out in any event.
Predominantly, this is because there is no evidence which supports ground 2. Mr Nugawela did not adduce any evidence as to the advice given, or steps taken, by his legal representatives. He did not call evidence from his legal representatives. He declined to waive legal professional privilege in relation to his discussions with his lawyers as to their representation of him at the mediation. There is therefore no material before me upon which I can be satisfied that Mr Nugawela was incompetently represented, or that any such incompetence brought about an unfairness to Mr Nugawela in the making of the orders.
...
For these reasons, ground 2 is not made out. I do not consider it is in the interests of justice that leave to appeal be granted in respect of it. I therefore decline to grant leave to appeal in respect of ground 2.
... the difficulty for Mr Nugawela is that there is no substantive evidence which supports the assertions comprised in ground 3. Most importantly, there is no evidence as to Mr Nugawela's state of mind when he signed the orders. So, there is no evidence as to how any such alleged unfairness affected his thinking when signing the consent orders. There also is no evidence as to the legal advice he received in relation to the consent orders and their implementation, or as to the legal advice he received throughout the course of the mediation.
In aid of his assertion of unconscionability, Mr Nugawela seeks to downplay the seriousness of the Medical Board's allegations. However, at their core and taken as a whole, those allegations did raise matters of substantial concern...
... the ultimate disposition of the matter constituted by a reprimand and conditions of supervision, education and notification is not on its face disproportionate to the underlying agreed factual basis for the orders. Also, at the risk of repetition, the orders had a relatively short review period of six months.
The Medical Board submits that ground 4 does not raise any question of law. It seems to me that the substance of Mr Nugawela's complaint is that at the point in time the orders were made, the conditions that they imposed were substantially unnecessary and substantially unworkable. It may well be that where a condition is imposed that is substantially unnecessary or substantially unworkable, there could be an argument that the decision is unreasonable and thus there has been a failure to properly exercise the discretion reposed by law in SAT. If that were the case, it would constitute an implied error of law...
However, the difficulty for Mr Nugawela is that there is no evidence before me which supports such a conclusion ...
The broad contentions underpinning ground 5 are two‑fold. First, that the HPL is inoperative by force of s 109 of the Constitution in that it is inconsistent with the provisions of the Bankruptcy Act. Second, the Medical Board's allegations raised in VR 53/2020 required SAT to rule on what right or rights Mr Nugawela had to property vested in his bankruptcy trustee, which was outside the jurisdiction of SAT. Mr Nugawela therefore contends the proceedings give rise to a matter of a description within s 76(i) and s 76(ii) of the Constitution. Accordingly, Mr Nugawela contends SAT should not have proceeded to dispose of the proceedings, as it did not have jurisdiction to do so. This raises a question of law.
In respect of Mr Nugawela's first contention, Mr Nugawela simply asserts in very broad terms that there is an inconsistency between the operation of the Bankruptcy Act and the HPL. Mr Nugawela has not pointed to any provisions of the Bankruptcy Act which expressly or by implication are inconsistent with the provisions of the HPL. In my view, a claim raised in such a broad and imprecise manner is incapable on its face of legal argument.
Moreover, while it may be accepted that the vesting of Mr Nugawela's property in his trustee in bankruptcy may affect how as a matter of practicality he goes about working as a medical practitioner, that does not give rise to any inconsistency between the HPL and the Bankruptcy Act. Furthermore, the Bankruptcy Act does not prevent Mr Nugawela from working as a medical practitioner.
Accordingly, Mr Nugawela's first contention in support of ground 5 does not give rise to a matter of a description in s 76 of the Constitution.
Mr Nugawela could have engaged with both the mortgagee and his trustee in bankruptcy so as to put in place appropriate arrangements for the storage or possible transfer of the relevant documentation. It was Mr Nugawela who had the unique knowledge as to what was there and the need for it to be stored or transferred.
There are four proposed grounds of appeal. They traverse four pages and are, with respect to the appellant, unnecessarily verbose and tendentious. In substance:
In so summarising the proposed grounds of appeal we are conscious that there are numerous strands of argument in the particulars to the grounds which self-evidently exceed the scope of each ground. For example, as to ground 1, there is a particular contending that the Tribunal erred in law by conflating the term 'appellable decision' in s 199(1) of the National Law with the term 'reviewable decision' in the SAT Act. It is not necessary to refer to these additional arguments. The purpose of particulars to a ground of appeal is to clarify and explain the ground. They cannot independently amount to a separate ground of appeal. It is not necessary to address the various particulars where they exceed the scope of the ground of appeal.
The appellant's orders wanted on the appeal are confused and confusing. The appellant seeks various matters described as 'confirmation and declaratory judgement' (sic). In substance the appellant seeks orders of this court confirming that his understanding of the alleged wrongful acts and decisions of the Board and the Tribunal is correct. Otherwise the appellant seeks remission of the matter to the Tribunal to be reheard according to law.
It is not in the interests of justice to grant leave to appeal against the Tribunal's decision to dismiss the review proceeding. The proposed grounds of appeal do not establish sufficient doubt as to the correctness of the Tribunal's decision to justify leave to appeal. Nor has it been shown that leaving the Tribunal's order unreversed would impose substantial injustice.
...
We are not satisfied that the Tribunal's decision is attended by sufficient doubt to justify leave to appeal. Indeed, none of the grounds of appeal have a reasonable prospect of succeeding.
Ground 1 does not have a reasonable prospect of succeeding. To the contrary it is doomed to fail.
...
Ground 2 does not have a reasonable prospect of succeeding. It must fail.
Ground 3 is without merit.... Ground 3 does not have a reasonable prospect of succeeding. On the contrary, it must fail.
...
Ground 4 does not have a reasonable prospect of succeeding. It must inevitably fail.
The appellant will not suffer substantial injustice if the Tribunal's decision remains unreversed.
The appellant has, in practical effect, obtained what he sought by commencement of the review proceeding in the Tribunal: the appellant has successfully obtained the removal of the conditions that were imposed on the appellant's registration as a result of the Board's decision to take immediate action.
There is, in our view, no substantial injustice in being required to undergo a health assessment. In any event, based on what is stated by the appellant in his written submissions in the appellant's case, it appears that the appellant has already attended his appointment for a health assessment ....
Nor is there substantial injustice in the Board deciding to investigate the appellant. Any such investigation may, or may not, result in the Board deciding to take immediate action. Alternatively, it may, or may not, result in the Board taking some other action under pt 8 of the National Law. Any adverse consequence suffered by the appellant will be caused by the Board's future (as yet uncertain) action rather than the Board deciding to investigate the appellant.
In any case, the appellant will be able to exercise his rights under the National Law and the general law if, properly advised, he considers that any such future action is unjustified.
The proposed appellant's case contains five proposed grounds of appeal which, shorn of particulars, are shortly stated:
However, the particulars to these grounds are long and discursive, often containing statements which are in the nature of submissions with footnoted references to evidence and authorities in a way not provided for by the Rules. On other occasions, the particulars assert myriad errors by the primary judge. The length of the grounds and particulars in combination is 8 pages. While this is a marked improvement on the 35 pages in the document lodged on 22 May 2024, it remains difficult to characterise the particulars to the appellant's proposed grounds as 'concise' within the meaning of r 32(4)(b) of the Rules.
There are some factors in this case which tend to count in favour of the grant of an extension of time. While justifying the making of the springing order, the appellant's delay in filing an appellant's case was not egregious. He attempted to comply with the springing order by filing a document on 20 June 2024. There is no particular prejudice to the respondent, a professional regulatory authority, if an extension of time is granted. If the appeal had merit, there would be at least some prospect of the appellant being prejudiced if an extension is not granted and the appeal remains dismissed. The record of this court indicates that breach of the conditions imposed by the Tribunal's orders has been relied on by the respondent in suspending the appellant's registration as a medical practitioner ... Without making any determination as to the impact of allowing the appeal on that suspension, if the Tribunal's orders were now to be set aside then that may impact on the way the appellant's registration is dealt with in the future.
Against that, the document which the appellant now proposes to file still does not comply with r 32 of the Rules and the history of this matter gives us no confidence that the appellant has the capacity to remedy the defects in the immediate future.
If there was merit in the appellant's appeal, then it might be appropriate to grant the self-represented appellant some indulgences in relation to compliance with the Rules and to grant an extension of time. However, for the following reasons, none of the appellant's proposed grounds of appeal, so far as they can be discerned, are reasonably arguable. This is a case where there is no utility in resuscitating an appeal that is devoid of merit.
...
In our view, the primary judge was clearly correct to dismiss the appellant's appeal to the General Division for the reasons which his Honour gave.
In the circumstances, as the respondent submits, there is no reasonable basis upon which to conclude that any further extension of time would result in the production of an appellant's case that contains reasonably arguable grounds for impugning the primary decision and is compliant with the Rules.
Having regard to all of the above matters, we were not satisfied that it was in the interests of justice to grant the appellant an extension of time to comply with the springing order.
Again, the language used to characterise the lack of merit of the appeal is strong.
Bearing in mind that I am engaging only in a broad-brush assessment, on the evidence thus far, I consider that the Board's contention that the Conditions are directed to the protection of the public from the repetition of Dr Nugawela's previous conduct, which would pose a risk to public safety, is clearly arguable. I consider that the Board's belief as to the existence of a risk to the safety of patients arising from non‑compliance with the Conditions is based on circumstances capable of being proved, and which are sufficient to support that belief. Having regard to the evidence before the Tribunal on the Stay Application, it is clearly arguable that the Board's belief that the risk to patient safety exists because of Dr Nugawela's conduct, is a reasonable one. And insofar as the Board believes that the risk posed by Dr Nugawela is a serious risk, it is arguable that that belief is a reasonable one, having regard to Dr Nugawela's acceptance that he failed to engage a supervisor, contrary to the Conditions, in light of the admitted prior conduct which formed the basis for the Tribunal's Orders, and having regard to the evidence that suggests that Dr Nugawela continued to see patients, and prescribe them medicines, even after the Suspension Decision.
The Board's belief that the risk posed to patient safety is a serious one is on its strongest footing in relation to Dr Nugawela's failure to engage a supervisor in relation to his storage of drugs which are subject to the Poisons Regulations. Absent the oversight of a supervisor, the risk that Dr Nugawela may repeat the conduct of the past in failing to store drugs in accordance with the Poisons Regulations can arguably be regarded as a serious risk to persons by virtue of the dangers of improper access to, and misuse of, such drugs.
However, even in relation to Dr Nugawela's failure to engage a supervisor in relation to his storage of patient information, the very sensitive personal information that necessarily is contained in a patient's medical records means that it is clearly arguable that the risk to persons from improper access to their patient records can be regarded as a serious risk.
Counsel for the Board submitted that the Tribunal should take into account the fact that in the Review Proceedings, it would be open to the Tribunal to find that there is also an additional basis apart from reliance on s 156(1)(a) of the National Law for the conclusion that the correct and preferable decision is the suspension of Dr Nugawela's registration. Counsel for the Board submitted that the evidence supports a reasonable belief that suspension of Dr Nugawela's registration would be in the public interest under s 156(1)(e) of the National Law. The Board submitted that quite apart from the risk to patients, Dr Nugawela's 'ongoing and admitted conduct in contravention of [the Conditions] seriously undermines public confidence in the profession'...and that for that to continue would be contrary to the public interest. Assessing that submission on a broad-brush basis, I accept that it is arguable, having regard to the evidence on the Stay Application.
Given the evidence which suggests that Dr Nugawela was aware that he was required to comply with the Conditions, and that he failed to comply with those Conditions from the outset, it is clearly arguable that it was necessary to take a form of immediate action which would protect public safety. Given that the imposition of the Conditions on Dr Nugawela's registration had not been sufficient to achieve the protective purpose for which the Conditions were designed, it is also arguable that it was necessary to take some other form of immediate action which could achieve that protective purpose. The difficulty for Dr Nugawela is that it is not immediately apparent that any other form of immediate action, short of suspension of his registration, would have been capable of achieving that protective purpose.
Tenth Application - Supreme Court CIV 1636 of 2023
In my opinion, on a fair reading of the letter of 20 April 2023 as a whole, it was clear that the defendant's reason for proposing to take immediate action was Mr Nugawela's failure to comply with the conditions imposed by the orders made on 8 September 2022, in circumstances where Mr Nugawela's application for a stay of those orders had been denied. That was so despite the defendant's express statement that it had concerns about Mr Nugawela's health.
The Respondent's critical and substantial evidentiary document ('Business Records') could not be challenged by virtue of not being accepted by the presiding judge at the final hearing resulting in denial of justice to the Applicant due to no fault of the Applicant;
The Business Records were in contention by the Applicant at the hearing; the presiding judge reserved decision on the admissibility;
The judgement has not been perfected;
The Applicant's case could not be heard to completion due to no fault of the Applicant; No opportunity of being heard on questions which proved to be decisive in the determination of the action.
The orders and judgement of this superior court, brought per incuriam, would bind lower courts and non-court tribunals, where current actions are on foot relying on the same Business Records of the Respondent;
Injustice to the Applicant from breach of procedural fairness.
(1) If a Court is satisfied that -
(a) a person has instituted or conducted vexatious proceedings (whether before or after the commencement of this Act); or
(b) it is likely that the person will institute or conduct vexatious proceedings,
the Court may make either or both of the following orders -
(c) an order staying any proceedings, either as to the whole or part of the proceedings, that have been instituted by that person;
(d) an order prohibiting that person from instituting proceedings, or proceedings of a particular class, without the leave of a court or tribunal, as the case requires under section 6(1).
(a) any cause, matter, action, suit, proceeding, trial, or inquiry of any kind within the jurisdiction of any court, including a court of summary jurisdiction, or a tribunal; and
(b) any proceedings, including interlocutory proceedings, taken in connection with or incidental to proceedings pending before a court, including a court of summary jurisdiction, or a tribunal; and
(c) an appeal from a decision or determination, whether or not a final decision or determination, of a court, including a court of summary jurisdiction, or a tribunal;
(a) which are an abuse of the process of a court or a tribunal; or
(b) instituted to harass or annoy, to cause delay or detriment, or for any other wrongful purpose; or
(c) instituted or pursued without reasonable ground; or
(d) conducted in a manner so as to harass or annoy, cause delay or detriment, or achieve any other wrongful purpose.
This definition has the effect of characterising proceedings as vexatious if they are actively or intentionally instituted or pursued by the litigant for any of the identified or other wrongful purposes, so making the subjective intention of the litigant a material factor. However, proceedings will also be vexatious by an objective standard, if they constitute an abuse of the process of the court or are brought or pursued without a reasonable grounds or they are conducted in a manner set out in subpar (d) of the definition. Hence, proceedings may be vexatious if they have any of these objective characteristics regardless of the personal intention, motive or state of mind of the litigant.
(a) whilst it is not possible to exhaustively define what will constitute an abuse of process, at least one of three characteristics will generally be present, namely:[212]
(1) a court's processes being invoked for an illegitimate or collateral purpose;
(2) the use of a court's procedures being unjustifiably oppressive to a party; or
(3) the use of a court's procedures bringing the administration of justice into disrepute;
(b) a clear case of an abuse of process and of vexatious proceedings is where there are further or collateral attempts to challenge a final decision of a court binding on the party attempting the challenge;[213]
(c) in determining whether proceedings were instituted without a reasonable ground, it is necessary to have regard to the whole of the claim brought by a party;[214]
(d) a proceeding will not be characterised as having been made without reasonable ground merely because of errors in pleading and form, especially so where the litigant is self‑represented;[215]
(e) the judgment as to whether a proceeding was pursued without reasonable ground is a matter of degree and judgment and depends upon all of the circumstances of the case;[216] and
(f) a proceeding instituted or pursued without reasonable grounds may include claims with unintelligible pleadings, appeals from striking out pleadings, misconceived or hopeless appeals, appeals which lack any legal basis and the institution of applications or proceedings which have absolutely no prospect of success.[217]
In determining whether proceedings may properly be characterised as vexatious proceedings, it is also relevant to consider the effect of the proceedings overall, particularly where the same persons have been parties to numerous different actions. The pursuit of proceedings without reasonable ground, when that conduct is repeated, may become seriously and unfairly burdensome, and the repetition of such conduct may permit an inference of wrongful purpose to more readily be drawn.
The right of an individual to commence proceedings to enforce or defend his rights is one of the fundamental rights in a free society. The rule of law requires that ordinarily a person should have access to the courts in order to invoke their jurisdiction. To limit this right represents a major restriction on the liberty of the individual for which there must be a proper and adequate justification. The effect of an order made under s 4(1)(d) of the Act does not remove the right to issue proceedings entirely. A person against whom such an order has been made still has access to the courts. However, he is required to take an additional step in the process by obtaining the permission of the court prior to any claims being issued. Nevertheless, the making of an order under s 4(1) of the Act restricts the rights of the person against whom such an order has been made and for that reason the powers conferred by the section must be exercised with caution.
At the same time, the court must have regard to the purpose of the Act. he institution or conduct of unmeritorious litigation will have an emotional and financial impact on the other parties to the litigation. Innocent parties may be dragged through the courts for a decision made at the end of a long legal road that the claim never had any legal merit in the first place. The vindicated party frequently has no practical opportunity to recoup even court assessed costs, let alone actual out of pocket costs. And there is no redress for the loss of time and the aggravation of futile legal proceedings. The Act is intended to provide protection to a person who may be the target of vexatious litigation. Furthermore, the time of the court is unreasonably occupied in dealing with vexatious litigation. Not only are the resources of the court wasted in dealing with such litigation but other more worthy litigation is delayed.
The requirement for leave to be obtained by a private applicant, who can be presumed to be acting in the protection of his or her own interests, is clearly to allow the court to ensure that such applications are not used as instruments of oppression or as tactical exercises between adversaries. The court will only consider the exercise of this jurisdiction if it is satisfied that there are substantial grounds for doing so and there is sufficient reason to embark on an enquiry over whether or not the procedures and opportunities of litigation are being abused, or misused, in such a way that an intolerable burden is placed upon the time, resources and procedures of the court. This is an area where relief should be given not merely because another private litigant is being inconvenienced or harassed but also because important public resources of time and attention of the court are being, or may be, diverted by inappropriate claims, to the disadvantage not only of the court but to other litigants whose causes may be delayed by the time needed to deal with vexatious proceedings.
The requirement for a private litigant to obtain leave will be satisfied if it is shown that the applicant is seeking relief under the VPR Act primarily for the alleviation of an unjustifiable or exceptional burden which the alleged vexatious proceedings have caused. Leave will not be granted if the application is merely an additional means by which the applicant may avoid having to respond to litigation brought by a person seeking to obtain relief at law from some real or imagined wrong, even if it should turn out that that litigation will probably fail. In other words, relief under the VPR Act is not a remedy intended to achieve a stay or to prevent the institution of the ordinary run of litigation. Rather, it is an extreme remedy reserved for instances where quite hopeless claims are brought, or persisted with, to a degree which causes substantial disruption for the target of the claims and for the administration of justice..
Under s 4(1) of the VPR Act, the Court has the power to order that all or any proceedings instituted by a vexatious litigant be stayed, or that that person be prohibited from instituting all or a class of the proceedings in the future. However, when relief is sought by a private applicant, the Court should tailor that relief to the protection of the applicant, or of persons or bodies closely associated with the applicant, who are prejudiced, or likely to be prejudiced, by the unrestrained litigious activity of the vexatious litigant. As a result, orders made by the Court will be directed to staying or prohibiting proceedings by the vexatious litigant against that particular applicant, rather than to staying or prohibiting any proceedings whatever...
(a) matters affecting his registration and ability to practice have been of fundamental importance to his livelihood and professional standing;
(b) each proceeding he commenced was directed to challenging, reviewing, staying or responding to a specific regulatory decision which directly affected his ability to practice;
(c) he did not commence any of the proceedings for the purpose of harassing or annoying the Plaintiffs, nor to cause delay or detriment, nor for any other improper purpose;
(d) rather, the proceedings were commenced for the purpose of preserving his registration, protecting his right to practice and seeking clarification or correction of decision affecting him;
(e) in several instances, proceedings were commenced because regulatory decisions were made on an urgent basis, leaving limited time to obtain advice or prepare materials;
(f) some proceedings were withdrawn or discontinued after circumstances changed, including where regulatory decisions were overtaken, stayed, reversed or rendered moot;
(g) any errors he made as a self-represented litigation were not intentional and were not made in disregard of court processes or directions;
(h) rather, he complied with the orders and directions of the courts and tribunals to the best of his ability, subject to his understanding and circumstances at the time;
(i) his litigation history must be understood in the context of the regulatory history described in the Plaintiffs' affidavits involved multiple stages, reversals and renewed actions, which required repeated responses;
(j) he did not intend to commence proceedings without a jurisdictional basis; and
(k) he did not intend to pursue proceedings that were frivolous, abusive or lacking in substance.
A private applicant under s 4(2)(c)(i) of the Act who has proved that vexatious proceedings have been commenced against him or her by the respondent in the past has a strong claim to relief, even though the relief is discretionary. The relief can be granted in a manner tailored to protect that individual's own interests. Much will depend on the facts established by the evidence in each particular application but where, as in the present case, the evidence discloses a course of litigation brought over a period of many years and in many different causes, even though related, it seems proper for the court to infer that the past conduct of the respondent is an indication of probable future conduct and so justifies some restraining measure suitable for the individual case.
An order pursuant to section 4(1)(d) of the Act prohibiting the Defendant from instituting in the Supreme Court of Western Australia, or the Court of Appeal, without the leave of the Court, any appeal or judicial review of a decision, whether interlocutory or final in nature, of any court or tribunal exercising jurisdiction in Western Australia, save as to Magistrates Court Proceedings PE 27405-27408, in which appeal or judicial review proceedings either Plaintiff (and in respect of the First Plaintiff, the Plaintiff's committee known as the Western Australia Board of the Medical Board of Australia) is the responding party...
I certify that the preceding paragraph(s) comprise the reasons for decision of the Supreme Court of Western Australia.
[1] First Millar Affidavit, par 7 (defined below).
[4] First Millar Affidavit, par 142, attachment JM-135.
[6] First Millar Affidavit, pars 12 - 13, attachment JM-1.
[7] First Millar Affidavit, par 14, attachment JM-2.
[9] First Millar Affidavit, par 15, attachment JM-3.
[10] First Millar Affidavit, par 16, attachment JM-4.
[11] First Millar Affidavit, par 17, attachment JM-5.
[13] First Millar Affidavit, par 18, attachment JM-6.
[14] First Millar Affidavit, par 19, attachment JM-7.
[16] First Millar Affidavit, pages 175 - 177.
[17] First Millar Affidavit, par 21, attachment JM-8.
[18] First Millar Affidavit, par 22, attachment JM-9.
[22] Nugawela and Medical Board of Australia [2021] WASAT 147 [4].
[23]Nugawela and Medical Board of Australia [2021] WASAT 147 [12] - [13], [17] - [19].
[24] First Millar Affidavit, par 24, attachment JM-11.
[25] First Millar Affidavit, par 25, attachment JM-12
[26] First Millar Affidavit, par 26, attachment JM-13.
[27] First Millar Affidavit, par 27, attachment JM-14.
[29] First Millar Affidavit, par 29, attachment JM-15.
[30] First Millar Affidavit, pars 30 - 31, attachments JM-16 and JM-17.
[31] First Millar Affidavit, par 32, attachment JM-18.
[33] First Millar Affidavit, par 34, attachment JM-19.
[35] First Millar Affidavit, par 36, attachment JM-20.
[36] First Millar Affidavit, par 37, attachment JM-21.
[37] First Millar Affidavit, par 38, attachments JM-22 and JM-23.
[38] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia (WA Board) [2022] WASCA 156 [24].
[39] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia (WA Board) [2022] WASCA 156 [26] - [28].
[40] First Millar Affidavit, par 39, attachments JM-24 and JM-25.
[42] First Millar Affidavit, par 41, attachments JM-26 and JM-27.
[43] First Millar Affidavit, par 42, attachment JM-28.
[44] First Millar Affidavit, par 43, attachment JM-29.
[46] First Millar Affidavit, par 45, attachment JM-30.
[47] First Millar Affidavit, par 46, attachment JM-31.
[49] First Millar Affidavit, par 47, attachments JM-32 and JM-33.
[50] Nugawela v Australian Health Practitioner Agency [2023] WASCA 37 [13] - [14].
[51] Directions hearing, 25 November 2022, ts 13 - 14.
[52] Sections 105(2) and (13) of the State Administrative Tribunal Act 2004 (WA).
[53] First Millar Affidavit, par 51, attachment JM-37.
[54] First Millar Affidavit, par 52, attachments JM-38 and JM-39.
[55] First Millar Affidavit, par 53, attachment JM-40.
[56] First Millar Affidavit, par 54, attachment JM-41.
[58] First Millar Affidavit, par 55, attachment JM-42.
[60] Fist Millar Affidavit, par 57, attachment JM-44.
[61] Fist Millar Affidavit, par 58, attachment JM-45.
[62] Fist Millar Affidavit, par 59, attachments JM-46 and JM-47.
[64] First Millar Affidavit, par 61, attachment JM-49.
[65] First Millar Affidavit, par 62, attachment JM-50.
[67] First Millar Affidavit, par 63, attachment JM-51.
[68] First Millar Affidavit, par 65, attachment JM-53.
[69] First Millar Affidavit, par 64, attachment JM-52.
[70] First Millar Affidavit, par 66, attachment JM-54.
[71] First Millar Affidavit, par 67, attachment JM-55.
[72] First Millar Affidavit, par 68, attachment JM-56 and JM-57.
[73] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia (WA Branch) [No 2] [2022] WASC 385 [25] (Nugawela J).
[74] First Millar Affidavit, par 69, attachment JM-58.
[76] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia (WA Branch) [No 2] [2024] WASC 15 [122].
[77] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia (WA Branch) [No 2] [2024] WASC 15 [123] - [125].
[78] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia (WA Branch) [No 2] [2024] WASC 15 [114].
[79] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia (WA Branch) [No 2] [2024] WASC 15 [129] - [131], [135].
[80] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia (WA Branch) [No 2] [2024] WASC 15 [140], [141], [147].
[81] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia (WA Branch) [No 2] [2024] WASC 15 [155], [156] (references omitted).
[82] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia (WA Branch) [No 2] [2024] WASC 15 [168].
[83] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia (WA Branch) [No 2] [2024] WASC 15 [169].
[84] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia (WA Branch) [No 2] [2024] WASC 15 [171] - [173].
[85] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia (WA Branch) [No 2] [2024] WASC 15 [6].
[86] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia (WA Branch) [No 2] [2024] WASC 15 [184].
[87] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia (WA Branch) [No 2] [2024] WASC 15 [200].
[88] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia (WA Branch) [No 2] [2024] WASC 15 [204].
[89] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia (WA Branch) [No 2] [2024] WASC 15 [204].
[90] First Millar Affidavit, par 71, attachments JM-60, JM-61 and JM 62.
[91] First Millar Affidavit, par 72, attachment JM-63.
[93] First Millar Affidavit, par 74, attachment JM-64.
[95] First Millar Affidavit, par 76, attachment JM-65.
[96] First Millar Affidavit, par 77, attachments JM-66, JM-67, JM-68.
[97] First Millar Affidavit, par 78, attachments JM-69 and JM-70.
[98] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia [2023] WASCA 92 [22] - [24] (references omitted).
[99] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia [2023] WASCA 92 [31], [32].
[101] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia [2023] WASCA 92 [66] to [70] (reference omitted).
[102] First Millar Affidavit, par 79, attachment JM-71.
[104] First Millar Affidavit, par 81, attachment JM-72.
[105] First Millar Affidavit, par 82, attachments JM-73 and JM-74.
[106] First Millar Affidavit, par 84, attachment JM-75.
[108] First Millar Affidavit, par 86, attachment JM-76.
[109] First Millar Affidavit, par 87, attachments JM-77, JM-78, JM-79.
[110] First Millar Affidavit, par 88, attachment JM-80.
[111] First Millar Affidavit, par 89, attachments JM-81, JM-82.
[112] First Millar Affidavit, par 90, attachments JM-83 and JM-84.
[113] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia (WA Branch) [2024] WASCA 101 [30] - [31].
[114] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia (WA Branch) [2024] WASCA 101 [33] - [35], [42] - [44] (reference omitted).
[116] First Miller Affidavit, par 91(b), attachment JM-85.
[117] First Miller Affidavit, par 91(c), attachment JM-86.
[118] First Miller Affidavit, par 91(d), attachment JM-87.
[119] First Miller Affidavit, par 92, attachment JM-88.
[120] First Miller Affidavit, par 93, attachment JM-89.
[121] First Miller Affidavit, par 94, attachment JM-90.
[122] First Miller Affidavit, par 95, attachment JM-91.
[123] First Millar Affidavit, pars 96, 108.
[124] First Miller Affidavit, par 97, attachment JM-92.
[125] First Miller Affidavit, par 98, attachment JM-93.
[126] First Millar Affidavit, par 99, attachment JM-94.
[127] First Millar Affidavit, par 100, attachment JM-95.
[128] First Millar Affidavit, par 101, attachment JM-96.
[129] First Millar Affidavit, par 102, attachment JM-97, JM-98 and JM-99.
[130] First Millar Affidavit, par 103, attachment JM-100.
[131] First Millar Affidavit, par 104, attachment JM-101.
[132] First Millar Affidavit, par 105, attachment JM-102.
[133] First Millar Affidavit, par 106, attachment JM-103.
[134] First Millar Affidavit, par 107, attachment JM-104.
[135] First Millar Affidavit, par 124, attachment JM-119.
[136] First Millar Affidavit, par 125, attachment JM-120.
[137] First Millar Affidavit, par 126, attachment JM-121.
[138] First Millar Affidavit, par 127.
[139] First Millar Affidavit, par 128, attachments JM-122 and JM-123.
[140] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia [2023] WASAT 82 [82] - [85].
[141] Nugawela v Medical Board of Australia [2023] WASAT 82 [82] - [85] (reference omitted).
[142] First Millar Affidavit, par 129, attachment JM-124.
[143] First Millar Affidavit, par 130, attachment JM-125.
[144] First Millar Affidavit, par 131, attachment JM-126.
[145] First Millar Affidavit, par 132, attachment JM-127.
[146] First Millar Affidavit, par 133, attachments JM-128 and JM-129.
[147] First Millar Affidavit, par 134.
[148] First Millar Affidavit, par 135, attachment JM-130.
[149] First Millar Affidavit, par 136, attachment JM-131.
[150] First Millar Affidavit, par 137, attachment JM-132.
[151] First Millar Affidavit, par 110, attachment JM-107.
[152] First Millar Affidavit, par 111, attachment JM-108.
[153] First Millar Affidavit, par 112, attachment JM-109.
[154] First Millar Affidavit, par 113, attachment JM-110.
[155] First Millar Affidavit, par 114, attachment JM-111.
[156] First Millar Affidavit, par 115, attachment JM-112.
[157] First Millar Affidavit, par 116, attachment JM-113.
[158] First Miller Affidavit, par 117, attachment JM-114.
[159] First Millar Affidavit, par 118.
[160] Nugawela v Medical Board of WA [2024] WASC 100 [5].
[161] Nugawela v Medical Board of WA [2024] WASC 100 [21].
[162] Nugawela v Medical Board of WA [2024] WASC 100 [48] - [57].
[163] Nugawela v Medical Board of WA [2024] WASC 100 [72] - [77].
[164] Nugawela v Medical Board of WA [2024] WASC 100 [59] - [61].
[165] Nugawela v Medical Board of WA [2024] WASC 100 [63] - [68].
[166] Nugawela v Medical Board of WA [2024] WASC 100 [63] - [68].
[167] Nugawela v Medical Board of WA [No 2] [2024] WASC 496 [2].
[168] Nugawela v Medical Board of WA [No 2] [2024] WASC 496 [91].
[169] First Millar Affidavit, par 138, attachment JM-133.
[170] First Millar Affidavit, pages 3439 - 3440.
[171] First Millar Affidavit, par 139, attachment JM-134.
[172] Second Millar Affidavit, par 7, attachments JM-136, JM-137 and JM-138.
[173] Second Millar Affidavit, par 8, attachment JM-139.
[174] Second Millar Affidavit, par 9, attachment JM-140.
[175] Second Millar Affidavit, par 10, attachment JM-141.
[176] Second Millar Affidavit, par 11, attachment JM-142.
[177] Second Millar Affidavit, par 12, attachments JM-143 and JM-144.
[178] Second Millar Affidavit, par 13, attachment JM-145.
[179] Second Millar Affidavit, par 14, attachment JM-146.
[180] Second Millar Affidavit, par 15, attachment JM-147.
[181] Second Millar Affidavit, par 16, attachments JM-148 and JM-149.
[182] Second Millar Affidavit, par 17.
[183] Second Millar Affidavit, par 18, attachments JM-150 and JM-151.
[184] Second Millar Affidavit, par 19, attachments JM-152 and JM-153.
[185] Second Millar Affidavit, par 20, attachment JM-154.
[186] Second Millar Affidavit, par 21, attachment JM-155.
[187] Second Millar Affidavit, par 22, attachment JM-156.
[188] Second Millar Affidavit, par 23, attachments JM-157 and JM-158.
[189] Second Millar Affidavit, par 24, attachment JM-159.
[190] Second Millar Affidavit, par 25, attachment JM-160.
[191] Second Millar Affidavit, par 26, attachment JM-161.
[192] Second Millar Affidavit, par 27, attachment JM-162.
[193] Second Millar Affidavit, par 28, attachment JM-163.
[194] Second Millar Affidavit, par 29, attachment JM-164.
[195] Second Millar Affidavit, par 30, attachment JM-165.
[196] Second Millar Affidavit, par 31, attachment JM-166.
[197] Second Millar Affidavit, par 32, attachment JM-167.
[198] Second Millar Affidavit, par 33.
[199] Second Millar Affidavit, par 34, attachment JM-168.
[200] Second Millar Affidavit, par 35, attachment JM-169.
[201] Second Millar Affidavit, par 36, attachment JM-170.
[202] Second Millar Affidavit, par 38, attachments JM-171, JM-172.
[203] Second Millar Affidavit, par 43.
[204] Second Millar Affidavit, par 44, attachment JM-177.
[205] Second Millar Affidavit, par 45, attachment JM-178.
[206] Second Millar Affidavit, par 46, attachments JM-179 and JM-180.
[207] Second Millar Affidavit, par 47.
[208] Second Millar Affidavit, par 48, attachment JM-183.
[209] Second Millar Affidavit, par 49, attachments JM-181, JM-182, JM-183, JM-184, JM-185 and JM-186.
[211] Granich Partners v Yap [2003] WASC 206 [28] (EM Heenan J) (Granich). Cited in St John of God Health Care Inc v Kezic [No 2] [2017] WASC 265 [33] (Pritchard J) (Kezic).
[212] Attorney General (WA) v Lashansky [No 2] [2015] WASC 417 [27] (Allanson J) (Lashansky); Mann v Bankwest - a Division of Commonwealth Bank of Australia [2020] WASCA 35 [56].
[213] Granich [46]; Lashansky [27]; Shire of Katanning v Bride [No 2] [2016] WASC 314 [20] - [21] (Tottle J) (Bride).
[215] Kezic [36]; Attorney General v Michael [2005] WASC 203 [55] (Le Miere J) (Michael).
[217] Commonwealth Bank of Australia v Bride [2004] WASC 177 [127] (EM Heenan J).
[218] Kezic [35]. See also: Lashansky [24], [37].
[219] Michael [143] - [144], cited with approval in: Nursing and Midwifery Board of Australia v H [2017] WASC 20 [48] (Banks-Smith J) (Nursing Board); Bride [73].
[220] Granich [31]. See also: Kezic [37] - [38].
[221] Kezic [39] - [40] (references omitted).
[223] Granich [41]; Nursing Board [46].
[224] First Millar Affidavit, par 140.
[225] Defendant's Submissions, par 12.
[226] Jones v Skyring [1992] HCA 39; (1992) 66 ALJR 810 (Jones).
[227] Defendant's Submissions, par 20.
[230] Defendant's Submissions, par 20.
[231] Defendant's Submissions, pars 58 - 63.
[234] Defendant's Submissions, pars 67 - 69.
(1992) 66 ALJR 810