[2023] WASCA 41
General information, not legal advice.
Court of Appeal (WA)
2023-03-03
Mitchell JA
Original judgment source is linked above.
(a) the suspension, or imposition of a condition on, the health practitioner's or student's registration; or
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> (b) accepting an undertaking from the health practitioner or student; or
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> (c) accepting the surrender of the health practitioner's or student's registration; or
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> (d) if immediate action has previously been taken suspending a health practitioner's or student's registration - the revocation of the suspension and the imposition of a condition on the registration; or
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> (e) if immediate action has previously been taken imposing a condition on a health practitioner's or student's registration - the suspension of the registration instead of the condition.
(a) give written notice of the Board's decision to the health practitioner or student; and
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> (b) take the further action under this Part the Board considers appropriate, including, for example, investigating the practitioner or student or requiring the practitioner or student to undergo a health or performance assessment.
(a) the decision is set aside on appeal;
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> (b) for the suspension of, or imposition of conditions on, the registered health practitioner's registration, the suspension is revoked, or the conditions are removed, by the Board; or
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> (c) for an undertaking, the Board and the registered health practitioner agree to end the undertaking.
(1) The Tribunal is bound by the rules of natural justice except to the extent that [the SAT Act] or [the National Law] authorises, whether expressly or by implication, a departure from those rules.
(2) The Evidence Act 1906 does not apply to the Tribunal's proceedings and the Tribunal -
(a) is not bound by the rules of evidence or any practices or procedures applicable to courts of record ...; and
(b) is to act according to equity, good conscience and the substantial merits of the case without regard to technicalities and legal forms.
...
(4) The Tribunal may inform itself on any matter as it sees fit.
...
(6) The Tribunal is to take measures that are reasonably practicable -
(c) to ensure that the parties have the opportunity in the proceeding -
(i) to call or give evidence; and
(ii) to examine, cross‑examine or re‑examine witnesses; and
(iii) to be heard or otherwise have their submissions considered.
(b) may require evidence or argument to be presented in writing and decide on the matters on which it will hear oral evidence or argument; and
(c) may limit the time available for presenting the respective cases of parties before it at a hearing to an extent that it considers would not impede the fair and adequate presentation of the cases[.]
(1) He engaged in a consultation with Parent Z's daughter on the date of the alleged incident at which Parent Z was in attendance. After that consultation, he had no 'further contact with Parent Z or her daughter'.[4]
(2) Based on call records showing five telephone calls between Dr Adams and his wife between 8.10 pm and 9.49 pm on the date of the alleged incident, Dr Adams set out his belief as to what 'would have' occurred on that date. In essence, he said as follows. In the first call at 8.10 pm, his wife would have asked him when he was coming home, and he would have said he would call when he was in the car. In the next call, his wife would have told him that there was no dinner for him so he would need to buy some on the way home. He then believes he would have checked for his wallet and realised he did not have his wallet and would have returned to the Hospital to obtain it, after which he spoke to his wife for 38 minutes while driving home. On the way home, he would have bought Red Rooster, as is supported by his bank records.
(1) He had been a paediatrician for Parent Y's daughter since her three days in hospital in 2019 and has had extensive contact with her family.
(2) At a consultation with Parent Y and her daughter on a date in 2020, Parent Y discussed her concerns regarding her son. Later that week, having completed some documents given to her by Dr Adams, Parent Y said that she wanted to meet with him for an urgent discussion. She requested that no notes be recorded because of confidentiality concerns and requested that they discuss the matter face‑to‑face.
(3) Dr Adams agreed to have a discussion the following day, which was a Saturday.
(4) Dr Adams agreed to meet Parent Y in a non‑clinical setting for reasons including that he did not consider it appropriate to meet at the Hospital when there would be no one else around, the Hospital discouraged face‑to‑face consultations due to COVID‑19, and meeting patients outside of consultation rooms at the Hospital was not unusual within the range of his practice.
(5) Dr Adams and Parent Y met at the location of the alleged incident, where there were a number of people in the surrounding area. They discussed Parent Y's daughter's sexual identity, with Dr Adams giving Parent Y advice as to how to deal with her daughter's situation. In the course of the discussion, he did not say or do anything inappropriate.
(6) Parent Y did not want him to record the matters they discussed, to which Dr Adams agreed. In hindsight, he recognised that he should have maintained contemporaneous clinical records of the discussion.
(7) On 25 March 2020, Dr Adams made a telephone call to Parent Y from his mobile telephone. Swipe card data from the Hospital shows that Dr Adams was at the Hospital until 7.04 pm that evening, the call having been made at 6.09 pm.
(8) In accordance with standard practice, administrative staff logged out Parent Y's daughter's clinical record on 16 November 2020, in Dr Adams' name, in preparation for his consultation with her on 18 November 2020. It is a coincidence that that clinical record was accessed on the day the Board contacted Dr Adams to inform him of the investigation.
(1) While working as a medical practitioner, his only telephone contact with any patient or their family member would be by use of his current mobile telephone.
(2) Any written correspondence with a patient or their family member would only be sent by letter or from his work email address.
(3) Any consultation or meeting outside of the Hospital with any patient or their family member would only occur on notice to, and on receipt of written approval from, the Australian Health Practitioner Regulation Agency (AHPRA).
(4) There would be no communication with any family member of Patient Z or Patient Y.
(5) AHPRA would be at liberty to obtain reports from a senior person at Dr Adams' place of employment to monitor his compliance with the undertaking.
(6) Dr Adams would submit to monthly audits by AHPRA to review his compliance with the undertaking. Dr Adams set out options as to how the auditor would be chosen.
(7) Dr Adams would be responsible for all costs associated with compliance with the undertaking.
The hearing before the Tribunal The Board's application for leave to cross-examine and supporting submissions
(1) In his affidavit, Dr Adams said that he did not have any further contact with Parent Z after the date of his consultation with Parent Z's daughter, when in fact there had been at least one telephone call between them after that date.
(2) In his affidavit, Dr Adams said that five calls were made between him and his wife on the date of his consultation with Parent Z's daughter, implying that only those calls were made. In fact, however, he had made a further call to his wife at 6.31 pm on that day which had not been mentioned in the affidavit and had been redacted from the annexed call records. This was initially said by counsel for the Board to be an intentional omission designed to remove a call placing Dr Adams outside the Hospital, but ultimately counsel accepted that there was no expert evidence to support a conclusion that the telephone tower in question demonstrated that Dr Adams was not inside the Hospital.
(3) A note made by Dr Adams regarding a consultation involving Parent Z's daughter was out of place in the medical notes and inconsistent with evidence that there had been no contact with Parent Z after the date of the consultation. Counsel for the Board said that the note was a deliberate attempt to create an impression of continuing consultations.
(4) Dr Adams was recorded as having requested Parent Z's daughter's file on 21 July 2020, six days after Parent Z said she confronted Dr Adams about the allegations and at a time when he had no legitimate reason to have the file.
(5) The Board asserted that there were inconsistencies as between what was said in the affidavit regarding the complaint concerning Parent Y and Dr Adams' transcript of interview with AHPRA.
So for example, your Honour, in the context of the swipe card data entry, your Honour said, 'Well, we don't know anything about how you get in and out of the hospital and so forth'. Well, those are exactly the sort of questions I would want to be able to put to Dr Adams in cross‑examination. So I have mentioned two of the points at paragraphs 5 and 7 concerning [Parent Z's] affidavit. There's an issue about [Parent Y's] affidavit. Sorry, the affidavit concerning Ms - the explanations and [Parent Z]. In respect to the practitioner's explanation on affidavit concerning [Parent Y], I would really need to deal with that in cross-examination before launching into that any further.
The Tribunal's reasons for refusing leave to cross-examine
Counsel for the respondent also sought to rely on an entry in the patient notes for [Parent Z's] daughter, dated 6 April 2020, which he alleged cast doubt on Dr Adams' claim that he did not see Parent Z after [the relevant consultation date]. But both Dr Adams and Parent Z's version of events were to the effect that Dr Adams did not see Parent Z or her daughter in person, after [the relevant consultation date]. Counsel for Dr Adams indicated that Dr Adams accepted that there had been a telephone consultation in April 2020. In contrast, counsel for the respondent submitted that the patient record dated 6 April 2020 'appears to have been designed to create an impression that the Practitioner had continued to see [them] well after [the relevant consultation date]' and that 'the Practitioner was seeking to construct a false record of treatment taking place after [the relevant consultation date] which might be said to be inconsistent with sexual misconduct having taken place on that date'. We do not consider that that is an inference able to be drawn on the information presently available.
Counsel for the respondent sought to make something of the fact that there was some evidence to suggest that on 21 July 2020, Dr Adams had access to the patient records of [Parent Z's] daughter. It appears that a consultation was due to have taken place on 22 July 2020. It was suggested by Dr Adams' counsel that a phone consultation may have taken place on 8 July 2020 instead, and that that was the explanation for why the patient notes were in Dr Adams' possession at around that time. In the absence of any, or any adequate, evidence as to the Hospital's practices with respect to patient records, the process by which they are obtained by a practitioner for the purposes of a consultation, any Hospital practice as to how long patient records are retained by a practitioner, and how they are returned to storage, it is not possible to draw any inference about the fact that Dr Adams allegedly had the records in his possession on 22 July 2020, much less any inference adverse to him as to why he had those records.
(1) The Tribunal erred in law by refusing to permit counsel for [the Board] to cross-examine [Dr Adams] on [his] affidavit sworn 3 December 2021, in that:
(a) such refusal was contrary to s 32(6)(c)(ii) of the [SAT Act];
(b) further and alternatively, in all the circumstances such refusal meant the Tribunal failed to afford the Board procedural fairness, contrary to s 32(1) of the SAT Act and at general law.
(1) First, where one party relies upon affidavit evidence before the Tribunal and the Tribunal receives that evidence, and the other party makes clear to the Tribunal that it wishes to cross-examine the deponent on his or her affidavit, and there being no issue of any inability on the part of the deponent to attend for cross-examination, is the Tribunal required by s 32(6)(c)(ii) of the SAT Act to permit that other party to cross-examine the deponent? (Ground 1(a))
(2) Secondly, in circumstances in which the Board, through its counsel, sought leave to cross-examine Dr Adams on his affidavit and had made clear to the Tribunal that the purpose of the proposed cross-examination was to challenge the veracity of Dr Adams' evidence and his candour, did the Tribunal fail to afford the Board procedural fairness as required by s 32(1) of the SAT Act and at general law by refusing to permit counsel for the Board to cross-examine Dr Adams in circumstances in which the Tribunal then found in favour of Dr Adams for reasons which included that it was not persuaded that Dr Adams' evidence lacked candour? (Ground 1(b))
(1) Without the Board having had the opportunity of cross‑examination, in a course of exchanges with counsel, the President suggested innocent explanations for aspects of Dr Adams' evidence about which the Board had raised concerns. A number of these were ultimately reflected in the Tribunal's reasons.[18]
(2) The Tribunal erred in requiring the Board to explain and persuade the Tribunal as to Dr Adams' lack of candour in advance of, and in order to be given the opportunity of, cross‑examination. This is illustrated by the President's observation that the Tribunal did not know how the swipe cards worked at the Hospital.[19] The Tribunal could not make any findings as to the veracity of Dr Adams' explanation on oath, or his candour, without first permitting the Board to cross‑examine him.[20]
(3) The Tribunal's obligation under s 32(6)(c)(ii) of the SAT Act to ensure that the parties have the opportunity to cross‑examine witnesses is interrelated with its obligation to afford procedural fairness to the parties. A failure to afford a party the ability to cross‑examine may, in the circumstances of a particular case, amount to a denial of procedural fairness. Section 32(6)(c)(ii) 'puts beyond doubt' that the Tribunal must take reasonably practicable measures to ensure that the parties have the opportunity to cross‑examine witnesses.[21]
(4) Section 32(6)(c)(ii) required the Tribunal to permit the Board to cross‑examine Dr Adams on his affidavit. While the Tribunal was permitted to control the cross‑examination to ensure that it was not prolix, was confined to matters in issue and was not unfair, it was not permitted to refuse to permit cross‑examination at all.[22]
(5) Further, the refusal to permit the Board to cross‑examine amounted to a failure to afford procedural fairness, having regard to the following:[23]
(a) Dr Adams formally relied on his affidavit knowing that the Board wished to cross‑examine him on it;
(b) Dr Adams' veracity or candour in his evidence was a relevant consideration to whether the Tribunal should accept the undertaking; and
(c) during the hearing, the Tribunal expressed apparently concluded views to the effect that the affidavit did not disclose a lack of candour because there were other explanations for the issues raised by the Board. Such conclusions should not have been reached without the Board first having had the opportunity of cross‑examination.
(a) As to the first reason given by the Tribunal, the Tribunal did not know what would be revealed during cross‑examination and therefore could not say that it was not satisfied that cross‑examination would be of assistance. To so reason was circular.
(b) As to the second reason, the object of the cross‑examination was to challenge the explanation given by Dr Adams in his affidavit - in order to establish his lack of candour - not to seek to prove the substantive allegations against him. In any event, the Tribunal had power to control the cross‑examination to avoid unfairness.
(c) As to the third reason, the Tribunal made it clear that it did not wish to cross‑examine Dr Adams to prove the allegations, but rather to challenge the candour of his affidavit.
(7) In its final reasons, in addressing the Board's submissions, the Tribunal reached conclusions about Dr Adams' candour without having permitted the Board to cross‑examine him. That is illustrated by the manner in which the Tribunal dealt with the specific concerns raised by the Board, as outlined in [52<[25]] above.25
(8) The Tribunal gave no reasons as to why it considered the Board's proposed cross‑examination concerning the Parent Y notification to be irrelevant.[26]
(1) Whether it is necessary to permit cross‑examination depends upon the circumstances of the case, including the nature of the proceedings and its subject matter. In the particular context of appeals against decisions to take immediate action under s 156 of the National Law, it has been held that generally it is appropriate that there not be cross‑examination. That is because the nature of the Tribunal's task does not entail a detailed inquiry as to what happened in relation to the allegation; the question is about risk. Moreover, the substantive allegations may fall to be determined by a future tribunal.
(2) The Tribunal had the benefit of detailed submissions from the Board about the objects of the proposed cross‑examination. Further, counsel for Dr Adams foreshadowed the evidence that Dr Adams would give in response to the Board's identified concerns.
(3) The Tribunal was right to find that the proposed cross‑examination had limited forensic utility. Dr Adams' counsel foreshadowed Dr Adams' explanations for any discrepancies in his affidavit and, in any event, it was objectively more likely that the discrepancies were the result of oversight, rather than a deliberate attempt to mislead. In any event, any admission of intentional untruth would have been of limited significance because the underlying evidence was itself of so little weight. Further and more significantly, there were, as the Tribunal found, many countervailing reasons why Dr Adams was very unlikely to breach the undertaking.
(4) The Tribunal was also right to identify the real risk of significant prejudice to Dr Adams from permitting cross‑examination. In that regard, it would have been unfair for there to be cross‑examination of Dr Adams but not the complainants. Moreover, aspects of Parent Y's allegations were known by the Board but not disclosed to Dr Adams. The unfairness of cross‑examination could not have been controlled because there is no hard and fast distinction between the establishment of a lack of candour in Dr Adams' response to the allegations and cross‑examination directed to establishing the substantive allegations.
(5) Even if the Tribunal's refusal to permit cross‑examination was erroneous, any such error has not been shown to be material. That is because the cross‑examination was very unlikely to generate an adverse inference of any real significance, and because there were various other compelling reasons supporting the acceptance of the undertaking.
Ground 1(a): the proper construction of s 32(6)(c)(ii) of the SAT Act
Ground 1(b): procedural fairness Legal principles
Why procedural fairness did not require the Tribunal to permit cross‑examination
(1) the existence of the discrepancy or material non‑disclosure in Dr Adams' affidavit;
(2) that Dr Adams included the relevant discrepancy, or omitted the relevant matter, deliberately, in order to mislead, rather than inadvertently; and
(3) that Dr Adams' deliberately misleading affidavit demonstrated that he could not be trusted to comply with his undertaking.
I certify that the preceding paragraph(s) comprise the reasons for decision of the Supreme Court of Western Australia.
[1] Adams and Medical Board of Australia [2021] WASAT 165 (primary reasons).
[18] Appellant's submissions [27] - [28].
[21] Appellant's submissions [37] - [39].
[22] Appellant's submissions [42] - [43].
[23] Appellant's submissions [45] - [50].
[24] Appellant's submissions [51] - [56].
[25] Appellant's submissions [61] - [63].
[27] Appellant's submissions [70]; appeal ts 27.
[28] Paridis v Settlement Agents Supervisory Board [2007] WASCA 97; (2007) 33 WAR 361 [16].
[29] Paridis v Settlement Agents Supervisory Board [17] ‑ [18].
[33] Kioa v West [1985] HCA 81; (1985) 159 CLR 550.
[34] Kioa v West (585); Defendi v Szigligeti [2019] WASCA 115 [46].
[35] Defendi v Szigligeti [48] and cases there referred to.
[36] See, for example, GPI Leisure Corp Ltd v Herdsman Investments Pty Ltd (No 3) (1990) 20 NSWLR 15; NMFM Property Pty Ltd v Citibank Ltd (No 8) [1999] FCA 266; (1999) 161 ALR 581 [16]; Stack v The State of Western Australia [2004] WASCA 300; (2004) 29 WAR 526 [99] ‑ [100].
[37] Kipoi Holdings Mauritius Ltd v Kirman (No 3) [2022] WASCA 78 [53].
[38] Freehill Hollingdale & Page v Bandwill Pty Ltd [2000] WASCA 150 [29].
[41] Mobil Oil Australia Pty Ltd v Federal Commissioner of Taxation [1963] HCA 41; (1963) 113 CLR 475, 504; SZBEL v Minister for Immigration and Multicultural and Indigenous Affairs [2006] HCA 63; (2006) 228 CLR 152 [26].
[42] National Companies and Securities Commission v News Corporation Ltd [1984] HCA 29; (1984) 156 CLR 296, 326; Erujin Pty Ltd v Jacob [2018] WASCA 212; (2018) 53 WAR 452 [159] ‑ [160].
[43] O'Rourke v Miller (1985) 156 CLR 342, 353; Rawson Finances Pty Ltd v Commissioner of Taxation [2013] FCAFC 26; (2013) 296 ALR 307 [74], [137].
[44] Ramsay v Australian Postal Corp [2005] FCA 640; (2005) 147 FCR 39 [27]; Commissioner for Children and Young People v FZ [2011] NSWCA 111 [25].
[45] Commissioner of Children v FZ [26].
[46] Medical Board of Australia v Sami [2022] VSC 90; (2022) 66 VR 513 [174].
[47] Chief Executive Officer, Department for Child Protection v Grindrod [No 2] [2008] WASCA 28; (2008) 36 WAR 39.
[48] Chief Executive Officer, Department for Child Protection and Family Support v IGR [2019] WASCA 20; (2019) 54 WAR 222.
[49] Bernadt v Medical Board of Australia [2013] WASCA 259 [152].
[50] Helmy v Medical Board of Australia [2016] ACAT 97 [22].
(2007) 33 WAR 361
(1985) 159 CLR 550
(1963) 113 CLR 475
(2006) 228 CLR 152
(1984) 156 CLR 296
(2018) 53 WAR 452
(1985) 156 CLR 342
(2013) 296 ALR 307
(1990) 20 NSWLR 15
(1999) 161 ALR 581
(2004) 29 WAR 526
(2005) 147 FCR 39
(2022) 66 VR 513
(2008) 36 WAR 39
(2019) 54 WAR 222