[2026] WASC 35
General information, not legal advice.
Supreme Court of WA
2026-02-19
Seaward J
Original judgment source is linked above.
(a) affidavit of Thomas George Camp, sworn 31 October 2023;
(b) second affidavit of Thomas George Camp, sworn 22 November 2023;
(c) affidavit of Eddie Ahmed Kamil, sworn 31 October 2023; and
(d) affidavit of Eddie Ahmed Kamil, sworn 10 November 2023.
(a) affidavit of Tianne Maree Bassanelli, affirmed 26 September 2023;
(b) affidavit of Mark Daniel Doran, affirmed 31 January 2024;
(c) second affidavit of Mark Daniel Doran, affirmed 19 March 2024;
(d) second affidavit of Tianne Maree Bassanelli, affirmed 20 May 2024;
(e) affidavit of Candice Dion Nardene Heedes Evans, affirmed 14 May 2024; and
(f) affidavit of Bouyden Terrence McKenzie, affirmed 23 May 2024.
RECOMMENDATION
That you issue a public warning to consumers about Mr Eddie KAMIL trading as 'Perth City Apartment Hotel', as a result of a high number of consumer complaints received alleging unfair business practices with respect to the return of security bond payments.
BACKGROUND
12. - 16. [Redacted as subject to legal professional privilege]
As you are aware, the Commissioner has received multiple complaints from consumers concerning your business, 'Perth City Apartment Hotel'. The complainants allege that you have refused to refund their security bond payments, claiming the consumers either smoked in the hotel room or stained/damaged the towels and/or linen. Conciliation attempts in each case have been unsuccessful and you have not been forthcoming with providing evidence of alleged damage and costs incurred.
The Commissioner is concerned that in carrying on your business you are engaging in business practices which are unfair and may adversely affect consumers.
Section 57 of the FTA provides that the Commissioner may make public statements concerning unfair business practices and matters affecting the interests of consumers. The Commissioner is of the opinion that your business has the potential to cause adverse loss or damage to consumers.
Accordingly, the Commissioner has determined that it is in the public interest to make a public statement, under section 57 of the FTA, warning consumers of these potential detriments and naming yourself and your associated entities.
A copy of the statement which the Commissioner intends to publish is enclosed.
You have until 4.00pm (WST) on Monday, 21 November 2022 to provide any written comment or make a written objection to the proposed statement ...
The Commissioner will take any such written comment or objection into account in determining whether it is in the public interest to publish the statement.
In addition to the public statement, the Commissioner reserves the right to take such other action, in accordance with his statutory powers, as is necessary in the public interest.
Consumer alert about Perth hotel owner who keeps security bonds (Eddie Kamil / Perth City Apartment Hotel)
● Guests claim the hotel retains their security bond for 'false reasons'
● A total of 18 complaints against the hotel and its proprietor remain unresolved
● Consumers advised to consider complaints before making a booking
Consumer Protection is raising a consumer alert about a Perth hotel proprietor who allegedly retains security bond payments from guests for 'false reasons'.
According to a number of customers, Eddie Kamil, trading as Perth City Apartment Hotel in West Perth, has been accepting security bonds of $150 to $300 on top of the nightly tariff.
Complaints from guests received by Consumer Protection stated that Mr Kamil had retained their bond, 'falsely' accusing them of damaging property, staining towels/linen and smoking in non-smoking rooms. It is further alleged that Mr Kamil has failed to provide evidence to support his claims.
Between 27 July 2020 and 29 August 2022, 20 complaints were lodged and 18 of them remain unresolved.
Commissioner for Consumer Protection Gary Newcombe said the public now needs to be aware of the issues being raised about the hotel proprietor's business practices while investigations continue.
'We are concerned that Mr Kamil may be using false reasons to retain the security bond payments in order to increase his hotel's revenue,' Mr Newcombe said.
'For many guests who pay this security bond, there appears to be some risk that they may not get it returned, and Mr Kamil has so far failed to provide any evidence to back up his claims.
'In light of our warning, consumers who are concerned about dealing with Perth City Apartment Hotel should consider booking with one of the many other budget accommodation providers.'
Complaints against Mr Kamil or Perth City Apartment Hotel can be lodged on the Consumer Protection website or enquiries can be made by email consumer@dmirs.wa.gov.au or by calling 1300 30 40 54.
(a) it was not in the public interest that the proposed media statement be published;
(b) Mr Kamil strongly denied any wrongdoing and was ready and willing to cooperate with the Commissioner in relation to any investigations;
(c) the media statement will do irrecoverable damage to Mr Kamil's business and reputation;
(d) as the complaints remained unresolved, and no court has established the complaints, the Commissioner could not reach the level of satisfaction required to be empowered under s 57 of the FT Act to publish the media statement and issuing any statement would be outside the scope of the power contained in s 57 of the FT Act;
(e) Mr Kamil has not received the details of the complaints;
(f) Mr Kamil disputes that he has retained security bonds without proper reasons and disputes that he has not provided evidence to support his claims; and
(g) the draft media statement is defamatory.
(a) referred to the Initial Memorandum and the former Commissioner's approval of the recommendations contained therein;
(b) referred to the draft media statement being provided to Mr Kamil for comment, and summarised the response from Mr Kamil's solicitors;
(c) provided a response to some of the matters raised by Mr Kamil's solicitors, including that Mr Kamil had been contacted in relation to the complaints, but had failed to provide sufficient evidence in support of his claims;
(d) attaching a table containing information in relation to each of the complaints;
(e) stated that three further complaints had been received, provided a summary of each and stated that one of the complaints had been resolved and that two of the complaints were currently going through the conciliation process. The Final Memorandum stated that none of these three complaints are included in the proposed public warning;
(f) contained a media statement for consideration. That media statement had been amended in some respects from the draft media statement provided to Mr Kamil; and
(g) contained the following recommendation:
Consumer alert about Perth hotel owner who allegedly incorrectly
keeps security bonds (Eddie Kamil / Perth City Apartment Hotel)
● Guests claim the hotel incorrectly retains their security bonds
● 17 consumer complaints against the hotel and its proprietor remain unresolved
● Consumers advised to consider this alert before making a booking
Consumer Protection is raising a consumer alert about a Perth hotel proprietor who allegedly incorrectly retains security bond payments from guests, either wholly or partially.
According to a number of customers, Eddie Kamil, trading as Perth City Apartment Hotel in West Perth, has been accepting security bonds of $150 to $300 on top of the nightly tariff.
Complaints from guests received by Consumer Protection stated that Mr Kamil retained their bonds, incorrectly accusing them of damaging property, staining towels/linen and smoking in non-smoking rooms.
Between 27 July 2020 and 29 August 2022, 17 complaints were lodged with Consumer Protection that remain unresolved.
Commissioner for Consumer Protection Trish Blake said the public now needs to be aware that these issues are being raised about the hotel proprietor's business practices while investigations continue.
'We are concerned that Mr Kamil may be incorrectly retaining security bond payments,' Ms Blake said.
'For guests who pay this security bond, there appears to be some risk that they may not get it returned. Whilst Mr Kamil says he wants to cooperate with our investigation, he has so far not supplied sufficient evidence to back up his claims.
'Before booking budget accommodation in Perth, consumers should consider the information in this alert.'
Complaints against Mr Kamil or Perth City Apartment Hotel can be lodged on the Consumer Protection website or enquiries can be made by email consumer@dmirs.wa.gov.au or by calling 1300 30 40 54.
(a) 24 January 2023, Stephanie Marsh, ABC Radio Goldfields;
(b) 26 January 2023, Stephanie Marsh, Great Southern FM;
(c) 27 January 2023, Stephanie Marsh, Triple M Narrogin;
(d) 27 January 2023, Annetta Bellingeri, Bunbury Community Radio;
(e) on around 31 January 2023, Candice Evans, 6DBY Larrkardi Radio Derby, Goolari Radio and Triple M Midwest/Geraldton;
(f) 31 January 2023, Annetta Bellingeri, Triple M Bunbury;
(g) 31 January 2023, Bouyden McKenzie, Triple M Kalgoorlie; and
(h) 3 February 2023, Stephanie Marsh, Denmark Community Radio.
1.1. The Commissioner personally purported to make a decision on 18 January 2023 to 'approve' an exercise of the power under s 57 of the FT Act in relation to conduct that could only have engaged s 223 of the Australian Consumer Law (WA).
3.1 On or about 18 January 2023, the Commissioner personally signified her approval in writing to a recommendation to issue a media statement under s 57 of the FT Act.
3.2 On or about 8 November 2022, the Commissioner (in her then capacity as Acting Director of a sub-unit of the Department) personally 'noted and endorsed' a proposal to the then Commissioner recommending a media statement and summarising Mr Kamil's alleged conduct as 'misconduct', and his explanation(s) as 'spurious', and his participation in conciliation as lacking 'good faith'.
3.3 The Commissioner had tangentially relevant or irrelevant but prejudicial, information that Mr Kamil had had his registration under the Real Estate and Business Agents Act 1978 (WA) cancelled 13 years earlier and a prosecution of him was abandoned 4 years earlier;
3.4 Whether giving Mr Kamil less than 24 hours to respond but taking 3 months to exercise the power (with at most 90 minutes to consider the January memorandum and the November response) might have operated on the mind of the bystander.
4.4 Denial of procedural fairness. Mr Kamil had been invited to respond to an allegation of 'unfair' business practices and a draft proposed media statement, but Mr Kamil had not been informed nor invited to comment to any of the matters subsequently stated on public talkback radio.
5.1 The officers of the Department participated in multiple radio broadcasts across Western Australia, directed to publicly naming Mr Kamil in connection with allegations of unfair or fraudulent business, on 24 January 2023 (ABC Goldfields WA), on 26 January 2023 (Great Southern FM), on 27 January 2023 (Bunbury Community Radio and Triple M Narrogin), and on multiple occasions on or about 31 January 2023 (Triple M Midwest/Geraldton; Goolari Radio; 6DBY Larrkardi Radio Derby; Triple M Bunbury; Triple M Kalgoorlie; and on 3 February 2023 (Denmark Community Radio).
5.2 Procedural fairness. Mr Kamil was not informed at all of the statements to be made (or in fact made) or the fact of the radio broadcasts, and the procedure adopted was itself otherwise unfair.
5.3. Failure to consider. The officers of the Department failed to themselves give proper, genuine or realistic consideration of the requirements of either s 57 of the FT Act or s 223 of Australian Consumer Law (WA).
5.4 No authority. The officers of the Department had no authority at all under the FT Act or otherwise to exercise the power vested in the Commissioner for Consumer Protection.
1A. A declaration that the Commissioner's decision and/or conduct in broadcasting oral statements on talkback radio on or about 19 January 2023 was unlawful.
1AA. A declaration that certain Department officers' decisions and/or conduct in broadcasting oral statements on radio broadcasts on 24, 26, 27 and on or about 31 January 2023 and 3 February 2023 were unlawful.
- An injunction requiring the Commissioner to do all things necessary to cause to be taken down the written 'consumer alert' published on the Department's website, and to do all things necessary to cause to be deleted all other social media publications, including in particular statements made on 'X' (formerly known as 'Twitter'), Facebook and LinkedIn.
(a) whether the Commissioner was authorised to issue the media statement under s 57 of the FT Act, or whether the only available power was that under s 223 of the ACL WA;
(b) whether the Commissioner was required to make a separate decision to discuss the media statement in the radio interviews;
(c) were each of the regional officers of the Department, or the Commissioner, required to make a separate decision to discuss the media statement in the radio interviews;
(d) whether the regional officers of the Department have the authority to exercise the powers of the Commissioner;
(e) whether there has been a denial of procedural fairness on the basis that there was a reasonable apprehension of bias that the Commissioner might not bring an impartial mind to the decision to issue the media statement;
(f) has there otherwise been a denial of procedural fairness on the basis that Mr Kamil was not given an opportunity to comment or respond prior to the Commissioner and/or the regional officers participating in the radio broadcasts; and
(g) are any errors material errors.
An Act to -
● promote and encourage fair trading practices and a competitive and fair market, and protect the interests of consumers, by applying the Australian Consumer Law (with modifications) as a law of Western Australia, and providing for codes of practice; and
● provide for the powers and functions of a Commissioner, including powers to carry out investigations into alleged breaches of this Act; and
● provide for the repeal of the Consumer Affairs Act 1971, Fair Trading Act 1987 and Door to Door Trading Act 1987; and
● make consequential amendments to various Acts,
and for related purposes.
The object of this Act is to improve consumer well-being through consumer empowerment and protection, to foster effective competition, and to enable the confident participation of consumers in markets in which both consumers and suppliers trade fairly.
(a) persons carrying on business within this jurisdiction; or
(b) bodies corporate incorporated or registered under the law of this jurisdiction; or
(c) persons ordinarily resident in this jurisdiction; or
(d) persons otherwise connected with this jurisdiction.
(1) For the purposes of this section, a person is convicted of an offence if a court finds the person guilty of the offence, or accepts a plea of guilty of the offence, whether or not a conviction is recorded.
(2) If -
(a) an act or omission is an offence against the Australian Consumer Law (WA) and is also an offence against the application law of another participating jurisdiction; and
(b) the offender has been acquitted or convicted of the offence with which the offender is charged, or has already been convicted or acquitted of an offence of which the offender might be convicted upon the indictment or prosecution notice on which the offender has been charged, under the application law of the other participating jurisdiction,
the offender is not liable to be prosecuted or punished for the offence against the Australian Consumer Law (WA).
(3) Nothing in subsection (2) prevents the Commissioner from making or issuing a statement under section 57.
(4) If a person has been ordered to pay a pecuniary penalty under the application law of another participating jurisdiction, the person is not liable to a pecuniary penalty under the Australian Consumer Law (WA) in respect of the same conduct.
(a) to promote the interests of consumers and assist them to a greater awareness in relation to their assessment and use of goods and services;
(b) to collect, collate and disseminate information in respect of matters affecting the interests of consumers;
(c) to receive complaints from consumers concerning matters affecting their interests as consumers, to consider and, if the Commissioner considers it warranted, to investigate those complaints and to take whatever action in respect of those complaints as seems proper to the Commissioner;
(d) to receive complaints of fraudulent or deceptive practices in relation to matters that affect or are likely to affect the interests of consumers, and to make whatever investigations and inquiries and to take whatever other action in respect of those complaints as seems proper to the Commissioner;
(e) to advise and assist consumers who seek from the Commissioner information or guidance on matters affecting their interests as consumers;
(f) to encourage and undertake the dissemination of information concerning consumer affairs to producers, manufacturers and suppliers of goods or services; and
(g) to perform any other functions that are conferred or imposed on the Commissioner by this Act or any other Act.
(1) The Commissioner may publish (in any form) a statement identifying and giving warnings or information about any of the following -
(a) goods that are unsatisfactory or dangerous and persons who supply or are likely to supply those goods;
(b) services supplied in an unsatisfactory or dangerous manner and persons who supply or are likely to supply those services;
(c) unfair business practices and persons who engage or are likely to engage in those practices;
(d) any other matter that adversely affects or may adversely affect the interests of consumers in connection with the acquisition by them of goods or services.
(2) A statement under subsection (1) may identify particular goods, services, business practices, persons, corporate names, business names and trading names.
(3) The Commissioner must not make or issue a statement under this section unless satisfied that it is in the public interest to do so.
(1) The Commissioner may delegate to any other person employed in the Department any power or duty of the Commissioner under a provision of this or any other Act.
(2) The delegation must be in writing signed by the Commissioner.
(3) A person to whom a power or duty is delegated under this section cannot delegate that power or duty.
(4) A person exercising or performing a power or duty that has been delegated to the person under this section is to be taken to do so in accordance with the terms of the delegation unless the contrary is shown.
(5) Nothing in this section limits the ability of the Commissioner to perform a function through an officer or agent.
(1) The regulator may issue to the public a written notice containing a warning about the conduct of a person if:
(a) the regulator has reasonable grounds to suspect that the conduct may constitute a contravention of a provision of Chapter 2, 3 or 4; and
(b) the regulator is satisfied that one or more other persons has suffered, or is likely to suffer, detriment as a result of the conduct; and
(c) the regulator is satisfied that it is in the public interest to issue the notice.
(2) Without limiting subsection (1), if:
(a) a person refuses to respond to a substantiation notice given by the regulator to the person, or fails to respond to the notice before the end of the substantiation notice compliance period for the notice; and
(b) the regulator is satisfied that it is in the public interest to issue a notice under this subsection;
the regulator may issue to the public a written notice containing a warning that the person has refused or failed to respond to the substantiation notice within that period, and specifying the matter to which the substantiation notice related.
(a) that the power contained in s 57 of the FT Act is a general power which must give way to the more specific power contained in s 223 of the ACL WA. In this regard, Mr Kamil relies on the principle of statutory construction referred to in the decision of Anthony Hordern & Sons Ltd v Amalgamated Clothing & Allied Trades Union of Australia;[41]
(b) the history of s 57 of the FT Act, being a provision in existence prior to s 223 of the ACL WA;
(c) that if s 57 of the FT Act was not construed as being subordinate to s 223 of the ACL WA, then s 223 of the ACL WA would be 'wholly redundant'; and
(d) if s 57 of the FT Act was able to be used in the manner proposed by the Commissioner, then the Commissioner would stand alone amongst the other ACL regulators and have different powers. Mr Kamil submits that this would distort what was plainly intended to be a more or less uniform scheme throughout Australia.
(a) the textual differences between the two provisions in terms of the scope of their application;
(b) the statutory context, including other provisions of the FT Act which the Commissioner submits are consistent with the proposition that neither is the primary or predominant power and it is intended that each operate concurrently;
(c) the history of the provisions, which also reveals that s 223 of the ACL WA is not a 'later provision'; and
(d) the inapplicability of the Anthony Hordern principles to the provisions in question.
it must be possible to say that the statute in question confers only one power to take the relevant action, necessitating the confinement of another apparently applicable power by reference to the restrictions in the former power.
(a) permits the Commissioner to publish a statement in any form, giving warnings or information;
(b) that statement may be about the following (and the persons supplying or engaging):
(i) goods that are unsatisfactory or dangerous;
(ii) services supplied in an unsatisfactory or dangerous manner;
(iii) unfair business practices;
(iv) any other matter that adversely affects (or may affect) the interest of consumers in connection with the acquisition of goods or services; and
(c) the Commissioner is not permitted to make or issue a statement unless satisfied that it is in the public interest to do so.
(a) permits the regulator to issue a written warning notice only;
(b) that written notice may be about the conduct of a person which the regulator has reasonable grounds to suspect may constitute a contravention of a provision in ch 2, 3 or 4 of the ACL WA;
(c) the regulator must also be satisfied that one or more persons has suffered, or likely to suffer, detriment as a result of the conduct; and
(d) the regulator must be satisfied that it is in the public interest to issue the notice.
(1) The Commissioner may take whatever action he considers necessary to warn the public of the danger associated with any dangerous goods or goods that do not comply with any applicable product safety standard, and, without limiting the generality of that power, he may publish in any newspaper or by radio or television any information as to the goods including the trade name and description of the goods, and, if he considers it desirable, the names of the manufacturers and suppliers of the goods that are known to him.
(2) The Commissioner may publish a notice in writing in the Gazette containing one or both of the following -
(a) a statement that goods of a kind specified in the notice are under investigation to determine whether the goods will or may cause injury to any person;
(b) a warning of possible risks involved in the use of goods of a kind specified in the notice
(a) by the Commissioner, in relation to her appearances on radio. Mr Kamil's case is that whilst he received a letter and a draft media statement by way of consultation, he was not advised that the Commissioner may also discuss the matters referred to in that statement on radio. Further, Mr Kamil's case is that he was not invited to comment on the matters subsequently stated in the radio interviews, some of which were different in substance to the matters contained in the letter and draft media statement; and
(b) by each of the individual Senior Regional Officers, in relation to their appearances on local radio. Mr Kamil's case is that each of these appearances constitutes an independent exercise of the power under s 57 of the FT Act; none of the Senior Regional Officers were authorised to exercise the power under s 57 of the FT Act; none of the Senior Regional Officers considered the matters referred to in s 57 of the FT Act before their appearances on radio; and Mr Kamil was not informed of the statements to be made (or in fact made) in the radio interviews, or the fact of the radio interviews themselves, and the procedure adopted was itself otherwise unfair.
(a) submits that the obligation to accord procedural fairness attaches only to the exercise of the power under s 57 of the FT Act, which took place on 18 January 2023, and not to the conduct of the Commissioner after making that decision, which included the radio interviews. The Commissioner's case is that these interviews were not separate exercises of the power under s 57 of the FT Act, but rather actions implementing the decision made on 18 January 2023;
(b) says further that Mr Kamil was not denied procedural fairness prior to the Commissioner exercising the power under s 57 of the FT Act on 18 January 2023;
(c) accepts that none of the Senior Regional Officers exercised the power under s 57 of the FT Act prior to their appearances on the local radio stations. However, the Commissioner submits that it was not necessary for any of the Senior Regional Officers to do so, as all the officers were doing during their radio interviews was discussing or implementing the consumer alert previously issued by the Commissioner pursuant to her decision on 18 January 2023. The Commissioner submits that appearing on radio and discussing the consumer alert was an activity that each Senior Regional Officer was authorised to do, and did not require a separate exercise of the power under s 57 of the FT Act; and
(d) accepts that Mr Kamil was entitled to procedural fairness prior to being named under s 57 of the FT Act, which would include prior to the Senior Regional Officers discussing any consumer alert. However, the Commissioner submits that procedural fairness was only required to be accorded prior to the decision by the Commissioner on 18 January 2023 being made (which occurred), and not prior to each individual radio interview.
(a) complaints from consumers are managed in the Retail Branch;
(b) consumer complaints are initially assessed by officers in the Retail Branch's assessment team, who complete a risk assessment. If a complaint is considered suitable for conciliation, an officer from the assessments team will either encourage the trader and the consumer to resolve the dispute between themselves, or a conciliation officer will attempt to negotiate an outcome between the consumer and the trader;
(c) a file is created and maintained in relation to each complaint received;
(d) any complaints that are not considered suitable for conciliation, or cannot be resolved through conciliation, may be referred to the Retail Branch's investigations team if they involve a potential breach of the ACL WA or other legislation administered by the Department;
(e) consideration may also be given by the Department as to whether it is in the public interest for the Commissioner to issue a public warning or statement of information under s 57 of the FT Act or s 223 of the ACL WA;
(f) the usual process when officers in the Department consider that the Commissioner should exercise their power under s 57 of the FT Act or s 223 of the ACL WA is:[58]
(i) the relevant investigating officer/s in the Retail Branch prepares a memorandum to the Commissioner attaching a proposed public warning or statement in the form of a draft media statement;
(ii) the memorandum is provided to the General Manager of the Retail Branch for consideration and (if appropriate) endorsement. The General Manager may request amendments to the memorandum;
(iii) if endorsed by the General Manager, the memorandum is provided to the Director Retail Services of the Retail Branch, who notes and (if appropriate) endorses the memorandum. The Director Retail Services may also request amendments to the memorandum;
(iv) if endorsed by the Director Retail Services, the memorandum is then provided to the Commissioner for their consideration;
(v) the General Manager and Director Retail Services meet with the Commissioner on a monthly basis to discuss matters that are likely to arise for their consideration, and accordingly, the Commissioner is usually aware of a proposed public warning or statement of information before they receive the memorandum;
(vi) before the Commissioner is asked to make a decision to publish a public warning or statement of information, the trader proposed to be named is generally given the opportunity to comment on the proposed warning or statement and any response they provide is considered by the Commissioner; and
(g) in performing its functions, the Retail Branch works with other teams in the Department, including the legal services team, the market analysis team and the community media and engagement team to assist the Retail Branch in briefing and making recommendations to the Commissioner.
(a) the purpose of the policy is to:
(i) ensure that traders are named only where the truth of allegations against them is reasonably established and it is in the public interest to issue a warning to the public;
(ii) balance the risks of issuing a warning to the public about unfair and illegal practices of traders against the need to safeguard against traders' reputations from being unjustifiably damaged; and
(iii) ensure that public naming of traders is undertaken in accordance with the correct legal processes and requirements;
(b) the policy applies to the circumstances in which the Commissioner may chose to exercise the powers under s 57 of the FT Act and/or s 223 of the ACL WA;
(c) public naming of a trader may occur in a media release, interview, Annual Report, Parliamentary statement, correspondence or in response to a public inquiry;
(d) all decisions to name a trader are the responsibility of the Commissioner, and officers of the Department must take care not to make statements to the media or public about particular traders who have not already been named, unless expressly authorised by the Commissioner to do so;
(e) identifies a number of general principles to have regard to when considering whether to name a trader. It is not necessary to detail all of these, but the factors recognise the balancing act between the effect on the trader of a public naming, and the public interest in ensuring the protection of the public; and
(f) identifies that it is important that when a public naming is being considered, that the trader be given a copy of the proposed statement and a reasonable time to respond (save for circumstances where the risk to the public is too great to delay, the trader cannot be identified or the trader cannot be contacted). The amount of time that is reasonable will depend upon the circumstances of each case. Further, that it is important that the response from the trader be considered.
(a) the principal media officer of the Media Team generally drafts written media statements containing consumer alerts for consideration and approval by the relevant officers in the Department, and ultimately the Commissioner. Once a draft media statement containing a consumer alert is approved by the Commissioner, a member of the Media Team publishes it on the Department's website;
(b) it is also standard practice for the media unit of the Media Team to prepare posts for publication on the Department's social media accounts which include a link to the media statement of the Department's website. These posts are not generally reviewed or specifically approved by the Commissioner, and are instead made by the Media Team on the basis of the previously approved media statement;
(c) it is also standard practice for the Commissioner and Senior Regional Officers to promote and further publish consumer alerts across radio, television and print media. The purpose of doing so is to make as many consumers as possible aware of the alert. The Media Team assists the Commissioner and the Senior Regional Officers to do so;
(d) after a written media statement containing a consumer alert has been approved by the Commissioner, an officer from the media unit of Media Team emails a 'media alert' to various radio, television and print media organisations in Western Australia via a media distribution list. That email may also identify a time when the Commissioner is available to answer any media questions about the alert. Media organisations may also request that the Commissioner participate in an interview about the consumer alert;
(e) the Commissioner participates in a weekly radio segment on the ABC Radio Perth Mornings program. The publication of written media statements containing consumer alerts is often arranged to occur on the same day as the segment so that they can be discussed by the Commissioner during the radio segment immediately after they are published;
(f) Senior Regional Officers are authorised to speak to local media about services the Department provides and consumer protection issues of interest to their local community. A number of Senior Regional Officers participate in regular radio segments on regional radio statements. It is standard practice for the Principal Media Officer to email the Senior Regional Officers a list of suggested topics for them to cover in their media communications, as well as media speaking notes on those topics prepared by Principal Media Officer or other media officers in the Media Team. It is standard practice for the list to include any consumer alert that may be relevant to the regions that has already been the subject of a written media statement approved by the Commissioner. Ultimately, it is for each Senior Regional Officer to decide whether or not to speak about any of the particular topics suggested to them by the Media Team; and
(g) for consumer alerts, the general practice of the media unit of the Media Team is to ensure that any media speaking notes provided to Senior Regional Officers are a truncated version of the written media statement approved by the Commissioner.
(a) the purpose of the Media Policy is to provide all officers of the Consumer Protection Division of the Department with guidelines as to who is authorised to communicate with the media;
(b) the term 'media' applies to radio, television, newspapers and social media, as well as other online and electronic formats and outlets. The term also applies to personnel who work within the industry;
(c) only authorised officers are allowed to speak to the media. All authorised officers will be nominated by the Commissioner and/or relevant Directors. All authorised officers will be provided with media training; and
(d) Senior Regional Officers have the authority to speak to local media about services that they provide to the local community and about consumer protection related issues of interest to the local community. Senior Regional Officers will liaise with the Principal Media Liaison Officer on their forward program of media contacts. If contentious issues arise that impact beyond a region, Senior Regional Officers must seek approval and guidance from the Principal Media Liaison Officer before making any media comment. Senior Regional Officers must not comment to the media on broader policy areas or consumer issues without prior consultation with the Principal Media Liaison Officer.
Preliminary issue - Characterisation of the actions of the Commissioner and the Senior Regional Officers
(a) was not simply a decision that the written media statement be published, but was a decision that statements generally consistent with, or based on, the written media statement would be published through different forms of media to consumers by both the Commissioner and other relevant officers of the Department; and
(b) in any event, the evidence does not establish the contrary.
The cases in which the principle has been applied are cases in which the nature, scope and purpose of the function vested in the repository made it unlikely that Parliament intended that it was to be exercised by the repository personally because administrative necessity indicated that it was impractical for him to act otherwise than through his officers or officers responsible for him.
(a) the requirement of procedural fairness is a fair hearing, not a fair outcome;[66]
(b) the precise content of the requirements of procedural fairness in any particular case will depend critically upon the statutory framework within which the relevant power falls to be exercised and the facts and circumstances of the particular case;[67]
(c) the rules of procedural fairness do not have immutably fixed content, but rather are flexible. The content of procedural fairness will vary according to the circumstances of the particular case. Procedural fairness is essentially practical; it is not an abstract concept. The concern of the law is the avoidance of 'practical injustice'. What is necessary to avoid practical injustice will depend on the circumstances;[68] and
(d) one aspect of procedural fairness is that a person affected must have a 'reasonable opportunity' to be heard. That is, to present their case or respond to the decision‑maker prior to the decision being made. In the context of being accorded a reasonable opportunity to be heard, a person affected by the decision is ordinarily entitled to have brought to their attention the critical issues or factors on which the decision is likely to turn and to be informed of the nature and content of adverse material that might be relied upon.[69] What this will amount to practically in any one case will depend upon the statutory provisions and the facts of the case. However, as observed by the Court of Appeal in Papamihail v Legal Profession Complaints Committee:[70]
Procedural fairness does not require disclosure of every document that a decision-maker has received. Nor does it normally require a decision-maker to disclose their thinking process, or proposed conclusions, or invite a response to them before making a decision. It generally requires a decision‑maker to disclose:
(a) the substance of any adverse information or evidence which is credible, relevant and significant to the decision to be made that it has received from other sources (ie sources other than the affected party); and
(b) any proposed adverse conclusions or recommendations which would not obviously be open on the known materials.
(a) he was not informed of the context and format in which the statement under s 57 of the FT Act would be published, namely he was not informed of the fact of the radio interviews;
(b) he was not provided with a copy of the statement that would be published in the radio interviews; and
(c) he was not informed of all of the precise matters that would be said about him in the Commissioner's radio interviews.
(a) that statements may convey quite different meanings or impressions in different contexts or formats; and
(b) a radio listener does not listen or watch with the same degree of concentration as would a reader of a statement, and may therefore overlook express qualification or nuances; and
(c) what is conveyed to the ordinary listener or viewer is a matter of impression, conveyed by the publication as a whole, and context can significantly affect the meaning conveyed by words spoken.
(a) the use of the words 'top-up' by the Commissioner when stating that Mr Kamil was just 'top[ping]-up his income' or that the retention of bonds was 'just a nice tidy top-up' of his income;
(b) that Mr Kamil had refused, without a proper basis, a refund in respect of 'pet damage';
(c) that none 'of those people got their money back'; and
(d) in the 6PR radio interview, referring to the complainant Kylie‑Jo Parker, and stating that this complainant had lost their bond.
(a) were not required to separately exercise the power under s 57 of the FT Act before appearing in those interviews (ground 5.3); and
(b) were authorised to appear in the radio interviews as part of the process of discussing and drawing attention to, answering questions or further publishing the previous exercise of the statutory power by the Commissioner to issue the media statement (ground 5.4).
(a) in the radio interview on 31 January 2023 on 6DBY, the Senior Regional Officer was asked whether a bond of $150 ‑ $300 is a normal amount, and the Senior Regional Officer said that 'it does seem like a lot, but considering that it is a budget accommodation hotel, you wouldn't say that up to $300 would be fair and reasonable';[76]
(b) in the ABC Radio Goldfields interview on 24 January 2023,[77] the Senior Regional Officer referred to non‑smokers being charged for smoking in a room;
(c) in the ABC Radio Goldfields interview on 24 January 2023, the Senior Regional Officer referred to a guest having been accused of 'soiling towels with makeup, even though she had brought her own towels';[78] and
(d) in the ABC Radio Goldfields interview on 24 January 2023, the Senior Regional Officer referred to not wanting to see 'anyone else lose further money' and 'this is not a means of propping up a room rate by retaining bonds'.[79]
(a) the Commissioner was, at the time of the Initial Memorandum, the Acting Director, Retail and Services, and in that role 'noted and endorsed' the recommendation to the former Commissioner contained in the First Memorandum;
(b) the Commissioner was 'aware of' and 'involved' in an active intellectual way with the recommendation to the former Commissioner' contained in the Initial Memorandum, which:
(i) recommended that the former Commissioner issue a public warning under s 57 of the FT Act before Mr Kamil was invited to comment;
(ii) noted the cancellation of Mr Kamil's registration under the Real Estate and Business Agents Act 1978 (WA) 13 years earlier;
(iii) noted that civil penalty proceedings under the ACL WA were under 'active consideration' and Mr Kamil was criticised for 'not be[ing] forthcoming with providing evidence';
(c) the Commissioner was, by the time of the final decision, now in the role of the Commissioner and was the decision‑maker and exercised her discretion to approve the publication of the media statement;
(d) Mr Kamil was given only the short period of time between 4.03 pm on Friday 18 November 2022 to 4.00 pm on Monday 21 November 2022, to respond to the consultation letter and draft media statement, and then the final decision was not made by the Commissioner until 18 January 2023 (being approximately a further seven weeks later);
(e) the Final Memorandum referred to a complaint made by Kylie‑Jo Parker, which had been resolved; and
(f) the final decision was made by the Commissioner approximately 90 minutes after receiving the Final Memorandum.
(a) The test for the disqualification of a judge on the ground of apprehended bias is whether or not a fair-minded lay observer might reasonably apprehend that the judge might not bring an impartial and unprejudiced mind to the resolution of the question the judge is required to decide. This test is sometimes referred to as the 'double might' test. The test is not demanding and reflects the importance that justice must not only be done but also manifestly be seen to be done. The test for apprehended bias is objective.
(b) Application of the test involves two steps: first an identification of what might lead the judicial officer to decide a case other than on its legal and factual merits; and second, there must be a 'logical connection' established between that matter and the 'feared deviation from the course of deciding the case on its merits'. Some authorities also include a third step, being consideration of the reasonableness of the apprehension of the deviation being caused by the factor identified in step one.[83]
The state of mind described as bias in the form of prejudgment is one so committed to a conclusion already formed as to be incapable of alteration, whatever evidence or arguments may be presented. Natural justice does not require the absence of any predisposition or inclination for or against an argument or conclusion. This preliminary argument should be rejected.
In this context, the appellants must demonstrate prejudgement by the Commissioner. That requires demonstrating that the Commissioner might not be open to persuasion, in other words that the conclusion already formed is not open to alteration whatever evidence or argument is presented.
Facts the fair-minded lay observer would be aware of
(a) the statutory decision being made was a decision under s 57 of the FT Act;
(b) the Commissioner was the person making the decision on 18 January 2023;
(c) the decision-making process involved in the preparation of the Initial Memorandum, and of the wording of the Initial Memorandum. Further, that the recommendation contained in the Initial Memorandum was 'noted and endorsed' by the Commissioner in her former role as A/Director, Retail Services of the Retail Branch;
(d) the former Commissioner approved the recommendation contained in the Initial Memorandum;
(e) following the former Commissioner's approval, Mr Kamil was sent the letter on Friday 18 November 2022 with the attached draft media statement, and was invited to provide any comments in response by 4.00 pm on Monday 21 November 2022;
(f) Mr Kamil responded via his solicitors' letter dated 21 November 2022;
(g) at some point between 18 November 2022 and 18 January 2023, the former Commissioner retired, and the current Commissioner was appointed to the role of Commissioner;
(h) the Final Memorandum was prepared on 17 January 2023 and of the wording of the Final Memorandum, including that it provided an updated outline of the facts, including the response received by Mr Kamil's solicitors to the letter and draft media statement, and contained a recommendation that the Commissioner exercise the power under s 57 of the FT Act to issue a statement;
(i) the current Commissioner was sent the Final Memorandum by email on 18 January 2023 and requested to attend to the matter that day. The Commissioner approved the recommendation on 18 January 2023 approximately 90 minutes after receiving the Final Memorandum;
(j) the media statement was then published on 19 January 2023, and was not identical to the draft media statement sent to Mr Kamil for his comments;
(k) the contents of the relevant Departmental policies, including the Public Naming of Traders Policy and the Media Policy;
(l) the Departmental process to be followed in relation to an exercise of the power contained in s 57 of the FT Act; and
(m) the fact of, dates of and contents of the previous communications between officers of the Department and Mr Kamil regarding the complaints received by the Department.
Accordingly, the Commissioner has determined that it is in the public interest to make a public statement, under section 57 of the FTA, warning consumers of these potential detriments and naming yourself and your associated entities.
You have until 4.00pm (WST) on Monday, 21 November 2022 to provide any written comment or make a written objection to the proposed statement ...
The Commissioner will take any such written comment or objection into account in determining whether it is in the public interest to publish the statement.
(a) the substantive memorandum itself was effectively three pages of substantive information (the final page consisting of one paragraph of three lines, before the various signature clauses);
(b) the Initial Memorandum (absent attachments) consisting of three substantive pages;
(c) the letter from Mr Kamil's solicitors, which was three pages in length;
(d) the table of past complaints, which was effectively two pages of entries (with one entry on page 3);
(e) two attachments (Attachment D and Attachment E) which have been redacted for legal professional privilege; and
(f) a draft letter to Mr Kamil consisting of one substantive page.
Commissioner's previous involvement in the two-stage decision‑making process
A 'personal interest' in this context is not the kind of interest by which a person will receive some material or other benefit. In the case of a prosecutor or other moving party it refers to a view which they may have of the matter, and which is in that sense personal to them. The interest of a prosecutor may be in the vindication of their opinion that an offence has occurred or that a particular penalty should be imposed, or in obtaining an outcome consonant with the prosecutor's view of guilt or punishment.
(a) the Initial Memorandum:
(i) referred to Mr Kamil's previous history regarding the cancellation of Mr Kamil's registration under the Real Estate and Business Agents Act 1978 (WA) 13 years earlier; and/or
(ii) noted that civil penalty proceedings under the ACL WA were under 'active consideration' and Mr Kamil was criticised for 'not be[ing] forthcoming with providing evidence'; and/or
(b) because the Final Memorandum referred to a complaint made by Kylie-Jo Parker, when it had been resolved.
(a) the length of time Mr Kamil was given to respond in the consultation process;
(b) the length of time it took for a final decision to be made in comparison to the amount of time given to Mr Kamil to respond; and
(c) the amount of time it took the Commissioner to make a decision once provided with the Final Memorandum.
I certify that the preceding paragraph(s) comprise the reasons for decision of the Supreme Court of Western Australia.
[1] Affidavit of Tianne Maree Bassanelli, affirmed 26 September 2023 (First Bassanelli Affidavit) [20].
[3] First Bassanelli Affidavit [23] - [24].
[4] First Bassanelli Affidavit [29] and TMB4.
[5] First Bassanelli Affidavit [26] and TMB3.
[6] First Bassanelli Affidavit [30] - [31].
[7] First Bassanelli Affidavit [32] and TMB5.
[8] First Bassanelli Affidavit, TMB5, pages 70 - 71.
[9] First Bassanelli Affidavit, TMB5, pages 67 - 68.
[10] First Bassanelli Affidavit [34].
[11] First Bassanelli Affidavit and TMB7.
[12] First Bassanelli Affidavit [35] and [37].
[13] First Bassanelli Affidavit [36].
[14] First Bassanelli Affidavit and TMB9.
[15] First Bassanelli Affidavit and TMB9.
[16] First Bassanelli Affidavit [42] and TMB9.
[17] First Bassanelli Affidavit [39] - [40] and TMB8.
[19] First Bassanelli Affidavit [43] and TMB10.
[21] First Bassanelli Affidavit [44] and TMB11.
[22] Affidavit of Mark Daniel Doran, affirmed 31 January 2024 (First Doran Affidavit) [35] - [36]; Statement of Agreed Facts [4].
[23] Statement of Agreed Facts [5]; First Doran Affidavit and MDD5, MDD14.
[25] First Bassanelli Affidavit, [45] and TMB12.
[26] Statement of Agreed Facts [7]; First Doran Affidavit [43], [45]; Affidavit of Mark Daniel Doran, affirmed 19 March 2024 (Second Doran Affidavit) [8].
[27] Statement of Agreed Facts [8]; First Doran Affidavit [43].
[31] See the Second Amended Application for Judicial Review pursuant to orders of the court made 6 December 2023.
[34] LPDT v Minister for Immigration, Citizenship, Migrant Services and Multicultural Affairs [2024] HCA 12; (2024) 280 CLR 321 [2].
[35] Re Refugee Review Tribunal; Ex parte Aala [2000] HCA 57; (2000) 204 CLR 82 [163].
[36] Kirk v Industrial Court of New South Wales [2010] HCA 1; (2010) 239 CLR 531 [71].
[37] Aronson M, 'Jurisdictional Error without the Tears' in M Groves and H P Lee (eds), Australian Administrative Law: Fundamentals, Principles and Doctrines, Cambridge University Press, Victoria, (2007) 330, 335 - 336, as cited in Kirk v Industrial Court of New South Wales [2010] HCA 1; (2010) 239 CLR 531 [71]. See LPDT v Minister for Immigration, Citizenship, Migrant Services and Multicultural Affairs [2024] HCA 12; (2024) 280 CLR 321 [3].
[38] Plaintiff M64/2015 v Minister for Immigration and Border Protection [2015] HCA 50; (2015) 258 CLR 173 [24].
[39] LPDT v Minister for Immigration, Citizenship, Migrant Services and Multicultural Affairs [2024] HCA 12; (2024) 280 CLR 321 [6] - [7]; Nathanson v Minister for Home Affairs [2022] HCA 26; (2022) 276 CLR 80 [32] ‑ [33] (Kiefel CJ, Keane, Gleeson JJ), [46] (Gageler J), [63] (Gordon J).
[40] LPDT v Minister for Immigration, Citizenship, Migrant Services and Multicultural Affairs [2024] HCA 12; (2024) 280 CLR 321 [14] - [15].
[41] Anthony Hordern & Sons Ltd v Amalgamated Clothing & Allied Trades Union of Australia [1932] HCA 9; (1932) 47 CLR 1, 7 (Anthony Hordern).
[42] CIC Insurance Ltd v Bankstown Football Club Ltd [1997] HCA 2; (1997) 187 CLR 384, 408; Project Blue Sky Inc v Australian Broadcasting Authority [1998] HCA 28; (1998) 194 CLR 355 [69]; Alcan (NT) Alumina Pty Ltd v Commissioner of Territory Revenue [2009] HCA 41; (2009) 239 CLR 27 [47]; SZTAL v Minister for Immigration and Border Protection [2017] HCA 34; (2017) 262 CLR 362 [14].
[44] Alcan (NT) Alumina Pty Ltd v Commissioner of Territory Revenue [2009] HCA 41; (2009) 239 CLR 27 [47].
[45] Project Blue Sky Inc v Australian Broadcasting Authority [1998] HCA 28; (1998) 194 CLR 355 [70]; Aldi Foods Pty Ltd v Shop, Distributive & Allied Employees Association [2017] HCA 53; (2017) 262 CLR 593 [16]; Kelly v Birchwood Consolidated Pty Ltd (Receivers and Managers Appointed) (In Liquidation) [2023] WASCA 76 [181].
[46] Project Blue Sky Inc v Australian Broadcasting Authority [1998] HCA 28; (1998) 194 CLR 355 [70]. Mohammadi v Bethune [2018] WASCA 98 [34]; Kelly v Birchwood Consolidated Pty Ltd (Receivers and Managers Appointed) (In Liquidation) [2023] WASCA 76 [180].
[47] FGH v NOP [2023] WASCA 177; (2023) 60 WAR 299.
[48] Ainsworth v Criminal Justice Commission [1992] HCA 10; (1992) 175 CLR 564, 575.
[49] Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs and Indigenous Affairs v Nystrom [2006] HCA 50; (2006) 228 CLR 566 [54].
[50] cf the situation where the one set of facts gives rise to two different offences, under different statutes, each with the same elements but different penalties: Hoffman v Chief of Army [2004] FCAFC 148; (2004) 137 FCR 520 [11].
[51] FT Act s 12; Competition and Consumer Act 2010 (Cth) s 140H; when read with the definitions of 'application law', 'participating jurisdiction', 'participating State' and 'participating Territory' in s 140 of the Competition and Consumer Act 2010 (Cth).
[53] Fair Trading Act 1987 (NSW) s 86A.
[56] Fair Trading Act 1987 (WA) (repealed) s 49.
[57] First Bassanelli Affidavit [8] - [14].
[58] First Bassanelli Affidavit [15] - [18].
[61] First Doran Affidavit [11] - [29].
[63] Carltona Ltd v Commissioner of Works [1943] 2 All ER 560, 563.
[64] Norman v Curran [2018] WASC 155.
[65] For completeness, I observe that there may be factual circumstances in which an obligation to accord procedural fairness to a trader prior to the exercise of the statutory power may not arise, or the content may be less than written notice. For example, where the matter is of sufficient urgency or involving a matter of urgent public safety. However, it is not submitted that the present case falls into such a category, and therefore it is not necessary for me to form a final view on this issue, and it is appropriate to proceed on the basis that the obligation to accord Mr Kamil procedural fairness arises in this case.
[66] SZBEL v Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs [2006] HCA 63; (2006) 228 CLR 152 [25].
[67] SZBEL v Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs [2006] HCA 63; (2006) 228 CLR 152 [26].
[68] Kioa v West [1985] HCA 81; (1985) 159 CLR 550, 563 (Gibbs CJ), 583 ‑ 585 (Mason J), 601 (Wilson J), 612 ‑ 614 (Brennan J), 632 ‑ 633 (Deane J); Re Minister for Immigration and Multicultural and Indigenous Affairs; Ex parte Lam [2003] HCA 6; (2003) 214 CLR 1 [37] (Gleeson CJ); Minister for Immigration and Border Protection v SZSSJ [2016] HCA 29; (2016) 259 CLR 180 [82].
[69] SZBEL v Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs [2006] HCA 63; (2006) 228 CLR 152 [32]; Minister for Immigration and Border Protection v SZSSJ [2016] HCA 29; (2016) 259 CLR 180 [83].
[70] Papamihail v Legal Profession Complaints Committee [2023] WASCA 183 [201].
[71] See definition of 'reviewable conduct' in O 56 r 1(1) of the Rules of the Supreme Court 1971 (WA).
[72] First Bassanelli Affidavit; Affidavit of Tianne Maree Bassanelli, affirmed 20 May 2024 (Second Bassanelli Affidavit), pages 92 ‑ 94.
[73] Aqua Vital Australia Ltd v Swan Television and Radio Broadcasters Pty Ltd (1995) Aus Torts Reports 81‑364.
[74] Affidavit of Thomas George Camp, sworn 31 October 2023, TGC-4, pages 17 - 21.
[75] First Doran Affidavit and MDD5, pages 46 - 48.
[76] First Doran Affidavit and MDD21, pages 93 - 94.
[77] First Doran Affidavit and MDD14, page 72.
[78] First Doran Affidavit and MDD14, page 72.
[79] Affidavit of Thomas George Camp, affirmed 8 July 2024 and TGC9.
[80] Webb v The Queen [1994] HCA 30; (1994) 181 CLR 41, 74.
[81] Ebner v Official Trustee in Bankruptcy [2000] HCA 63; (2000) 205 CLR 337.
[82] Reynolds v Rayney [2023] WASCA 144 [28] - [34] and the authorities cited therein.
[83] See also Ebner v Official Trustee in Bankruptcy [2000] HCA 63; (2000) 205 CLR 337 and Isbester v Knox City Council [2015] HCA 20; (2015) 255 CLR 135 [59].
[84] Isbester v Knox City Council [2015] HCA 20; (2015) 255 CLR 135 [22] - [23].
[85] Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs v Jia Legeng [2001] HCA 17; (2001) 205 CLR 507 [178] - [187].
[86] Humich Nominees Pty Ltd v Commissioner of Main Roads [2020] WASCA 175.
[87] Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs v Jia Legeng [2001] HCA 17; (2001) 205 CLR 507 [72].
[88] Humich Nominees Pty Ltd v Commissioner of Main Roads [2020] WASCA 175 [159].
[89] Re MacTiernan; Ex parte Coogee Coastal Action Coalition Inc [2005] WASCA 109; (2005) 30 WAR 138 [83].
[90] Collector of Customs v Pozzolanic Enterprises Pty Ltd [1993] FCA 456; (1993) 43 FCR 280, 287; Minister for Immigration and Ethnic Affairs v Wu Shan Liang [1996] HCA 6; (1996) 185 CLR 259, 272.
[91] Application for judicial review, particular 3.2; Mr Kamil's submissions [3].
[92] O'Sullivan v Farrer [1989] HCA 61; (1989) 168 CLR 210, 216.
[95] Isbester v Knox City Council [2015] HCA 20; (2015) 255 CLR 135.
[96] Isbester v Knox City Council [2015] HCA 20; (2015) 255 CLR 135 [46].
[97] cf Mr Kamil's submissions [72] - [73].
(1998) 194 CLR 355
(2017) 262 CLR 362
(2006) 228 CLR 566
(2016) 259 CLR 180
(2001) 205 CLR 507
(2024) 280 CLR 321
(2000) 204 CLR 82
(2022) 276 CLR 80
(1932) 47 CLR 1
(1992) 175 CLR 564
(2004) 137 FCR 520
(1985) 159 CLR 550
(2015) 255 CLR 135
(2005) 30 WAR 138
(2009) 239 CLR 27
(2017) 262 CLR 593
(2023) 60 WAR 299
(2006) 228 CLR 152
(2003) 214 CLR 1
(1994) 181 CLR 41
(1996) 185 CLR 259
(1989) 168 CLR 210
(2010) 239 CLR 531
(2015) 258 CLR 173
(1997) 187 CLR 384
(2000) 205 CLR 337
(1993) 43 FCR 280