[2026] VSCA 18
General information, not legal advice.
Court of Appeal (Vic)
2026-02-20
Kenny JA
Original judgment source is linked above.
RCF (Guardianship) [2024] VCAT 748 (Vice President Judge English)
GUARDIANSHIP AND ADMINISTRATION - Application for leave to appeal from VCAT decision finding second applicant mother lacked decision‑making capacity and consequential orders including appointment of first applicant son as administrator pursuant to Guardianship and Administration Act 2019 ('GA Act') - Powers of attorney - VCAT orders significantly limited exercise of first applicant's powers as administrator under GA Act - Whether open to Vice President to conclude second applicant lacked capacity to make power of attorney - Whether Vice President entitled to accept opinion of neuropsychologist regarding second applicant's mental acuity - Whether Vice President should have appointed first applicant as administrator under the GA Act to manage second applicant's affairs - Whether Vice President applied relevant provisions of the Charter of Human Rights and Responsibilities Act 2006 in determining to appoint an administrator - Leave to appeal refused.
Thompson v Minogue [2021] VSCA 358; (2021) 67 VR 301; PJB v Melbourne Health (Patrick's case) [2011] VSC 327; (2011) 39 VR 373; Castles v Secretary, Department of Justice [2010] VSC 310; (2010) 28 VR 141, followed.
LG v Melbourne Health [2019] VSC 183, considered.
(a) whether it was open to the Vice President to conclude that Raye lacked the capacity to make a power of attorney that she signed in 2022; and
(b) whether the Vice President should have appointed an administrator (Gregory) under the GA Act to manage Raye's financial affairs.
(a) On 19 September 2017, naming Jillian and Gregory as joint enduring attorneys (the 'September 2017 Power of Attorney').
(b) On 28 June 2022, naming Gregory as sole enduring attorney (the 'June 2022 Power of Attorney'). This document is described in some VCAT orders as having been made on 1 July 2022, although that appears to be the date upon which it was certified as a true copy. The actual date of signing is 28 June.
(c) On 7 February 2023, naming Gregory as sole enduring attorney (the 'February 2023 Power of Attorney').
Pursuant to Order 4.15 of the VCAT Rules 2018 [Raye] is directed to submit to a neuropsychological examination with Dr Karen Bird to be arranged by the Office of Public Advocate (the 'OPA').
(1) For the purposes of this Act, a person has capacity to make a decision in relation to a matter (decision‑making capacity) if the person is able -
(a) to understand the information relevant to the decision and the effect of the decision; and
(b) to retain that information to the extent necessary to make the decision; and
(c) to use or weigh that information as part of the process of making the decision; and
(d) to communicate the decision and the person's views and needs as to the decision in some way, including by speech, gesture or other means.
(2) For the purposes of subsection (1), a person is presumed to have decision‑making capacity unless there is evidence to the contrary.
(3) For the purposes of subsection (1)(a), a person is taken to understand the information relevant to a decision if the person understands an explanation of the information given to the person in a way that is appropriate to the person's circumstances, whether by using modified language, visual aids or any other means.
(4) In determining whether a person has decision‑making capacity, regard must be had to the following -
(a) a person may have decision‑making capacity in relation to some matters and not others;
(b) if a person does not have decision‑making capacity in relation to a matter, it may be temporary;
(c) it should not be assumed that a person does not have decision‑making capacity in relation to a matter on the basis of the person's appearance;
(d) it should not be assumed that a person does not have decision‑making capacity in relation to a matter merely because the person makes a decision that, in the opinion of others, is unwise;
(e) a person has decision‑making capacity in relation to a matter if it is possible for the person to make the decision with practicable and appropriate support.
For the purposes of this Act, a person who is assessing whether a person has decision‑making capacity in relation to a matter must take reasonable steps to conduct the assessment at a time at which, and in an environment in which, the person's decision‑making capacity can be assessed most accurately.
(1) A person exercising a power, carrying out a function or performing a duty under this Act must have regard to the following principles -
(a) a person with a disability who requires support to make decisions should be provided with practicable and appropriate support to enable the person, as far as practicable in the circumstances -
(i) to make and participate in decisions affecting the person; and
(ii) to express the person's will and preferences; and
(iii) to develop the person's decision‑making capacity;
(b) the will and preferences of a person with a disability should direct, as far as practicable, decisions made for that person;
(c) powers, functions and duties under this Act should be exercised, carried out and performed in a way which is the least restrictive of the ability of a person with a disability to decide and act as is possible in the circumstances.
In determining whether a person is a suitable person to act as a guardian or administrator for a proposed represented person, VCAT must take into account the following -
(a) the will and preferences of the proposed represented person (so far as they can be ascertained);
(b) the desirability of preserving existing relationships that are important to the proposed represented person;
(c) the desirability of appointing a person who is a relative of the proposed represented person, or who has a personal relationship with the proposed represented person, rather than appointing a person with no such relationship;
(d) whether the person will be available to the proposed represented person and able to meet and communicate with the proposed represented person;
(e) whether the person will act cooperatively with any current guardian or administrator for the proposed represented person (as the case requires);
(f) whether, in the case of an administration order, the person proposed as administrator is or was a member of VCAT as constituted for a proceeding under this Act.
The evidence and submissions at the rehearing
(a) A medical report of Jillian dated 27 June 2022 (prepared using the VCAT medical report template in which Jillian is noted as completing the report in her capacity as 'Daughter, Clinical Psychologist' and which was referred to by the Vice President as 'not a formal "report"') and her submissions (usually in the form of statutory declarations) dated 11 August 2023, 8 April 2024 and 2 July 2024, with exhibits. Jillian argued that her mother lacked decision‑making capacity and asserted that, accordingly, any powers of attorney made in 2022 or 2023 were invalid. She did not support the appointment of a guardian but sought the appointment of an independent administrator.
(b) A statement of Gregory of 69 pages (with 164 exhibits) dated 17 April 2024 and a number of written submissions. Gregory argued that the February 2023 Power of Attorney was valid; and that the reports of Jillian, Dr Bennett, and Dr Bird were 'invalid, void and unlawful'. He submitted that neither an administrator nor a guardian should be appointed.
(c) A statement of Raye dated 17 April 2024, and several submissions. Raye supported Gregory's submissions.
(d) A report of Dr Bennett, Raye's general practitioner between 2007 and 2018. It is dated 19 July 2022 with printouts of Dr Bennett's patient summaries of December 2015 and May 2017.
In her report to VCAT, Dr Bennett noted that Raye had stopped driving in December 2014 due to impaired vision 'post CVA' and that her son Gregory started attending with her from 11 April 2017.
Dr Bennett described the diagnosis as one of vascular dementia diagnosed on 11 November 2014 which was progressive 'as vascular dementia declines with age'. She noted that in November 2014 Raye had cognitive impairment and made the following observation:
Dr Bennett could not opine as to Raye's current decision‑making capacity about her financial and property affairs but thought it unlikely and recommended contacting her current general practitioner. In her opinion:
Dr Bennett thought that at the time that the enduring power of attorney was made in June 2016, Raye probably understood the impact of making it.
(e) Reports of Dr Weng Lee Leong, Raye's general practitioner since November 2019 - dated 16 September 2022, 19 May 2023 and 5 September 2023. In her September 2022 report, Dr Leong noted that she had been the patient's medical practitioner since 11 November 2019 and that Raye usually attended her clinic with Gregory. She provided the following diagnosis: 'stroke in 2014 large ischemia distal left PCA area'. She reports that Raye is 'back to normal with perhaps some short term memory loss.' Dr Leong's opinion was that Raye 'has decision making capacity' and that '[s]he is able to understand and process information when explained in a clear, concise manner'. She noted Raye scored 25/30 on the mini mental test, and said that Raye was able to understand the impact of making an enduring power of attorney.
(f) Reports of Dr Boniface Chan, cardiologist, who treated Raye for heart failure between 2014 and 2019, dated 13 October 2014, 17 November 2014, 16 February 2015, 17 August 2015, 17 September 2015, 7 March 2016, 12 September 2016, 12 October 2017, 15 March 2018 and 18 March 2019. Dr Bennett referred Raye to Dr Chan, an interventional cardiologist, whom she saw between 2014 and 2018. His examinations primarily concerned her cardiac condition.
At his initial consultation he noted that she had engaged in both overseas and interstate travel but was suffering from apparent functional decline with incremental dyspnea. In November 2014, he referred her to Dr Graeme Gonzales, a neurologist. In his last report of March 2019, he noted that she had controlled right heart failure and had remained symptomatically stable and well.
(g) A report of Dr Sarah Rossiter dated 16 January 2015, clinical neuropsychologist, which refers to two assessments on 23 December 2014 and 16 January 2015. Dr Rossiter treated Raye shortly after her stroke. In her report she noted that Raye had identified changes to her short‑term memory and speed of processing information and had greater acceptance of the stroke. She noted that 'Raye demonstrated good insight into memory changes, reporting that salient and personally meaningful information was better encoded, but that she had trouble "consolidating" briefly presented or less meaningful information'. She noted that Raye had discontinued her involvement with the clinic, however at that time the assessment results from completed sessions suggested that her intellectual abilities were 'well preserved'. There was some compromise to medial memory structures important for encoding and storing new information and, '[a]lthough her stroke occurred on the left side, [Raye] appears to have difficulty storing and retrieving information bilaterally (e.g. both verbally and visually) suggesting it may have impacted memory structures on both sides'. She noted that the history did not indicate there was any decline in cognition prior to the stroke and therefore her memory changes were unlikely to be due to underlying neurodegenerative processes.
(h) A report of Dr Hayden Prime, radiologist, dated 11 November 2014. Dr Prime conducted an MRI and MRA of the brain on the day of the report. He concluded that there was a recent left PCA territory infarct with sparing of the occipital cortex, minimal haemorrhagic transformation and severe background ischemic changes in the brain stem and supratentorial brain.
(i) Reports of Dr Gonzales, neurologist and epileptologist, dated 20 November 2014 and 23 February 2015. Dr Chan asked him to examine Raye. In his report of 20 November 2014, he noted that at the time of his examination Raye had some amnesia, anomia, word recollection difficulties and non‑specific executive function impairment with partial visual impairment. On 23 February 2015, Dr Gonzales certified Raye as being fit to recover her private vehicle licence. He noted that she had sustained a large recent ischemic stroke.
(j) A report of Associate Professor Nicholas Brennan, geriatrician, dated 30 September 2015. Associate Professor Brennan examined Raye in September 2015 and considered that Raye had no residual deficits from her stroke and could not detect any significant field loss in her vision. He performed 'some cognitive testing' which was within normal limits and she scored 29/30 on the mini mental state examination. He could not detect any signs of progressive dementia but noted that 'historically there is some mild cognitive impairment which is probably related to a multi‑infarct state'. He doubted that the memory problems related to her posterior circulation infarct and noted that an MRI scan showed per‑ventricular white matter ischaemic change. He concluded: '[h]er memory should simply be kept under review and I would not treat with cognitive enhancement therapy, especially in the light of her episodic syncopal episodes and cardiac disease'.
(k) A note of Ms Elizabeth Barber, investigations team leader of the office of the OPA, who conducted a home visit with Raye on 13 April 2023. She described Raye as 'somewhat vague and repetitive'.
(l) Reports of Mr Madden, investigations officer of the OPA, dated 15 September 2022, 9 May 2023 and 30 January 2024 with exhibits.
(m) The report of Dr Bird dated 23 March 2023 and commissioned by Mr Madden of the OPA, details of which will be set out in a moment.
(a) Dr Bird, who was cross‑examined by Gregory and Jillian;
(b) Mr Madden of the OPA, who was cross‑examined by Gregory and Jillian; and
(c) Gregory, who was cross‑examined by Jillian.
Dr Bird noted RCF's presentation indicated a significant amnestic syndrome with poor new learning, rapid forgetting of verbal information, and poor recall for recent and remote events. Dr Bird's opinion was that, due to her disability, RCF did not have decision‑making capacity for issues related to property, finances, legal affairs or personal matters, even with support. In Dr Bird's opinion RCF does not have capacity to make appointments of an EPA in relation to personal or financial matters. She noted that due to RCF's disability and dependence, she is at high risk of undue influence.
Dr Bird's opinion was that RCF meets the DSM‑5‑TR criteria for Major Neurocognitive Disorder due to vascular dementia of moderate severity. Noting that the course of vascular dementia is highly individual, Dr Bird predicted a stepwise decline over time, with periods of relative plateau in functioning.
Dr Bird specifically considered RCF's memory difficulties and deficits that interfere with her decision‑making abilities as follows:
- She would be generally able to understand information relevant to most decisions and to appreciate the ultimate broad effects of decisions, however, her ability to exercise this understanding is significantly impacted by memory difficulties;
- She has difficulty gathering together and remembering all of the information relevant to decisions;
- She is able to generally engage in conversations around a decision but is likely to forget the content of the conversation as soon as the conversation lapses;
- She has difficulty holding onto information long enough to assign weight to its relative importance when considering benefits and risks of a decision; and
- She will have difficulty recalling and communicating the decision and will be unlikely to recall the reasoning process behind any decision.[5]
RCF's informed consent
- EMY cross‑examined Dr Bird, specifically testing her compliance with the AHPRA Code of Conduct and Australian Psychological Society Code of Ethics in respect to obtaining 'informed consent' from RCF prior to conducting her assessments. Specifically, Dr Bird was asked if she informed RCF about 'how information was collected'. Dr Bird's evidence was she was satisfied she complied with the Code of Conduct and Code of Ethics and that RCF gave informed consent.
Compliance with the expert evidence Practice Note
- Dr Bird was also asked whether she had complied with the Tribunal Practice Note PNVCAT2 ‑ Expert Evidence, requiring her to provide all instructions defining the scope of the report. Dr Bird said she did, noting she attached her letter of instruction and a list of all the attachments (which numbered 327 pages) to her report. She agreed the first letter of referral from Mr Madden dated 26 October 2022 was not included, as she considered his letter dated 20 February 2023 as a new referral.
- She also agreed she did not refer to a telephone call with Mr Madden dated 5 October 2022, stating that she could not recall the details of the conversation.
- EMY put to Dr Bird that as she did not take RCF through the 327 pages of attachments, being the documents Dr Bird considered as per the list attached to her report, prior to her assessment, RCF did not give her informed consent. Dr Bird disagreed with that proposition.
- It was put Dr Bird did not comply with the expert evidence Practice Note because she did not disclose her 'relationship with the OPA' as an expert. Dr Bird stated she received about 5 referrals from the OPA per year, over a fifteen‑year period. EMY put to her she had said that 'VCAT always accepted her recommendations' which Dr Bird denied, stating she has no such power and often has no knowledge of the outcome in cases after submitting her report. She estimated she had attended VCAT as a witness on approximately 8 - 10 occasions.
- When asked about referrals for assessments from the OPA, Dr Bird stated she finds the proposed person has capacity 'about 20% of the time'.
Second assessment 7 March 2023
- EMY asked Dr Bird questions about the second session with RCF on 7 March 2023. Dr Bird indicated she had no further memory beyond what was recorded in her report, however denied stating she wanted to schedule a third session with RCF as RCF did not want to participate in psychometric testing and to take it any further would be unethical. She did recall that EMY was 'very annoyed' that RCF had not done the testing.
- EMY questioned why Dr Bird assessed testamentary capacity when it was not part of the Tribunal proceedings and asked if she understood the different thresholds for assessment of decision‑making and testamentary capacity. Dr Bird agreed with EMY that testamentary capacity was different to other decision‑making capacity and explained that often assessments regarding powers of attorney, guardianship and testamentary capacity are 'rolled into one assessment' so as to avoid the need for multiple assessments.
- Dr Bird rejected the proposition put by EMY that she took a report by Dr Rossiter from RCF's handbag during the assessment, stating she was handed a bundle of documents by him.
- EMY put a number of propositions to Dr Bird about conversations he had with her about RCF's demeanour during the second session, but Dr Bird did not recall those conversations. She did recall RCF asking 'why am I here', but not in an angry manner. She also recalled RCF expressing the concern '[EMY] will be disappointed with me' because she had forgotten some rehearsed answers.
- Dr Bird stated she told RCF about the purpose of the assessment, stating that the referral questions provided by the OPA was the 'direct speech I would've used'.
- Dr Bird was asked by EMY about an answer RCF gave in response to being asked to explain the meaning of an EPA, where she described it as 'giving someone legal permission to act for you when you can no longer act for yourself'. In her report Dr Bird stated RCF 'was unable to explain the enduring nature of an EPA.' EMY put to Dr Bird that RCF's explanation did in fact explain the meaning of an EPA. Dr Bird conceded, 'Perhaps. Maybe not completely, but perhaps... the difference between power of attorney and the enduring power of attorney is that the enduring power carries on after the capacity is lost, and so I would be seeking that as an answer from her.'
- EMY asked why RCF was given a 'fact sheet' about EPAs, describing it as an 'ambush' because of her age‑related memory issues. Dr Bird stated it was to encourage people to have the 'best chance' to show they have capacity. She stated it is simply written information which remains on the table for people to refer to and gives people the best opportunity to respond to her questions and show they understand an EPA.
- EMY asked how Dr Bird assessed RCF when she made no observations about her functional presentation, which he was best placed to describe. Dr Bird responded she tends not to give weight to materials provided by the parties to the dispute but that RCF's previous medical reports and the OPA report gave her a lot of information about RCF's functional abilities.
- When asked by SBZ[6] about her familiarity with the Dementia Severity Rating Scale used by EMY to assess RCF, Dr Bird stated she does not use this scale often, and that it tends to be a test used more by geriatricians.
Other Doctor's assessments
- EMY asked Dr Bird why she dismissed Dr Leong's 'mini mental test' of RCF's capacity in her report dated 16 September 2022, where she scored 25/30. Dr Bird stated she did not dismiss it but described it as 'fairly meaningless' as it can be achieved without someone remembering much at all. She went on to describe it as a 'dreadful test'. She stated those assessments take about 20 minutes and are used for screening but do not pinpoint what is wrong. Further, she noted it was not explained by Dr Leong how she arrived at her finding that RCF had decision‑making capacity.
- EMY put to Dr Bird there was no diagnosis in 2014 of vascular dementia although referred to by Dr Bennett, and there is no medical report that contains that diagnosis. Dr Bird responded that did not fit with the information she had.[7]
The orders of the Vice President and those now sought to be appealed
ORDERS AND DECLARATIONS
Capacity
- VCAT finds [Raye] does not have decision‑making capacity regarding financial, property, legal or personal matters.
Orders about the powers of attorney and other instruments
- The enduring power of attorney, supportive power of attorney and enduring power of attorney (medical treatment) dated 29 May 2016 are not valid for failure to comply with section 33(1)(b) of the Powers of Attorney Act 2014 (Vic) ('POA Act').
- The enduring power of attorney dated 19 September 2017 is valid but, pursuant to section 83(1) of the POA Act, as it relates to financial matters is suspended.
- The enduring power of attorney dated 28 June/1 July 2022 is not valid for failure to comply with section 33(1)(b) of the POA Act.
- The appointment of a medical treatment decision maker dated 12 June 2022 is not valid for failure to comply with section 28(1)(g) of the Medical Treatment Planning and Decisions Act 2016 (Vic).
- The enduring power of attorney dated 7 February 2023 is not valid for failure to comply with section 23(1)(b) of the POA Act.
Appointment of a guardian
- The application to appoint a guardian is dismissed as VCAT is not satisfied there is a need for a guardian at this time.
Appointment of administrators
- Nelson Wong, Rucker Financial Group, Suite 1/1010 Doncaster Road, Doncaster East VIC 3109, is appointed administrator for [Raye] until the further hearing of this matter on 7 November 2024.
- Noting the legislative intent of the Guardianship and Administration Act 2019 (Vic) that orders are limited to the extent possible, Mr Wong as administrator has the following restrictions:
- Mr Wong is appointed as administrator for the purpose of auditing [Raye]'s financial accounts, namely all dealings, transactions and payments made to [Gregory] and [Jillian] for the period so far as her banking and financial records permit and provide a report to VCAT. Mr Wong is also required to include in the report advice as to the reasonable and appropriate amount that could be paid as a carer's payment.
- Mr Wong's report is to be filed with VCAT by Friday 24 October 2024.
- Mr Wong is entitled to be paid for the administration of the estate at the hourly rates quoted in his email of 15 June 2023. Mr Wong must send itemised invoices to VCAT for approval.
- Each time the invoices are sent to VCAT, Mr Wong must send copies to [Gregory].
- [Gregory] is to pay the invoices of Mr Wong within seven days of approval by VCAT, from [Raye]'s estate.
- The administrator must comply with the Guardianship and Administration Act 2019, which outlines their powers and duties.
- [Gregory] is appointed administrator for [Raye] until the further hearing of this matter on 7 November 2024.
- [Gregory] has power to make decisions about the following financial matters.
- [Gregory] has powers given under the Guardianship and Administration Act 2019 section 46 to make decisions about the financial matters in relation to [Raye].
- [Gregory]'s powers have these restrictions:
‑ [Gregory] is not to make any payments to himself as a carer;
‑ [Gregory] is not to sell (dispose of) any of [Raye]'s property,
‑ [Gregory] is not to make any gifts over $100;
‑ [Gregory] is not to make any loans.
- [Gregory] must comply with the Guardianship and Administration Act 2019, which outlines their powers and duties.
- [Gregory] must complete and send to VCAT for approval a Financial Statement and Plan no later than Wednesday 28 August 2024.
- [Gregory] must prepare an annual Account by Administrator ('ABA') for each financial year. The first ABA must be submitted for the accounting period 7 August 2024 to 30 June 2025 as soon as possible after that date and no later than 30 September 2025.
- [Gregory] must submit all later ABA's
‑ For each financial year from 1 July to the following 30 June;
‑ As soon as possible after 30 June, and no later than 30 September each year.
- [Gregory] is to provide a written report by email to [Jillian] of all [Raye]'s financial transactions on a fortnightly basis commencing 21 August 2024.
- VCAT makes these decisions because it is satisfied that:
‑ Due to a disability [Raye] does not have capacity to make decisions about the personal and financial matters listed in this order.
‑ [Raye] needs an administrator considering the factors set out in section 31, including [Raye]'s will and preferences.
‑ These orders will promote [Raye]'s personal and social well‑being.
Reassessment of this order:
- These administration orders will continue to have effect until VCAT makes further orders.
- VCAT will reassess these administration orders on 7 November 2024 when the matter is listed for a directions hearing at 10:00am in person.
Other orders:
- The application to identify parties to the proceeding is refused.
- The application for a stay of these orders is refused.[9]
(a) the orders (orders 1 and 15-25) authorising Gregory to manage Raye's financial affairs, subject to the conditions set out in orders 17-24 ('the administration orders'); and
(b) order 4 holding that the June 2022 Power of Attorney was invalid due to incapacity.
...
- There has been no indication of the attorneys' willingness to work together in the future. [Jillian]'s cross‑examination of [Gregory] at the rehearing revealed the deep and historical conflict between them about [Raye]'s financial affairs.
- I have formed the view both attorneys have potential conflicts of interest regarding [Raye]'s financial assets.
- I have found the 9 September 2017 EPA to be valid but under section 83(1) of the POA Act suspend it for financial matters. As the remaining part of the EPA is valid, this will assist to preserve [Raye]'s existing relationships with [Gregory] and [Jillian].
- I note that [Gregory] has been managing and/or assisting to manage [Raye]'s financial affairs for a number of years with regards to day to day living.
- I therefore propose to make two administration orders under section 30(1)(a)(ii).
- The first is to appoint Nelson Wong, accountant, as an administrator with limited powers until the further hearing of this matter on 7 November 2024.
- Mr Wong is appointed as administrator for the purpose of auditing [Raye]'s financial accounts, namely all dealings, transactions and payments made to [Gregory] and [Jillian] for the period so far as her banking and financial records permit, and provide a report to VCAT. Mr Wong is also required to include in the report advice as to the reasonable and appropriate amount that could be paid as a carer's payment.[49]
Background to this application for leave to appeal the VCAT orders
A party to a proceeding may appeal on a question of law from an order of the Tribunal in the proceeding -
(a) if the Tribunal was constituted for the purpose of making the order by the President or a Vice President, whether with or without others, to the Court of Appeal with leave of the Court of Appeal; or
...
(b) in any other case, to the Trial Division of the Supreme Court with leave of the Trial Division.
First, pursuant to s 14C of the Supreme Court Act 1986, this Court can only grant an application for leave to appeal from VCAT if it is satisfied that the appeal has a real prospect of success. Thus an applicant may only be granted leave to appeal if this Court is satisfied that the appeal has real (as opposed to fanciful) prospects of success; even if the Court is so satisfied, there remains a residual discretion to refuse leave.
Second, under s 148(1)(a) of the Victorian Civil and Administrative Tribunal Act 1998 ('VCAT Act'), this Court's jurisdiction is limited to the resolution of questions of law. Such a limitation has been said to impose a 'significant constraint' upon the role of the Court in reviewing the decision and reasons of an administrative tribunal. This Court summarised the principles in Secretary to Department of Justice and Regulation v OUX (a pseudonym) ('OUX'):
- This 'practical as well as principled restraint' means that the Court 'will not be concerned with looseness in the language of the Tribunal nor with unhappy phrasing of the Tribunal's thoughts'. Hence, the reasons of the Tribunal for the decision under review 'are not to be construed minutely and finely with an eye keenly attuned to the perception of error'. The reality is 'that the reasons of an administrative decision‑maker are meant to inform and not to be scrutinised upon over‑zealous judicial review by seeking to discern whether some inadequacy may be gleaned from the way in which the reasons are expressed'.
Third, identification of a question of law is critical. As was put by Garde AJA (with whom Tate and Kyrou JJA agreed) in Patsuris v Gippsland and Southern Rural Water Corporation:
- Section 148 does not confer a general right of appeal on the merits of a case. If no threshold question of law can be identified, the case is not suitable for the type of restricted appeal that s 148 provides.
- The 'question of law' requirement in s 148 confers a limited capacity on the Court to review findings of fact made by a Tribunal member. The requirement in s 148 to state a question of law is germane to the capacity of the Court to review findings of fact made by a Tribunal member. The identification of a question of law is not merely a precondition to the exercise of a right to appeal, but the subject matter of the appeal itself.
Fourth, the primary question for this Court when investigating whether an administrative tribunal has made a legal error in making a finding of fact or drawing an inference from facts is whether 'it was open to the Tribunal to conclude as it did on the evidence'. As was further explained in Karakatsanis v Racing Victoria Ltd ('Karakatsanis'):
- If it was so open then the Tribunal did not commit an error of law in reaching the conclusion that it did, albeit that it may (or may not) have erred on the facts. The appeal was not concerned with the weight of the evidence insofar as that bore upon the assessment of the relative weight of competing considerations. It was concerned with the question of whether the Tribunal's conclusion was properly open to it.
Fifth, where the Tribunal's identification and application of the appropriate statutory provisions is impugned, it must be satisfied that the Tribunal did other than apply the correct terms of the section before this Court will interfere with the decision. The following statement of Smith J (with whom Adam J agreed) in Portland Properties Pty Ltd v Melbourne & Metropolitan Board of Works, which has subsequently been applied to VCAT, is apposite:
- [T]he appellant, in order to succeed in this case, has to demonstrate to the satisfaction of this Court that the Town Planning Appeals Tribunal went wrong in law in arriving at its decision. It would not be enough for the appellant to show that the Tribunal's reasons for its decision are so expressed as to suggest the possibility that the Tribunal proceeded upon a wrong view of the law. This Court is not entitled to interfere with the decision unless it is satisfied that there was, in fact, a vitiating error of law.
Finally, the Tribunal's task is to resolve the issues that have been presented to it by the parties. It has been said that an appeal court must 'recognise the forensic realities of the way in which the case was put to the Tribunal', which will inform the way that a tribunal responds in its reasons. This consideration is particularly relevant where there is a challenge to the sufficiency of the decision‑maker's reasons.
The applicants' questions of law and the proposed grounds of appeal
Questions of law on which the appeal is brought or proposed to be brought
- Question 1. Did VCAT err in law by reaching conclusions or findings not open or reasonably open to VCAT on the evidence or the facts?
- Question 2. Did VCAT err in law by misconstruing statutes, rules or documents?
- Question 3. Did VCAT err in law by denying Appellants procedural fairness and natural justice?
- Question 4. Did VCAT err in law by reaching conclusions or findings which are illogical and not supported by the facts or supported on logical grounds?
- Question 5. Did VCAT err in law by not providing sufficient or adequate reasons and failing to address in its reasons submissions that were worthy of consideration and were seriously advanced?
- Question 6. Did VCAT err in law by denying Appellant [Raye] her human rights?
- Question 7. Did VCAT err in law by failing to dismiss the case or exclude evidence where the impartial functions of VCAT were directly corrupted by fraud on the court?
The first argument: Was it open to the Vice-President to accept the evidence of Dr Bird and hold that the February 2023 power of attorney was invalid?
A.3.1. Psychologists fully inform clients regarding the psychological services they intend to provide, unless an explicit exception has been agreed upon in advance, or it is not reasonably possible to obtain informed consent.
A.3.2. Psychologists provide information using plain language.
A.3.3. Psychologists ensure consent is informed by:
(a) explaining the nature and purpose of the procedures they intend using;
(b) clarifying the reasonably foreseeable risks, adverse effects, and possible disadvantages of the procedures they intend using;
(c) explaining how information will be collected and recorded;
(d) explaining how, where, and for how long, information will be stored, and who will have access to the stored information;
(e) advising clients that they may participate, may decline to participate, or may withdraw from methods or procedures proposed to them;
(f) explaining to clients what the reasonably foreseeable consequences would be if they decline to participate or withdraw from the proposed procedures;
(g) clarifying the frequency, expected duration, financial and administrative basis of any psychological services that will be provided;
(h) explaining confidentiality and limits to confidentiality (see standard A.5.);
(i) making clear, where necessary, the conditions under which the psychological services may be terminated; and
(j) providing any other relevant information.
A.3.4. Psychologists obtain consent from clients to provide a psychological service unless consent is not required because:
(a) rendering the service without consent is permitted by law; or
(b) a National Health and Medical Research Council (NHMRC) or other appropriate ethics committee has waived the requirement in respect of research.
• She does not give informed consent for Dr Bird's assessment;
• She is concerned about the 'ongoing' relationship between the OPA and Dr Bird;
• She is concerned the assessment by Dr Bird would go beyond an assessment of cognitive function and capacity and would instead be a 'medi‑legal' assessment;
• She is concerned that the referral and report would be secret, that Dr Bird might interview other people, and that the expert evidence Practice Note states the assessor has a paramount duty to the Tribunal and not to her;
• She is concerned the conditions of consent for her to be assessed by Dr Bird had not been fulfilled, noting information withheld from her regarding the nature and purpose of the procedures which will be used, the risks in the procedures, the information which will be collected and from whom, and the consequences 'if I decline to participate';
• She is concerned the assessment is contrary to the Australian Psychological Society Code of Ethics; and
• She is concerned about information Mr Madden provided to Dr Bird in the referral letter, including the diagnosis of vascular dementia. She denied this diagnosis stating SBZ 'made it up' and had 'manipulated Dr Bennett into writing a misleading report supporting [SBZ]'s position'.
After RCF wrote to Mr Madden advising she had decided not to attend the assessment with Dr Bird, at a hearing on 13 February 2023, the Tribunal made an order directing RCF to attend a neuropsychological assessment with Dr Bird to be arranged by the OPA.
EMY submitted neither the first or second referral by Mr Madden to Dr Bird were provided to RCF prior to the first assessment on 22 February 2022, 'so that my mother was not informed about the purpose of the assessment or the information collected. My mother could not give informed consent for the assessment.'
In his statement dated 17 April 2024 EMY queries how Dr Bird had the time to go through the questions, proffering that she either did not go through the questions, or '...went through at such a speed to overwhelm my mother. In either case, my mother could not give informed consent, which makes the assessment unlawful.' Further, she did not take RCF through the 300+ pages of materials she was provided with prior to the assessment.
EMY referred to the case of LG v Melbourne Health, where the assessor, a clinical neuropsychologist, agreed in cross‑examination they did not explain to LG that LG's answers could be used as evidence in a VCAT application, nor the purpose of the assessment.
This case is very different. RCF's letters to Mr Madden demonstrate, so far as they can be attributed as her views, she was well aware that the purpose of the assessment was for use at the Tribunal hearing.
Dr Bird's report indicates her first assessment of RCF concluded after one hour as she was tired. At the second assessment, RCF was able to effectively communicate to Dr Bird her reluctance to engage in formal psychometric testing, a position fully respected by Dr Bird. I am satisfied section 6 of the GA Act was met and that the assessment took place in an environment which allowed Dr Bird to most accurately assess RCF's decision‑making capacity.
Dr Bird detailed in her report, at section 4.1, the information she advised RCF. This included:
the purpose of the assessment (as described in section 3 of in this report);
that she could cease participation at any time;
that the assessment would take around 2 hours, with the opportunity for breaks as needed;
the content of the assessment, including questions about her life and opinion as well as a series of short tests to discover her strengths and any difficulties;
that a report of the assessment would be sent to the Office of the Public [Advocate] and may be used in VCAT proceedings;
her relationship with me was not therapeutic, and any information she revealed during the assessment would likely be included in the report of assessment; and
storage of her neuropsychology file and limits of confidentiality.
Under 'purpose of the assessment' there is a reference to section 3 of the report, which is the 13 questions Dr Bird was asked to answer in the assessment by Mr Madden. These were also given to RCF. In her report, and in her evidence under cross‑examination, Dr Bird stated she believed she received RCF's informed consent.
Dr Bird has provided accurate, detailed and relevant information to RCF. She has documented this and been cross‑examined. I accept her evidence.
RCF has clearly put her position to Mr Madden prior to Dr Bird's assessments that she has not given informed consent, and this is a position she and EMY have continued to agitate.
I am satisfied the evidence supports [the] finding that Dr Bird obtained RCF's informed consent.[55]
The second argument: Did the Vice President comply with the provisions of the Charter?
(1) Subject to this section, it is unlawful for a public authority to act in a way that is incompatible with a human right or, in making a decision, to fail to give proper consideration to a relevant human right.
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply if, as a result of a statutory provision or a provision made by or under an Act of the Commonwealth or otherwise under law, the public authority could not reasonably have acted differently or made a different decision.
Section 38(1) of the Charter has two limbs: a procedural limb and a substantive limb. The procedural limb requires public authorities, when making a decision, to give proper consideration to a relevant human right, whereas the substantive limb requires public authorities to act in a way that is compatible with a human right. The procedural limb applies to the making of a decision, whereas the substantive limb applies to an act. As the distinction between an act and a decision is not material for present purposes, in the analysis that follows, we will use the term 'conduct' to describe both an act and a decision.[66]
(a) her right to recognition and equality before the law: s 8;
(b) her right to freedom of movement: s 12;
(c) her property rights - a person must not be deprived of that person's property other than in accordance with law: s 20; and
(d) her right to a fair hearing: s 24.
The requirement in s 38(1) to give proper consideration to human rights must be read in the context of the Charter as a whole, and its purposes. The Charter is intended to apply to the plethora of decisions made by public authorities of all kinds. The consideration of human rights is intended to become part of decision-making processes at all levels of government. It is therefore intended to become a 'common or garden' activity for persons working in the public sector, both senior and junior. In these circumstances, proper consideration of human rights should not be a sophisticated legal exercise. Proper consideration need not involve formally identifying the 'correct' rights or explaining their content by reference to legal principles or jurisprudence. Rather, proper consideration will involve understanding in general terms which of the rights of the person affected by the decision may be relevant and whether, and if so how, those rights will be interfered with by the decision that is made. As part of the exercise of justification, proper consideration will involve balancing competing private and public interests. There is no formula for such an exercise, and it should not be scrutinised over‑zealously by the courts.
While I accept that the requirement in s 38(1) to give proper consideration to a relevant human right requires a decision‑maker to do more than merely invoke the Charter like a mantra, it will be sufficient in most circumstances that there is some evidence that shows the decision‑maker seriously turned his or her mind to the possible impact of the decision on a person's human rights and the implications thereof for the affected person, and that the countervailing interests or obligations were identified.[70]
A number of decisions of this Court have outlined what is required of a public authority in order to discharge its obligation to give proper consideration to relevant rights. Here, the Tribunal was required to seriously turn its mind to the possible impact of the decision on LG's human rights and the implications for her of a guardianship and administration order. It had to identify and balance the competing interests and obligations. While its consideration of LG's human rights did not have to be a sophisticated legal exercise, it did have to be genuine and not formulaic.
Although the focus of the Charter is different to that of the Guardianship Act, the analysis required of the Tribunal by ss 4(2), 22 and 46 of the Guardianship Act overlaps to a significant extent with the Tribunal's obligation, under s 38(1) of the Charter, to give proper consideration to relevant rights. Whether the person's needs can be met by means less restrictive of the person's freedom of decision and action involves a proportionality analysis similar to that required by s 7(2) of the Charter. Where the Tribunal has had regard to each of the mandatory considerations in ss 4(2), 22 and 46 of the Guardianship Act, it will be a long way towards having properly considered relevant human rights under s 38(1) of the Charter.[74]
(1) So far as it is possible to do so consistently with their purpose, all statutory provisions must be interpreted in a way that is compatible with human rights.
(2) International law and the judgments of domestic, foreign and international courts and tribunals relevant to a human right may be considered in interpreting a statutory provision.
(3) This section does not affect the validity of -
(a) an Act or provision of an Act that is incompatible with a human right; or
(b) a subordinate instrument or provision of a subordinate instrument that is incompatible with a human right and is empowered to be so by the Act under which it is made.
...
- Section 30(1)(a)(ii) of the GA Act provides that, after considering an application made under Division 1, the Tribunal may make an administration order subject to subsection (2). The requirements and considerations when making an administration order are as outlined in section 30(2) and 31 above.
(a) the will and preferences of the proposed represented person (so far as they can be ascertained);
(b) the desirability of preserving existing relationships that are important to the proposed represented person;[79]
...
- The Tribunal can only appoint an administrator if satisfied because of their disability the person does not have decision‑making capacity about financial matters in relation to which an order is sought and that the person needs an administrator. Further, the Tribunal must be satisfied that the administration order will promote the person's personal and social wellbeing.
- The Tribunal must consider the person's will and preferences and whether decisions could be made informally or by negotiation, as well as the desirability of preserving existing relationships important to the person.
...
- The second administration order is to appoint EMY as a limited administrator for until the further hearing of this matter on 7 November 2024. Given her lack of decision-making capacity and the need to manage her financial affairs on a day‑to‑day basis, RCF is in need of an administrator. This will promote her personal and social wellbeing.
- Despite the identified potential conflict of interest and EMY's conflict with SBZ, I am satisfied these can be managed by the imposition of restrictions. This order is consistent with RCF and EMY's preferences and wishes and, through the imposition of restrictions, RCF's relationships with both EMY and RCF are preserved. RCF will not be subject to their quarrelling about her finances. She will continue to live in her own home with EMY as her carer.
In relation to these grounds of appeal, I was conscious of the need to avoid over‑zealous scrutiny, and also of the challenging circumstances in which this and other guardianship applications are dealt with by the Tribunal. As I have said, there is a significant overlap between proper consideration of human rights and the analysis required by the mandatory considerations set out in ss 4(2), 22 and 46 of the Guardianship Act. I may have reached a different conclusion, had I had the benefit of full reasons for the Tribunal's conclusions under the applicable provisions of the Guardianship Act. Unfortunately, that was not the case.[81]
(1) Every person has the right to recognition as a person before the law.
(2) Every person has the right to enjoy their human rights without discrimination.
(3) Every person is equal before the law and is entitled to the equal protection of the law without discrimination and has the right to equal and effective protection against discrimination.
(4) Measures taken for the purpose of assisting or advancing persons or groups of persons disadvantaged because of discrimination do not constitute discrimination.
If State Trustees were appointed administrator, they might take a fee based on my mother's assets and income. Such a fee would be far in excess of any reasonable compensation for work actually performed, a taking of my mother's property. I strongly oppose appointing State Trustees as my mother's administrator. Doing so would be a violation of my mother's human rights.
(1) This Part sets out the human rights that Parliament specifically seeks to protect and promote.
(2) A human right may be subject under law only to such reasonable limits as can be demonstrably justified in a free and democratic society based on human dignity, equality and freedom, and taking into account all relevant factors including -
(a) the nature of the right; and
(b) the importance of the purpose of the limitation; and
(c) the nature and extent of the limitation; and
(d) the relationship between the limitation and its purpose; and
(e) any less restrictive means reasonably available to achieve the purpose that the limitation seeks to achieve.
(3) Nothing in this Charter gives a person, entity or public authority a right to limit (to a greater extent than is provided for in this Charter) or destroy the human rights of any person.
(b) to protect persons with a disability from abuse, neglect and exploitation; and
(c) to undertake advocacy for persons with a disability on a systemic or individual basis ...
- Section 16 sets out the powers and duties of the Public Advocate. These include that the Public Advocate:
(b) may make an application to VCAT for -
(i) the appointment of a guardian, a supportive guardian, an administrator or a supportive administrator; or
...
(c) may advocate for the human rights and interests of a person with a disability (irrespective of the person's age) by -
...
(v) with the leave of a court or VCAT -
(A) joining as a party to proceedings in the court or VCAT that involve the rights and interests of the person; and
(B) assisting the court or VCAT as amicus curiae in proceedings in the court or VCAT that involve the rights and interests of the person ...
(a) may intervene at any time; and
(b) is entitled to be joined as a party -
in a proceeding under the [GA Act].
[1] This judgment has been anonymised by the adoption of a pseudonym in place of the names of the parties and by the use of first names only.
[2] MMSE apparently refers to a mini mental state examination.
[5] RCF (Guardianship) [2024] VCAT 748, [60]-[62] (Vice President Judge English) (citations omitted) ('Reasons').
[7] Reasons, [68]-[85] (citations omitted).
[8] This order was amended on 19 August 2024 by the Vice President to replace the anonymised names referred to in the original order with the full names of the parties. For the purpose of this application, we have referred to the parties by their first names.
[9] The italicised orders are either not the subject of this application or have, by force of orders at VCAT, been vacated.
[19] [2019] VSC 183, [49] ('LG').
[49] Reasons, [314], [320]-[326].
[50] Reasons, [353]-[356], [361]-[364].
[51] Frontlink Pty Ltd v Commissioner of State Revenue [2023] VSC 521, [10] (Croft J) referring to Commissioner of State Revenue v Frost (2011) 83 ATR 832, 834 [5] citing Secretary to the Department of Premier and Cabinet v Hulls [1999] VSCA 117; [1999] 3 VR 331, 335-6 and Myers v Medical Practitioners' Board (Vic) [2007] VSCA 163; (2007) 18 VR 48, 55-6 [28].
[52] Frontlink Pty Ltd v Commissioner of State Revenue [2023] VSC 521, [10] (Croft J) referring to Boucher v Dandenong Ranges Steiner School Inc [2005] VSC 400; (2005) 145 LGERA 21, 26 [15] citing Spurling v Development Underwriting (Vic) Pty Ltd [1973] VicRp 1; [1973] VR 1 and Whitehorse City Council v Golden Ridge Investments Pty Ltd [2005] VSCA 198; (2005) 13 VR 275.
[53] [2024] VSCA 143, [52]-[58] (citations omitted). See also Hoskin v Greater Bendigo City Council [2015] VSCA 350; (2015) 48 VR 715.
[54] Code of Ethics, 'Application of the Code', page 10.
[55] Reasons, [192]-[207] (citations omitted).
[56] [2019] VSC 183, [56]-[66].
[58] Rogers v Whitaker [1992] HCA 58; (1992) 175 CLR 479, 489 (Mason CJ, Brennan, Dawson, Toohey and McHugh JJ); [1992] HCA 58.
[59] LG [2019] VSC 183, [66].
[62] As were in force at the relevant time.
[63] In respect of the second referral, within his exhibits, Gregory included a document titled 'Chronology of the second referral to Dr Bird' based on his review of the hard copy file. He asserts that the first time he and Jillian received the second referral was when it was emailed by VCAT on 24 May 2023. Nothing turns on this.
[64] Sections 98(1)(b) and (c) of the VCAT Act. Christian Youth Camps Ltd v Cobaw Community Health Services Ltd[2014] VSCA 75; (2014) 50 VR 256, 320 [258] (Maxwell P); [2014] VSCA 74.
[66] Ibid 322 [79] (Kyrou, McLeish and Niall JJA).
[67] Sabet v Medical Practitioners Board (2008) 20 VR 414; [2008] VSC 346 [127].
[68] PJB v Melbourne Health (Patrick's case) [2011] VSC 327; (2011) 39 VR 373, 405 [125]; [2011] VSC 327. See also LG v Melbourne Health [2019] VSC 183, [75] ('LG').
[69] (2010) 28 VR 141; [2010] VSC 310 ('Castles').
[70] Ibid 184 [185] (Emerton J) (emphasis added).
[71] [2021] VSCA 200; (2021) 64 VR 270, 306 [155] (Beach, Kyrou and Kaye JJA); [2021] VSCA 200.
[72] [2015] VSCA 197; (2015) 48 VR 129, 199 [221] (Warren CJ), 223 [288]-[289] (Tate JA), 297-9 [535]-[538] (Santamaria JA); [2015] VSCA 197.
[74] Ibid [77]- [78] (citations omitted) (emphasis added).
[77] Emphasis added. See also Reasons, [297].
[81] LG [2019] VSC 183, [83].
[83] See, for example, the passages from the Reasons set out above.
[84] Reasons, [138], [140]. See [55] above.
[87] Perkins v County Court of Victoria [2000] VSCA 171; (2000) 2 VR 246 [56], [64]; [2000] VSCA 171.
[88] Bulloch v United States, [1983] USCA10 283; 721 F.2d 713 (10th Circuit, 1983).
GB (a pseudonym)
JB
(2021) 67 VR 301
(2011) 39 VR 373
(2010) 28 VR 141
(2007) 18 VR 48
(2005) 145 LGERA 21
(1992) 175 CLR 479
(2015) 48 VR 129
(2000) 205 CLR 337
(2005) 13 VR 275
(2015) 48 VR 715
(2014) 50 VR 256
(2008) 20 VR 414
(2021) 64 VR 270
(2000) 2 VR 246