© 2026 Zoe. All rights reserved.
Zoe is a legal information platform. Always consult the Federal Register of Legislation for authoritative text.
[2014] ACTSC 165
Supreme Court of the ACT
2014-07-04
Mossop M
Original judgment source is linked above.
SUPREME COURT OF THE AUSTRALIAN CAPITAL TERRITORY
Concerned Citizens of Canberra v Chief Planning Executive (Planning and Land Authority)
ADMINISTRATIVE LAW - judicial review planning and development - public notification period - development approval - public register - associated documents - entity advice - provision of further information - application of planning codes
Human Rights Act 2004 (ACT) ss 14, 17, 40B, 40C
Legislation Act 2001 (ACT) ss 145, 151C, 255
Adelaide Company of Jehovah's Witnesses Inc v The Commonwealth (1943) 67 CLR
Attorney-General (Vict); Ex rel Black v The Commonwealth [1981] HCA 2; (1981) 146 CLR 559
Australian Conservation Foundation v South Australia (1990) 53 SASR 349
Australian Conservation Foundation Inc v Commonwealth (1978-1980) 146 CLR 493
Argos v Corbell [2013] ACTCA 51
Capital Duplicators Pty Ltd v Australian Capital Territory [1992] HCA 51; (1992) 177 CLR 248
Concerned Citizens of Canberra v Chief Planning Executive (ACT Planning and Land Authority) [2014] ACTSC 24
Concerned Citizens of Canberra Incorporated v Chief Planning Executive (Planning and Land Authority) [2013] ACTSC 50
Chaloner v Australian Capital Territory [2013] ACTSC 269
Davis v Commonwealth [1986] HCA 66; (1986) 61 ALJR 32
Eastman v Australian Capital Territory [2014] ACTSC 105
Ex rel Black v The Commonwealth [1981] HCA 2; (1981) 146 CLR 559
Foodbarn v Solicitor-General (1975) 32 LGERA 157
Hoxton Park Residents' Action Group Inc v Liverpool City Council [2010] NSWSC 1312
Kruger v Commonwealth [1997] HCA 27; (1997) 190 CLR 1
Lamshed v Lake [1958] HCA 14; (1958) 99 CLR 132
Manuka Business Association v Australian Capital Territory Executive (1998) 146 FLR 464
Marrickville Metro Shopping Centre Pty Ltd v Marrickville Council [2010] NSWCA 145; (2010) 174 LGERA 67
Minister for Immigration and Ethnic Affairs v Wu Shan Liang [1996] HCA 6; (1996) 185 CLR 259
Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs v NAOS of 2002 [2003] FCAFC 142
Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs v SBAN [2002] FCAFC 431
Murrumbidgee Groundwater Preservation Association Inc v Minister for Natural Resources [2005] NSWCA 10; (2005) 138 LGERA 11
North Coast Environment Council Inc v Minister for Resources [1994] FCA 1556; (1994) 55 FCR 492
Ogle v Strickland (1987) 13 FCR 306
Onus v Alcoa [1981] HCA 50; (1981) 149 CLR 27
Pape v Federal Commissioner of Taxation [2009] HCA 23; (2009) 238 CLR 1
Project Blue Sky Inc v Australian Broadcasting Authority [1998] HCA 28; (1998) 194 CLR 355
R v Toohey; Ex parte Northern Land Council [1981] HCA 74; (1981) 151 CLR 170
SBBS v Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs (2002) 194 ALR 749 at [43];
SCAS v Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs (2002) FCAFC 397
Spratt v Hermes [1965] HCA 66; (1965) 114 CLR 226
Swan Hill Corporation v Bradbury [1937] HCA 15; (1937) 56 CLR 746
Water Conservation Commission v Browning [1947] HCA 21; (1947) 74 CLR 492
Wurridjal v Commonwealth [2009] HCA 2; (2009) 237 CLR 309
Aronson Dyer and Groves Judicial Review of Administrative Action (4th ed, 2009)
M Nowak UN Covenant on Civil and Political Rights CCPR Commentary 2nd revised edition (NP Engel, 2005)
Concerned Citizens of Canberra Incorporated (Plaintiff)
Chief Planning Executive (Planning and Land Authority) (Defendant)
1. By its Further Amended Originating Application the plaintiff, an incorporated association called Concerned Citizens of Canberra Inc, challenges two decisions of the defendant, the Chief Planning Executive, made in relation to a development application lodged with the defendant on behalf of an incorporated association proposing to construct a mosque on a site in the Gungahlin town centre (the DA). The first decision which is challenged is a decision not to extend the public notification period for the DA (First Decision). The second decision which is challenged is the decision of the defendant to approve the DA (Second Decision).
2. Both decisions are challenged on a number of orthodox administrative law grounds. The Second Decision is also challenged on the ground that it involved a contravention of s 116 of the Australian Constitution and on the ground that it involved a contravention of the Human Rights Act 2004 (ACT) (HR Act).
3. The relief sought included orders under s 17 of the Administrative Decisions (Judicial Review) Act 1989 (ACT) (ADJR Act) and orders to the same effect as prerogative writs and declarations. The defendant submits that the plaintiff lacks standing to seek the relief that it does.
4. The First Decision was made on 6 August 2012. Proceedings were commenced by Originating Application filed 9 August 2012. The plaintiff was incorporated on 13 August 2012. The Second Decision was made on 29 August 2012.
5. In February 2013 Sidis AJ heard a number of contested interlocutory applications and on 26 March 2013 gave a written decision in which she extended time for the commencement of the proceedings, granted leave to file a Further Amended Originating Application, refused an application to join the president of the plaintiff, Mr Irwin Ross, as a party to the proceedings, dismissed an application to dismiss the proceedings and ordered that the plaintiff provide security for costs in the sum of $25,000: see Concerned Citizens of Canberra Incorporated v Chief Planning Executive (Planning and Land Authority) [2013] ACTSC 50 (Concerned Citizens [No 1]).
6. The Further Amended Originating Application was filed on 30 April 2013. It took until 23 August 2013 before the proceedings were in a position to be listed for hearing. At that point the parties wished to accommodate the convenience of their counsel of choice and hence only sought a hearing date in March 2014 notwithstanding the availability of earlier dates upon which the Court could have heard the matter.
7. Neither the applicant for development approval nor the proponent of the development was joined as a party to the proceedings by the plaintiff. When the various interlocutory applications were before Sidis AJ her Honour made sure that the proponent of the development, Canberra Muslim Community Inc (CMC), was notified of the nature of the proceedings and of its right to be joined as a defendant if it wished to participate. A representative of the organisation appeared and made it clear that the organisation was aware of the proceedings and understood that its interests might be affected by the outcome of the litigation. While its representatives had observed the Court process from time to time the organisation did not wish to be joined as a party to the proceedings: see Concerned Citizens [No 1] at [33]-[35].
8. The defendant made an application for further security for its costs and on 13 February 2014 I made an order requiring the provision of limited additional security: see Concerned Citizens of Canberra v Chief Planning Executive (ACT Planning and Land Authority) [2014] ACTSC 24 (Concerned Citizens [No 2]).
9. The defendant is the Chief Planning Executive appointed under s 21 of the Planning and Development Act 2007 (ACT) (PD Act). Under s 10 of the PD Act the Chief Planning Executive is the Planning and Land Authority established by that section (the Authority) which, in turn, is said to be a body corporate: s 10(2)(a). Thus, rather unusually, the Authority is both a natural person (the Chief Planning Executive) and a body corporate. The staff of the Chief Planning Executive work within the Environment and Sustainable Development Directorate (ESDD) in an administrative unit referred to as the ACT Planning and Land Authority (ACTPLA).
10. The site of the proposed development is a block of land of 4590 m² located on the south side of The Valley Avenue, a dual carriageway road to the south-east of the Gungahlin Town Centre. As at August 2012, the site was vacant except for a remnant eucalypt tree and a temporary site office. The Crown lease over the site of the proposed development was granted on 8 August 2011 for a term of 99 years to CMC. The purpose clause of the lease permits a "place of worship" and "religious associated use" and ancillary to these uses a "community activity centre". The Territory Plan has the effect that the land is zoned "CFZ Community Facility" (Community Facility Zone).
11. Immediately south of the site of the proposed development is a block of unleased Territory land. On 9 December 2011 the Authority, CMC and the Land Development Agency (LDA) an ACT Government agency with the function of developing and selling land on behalf of the ACT Government entered into a license agreement whereby CMC was licensed until 31 October 2021 with a further term until 31 October 2026 to use the land for "temporary car parking in association with activities carried out by [CMC] on the adjacent Block 2 Section 235 Gungahlin" (the Licence).
12. On 30 May 2012 the DA was submitted electronically to the Authority. The person who lodged the DA was a Mr Shamsul Huda of the company 4thD Planning & Design Pty Ltd. The proposed development was described as including "Place of worship or mosque building with associated wash areas and stores", "Community activity centre or multi-purpose hall building with associated kitchen and stores", and "Religious associated use facilities/buildings which include a small library, classrooms for religious teachings, computer lab etc".
13. On 1 June 2012 staff at ACTPLA undertook an administrative check of the DA and it was assigned to the Technical Coordinator (Merit North), Mr George Cilliers. A staff member of ACTPLA was directed to undertake a "completeness check" of the application which involved verifying documentary completeness, calculating the development application fee and determining the type of public notification that was required and the agencies to which the application should be referred.
14. On 6 June 2012 the calculated development application fee was paid and the defendant accepted the proposal as having been formally lodged.
15. On 13 June 2012 the Customer Services section of ACTPLA emailed The Canberra Times to arrange for a notice to be published in the paper, which then occurred on 15 June 2012.
16. On 13 June 2012 a sign manufacturer was instructed by ACTPLA to prepare a sign for the DA and on 14 June 2012 the sign installer, Mr Eric Anastasiou, was directed by ACTPLA to erect the sign.
17. Also on 13 June 2012 the Customer Services section of ACTPLA sent emails seeking entity advice in relation to the DA to ActewAGL, something described as "Tree Protection" (which appears to be a referral to the Conservator of Flora and Fauna within the ESDD), the Territory and Municipal Services Directorate (TAMSD) and the Environment Protection Authority (EPA). Between 15 June 2012 and 25 July 2012 advice was received from each of those entities on one or more occasion.
18. The DA was publicly notified from 15 June 2012 until 6 July 2012. A number of written representations were received from members of the public during this period. Three representations were received after the closure of the public notification period and persons who made them were advised that they would not be taken into account.
19. One of the representations received was a letter dated 4 July 2012 from the solicitor who acts for the plaintiff in these proceedings, Mr Robert Balzola. His letter indicated that he acted on behalf of "Concerned Citizens of Canberra", an unincorporated entity. Mr Balzola's letter stated that his client was in the process of obtaining expert reports on the impacts of the proposed development and requested "an ... extension of one month to provide our submissions to the authority".
20. On 5 July 2012 Mr Ben Ponton, the acting Deputy Director-General Planning within ACTPLA, replied in a letter sent by email to Mr Balzola saying that the PD Act did not provide for an extension of time to submit representations on the grounds that had been sought but explaining that his letter would be accepted as a formal representation. I will return to Mr Balzola's letter and Mr Ponton's response later in these reasons.
21. During the notification period Mr Cilliers, who was responsible for the processing of the DA, received a number of telephone calls from members of the public including in relation to the notification signage. The issue of signage is one to which I will return below.
22. On 13 July 2012 Mr Balzola sent an email to Mr Cilliers asking a number of procedural questions including as to what his client's "extension of time options" were. Mr Cilliers responded on 24 July 2012. On 1 August 2012 Mr Balzola sent a letter to Mr Cilliers which he asked to be treated as a formal application pursuant to s 151C(2) of the Legislation Act 2001 (ACT) (Legislation Act) for an extension of the public notification period under s 156(3) of the PD Act. The letter put forward a number of matters in support of the application for an extension. As with his previous correspondence the submission was said to be made on behalf of "Concerned Citizens of Canberra" although that was not an incorporated entity at that stage.
23. On 2 August 2012 Mr Cilliers acknowledged receipt of Mr Balzola's letter. On the same day there was a meeting of the Major Projects Review Group (MPRG). The MPRG is a committee established within ACTPLA to provide advice in relation to development applications for major projects. The formal documents constituting or setting out the function of the MPRG were not in evidence however it provided advice to Mr Cilliers and to the defendant at two stages of the assessment of the DA.
24. On 2 August 2012 the MPRG considered a number of issues relating to the substance of the DA as well as the application for an extension of the public notification period. The MPRG resolved to await outstanding entity advice from TAMSD and the provision to it of a copy of the licence agreement relating to the adjoining land. In relation to the request for an extension of the public notification period, the MPRG resolved that such an extension was not warranted and that a letter should be provided to Mr Balzola setting out the reasons for that refusal.
25. As a consequence, the defendant signed a letter to Mr Balzola dated 6 August 2012 informing him that the application for an extension of the public notification period had been refused. The letter stated that ACTPLA was of the view that the prescribed timeframe of 15 working days provided for public notification was sufficient. I will consider the correspondence concerning Mr Balzola's 1 August 2012 request for an extension of the notification period in more detail below.
26. On 9 August 2012 these proceedings were commenced. Plainly enough, at that stage they only related to the First Decision as the Second Decision had not yet been made.
27. On 13 August 2012 Mr Cilliers had further correspondence with Mr Huda relating to the Licence and the Islamic burial rituals that were proposed.
28. On 15 August 2012 Mr Cilliers prepared another submission to the MPRG which recommended that the MPRG support the approval of the DA subject to conditions. The MPRG met on 17 August 2012 and considered that minute. It resolved to support the approval on the basis that there be further consultation with ACT Health in relation to the requirements of the "deceased wash room" that was proposed as part of the development and required the imposition of a condition requiring work to be done on the adjoining land the subject of the Licence. Mr Cilliers engaged in correspondence with ACT Health between 17 and 22 August in relation to the wash room.
29. On 23 August 2012 there was a meeting of another committee within ACTPLA known as the Decision Assurance Panel. The precise function of this entity was not made clear but it appears to be an internal committee of senior staff who review the draft Notice of Decision prior to a decision on certain development applications being made by the Chief Planning Executive. The Decision Assurance Panel supported approval of the proposed development but suggested some changes to the draft Notice of Decision.
30. Although Mr Cilliers had commenced working on his assessment report prior to this date, on 27 and 28 August 2012 he completed that report and a brief to the Chief Planning Executive.
31. On 29 August 2012 the defendant decided to approve the DA subject to conditions and signed the Notice of Decision.
119 Merit track - when development approval must not be given
(1) Development approval must not be given for a development proposal in the merit track unless the proposal is consistent with -
33. "Relevant code" is defined in the Dictionary as "a code that the relevant development table applies to the proposal". "Relevant development table" is defined as "the development table that applies to the proposal". A "development table" is "the development table in the Territory Plan that covers the zone in which the development or development proposal is to take place (see PD Act s 54)." A development table is one of the things that must be contained in the Territory Plan: see ss 51 and 54 PD Act.
34. Under the Territory Plan, Block 2 Section 235 Gungahlin is within the Community Facility Zone. The Community Facility Zone Development Table, found in section 6.1 of the Territory Plan, provided that the following development was permissible with the minimum assessment track being the merit track: "place of worship", "religious associated use", "community activity centre". Listed as prohibited development was: "funeral parlour".
35. The relevant code with which development proposals in the Community Facility Zone had to comply was the Community Facility Zone Development Code (CFZ Code). That code also provides that "precinct codes" and "general codes" made under the Territory Plan may also apply to development in the Community Facility Zone. In the present case the following codes were also considered to be applicable:
(a) Gungahlin Town Centre Precinct Code;
(b) Parking and Vehicular Access General Code; and
(c) Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design General Code.
36. The codes which were mentioned in the evidence as applicable to the present development but which did not figure significantly in this case were the Bicycle Parking General Code (Bicycle Code), the Access and Mobility General Code and the Waterways: Water Sensitive Urban Designed General Code.
37. The Community Facility Zone Development Code provides that if there is an inconsistency between codes the order of precedence is precinct code followed by development code and finally general code.
38. The plaintiff has claimed that there were various defects in the process leading to the making of the First Decision and Second Decision as well as defects in the decisions themselves. The plaintiff submits that these defects provide a basis for granting relief under the ADJR Act or alternatively prerogative relief in relation to the decisions. The plaintiff has deployed a wide range of arguments in support of its case. Given the number of different arguments presented by the plaintiff and the manner in which it put its submissions, it is most efficient to deal with the arguments of the plaintiff sequentially and describe the submissions put by the plaintiff at the relevant point in the reasons that follow.
39. Although logically antecedent to the plaintiff's contentions, I will deal with the defendant's submission that the plaintiff lacked standing to bring the proceedings at the end of these reasons.
40. The plaintiff submits that the defendant did not display the required sign notifying the public of the proposed development on the place to which the application related and that the sign was not erected until 25 June 2012, some 10 days after the commencement of the public notification period.
41. A proposal such as that contained in the DA was required to be publicly notified under s 121 of the PD Act which provided:
(1) To remove any doubt, if a development proposal is in the merit track, the application for development approval for the proposal must be publicly notified under division 7.3.4.
42. Division 7.3.4 contained the following provisions:
(1) For this chapter, the planning and land authority publicly notifies a development application if -
(b) for any other application for a development proposal - the authority notifies the application under -
43. Section 153 of the PD Act set out the requirements for notice of a DA to be given to the lessee of the adjoining premises. Section 154 applies where a development application includes an application to vary the lease. It set out the requirements for giving notice of a development application to holders of interests in the land registered under the Land Titles Act 1925 (ACT).
44. Section 155 sets out the content of the obligation on the Authority to publicly notify development applications. It is significant in the present case because the plaintiff submits that it was not complied with. It provided:
(1) If the planning and land authority must notify a development application under this section, the authority must do each of the following:
(a) display a sign on the place to which the application relates that states the development proposed to be undertaken;
(b) publish notice of the making of the application in a daily newspaper.
(2) The planning and land authority must display a new sign under subsection (1) (a) if, before the public notification period ends -
(i) becomes aware that the original sign is defective because its contents are incorrect, incomplete or include misleading information; and
(A) unfavourably affect a person's awareness of the timing, location or nature of the development proposal in the application; or
(B) deny or restrict the opportunity of a person to make representations about the application under section 156; or
(b) the authority becomes aware that a sign was not displayed.
(3) Subsection (2) does not apply if a sign is displayed, but is subsequently moved, altered, damaged, defaced, covered or had access to it prevented.
(4) The planning and land authority must publish a new notice under subsection (1) (b) if, before the public notification period ends -
(i) becomes aware that the original notice is defective because its contents are incorrect, incomplete or include misleading information; and
(A) unfavourably affect a person's awareness of the timing, location or nature of the development proposal in the application; or
(B) deny or restrict the opportunity of a person to make representations about the application under section 156; or
(b) the authority becomes aware that a notice was not published.
(a) a sign is displayed under subsection (1) (a) or (2); and
(b) the person moves, alters, damages, defaces, covers or prevents access to the sign while it is required to be displayed.
(6) An offence against subsection (2) is a strict liability offence.
(7) Subsection (2) does not apply to a person if the person acts with the written approval of the chief planning executive.
(8) The validity of a development approval is not affected by a failure by the planning and land authority to comply with this section.
45. Section 156 of the PD Act describes the statutory entitlement of any person to make representations in relation to a development application during the public notification period defined by s 157. Section 156 is significant in the present case because the First Decision was a decision not to exercise the power under s 156(3) to extend the public notification period. Sections 156-157 provided:
(1) Anyone may make a written representation about a development application that has been publicly notified under this Act.
Note Only developments in the merit track and impact track are required to be publicly notified (see s 121 and s 130). Also, the planning and land authority must re-notify some amended development applications (see s 146).
(2) A representation about a development application must be made during the public notification period for the application.
Note Public notification period for a development application - see s 157.
(3) The planning and land authority may, by notice published in a daily newspaper, extend the public notification period.
Note The planning and land authority may extend the public notification period after it has ended (see Legislation Act, s 151C).
(4) If the planning and land authority extends the public notification period under subsection (3), the authority must give the applicant for the development approval written notice of the extension.
(5) A person who makes a representation about a development application may, in writing, withdraw the representation at any time before the application is decided.
(6) To remove any doubt, a representation about a development application -
(a) may relate to how the development proposed in the application meets, or does not meet, any finding or recommendation of the EIS for the development; and
(b) must not relate to the adequacy of the EIS for the development.
Note Representations about a draft EIS may be made under s 219.
157 Meaning of public notification period for development applications - Act
public notification period, for a development application, means -
(b) if the period prescribed is extended under section 156 (3) - the prescribed period as extended.
46. Section 28 of the Planning and Development Regulation 2008 (ACT) (PD Regulations) provided relevantly:
28 Public notification period - Act, s 157, def public notification period, par (a)
(b) for a development application notified in accordance with the Act, section 152 (1) (b) - 15 working days after the day the application is notified.
47. If the application was notified on 15 June 2012 then 15 working day period after that day ended at the end of 6 July 2012.
48. The issue raised by the plaintiff was whether or not a sign had been placed on the site of the proposed development and whether it had remained there throughout the public notification period.
49. At the request of officers of ACTPLA, Mr Eric Anastasiou, a contractor to the Authority, erected a sign on the site on 15 June 2012. In order to identify the site Mr Anastasiou used a block and section map in addition to the map which was supplied at the time he received instructions to erect the sign. In cross-examination it was suggested to Mr Anastasiou that he did not in fact erect the sign on that date. However I accept his evidence that he erected the sign on the date that he was instructed to do so. He was not cross-examined in any manner that would throw doubt on the reliability of his method of identification of the site using both the map given to him and the block and section maps that he routinely used as part of his job. Further, notwithstanding that the block was located within an open paddock, identification of the location of the block would have been relatively straightforward having regard to the location of the intersection between The Valley Avenue and Hinder Street as a point of reference. As a consequence I also accept his evidence that he erected the sign within the boundaries of the block the subject to the development proposal. He appeared to me to be a straightforward witness who was required to perform a particular task that had limited parameters and he is likely to have performed the task in accordance with the parameters he was given.
50. On 26 June 2012 a member of the public communicated to Mr Cilliers that the sign on the land was not visible. Mr Cilliers reported this to Michael Johnson, the supervisor for the Notification Team within ACTPLA. On the afternoon of 26 June 2012 Mr Johnson drove to the site and hammered the sign firmly back into the ground with a car jack. He took a photo of the position of the sign. He subsequently worked out by reference to the photos taken on that day and an aerial photograph of the site with cadastral information superimposed upon it that the position where he had re-erected the site was approximately 10 m to the west of the western boundary of the block. His evidence was that there was a hole near where he found the sign on the ground which matched the size of the stake that was attached to the sign and that he put the stake back into that hole. On 27 June 2012 he went back to the site to make sure that it was still in place and took photos of it in position. He drove past the site two or three times between that date and the end of the notification period and saw that it was in place on each such occasion.
51. The evidence of Mr Adrian Adair, vice-president of the plaintiff, was that he frequently drove past the site between early June and 25 June 2012 and did not observe any sign on the block. He said that the first time a public notice was evident to him was on the afternoon of 26 June 2012. His evidence was that the sign was erected on the block slightly to the west of the centre of the northern boundary of the block.
52. The evidence of Susan Miller, another witness called by the plaintiff, was that she drove past the site a number of times each week. She had been informed by Mr Adair that the proposed development on the site had been notified on the Authority's website and she stopped on one occasion and saw the sign lying on the ground. Her recollection was that the sign was up after that for roughly between 8 and 10 days.
53. Mr Anastasiou attended the site on 9 July 2012. He observed that the sign was lying on the ground within 5 to 10 m from where he erected it on 15 June 2012. He took the sign away for disposal.
54. The only significant potential inconsistency in the evidence is between Mr Anastasiou who said he erected the sign on the block and Mr Johnson who said that he re-erected the sign 10 metres to the west of the western boundary of the block in a hole which matched the stake for the sign. The existence of a hole that matched the stake would be consistent with that being the location where the sign was originally erected by Mr Anastasiou. It would also be consistent with the sign having been moved and erected there at some stage after Mr Anastasiou erected it in its original location or alternatively there being, for reasons which are unexplained, a hole matching the dimensions of the stake. For the reasons which I set out earlier, I accepted Mr Anastasiou's evidence that he erected the sign on the block. While I accept Mr Johnson's evidence about the existence of a stake-sized hole that must be a result of the sign being moved after it was placed there or there being a hole there for some other reason.
55. Having regard to this evidence my findings are, in summary:
(a) Mr Anastasiou erected the sign on 15 June 2012 within the boundaries of the block;
(b) At some stage between 15 and 25 June 2012 the sign was pulled out or knocked over. Notwithstanding the evidence that there was considerable rain on 22 June 2012, the likelihood of it having fallen over of its own accord is remote and it is likely that it was pulled down or knocked over by a person or persons opposed to the development;
(c) On 26 June 2012 the sign was re-erected by Mr Johnson in a location 10 metres to the west of the western boundary of the site; and
(d) The sign remained erected until shortly before 9 July. Having regard to the observations of Ms Miller that it was up for a period of roughly 8 to 10 days, the observations of Mr Johnson that he observed it in place on a number of occasions after he had re-erected it and Mr Anastasiou's observation that it was on the ground when he returned to collect it, it is likely to only have been knocked over or taken out and left on the ground by a person or persons opposed to the development during the weekend of 7-8 July 2012.
56. Section 155(1) of the PD Act imposes an obligation on the Authority to "display a sign on the place to which the application relates". The concept of "the place to which the application relates" is not defined but the language of the section is more consistent with the obligation being to place the notice at a point that is on or within the boundaries of the land where the development is proposed to be undertaken than merely to place it in the vicinity of that land.
57. Section 155(2) imposes an obligation to put up a new sign if the original sign is defective because it is incorrect, incomplete or includes misleading information or if the authority "becomes aware that a sign was not displayed". The precise content of that latter obligation is made clear by subsection (3) which provides that subsection (2) "does not apply if a sign is displayed, but is subsequently moved, altered, damaged, defaced, covered or had access to it prevented". The only ambiguity that might arise is that subsection (3) does not specifically refer to the possibility of the sign being removed. In my view, particularly having regard to the terms of subsection (5), the reference to "moved" should be read as including moved to a place unknown or away from the place, that is, removed.
58. Similarly, it is not clear why paragraph (2)(b) is necessary in that there should really be no requirement for an obligation to put up a "new sign" if the Authority was aware that no sign had ever been displayed. In those circumstances the original obligation to display a sign would continue. Notwithstanding these difficulties with the drafting of the section, in my view subsections (2) and (3) should be read as not imposing an obligation to put up a new sign if the original sign was displayed but it was moved, altered, damaged, defaced, covered or had access to it prevented.
59. Of fundamental significance in the present case is s 155(8). That subsection makes it clear that a failure by the Authority to comply with the obligations in the rest of the section does not affect the validity of a development approval.
60. Subsection (8) makes it clear that the legislature has reached a compromise between the significance of the public being notified of development proposals and the administrative inconvenience and commercial undesirability of development approvals being invalidated because of a failure to give such notice. Such a legislative compromise may well have been influenced by the different context in which the provision was enacted compared with those situations where a State law is designed to regulate the conduct of a variety of small approval authorities and where the enacting government plays a less significant role in land development itself.
61. In any event, whatever the reasons for s 155(8), its terms make it clear that the lack of public notification by reason of any defects with the sign or its erection cannot directly affect the validity of the Second Decision.
62. I leave aside questions that might arise in the case of a deliberate failure to carry out notification under s 155. In such a case the subsection may not preclude a challenge to the validity of the decision based on bad faith or improper purpose. I do not need to investigate or resolve whether or to what extent that might be the case because in my view the evidence did not go anywhere near establishing bad faith or an improper purpose in this case. In my view s 155(8) also precludes such a defect being used indirectly as a means of challenging the Second Decision, for example, by asserting that the failure of public notification led to the Authority failing to take account of a relevant consideration. The provision does not, however, prevent a defect in the public notification process being a matter that could be taken into account the Authority in deciding whether or not to extend the period of public notification.
63. In the circumstances of this case I am not satisfied that there was any non-compliance on the Authority's part with the obligations under s 155 and I am not satisfied that any circumstance relating to the public notification under s 155 affects the validity of the First Decision or Second Decision.
64. The plaintiff submits that there was no public register as was required to be kept under Part 3.4 of the PD Act or, alternatively, that if there was a public register it did not contain the names of one or both of the applicants, a summary of the development proposal by the defendant or the required statement about public notification.
65. The provisions of the PD Act which relate to the maintenance by the Authority of a "public register" and "associated documents" were as follows.
(1) The planning and land authority must keep a register (the public register).
(2) The planning and land authority may keep the public register in any form the authority considers appropriate.
(1) The public register must contain the following:
(a) for each development application (unless withdrawn) -
(iii) the location of the proposed development; and
(iv) a summary by the planning and land authority of the proposed development; and
(v) if the application has been, or is being, publicly notified under division 7.3.4; and
(vi) whether the application has been amended under section 144; and
(vii) if representations under section 156 (other than representations that have been withdrawn) have been received on the application; and
(viii) whether the Minister has decided to establish an inquiry panel to inquire about an EIS for the development proposal to which the application relates;
Note Inquiry panels are established under pt 8.3.
(b) if a development application has been decided under section 162 -
(ii) whether the application has been approved, approved subject to a condition or refused; and
(iii) whether the decision was made by the Minister after calling in the application under division 7.3.5; and
(iv) whether the decision on the application has been reconsidered under division 7.3.10; and
(v) whether the approval has been amended under section 197;
(2) The public register may contain any other information that the planning and land authority considers appropriate.
(3) However, the public register must not contain -
(a) associated documents for development applications, development approvals or leases; or
(b) the name of the applicant for a controlled activity order.
29 Inspection etc of public register and associated documents
(1) The planning and land authority must ensure that, during business hours, the public register and associated documents are available for public inspection.
(2) The planning and land authority must allow people inspecting the public register and associated documents to make copies of, or take extracts from, the register and associated documents.
(1) For this part, each of the following is an associated document for a development application (other than an application that has been withdrawn):
(a) information required under section 139 (2) (c), (d) or (f) (i) to accompany an application;
(b) an assessment required under section 139 (2) (e) to accompany the application;
(c) a completed EIS required under section 139 (2) (f) (ii) to accompany the application;
(d) a survey certificate required under section 139 (2) (i) to accompany the application;
(e) an estate development plan required under section 139 (2) (n) to accompany the application;
(f) if the planning and land authority has asked for further information under section 141 - information provided in accordance with the request;
(g) if the planning and land authority corrects the application under section 143 - the notice of the correction (see s 143 (2));
(h) if the applicant has asked the authority to amend the development application under section 144 - any document provided by the applicant to support the request;
(i) an agreement by an entity to the development proposed in the application (see s 148 (2) (b));
(j) if the application is referred to an entity under division 7.3.3 - the advice of the entity in relation to the development application (see s 149 (2));
(k) if 1 or more representations have been made under section 156 about the application - each representation (other than a representation that has been withdrawn);
(l) if the Minister decides the application - the statement by the Minister in relation to the application presented to the Legislative Assembly under section 161 (2);
(m) the notice of the decision on the application given under division 7.3.8;
(n) if the applicant for the development application applies under section 191 for reconsideration of a decision to refuse to approve the development - any information included in the application;
(o) if the planning and land authority reconsiders a decision to refuse to approve the development - the notice of the decision on reconsideration under section 195;
(p) a plan, drawing or specification of a proposed building, structure or earthworks if the plan, drawing or specification -
(i) is part of the application (whether as originally made or as amended); or
(ii) is approved as part of the approval of the application under section 162; or
(iii) is required to be prepared by the applicant under a condition of an approval before the development, or a stated part of it, starts;
(q) if an inquiry panel inquires about an EIS for the development proposal to which the application relates - the report the panel gives the Minister under section 230 on the results of the inquiry.
Note Subsection (3) contains an exception to this subsection.
(2) For this part, each of the following is an associated document for a development approval:
(a) if the approval holder applies under section 191 for reconsideration of the decision to approve the development subject to conditions - any information included in the application;
(b) if the planning and land authority reconsiders the decision to approve the development subject to conditions - the notice of the decision on reconsideration under section 195;
(c) if the planning and land authority corrects the approval under section 196 - the notice about the correction (see s 196 (2));
(d) if the approval holder has applied to amend the approval under section 197 - any information included in the application;
(e) a plan, drawing or specification of a proposed building, structure or earthworks if the plan, drawing or specification is required to be prepared by the applicant under a condition of an approval before the development, or a stated part of it, starts.
(3) However, for this part, an associated document does not include -
(a) the plans, drawings or specifications of any residential part of a building or proposed building, other than plans, drawings or specifications that only show the height and external configuration of the building or proposed building; or
(b) information in relation to which an exclusion application has been approved under section 411; or
(c) information that must not be made available to the public under section 412.
66. Frederick Arugay, the assistant manager of the Customer Services Section at ACTPLA gave evidence which explained how documents relating to a development application were managed by the Authority and hence how the obligations in ss 27-30 of the PD Act relating to the public register and associated documents were met. Mr Arugay explained that there were two software programs of particular relevance to the development application process and the storage of documents within the Authority. The development application process is handled by a program known as "e-development". This enables development applications to be made and processed electronically. It is the customer interface for lodging and tracking development applications and is also used to allocate work in relation to a particular development application to officers of ACTPLA. ACTPLA operates an electronic document management system rather than a paper based filing system. The document management system is supported by a computer program called "Objective". Each development application is assigned a file number in Objective. All documents and information related to the development application are stored within the file in a series of folders and subfolders. Documents will be added to that file during the course of the processing of the development application.
67. The e-development program generates a summary of the information recorded in respect of a DA. It is that summary which the Authority regards as the public register for the DA. A copy of the public register in relation to the present application was pages 227-229 of the exhibit to Mr Arugay's affidavit.
68. Members of the public are able to view the public register by attending one of the two ACTPLA shopfronts in Dickson or Mitchell. If a member of the public tells one of the counter staff at the shopfront that he or she wishes to view the public register in respect of a particular DA that staff member will call up the relevant part of the public register on a computer screen using e-development and that register can be viewed by the member of the public.
69. Similarly, associated documents are made available in the same way that the public register is made available, namely, if a member of the public attends one of the shopfronts and asks to view an associated document the document is called up by the shopfront counter staff on Objective and can be viewed by the member of the public on screen. For a fee, shopfront staff will print them or load them onto a CD for the member of the public to take away.
Access to the public register and associated documents
70. The plaintiff submitted that the material related to a development was not accessible to the public and hence there has not been compliance with s 29 of the Act because:
(a) specialised knowledge was required to understand the descriptions of the documents shown on the program;
(b) staff assistance was required to access this information; and
(c) staff permission was required to access the information.
71. The obligation in s 29 is to ensure that during business hours the public register and associated documents are available for public inspection. The fact that it might be necessary to gain some assistance from a staff member to access them or that the description of the documents on an index might require some interpretation are matters which apply equally whether or not the documents are stored in electronic or paper form. While the terms of the index might not be immediately obvious to a lay member of the public, that fact alone does not mean that s 29 is not being complied with. There is no reason to suspect that sensible explanations of the different categories of document are not available from the Customer Services staff and if they were not then a member of the public would have a statutory entitlement to look laboriously through every document one by one just as if they had been unhelpfully dumped with a paper file to look through.
72. The third complaint, namely that staff permission was required to access the information, is not made out on the evidence. The system described by Mr Arugay is one which does not involve a discretion on the part of the Customer Services officers to refuse to provide access to a member of the public who wishes to view either the public register or the associated documents. Further, there was no evidence called on behalf of the plaintiff that there had been any refusal relevant to this case to permit viewing of the public register or associated documents.
73. The plaintiff alleges that the Authority failed to comply with the PD Act in relation to the content of what the Authority said was the public register. The plaintiff submitted that the register did not contain certain information required by the Act. I will address each of the types of information of concern to the plaintiff individually.
74. In relation to the requirement in s 28(1)(a)(ii) that the public register include "the applicant's name", the plaintiff makes two points. The plaintiff first notes that s 139(3) and s 139(2)(b)(i) have the effect that even if the lessee of the land is not the person identified on the DA as being the applicant, the lessee is taken to be an applicant in relation to the application. Then it notes that the entry in the public register identified only 4thD Planning & Design Pty Ltd as the applicant and did not include the deemed applicant under s 139(3). Secondly, the plaintiff submits that Mr Huda was the actual applicant rather than his company, 4thD Planning & Design Pty Ltd.
75. There is a tension between the reference to "the applicant" in s 28(1)(ii) and the operation of s 139(3). Section 28 appears to contemplate a single applicant whereas s 139(3) deems there to be more than one applicant. The PD Act does, on occasions, differentiate between "an applicant" and "the applicant". For example, s 141 refers to "an applicant" as does s 147, which deals with withdrawal of development applications and s 411 which relates to exclusion of material from public inspection. On the other hand s 144, which deals with amendment of applications, refers to "the applicant". Section 143 specifically addresses the possibility that there may be more than one applicant, requiring ACTPLA to give notice of a correction to a development application to "each applicant". The status of a person as "applicant" is significant for the purposes of rights of merit review which are described in Chapter 13 and Schedule 1 of the PD Act.
76. I am not satisfied that the PD Act deliberately draws a coherent distinction between "an applicant and "the applicant" so as to indicate that it draws a distinction between actual applicants and persons deemed to be applicants under s 139(3). The reference to a singular "applicant" is also presumed under s 145 of the Legislation Act to include the plural "applicants". Therefore, for both of these reasons, the fact that s 28(1)(a)(ii) refers to "the" applicant, singular, is not in my view a sufficient indication that only the actual applicant and not the deemed applicant need be identified. As a result, the public register should have included the name of the persons who signed the application under s 139(2)(b)(i). It did not. Therefore, the public register failed to comply with the requirements of s 28 in that respect.
77. Notwithstanding the significance of public disclosure as evidenced by the terms of Part of 3.6 of the PD Act I am not satisfied that, in accordance with the test articulated in Project Blue Sky Inc v Australian Broadcasting Authority [1998] HCA 28; (1998) 194 CLR 355 at 388-391, it is a purpose of the legislation that a development approval granted in circumstances where there had been non-compliance with s 28 (so far as it required disclosure of a deemed applicant under s 139(3)) be invalid.
78. I accept that the failure to comply with the requirements of s 28 might provide a basis for the grant of relief under the ADJR Act. However, I would, as a matter of discretion, decline to grant any prerogative relief or relief under the ADJR Act in relation to the failure to identify the deemed applicant in the register. I would so decline because of the minor nature of the non-compliance, the absence of any evidence of any detriment to anybody arising out of the non-compliance and the significant delay on the part of the plaintiff in bringing the proceedings to hearing.
79. The plaintiff's second submission is that 4thD Planning & Design Pty Ltd, the entity identified on the register as the applicant, was not in fact the applicant. The DA was completed online using a DA "wizard". That allows the person completing the document to select options for the completion of each section and, depending upon the option selected, different information is required to be inserted. Significantly for the purposes of the plaintiff's argument, under the heading "Applicant Details", in answer to the question "What type of applicant are you:" the person completing the form has selected "Business". The information then requested commences with an ACN or ABN number followed by "company name" followed by personal details of a person. Although the evidence does not disclose what the other alternatives could have been selected apart from "Business", the completed form that is in evidence makes it clear that the identified applicant was "4thD Planning & Design Pty Ltd". Some confusion is introduced by the terms of the letters of appointment included with the application, one of which makes reference to appointment of "Mr Shamsul Huda of 4thD Planning Company" and the other simply of "Shamsul Huda". However in my view the terms of the DA itself are sufficient to indicate that the applicant entity was the company rather than the individual. As a consequence I do not accept the plaintiff's submission.
Section 28(1)(a)(iv): "a summary by the planning and land authority of the proposed development"
80. The plaintiff submits that the summary included in the register was actually prepared by the applicant and not by the defendant. It submits that it did not include essential parts of the development description provided for by the Territory Plan and the various codes including "place of worship", "religious associated uses" or "ancillary activities centre" or the car park for a total of 179 spaces pursuant to the Licence.
81. While it appears that the description used for the purposes of public notification was the description that had been prepared by the applicant, there is not, in my view, any impediment for the Authority adopting the description that has been prepared by the applicant. The intent of the provision is to ensure that the Authority has control over the terms of what is publicly notified. That has the effect of ensuring that there is an appropriately worded description of the proposal and that the Authority is not stuck with giving notice using an inadequate description prepared by a applicant. As a consequence, in my view there was no failure to comply with the requirement of s 28 (1)(a)(iv).
Section 28(1)(a)(v): "if the application has been, or is being, publicly notified in division 7.3.4."
82. The plaintiff submits that, contrary to s 28(1)(a)(v), although there was a reference to the date that public notification commenced there was no statement that the application has been or is being publicly notified under Division 7.3.4.
83. On this point, in my view the material that appeared in the document was sufficient. The document identified as the public register appears at pages 227-229 of the exhibit to Mr Arugay's affidavit. While the form is not set out in a manner which is obviously designed to meet only the requirements of s 28, in relation to public notification it includes the following entries:
(a) under the heading Application Details: "Public Notification: Major";
(b) under the heading Key Dates: "Notification Start: 15/06/2012", "Notification Finish: 06/07/2012".
84. Although these entries do not make specific reference to Division 7.3.4 of the PD Act in my view they are sufficient to meet the requirements of s 28(1)(a)(v). That paragraph can be read at either as requiring a statement that the matter is being public notified or a statement that it is being publicly notified under Division 7.3.4. In my view the section is not so prescriptive as to require inclusion of the terms of the Division of the PD Act in the public register itself rather than simply requiring inclusion of a statement as to whether or not it is being publicly notified pursuant to a statutory requirement to do so. Therefore, in this respect the content of the public register complied with the requirements of the PD Act.
85. Associated documents as defined by s 30 of the PD Act are required to be available for public inspection but under s 28(3)(a) of the PD Act must not form part of the public register. The plaintiff makes two submissions:
(a) that documents falling within the concept of "associated documents" under s 30 the PD Act were included as part of the public register contrary to s 28(3); and
(b) that, contrary to s 29, they were not publicly available after 6 July 2012 because the website on which they could be found was taken down after that day because the public notification period had ended.
86. The plaintiff's first submission depends upon the proposition that the whole of the e-development software system was the public register for the purposes of s 28. If the e-development software system as a whole was the public register then posting associated documents in it throughout the development application process was a breach of s 28(3) which requires the public register not contain associated documents for the development application. However, as pointed out above, it is the summary screen of the e-development program which is treated by the Authority as the public register. That summary screen does not contain associated documents for the development application. Rather, it is simply a summary containing specified information relevant to the application. The fact that it may be stored on the same computer system or form part of a linked software system that is operationally useful does not mean that the summary screen "contains" associated documents in breach of the requirement of s 28(3). Associated documents were not posted to that summary screen during the course of the development approval process. Rather they were stored and organised using the Objective system which does not form part of the e-development summary screen even though it forms part of an apparently integrated software system. Therefore the plaintiff's submission that the associated documents were wrongly posted to the public register during the course of the development approval process is not correct.
87. The plaintiff submits that associated documents were not publicly available after 6 July 2012 when the website giving public notification of the proposal was taken down because the public notification period had ended. This submission wrongly suggests that the inclusion of some of the associated documents on the Authority's website during the notification period was done in order to comply with the obligation to make associated documents publicly available. That is not correct. The posting of documents to the Authority's website was an additional service provided for the convenience of the public rather than something that the Authority was required to do by reason of s 29 of the PD Act. The documents remained on the website for a number of weeks or months and were automatically removed some time after the end of the public notification period by the computer program that administered the website when the space available on the website was insufficient to maintain them and they were displaced by more recently posted documents. Therefore, the fact that the documents were removed from the Authority's website some time after the end of the public notification period is irrelevant to the question of whether or not the obligation to make associated documents available in s 29 of the PD Act was complied with.
88. Therefore, neither of the plaintiff's submissions provides a ground for reviewing either the First Decision or the Second Decision.
89. The plaintiff makes three submissions about the provision of further information by the applicant to the Authority during the consideration of the DA.
90. The first two submissions relate to Mr Cilliers request for further information under s 141 of the PD Act. Sections 141-142 relevantly provide:
141 Authority may require further information - development applications
(1) The planning and land authority may, by written notice, ask an applicant for development approval to give the authority stated further information in relation to a development application.
(a) state the period within which the further information asked for must be provided; and
(b) state that the further information must be provided in writing.
Note A request for further information may affect the time for deciding a development application (see div 7.3.7).
(3) The period stated under subsection (2) (a) must be at least 20 working days or, if a shorter period is prescribed by regulation, the shorter period.
(4) The planning and land authority may, on application before the end of the period stated under subsection (2) (a), extend the period within which the further information must be provided once only, for a period not longer than 20 working days.
Note The planning and land authority may extend the period within which further information must be provided after the end of the period being extended (see Legislation Act, s 151C (3)).
142 Effect of failure to provide further information - development applications
(a) the planning and land authority has asked for further information under section 141 in relation to an application; and
(b) the applicant has not provided some or all of the information in accordance with the request.
(2) The planning and land authority may refuse the application under section 162.
91. On 12 July 2012 Mr Cilliers sent to Mr Huda an email which included:
Currently I have some technical difficulties with e-development, so I opted with this e-mail. Please provide the below information under s 141 - please upload via e-development.
92. There was then a list of matters that required the provision of further information including a requirement to do a parking and traffic study as well as an amended 12.5 metre truck turning template, a response to advice from the EPA and a list of 11 matters of detail which appear to have arisen during the course of the assessment of the proposal.
93. On 31 July 2012 Mr Huda provided an email with a large number of attachments to Mr Cilliers. That email provided a response in relation to each of the items in the three categories which I have identified above. It annexed a traffic and parking report from Bob Nairn Consultant Pty Ltd (the Nairn Report) as well as a number of revised plans. The email concluded:
I hope this addresses all the issues that you have raised and we look forward to your favourable decision on our DA. I will upload all the revised drawings and supporting documents through e-development by tomorrow at the latest. Should you have any query or need further information on the matter, please do not hesitate to call me on [a mobile number].
94. It appears that there were some ongoing difficulties with the e-development system. On 8 August 2012 Mr Cilliers sent an email to Mr Huda saying that the information was not accompanied by the appropriate application form for s 141 information. He noted that this may have been related to technical difficulties with e-development. He requested that the information be accompanied by the appropriate application form. On 9 August 2012 Mr Huda filled out the approved form, form 1G, and said that he had not been able to upload the documents and fill out the form online due to technical difficulties with e-development. He provided a completed version of form 1G which described the additional material that had been provided although he did not provide a further set of the documentation or his email with the form.
First submission: compliance with s 141
95. The plaintiff submits that the email sent by Mr Cilliers did not comply with the requirements of s 141 of the PD Act. Although the submission did not particularise the manner in which the request did not comply with s 141, I consider that the submission is correct. Section 141 permits the Authority by written notice to ask the applicant for development approval to give the Authority stated further information in relation to a development application. Subsection (2) provides that the request must (a) state the period within which the further information asked for must be provided; and (b) state that the further information must be provided in writing. Subsection (3) provides that the period must be at least 20 working days or, if a shorter period is prescribed by the regulations, the shorter period. No shorter period was prescribed.
96. The notice given by Mr Cilliers on 12 July 2012 does not comply with the requirements of s 141(2) in that it failed to state the period within which the further information asked for had to be provided. It also failed to specify that the information must be provided in writing although this can probably be implied by the fact that reference is made to the provision of the further information by uploading it to e-development.
97. Therefore, because of the failure to specify the time in which the information had to be provided, the request that was made by Mr Cilliers on 12 July 2012 was not, in my view, a request which complied with s 141 of the PD Act. However, for the reasons given in relation to the third submission below, the failure to comply with s 141 is not of any significance.
Second submission: use of approved form under s 425
98. The second submission made by the plaintiff is that the response provided by Mr Huda on 31 July 2012 was not provided on form 1G which was at the relevant time an approved form under s 425 of the PD Act. Section 425 of the PD Act provides that the Authority may approve forms for that Act. Subsection (2) provides "if the planning and land authority approves a form for a particular purpose, the approved form must be used for that purpose." Section 255 of the Legislation Act contains further provisions in relation to the use of forms, including that a form may be approved for a provision of the relevant law even though the provision does not mention the form: s 255(3); substantial compliance with a form is sufficient: s 255 (4); and identifying particular requirements of forms that must be completed before it is taken to be properly completed: s 255(5). The provision contemplates that forms may be electronic forms.
99. The evidence described above shows that the relevant paper version of the form was ultimately completed subsequent to the provision of the documentary material. That was done because the electronic system was having "technical difficulties". I am not satisfied that there has been any failure to comply with the requirements of s 425 where the approved form is only provided subsequently to the information which it was meant to accompany and where that has occurred because of technical difficulties with the electronic system by which the form would usually have been completed and documents lodged electronically. As a matter of substance, the approved form required to accompany the information was ultimately provided and that, in my view, is sufficient for compliance with s 425.
100. Having regard to my finding that the email of Mr Cilliers on 12 July 2012 was not in fact a request which complied with the terms of s 141 I am not satisfied that the response to that request was required to comply with requirements associated with information provided under s 141. Rather, the communications between the Authority and the applicant were communications to which s 141 did not apply and hence, had there been a failure on the part of the applicant to provide that information, the statutory consequences of a failure to comply with a request under s 141 would not have applied. Whether or not there are any consequences of this depends upon whether or not there is any restriction on the Authority obtaining information from an applicant outside the regime provided for by s 141. This is the issue raised by the plaintiff in its third submission.
Third submission: information outside s 141
101. The plaintiff's third submission about the provision of further information to the Authority relates to the provision of information regarding the "deceased wash room" and in relation to what the plaintiff says is "the EPA objection as to noise". This information was provided by email without any purported reliance on s 141. The plaintiff submits that this involved a failure to follow the procedures required by law because the Authority is confined to obtaining further information by express statutory procedures such as the provision of further information under s 141 or the amendment of the development application under s 144.
102. In relation to the provision of information related to the use of the "deceased wash room", on 13 August 2012 Mr Cilliers requested that Mr Huda "provide an outline of the process involved in burial, in particular the process to be undertaken in the deceased wash room." On the same day Mr Huda responded by email, describing the process to be undertaken in the washroom and the relationship between that process and prayers in the mosque.
103. In relation to what is described by the plaintiff as "the EPA objection as to noise", Exhibit 27 demonstrates that there were some email communications between Mr Huda and a representative of the EPA following a meeting on 24 July 2012. On 25 July 2012 Mr Huda sent an email to the officer at the EPA to confirm the advice that was provided at the meeting in relation to the likely use of the Community Hall and the noise it may generate. Mr Cilliers was copied in to the email so that he too could see what had been provided by Mr Huda. Later the same day the officer at the EPA to whom Mr Huda had sent his email wrote to the Authority, copying in Mr Cilliers and Mr Huda, indicating that the EPA supported the proposed development provided it be a condition of approval that no amplified music be permitted on site and providing some further advice. It was not accurate to characterise this communication as being in relation to "the EPA objection as to noise". However it is clear that Mr Cilliers was copied in to this email exchange and hence had access to the information contained in it provided by Mr Huda to the EPA.
104. The plaintiff's submission necessarily involves the proposition that it is not open to the Authority to receive further information from an applicant other than in accordance with a request made under s 141 of the PD Act. That submission must be considered having regard to the terms of s 141 in the context of the provisions of Chapter 7 of the PD Act. The consequences of a failure to provide such information is that under s 142 the Authority is entitled to refuse the development application on that basis and that where a request under s 141 has been made within 10 working days after the day the application is lodged, the making of the request can have the effect of extending the period in which the development application must be decided under s 162: see ss 166-168. Where information is requested and provided then that information becomes an "associated document" under s 30(1)(f).
105. There is nothing in the PD Act which expressly constrains the capacity of the Authority to obtain information from an applicant other than pursuant to the process in s 141. If the process under s 141 is followed then the Authority is put in a better position if the applicant fails to provide the information because of the operation of s 142 and, where applicable, ss 166-168. Further, because such information is required to be provided with an approved form, the Authority obtains a declaration from the applicant on the approved form that the information provided is "true and complete". As a consequence where the information is of a more significant nature, there are benefits to the Authority in requiring it to be provided formally pursuant to s 141. There are benefits to the public where the process under s 141 is followed because the response to the request becomes an "associated document" to which the public may have access under s 29: s 30(1)(f).
106. Notwithstanding these benefits of the use of the formal statutory procedure under s 141, that is not in, my view, sufficient to give rise to an implication that the Authority's capacity to obtain further information is limited to obtaining further information pursuant to s 141. I do not consider that the desirability of matters of significance being disclosed to the public under s 29 is sufficient to give rise to an implication that s 141 is the only method by which additional information may be obtained from an applicant. In my view, s 141 is a formal tool which is available to the Authority and effectively compels the provision of information by an applicant, but the Authority is not compelled to use that tool if it considers that less formal means will be sufficient.
107. Therefore I am not satisfied that there is any basis for review of either the First Decision or Second Decision in relation to the manner in which the defendant obtained further information from the applicant for approval.
108. There is a process under the PD Act that requires some development applications to be referred to other entities. Those entities are generally government entities but also include some utility providers. The process by which DAs are referred to entities and the consequences of such referrals are described in ss 148 to 151 of the PD Act which are as follows:
(1) The planning and land authority must refer a development application prescribed by regulation to an entity prescribed by regulation.
(2) However, the planning and land authority must not refer a development application to an entity under subsection (1) if -
(a) the authority is satisfied that the applicant has adequately consulted the entity in relation to the application not earlier than 6 months before the day the application is made; and
(b) the entity agrees in writing to the proposed development.
(3) A written agreement to a proposed development mentioned in subsection (2) (b) is taken to be advice received in accordance with section 149 in relation to an application for development approval for the development.
(4) To remove any doubt, if the planning and land authority is not required to refer a development application to an entity under subsection (1) -
(a) the authority need not refer the application to the entity before deciding the application; and
(b) the decision of the authority is not affected by the authority not referring the application to the entity.
149 Requirement to give advice in relation to development applications
(1) This section applies if a development application, including an amended application, is referred to an entity.
Note An amended application may be required to be referred to an entity under s 145.
(2) The entity must give the planning and land authority the entity's advice in relation to the development application not later than 15 working days after the day the authority gives the application to the entity or, if a shorter period is prescribed by regulation, not later than the end of the shorter period.
Note 1 A written agreement to a development proposal under section 148 (2) (b) is taken to be advice given in accordance with this section in relation to a development application for the proposal (see s 148 (3)).
Note 2 For how documents may be given, see the Legislation Act, pt 19.5.
For this Act, if an entity fails to provide advice in accordance with section 149 in relation to a development application referred to the entity, the entity is taken to have given advice that the entity supports the application.
(a) a development application, including a development application amended under section 144, is referred to an entity; and
(b) the entity gives advice on the application in accordance with section 149; and
Note Advice on an application is given in accordance with section 149 if the advice is given by an entity not later than 15 working days (or shorter prescribed period) after the day the application is given to the entity.
(c) the planning and land authority or Minister approves the application; and
(d) the approval is substantially consistent with the advice.
(2) The entity must not act inconsistently with the advice in relation to the development application unless -
(a) further information in relation to the development proposed in the application comes to the entity's attention (other than information mentioned in subsection (3)); and
(b) the entity did not have the further information when the entity gave the advice; and
(c) the further information is relevant to the advice the entity gave; and
(d) the entity would have given different advice if the entity had the further information before giving the advice.
(3) Subsection (2) (a) does not apply to further information in relation to a development proposed in an application if the information -
(a) was not required in the development application; and
(b) is required by the entity after the application is approved; and
(c) is consistent in all significant respects with information already provided by the applicant, except that it is more detailed.
(4) For this section, an entity acts inconsistently with advice in relation to a development application if -
(a) the advice is that the entity will issue or give an approval or other thing in relation to the development; and
(i) does not issue or give the approval or other thing consistent with the advice; or
(ii) issues or gives the approval or other thing in a way, or subject to a condition, that prevents the applicant undertaking the development approved.
that the entity will agree to the digging up of a footpath to allow the development
Note An example is part of the Act, is not exhaustive and may extend, but does not limit, the meaning of the provision in which it appears (see Legislation Act, s 126 and s 132).
(5) Also for this section, an entity acts inconsistently with advice in relation to an application if -
(a) the advice is that an activity to which the application relates does not require a particular authorisation (however described); and
(b) the entity prosecutes someone, or takes other compliance action, in relation to the activity because the activity is carried out without the particular authorisation.
An Act prohibits activity A without an approval. The entity responsible for administering the Act gives advice under section 149 that the activity (activity B) in the application does not fall within the description of activity A. The application is approved consistent with the advice. The entity cannot prosecute a person for carrying out activity B in accordance with the approved application because activity B does fall within the description of activity A and the person did not have approval.
(6) For this section, an entity acts inconsistently with advice that the entity is taken under section 150 to have given in relation to a development application if the entity -
(a) refuses to do something required to be done by the entity to allow the applicant to undertake the development approved in the application; or
(b) does something in a way, or subject to a condition, that prevents the applicant from undertaking the development approved in the application.
109. In relation to development applications in the merit track s 26(2) of the PD Regulations prescribes the entities to which the DA must be referred as follows:
(2) The following entities are prescribed for a development application in the merit track:
(a) if the application relates to any part of a declared site within the meaning of the _Tree Protection Act 2005 - _the conservator of flora and fauna;
(b) if the application relates to unleased land or public land - the custodian of the land.
110. In the present case the application did not relate to a declared site within the meaning of the Tree Protection Act 2005 and hence a referral under s 26(2)(a) was not required. The application did relate to unleased land in that it involved off-site works in the road reserve for The Valley Avenue and, as a consequence, a referral to the custodian of the land was required under s 26(2)(b). It appears that "Roads ACT" (a part of TAMSD) was treated as the custodian of the land and had consented to the lodgement of the DA. The DA did not involve "public land" as that term was defined in the PD Act. The DA appears to have been sent for comment to the authorities identified as a result of the "completeness check" completed on 4 June 2012 . The document that was completed by an officer of ACTPLA referred to certain work instructions relating to entity referrals which were not in evidence. The document appears to indicate that referrals to "Asset Acceptance" in TAMSD, ActewAGL, the EPA and "Tree Protection" were all mandatory referrals. The form also contemplates that there might be "non-mandatory entity and the internal referrals" but nothing on the form indicates that such referrals were made. I was not referred to the provisions of the Territory Plan which might have required referral of the DA to entities pursuant to s 26(3) of the PD Regulations. While, having regard to the number of different codes forming part of the Territory Plan which were relevant to the assessment of the DA, it is possible that some of these referrals were required by s 26(3). I have not been able to identify them. The provisions of the PD Act itself only required the DA to be referred to a single entity for the purposes of s 148, that being TAMSD.
111. The application was in fact referred on 13 June 2012 to ActewAGL, "Tree Protection" and the traffic section ofTAMSD and the EPA. As indicated above, each of these referrals may have been required by the provisions of the Territory Plan to which I was not referred. The extent of referrals appears to extend beyond those required by the regulation. In most respects these referrals appear to have been treated as though they were statutory referrals under s 148.
(a) that the entity advice was sought from the wrong entities and without statutory authority;
(b) that the advice from TAMSD was completely outside the statutory procedure under chapter 7 of the PD Act;
(c) that it was not open to the Authority to take the information from other entities into account in making the decision.
113. Therefore the plaintiff claims that the procedures required by law were not followed in relation to the First Decision and Second Decisions and that those decisions involved either a failure to take into account a relevant consideration or the taking into account of an irrelevant consideration.
114. The premise underlying the plaintiff's submissions is that the only means by which the defendant could inform itself was through the statutory processes of entity referral. If that premise is not correct then the plaintiff's submission must fail.
115. In my view, the plaintiff's premise is not correct. The process of entity referral is an important process which, when required by the PD Act, gives power to referral entities to influence planning outcomes. Firstly, where a referral is made, the Authority is not entitled to act inconsistently with that entity's advice unless particular preconditions are met: see s 119(2). Secondly, if the development approval given is consistent with the advice then the entity must subsequently act consistently with the advice given in response to the referral: s 151(2). These are important processes because they give power to specialist agencies such as the Conservator of Flora and Fauna and the supplier of gas and electricity, while at the same time ensuring certainty to the Authority and to persons seeking development approval by requiring that the referral entities subsequently act in a manner consistent with the advice that they have given. The capacity for the Authority to act, in limited circumstances, contrary to the advice given by entities (s 119(2)) provides the demarcation between the power of those entities and the power of the Authority.
116. There is no express provision in the PD Act which provides that the defendant is confined to obtaining advice only from entities to which an application must be referred under s 148. In my view the existence of this regime for entity advice does not provide a basis for an implication that the defendant is confined to obtaining advice only from entities identified as referral entities for the purposes of s 148. I am reinforced in that conclusion by the fact that such a result would be an unusual one. It would be entirely consistent with appropriate planning outcomes for a planning authority to be able to obtain advice from other government or non-government entities to assist it in assessing a development application. Such applications will often involve technical issues where persons outside the planning authority have expertise which will assist in the assessment of the proposal. Obtaining expert advice where necessary is a sensible and reasonable approach to the assessment of a development application and in my view the legislation does not prohibit it.
117. I accept that where the Authority receives advice outside the scope of the statutory regime for entity advice, the resulting information will not be entity advice for the purposes of s 30(1)(j) and hence there will be no statutory entitlement to inspect that advice under s 29. However, the possibility that the Authority might take into account advice or information received from persons or entities outside the statutory procedure in s 148-151, and hence not covered by the scheme for public inspection in s 29, is not sufficient, in my view, to warrant the implication of a prohibition on the Authority obtaining or having regard to such advice or information.
118. As a consequence I do not accept the plaintiff's submissions that either the First Decision or Second Decision were affected by the manner in which the Authority obtained advice on the DA from other entities.
119. The plaintiff makes a number of very detailed criticisms of the terms of the correspondence leading up to and including the First Decision which it submits are matters entitling it to relief. I will identify those criticisms and set out my assessment of them below.
120. In order to understand the plaintiff's grounds for challenging the First Decision it is necessary to set out in more detail the communications between Mr Balzola and the defendant relating to a possible extension of the public notification period.
121. On 4 July 2012 the letter sent by Mr Balzola by email to Mr Cilliers included:
We are advised that the DA is currently on exhibition and the closing date of submissions is 6 July 2012. We are instructed that our client will be making a submission to you in relation to the DA and we are addressing the impacts of the proposed development will have on our client including:
Traffic and parking;
Heritage;
Social impact;
Lease conditions;
Scale, bulk and height;
Noise and other escapes;
Town planning;
Public interest; and
Environmental impact and amenity.
We are in the process of obtaining experts to assist in our submission on the impacts of the proposed development. As you can imagine, this takes time.
Accordingly, we require [an] extension of one month to provide our submissions to the Authority.
122. The letter from Mr Ponton on 5 July 2012 which was sent by Mr Cilliers by email to Mr Balzola included the following:
The provisions of the Act do not provide for an extension of time to submit representations to the planning and land authority on the grounds sought by you. However, your letter has been accepted as a formal representation to ensure that the potential impacts listed by you are taken into consideration and responded to in the assessment process. It is not expected, nor required, that person is making representations engage experts to support their submission.
Please advise your clients to review the documentation submitted for the development application available on our website at the following link [link set out]
Should your client's wish to raise any further concerns please advise them to make their representations in writing, prior to or on closure of the public notification process on 6 July 2012. The due date for determination of this application is 9 August 2012. Pursuant to Section 120 of the Act, each representation received will be considered during the assessment process.
123. On 13 July 2012 Mr Balzola emailed Mr Cilliers and that email included the following:
We ask the following procedural questions pertaining to this development application procedure.
1. Is this DA subject to the provisions of Division 7.3.4 of the Planning and Development Act (ACT)? Specifically,
a. Does this DA require public notice to adjoining premises per s.153 of the Act?
b. Does this DA include variation of the Lease? Hence is s.154 relevant to this development application?
c. Does this DA require Major Public Notification per s.155 of the Act?
d. Does ss.156 and 157 apply to this development application, read together with s.151C of the Legislation Act (ACT)?
2. Is there any policy, by law or other law you bring to our clients attention as to extension of time options pertaining to this develop and application procedure?
124. Mr Cilliers replied on 24 July 2012 by email. It includes the following:
As the proposal is not a development referred to in Schedule 2 of the Planning and Development Regulation 2008 (Limited public notification of certain merit track development applications), it is subject to major notification as described in Section 155 of the Planning and Development Act 2007. Pursuant to Section 152 (1) (b) (i) the proposal was notified under both Sections 153 and 155.
125. It is not necessary to set out the balance of Mr Cilliers response other than to say it is a fair and helpful summary of the notification requirements, a statement that the proposal did not involve a lease variation, and a reference to the fact that the public notification period could be extended pursuant to provisions in the PD Act and the Legislation Act to which Mr Cilliers referred.
126. Mr Balzola's letter of 1 August 2012 was as follows:
I refer to my previous correspondence in relation to the above development application, in particular my letter dated 4 July 2012, your response of 5 July 2012, my email of 13 July 2012, and your email response of 24 July 2012.
I note that in your letter dated 5 July 2012 you advised that the public notification process in respect of the above development application would close on 6 July 2012. Following my inquiry on 13 July 2012 regarding extension of time options, you advised on 24 July 2012 that section 151C of the Legislation Act 2001 (ACT) may be called upon (in addition to section 156 of the Planning and Land Development Act 2007 (ACT)) to enable the Planning and Land Authority to extend the public notification period even though that period has ended.
Please treat this letter as a formal application pursuant to s151C(2) of the Legislation Act for the public notification period in respect of the above development application to be extended for a period of four weeks from today's date. The grounds on which this application is brought include the following:
The particular development application before the authority is one of considerable scale and public importance;
In our submission, having regard to the above, a period of 15 working days is insufficient to allow adequate public notification consultation and to allow interested members of the public to make informed submissions to the authority;
We provide details of material not made available on website etc. or in exhibition, or otherwise raises matters of environmental consideration mentioned in the body of the DA materials but not provided with sufficient or any assessment. The result is that interested members of the public have been unable to make fully informed representations in relation to the proposed development;
Absence of traffic report in exhibition materials;
Within "traffic", no report or other substantiation as to parking impact and street and other lighting impact;
Reference to what may be described as funeral preparation activities on this site without health or other related assessments;
Reference to construction of Minarets on site but with no assessment criteria exhibit on noise impacts;
No social impact statement evidence in the body of materials on exhibition.
Absence of a statement of Environmental Significance or explanation as to why one is not considered necessary;
Not report or commentary or proposed bulk, scale and height impacts and maximum developable potential of this work;
No documentation going to crime prevention planning;
In consultation with other Government agencies, include the EPA, Heritage and TAMSD, whilst it is known these and potentially other bodies have been consulted, the findings of these agencies and/or their reports are not exhibited;
Inconsistency between floor plan and first floor utility and proposed utility as washroom and chiller (for cadaver storage) and whether this 'community use' facility is a place or religious worship or a undertaker facility or both;
No declarations of any actual or constructive conflicts of interest know to exist with the developer applicant and staff employee of ACTPLA;
Within Table of Responses, no or inadequate reasons given for environmental variables, in particular:
Item 1.3: No reasons given as to why this rule is not applicable.
Item 1.4: no reasons given as to claim the rule is not applicable followed by assertion that "No approved lease and development conditions exist for the site". Query validity of this point in light of assertion the lease was granted to CMC in July 2011.
Item 2.1: No explanation of what is 'desired character'. No public interest contribution to this aesthetic environmental factor.
Item 2.2: Does not exist in this document.
Item 2.3: follows Item 2.4 (below).
Item 2.4: Whilst the present construction does not currently border residential properties, it will do so when future land releases occur. Therefore question on future impact no addressed adequately or at all.
Item 3.2: 'Promote attractive streetscape' - This is conjecture by the Developer and not balanced by objective streetscape impact assessment.
Item 4.1: As noted above, there is no traffic impact assessment included in the exhibited materials. Our client expects the assessment to be exhibited so that a formal response can be made.
Item 5.1: No exhibited materials supporting claims that the proposed development meets the standards within the Water Sensitive Urban Design Report. The one page document on point is in our view insufficient to make this claim.
Item 5.2: Land management and protection plan submitted is not provided amongst the posted documents for this DA.
Item 5.4: Landscape Management and Protection Plan submitted is not posted with this DA. Nor is any advised to your authority that has apparently considered any advice from the Conservator of Flora and Fauna before determining the application. Please verify this is was [sic] done.
Item 6.1: Noise: We note it is claimed the development complies with a noise management plan prepared by a suitably qualified person. The intended use of the Minaret is not considered.
Item 7.2: Utilities: Claim to have met the criterion and yet the documents supporting this is not public with this DA
These absences and omissions of information and reports above severely delimit any capacity for comprehensive community response within the three week exhibition period.
It is our submission preferable for the authority to have before it, before making its decision regarding the development application, detailed and reasoned (rather than the potentially brief or superficial) submissions from interested members of the public including if appropriate (as we say it is in this case) relevant expert reports, so as to enable the authority to make "the correct and preferable decision" from the outset; and
As previously advised, our particular client is in the process of obtaining expert reports in support of a proposed more detailed submission and has also sought further information relevant to its proposed submission by way of a request under the Freedom of Information Act 1989 (ACT).
Given that the authority's proposed decision date in respect of the above application is 9 August 2012 (according to your letter of 5 July 2012) I would be grateful for your urgent consideration of the above application and response as soon as possible.
Please note that in the event that the application under section 151C is refused our client will consider commencing action in the Supreme Court to compel the authority to extend the public notification period in respect of this matter. We note also the potential costs implications thereof if our client's action is successful.
127. When the matter was considered by the MPRG on 2 August 2012 the minutes of the MPRG record as follows:
Request for an extension of time for public notification
The MPRG also considered a request dated 1 August 2012, received from Mr Robert Balzola on behalf of the "Concerned Citizens of Canberra", seeking an extension of the timeframe for public notification, pursuant to Section 151C(2) of the Legislation Act 2001. The MPRG carefully considered and deliberated this request, but resolved that an extension of time for public notification of this matter is not warranted. A letter is to be provided to Mr Balzola, setting out the reasons for not agreeing to his request.
128. As a consequence of the resolution of the MPRG, Mr Papps, the Chief Planning Executive (ie the defendant), sent a letter to Mr Balzola dated 6 August 2012 which was as follows:
Thank you for your letter dated 1 August 2012 seeking an extension of the public notification period for Development Application No 201221881 relating to Block 2 Section 235 Gungahlin ("the development application").
You requested that your letter of 1 August 2012 be treated as a formal application pursuant to section 151C(2) of the Legislation Act 2001 and section 156(3) of the Planning and Development Act 2007, and you proceeded with providing an extensive list of reasons why, in your view, the timeframe for public notification of this development application should be extended.
Your application for an extension of the public notification period was considered by the planning and land authority within the Environment and Sustainable Directorate ("the authority"). I advise that your application has been refused by the authority.
The authority noted your view that this development application is "one of considerable scale and public importance". The authority is of the view that the scale of the proposed development and its public important is not unlike other applications for the development of places of worship.
The authority is of the view that the prescribed timeframe of 15 working days was sufficient to allow persons to make informed representations. Furthermore, sufficient information was available in relation to the development application for informed public scrutiny during the public notification period. The authority formed the view that the lack of any of the documents listed in your letter would not have placed any representor at such a disadvantage to warrant extension of the timeframe for public notification.
Some of the information mentioned by you as lacking from the documentation on public notification is not required under the provisions of the Planning and Development Act 2007 and the Territory Plan for this particular proposal such as; a social impact statement, a statement of environmental significance, and a noise management plan. Pursuant to Rule 24 of the Community Facility Zone Development Code, a noise management plan is clearly not required for a place of worship. However, a referral entity such as the Environment Protection Authority may require additional noise mitigation measures.
Similarly, a traffic report is not a requirement per sé, although the authority has a duty to ensure that the proposal complies with the relevant provisions of the Territory Plan such as the relevant provisions in the Parking and Vehicular Access General Code and Criterion 14 in the Community Facility Zone Development Code. In this regard the entity responsible for traffic assessment, Territory and Municipal Services Directorate (TaMSD) required the submission of a parking and traffic study, and the proponent responded duly by providing such a study on 31 July 2012. The information contained in the study is currently under assessment.
With reference to your concern that entity advice has not been "exhibited", I wish to clarify that referral of development applications to entities is undertaken pursuant to the relevant provisions (Division 7.3.3) of the Planning and Development Act 2007. Entity referrals occur simultaneously with public notification and, pursuant to section 149(2) of the Act, entities must give their advice in relation to the development application to the authority. The purpose of the entity advice therefore to inform the authority and, for this reason, inclusion of entity advice is not a prerequisite for public notification documentation. However, the authority endeavours to report in full on entity advice received as part of the decision-making process, and entity advice received is therefore summarised, quoted or attached to any subsequent notice of decision.
Your concern with a potential conflict of interest is noted. In this regard the applicant for the development application made a conflict of interest declaration on p12 and 13 of the application form, namely that the wife of the applicant is employed by the authority. Where a conflict of interest declaration is made, the authority's standard practice is to ensure that the person mentioned in the conflict of interest declaration does not partake or influence the assessment and decision-making process. In this regard I can clarify that the relevant person has not been involved in any way with the assessment of this development application and has not attempted in any way to discuss this matter with her colleagues. It is also standard practice for the authority to determine matters where a conflict of interest declaration is made at an executive level to ensure that the decision is unfettered.
Your reference to the "Table of Responses" is understood to be a reference to the Statement against Relevant of Criteria [sic] that was prepared by the proponent and submitted as part of the required documentation for the development application. The purpose of a Statement against Relevant Criteria is to inform the authority how the proponent justifies compliance with the relevant requirements of the Territory Plan. The authority does not necessarily accept as correct what is contained in the submitted Statement against the relevant provisions of the Territory Plan in order to satisfy itself whether or not such provisions have been met.
It is not common practice, nor an expectation that a representor should be required to prepare or submit an expert report to support any submission made in representation. It is however important for a representor to express their concerns in writing to enable the authority to have an understanding of the range of concerns and issues.
Lastly, I wish to point out that this development application is assessed and managed in accordance with the legislative requirements and practices and procedures - similar to any other development application.
Accordingly, for the reasons set out above, an extension of the public notification timeframe is not warranted and your application has been refused.
129. As set out above, s 156(3) permitted ACTPLA to extend the public notification period. Section 151C of the Legislation Act, which was the alternative or additional basis for the application, provided:
(1) This section applies if, under an Act or statutory instrument -
(a) something must or may be done on a particular day or within a particular period of time; but
(b) a court or other entity has power to extend the time (the relevant time) for doing the thing.
(2) A person may apply to the court or other entity for the relevant time to be extended even though the relevant time has ended.
(3) The court or other entity may extend the relevant time even though the relevant time has ended.
Note See s 5 for the meaning of determinative provisions, and s 6 for their displacement.
(5) This section applies only to an applicable law or applicable provision.
applicable law means an Act enacted, or statutory instrument made, after 1 January 2006.
applicable provision means a provision inserted after 1 January 2006 into an Act or statutory instrument that is not an applicable law.
inserted, for a provision, includes inserted in substitution for another provision.
130. Section 156 of the PD Act and s 151C of the Legislation Act respectively do not identify any mandatory relevant considerations nor put in place any other constraints upon the discretionary decision of the Authority whether or not to extend the public notification period. The discretion was required to be exercised bona fides and not with a view of achieving ends or objects outside the purpose for which the discretion was conferred: Swan Hill Corporation v Bradbury [1937] HCA 15; (1937) 56 CLR 746 at 757-758. Courts must therefore concede to the Authority a discretion unlimited by anything but the scope and object of the instrument conferring the discretion: Water Conservation and Irrigation Commission (NSW) v Browning [1947] HCA 21; (1947) 74 CLR 492 at 505. In my view the discretion conferred by s 151C would need to be exercised in the light of the scope and purpose of the substantive Act to which it was being applied, namely, the PD Act. However the scope and purpose of the PD Act allows to the Authority a very broad discretion when deciding whether or not to extend the notification period.
131. Given that a number of the plaintiff's submissions assert a failure to take into account relevant considerations it is useful to set out some basic propositions concerning judicial review on that ground. Those principles were summarised by Murrell CJ in Eastman v Australian Capital Territory [2014] ACTSC 105 at [90]- [92] as follows:
The matters that a decision-maker may take into account when exercising a statutory function are to be determined by construing the empowering statute, considering the express terms or the subject matter of the legislation, and its scope and purpose: Minister for Aboriginal Affairs v Peko-Wallsend Ltd [1986] HCA 40; (1986) 162 CLR 24 at 36 (Peko-Wallsend). It is only when a decision-maker fails to take account of a consideration which he or she must take into account, or takes account of a consideration which he or she must not take into account that an applicant for judicial review will be able to make out the relevant and irrelevant consideration grounds respectively. Mason J in giving the principal judgment in Peko-Wallsend at 39 stated that:
The ground of failure to take into account a relevant consideration can only be made out if a decision-maker fails to take into account a consideration which he is bound to take into account in making that decision: Sean Investments Pty Ltd v MacKellar [1981] FCA 191; (1981) 38 ALR 363 at 375; CREEDNZ Inc v Governor-General (1981) 1 NZLR 172 at 183, 196-197; Ashby v Minister of Immigration [1981] 1 NZLR 222 at 225, 230, 232-233. The statement of Lord Greene M.R. in Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corporation [1947] EWCA Civ 1; [1948] 1 KB 223 at 228, that a decision-maker must take into account those matters which he "ought to have regard to" should not be understood in any different sense in view of his Lordship's statement on the following page that a person entrusted with a discretion "must call his own attention to the matters which he is bound to consider."
(Emphasis in original)
Deane J in Sean Investments Pty Ltd v MacKellar [1981] FCA 191; (1981) 38 ALR 363 at 375 considered that a failure to consider an "exhaustive list of all the matters which the decision-maker might conceivably regard as relevant" was not a ground for judicial review.
The grounds of review relating to relevant and irrelevant considerations are "concerned essentially with whether a decision-maker has properly applied the law" and not with "the process of making particular findings of fact upon which the decision-maker acts": Minister for Immigration & Multicultural Affairs v Yusuf (2001) 206 CLR 323 at 348. Where the principles of construction outlined in Peko-Wallsend point to a broad or unfettered discretion, it is generally for the decision-maker to decide what is relevant: Australian Retailers Association v Reserve Bank of Australia [2005] FCA 1707; (2005) 148 FCR 446 at [525]
132. First submission: The plaintiff contended that the sentence "The authority is of the view that the scale of the proposed development ... is not unlike other applications for the development of places of worship" revealed that the Authority had taken into account an irrelevant consideration. That submission was put on the basis that the plaintiff's traffic engineering expert, Mr Shoobridge, should be preferred to the evidence given by the defendant's planning expert Ms Purdon. The evidence of Mr Shoobridge was that comparison of the proposed development, a mosque, with Christian churches in close proximity was not reasonable because of the significant differences in the day of the week and form of attendance at the different places of worship. He identified the Friday prayer period as being the peak period. He based his assessment on observations taken at the Yarralumla mosque on 5 July 2013 and subsequent dates. His observations were that 80% of the vehicles parked in the area left between 1.30pm and 1.45pm. He therefore considered that from a traffic point of view the impacts of the proposed development were likely to be significantly different from the traffic impacts of Christian churches where peak use would be on a different day and the traffic impacts less concentrated. There was a difference of opinion between Mr Shoobridge and Ms Purdon in relation to the significance of the traffic generation around the Friday prayer period but for present purposes it is not necessary to recount the details of those differences or make any finding as to the merits of the contentions of each expert.
133. In my view, the plaintiff's submission is misconceived. The "scale and importance" of the development proposed is clearly a matter which the Authority was entitled to take into account in deciding not to exercise the power to extend the notification period. That was clearly a matter which was not outside the scope and purpose of the statutory provision or PD Act as a whole. Further, given that what Mr Papps wrote was responsive to the content of Mr Balzola's letter it was clearly a matter to which the Authority was entitled to have regard.
134. In any event if the Authority made an error of fact then that does not mean that it took account of a matter outside the scope and purpose of the PD Act. However, I am not satisfied that the Authority did make any error of fact. The opinion that the DA was not unlike other applications for development of places of worship was put in response to the proposition that the DA was "one of considerable scale and public importance". The fact that there may have been some differences between this application and other applications for places of worship of different faiths in relation to some aspects of traffic and parking does not demonstrate the falsity of the opinion expressed in the letter. All development applications are different. The MPRG, whose collective opinion led to the writing of the 6 August letter, was clearly aware that the "capacity of the mosque will be greater than the two other places of worship in close proximity". However, in many respects, from a planning point of view, this proposal would be similar to proposals for other places of worship. The opinion expressed related specifically to "scale" and "public importance". The suggested contest between Mr Shoobridge and Ms Purdon's evidence is largely irrelevant to those issues. In any event, the existence of that difference of opinion does not demonstrate that there was any error of fact or any unreasonableness in the opinion expressed in the letter.
135. Second submission: The plaintiff appears to submit that the public interest was not taken into account in the decision and that mandatory relevant considerations such as the requirement for transparency of the planning process, an opportunity for the public to make representations about the content of the DA and entity advice were not considered. The plaintiff points to the chronology which indicates that both some of the entity advice and the Nairn Report were received after the public notification period.
136. Precisely how the plaintiff put this aspect of the argument was not made clear by its submissions. However it is clear that the Authority did have regard to the role of and significance of the capacity of the public to make representations about the content of development applications as well as the significance of entity advice. Mr Papps specifically referred to the Authority's consideration of the capacity of persons to make "informed representations" having regard to the prescribed time frame of 15 working days and the amount of information that was available in relation to the DA. The Authority impliedly recognised that the position of representors might have been improved if some of the documentation referred to in Mr Balzola's letter were available to be commented upon during the course of the public notification period but expressed the opinion that any such disadvantage was not sufficient "to warrant extension of the time frame for public notification". That was a conclusion which was open to be reached within the scope and purpose of the PD Act. It clearly involved, as does the Act as a whole, a balancing of the interests of third parties against the interests of the applicant, the Authority and the community as a whole. In relation to entity advice, Mr Papps pointed out that under the Act "inclusion of entity advice is not a pre-requisite for public notification documentation". That was correct. Similarly, in relation to the Nairn Report, Mr Balzola's letter referred to the absence of a traffic report in the exhibition materials. The absence of a traffic report, the response of TAMSD and the provision of the Nairn Report were specifically addressed in Mr Papps' letter. The Authority was clearly of the view, consistent with the preceding paragraph of the letter, that any disadvantage arising from the late provision of this report was not sufficient to warrant an extension of the time frame for public notification.
137. Just because the Authority took a different view of these issues to that propounded on behalf of the plaintiff does not demonstrate a ground for judicial review of the Authority's decision. It certainly does not demonstrate that the Authority failed to take into account mandatory relevant considerations.
138. Third submission: The plaintiff asserts that it was denied procedural fairness because the Authority did not inform the plaintiff of why it proposed to refuse an extension of time under s 156(3) or s 151C or re-notification under s 157 and give the plaintiff a reasonable opportunity to respond. The plaintiff asserts that had an opportunity to respond been given then the series of defects (which the plaintiff asserts and are outlined below) would have been corrected or at least pointed out to the defendant.
139. In my view procedural fairness did not require the defendant to give notice to the plaintiff of the grounds that it proposed to rely upon in responding to the plaintiff's request. The application was initiated by the plaintiff which put forward the submissions that it wished to be taken into account. In the circumstances the defendant was entitled simply to make a decision in response to the plaintiff's solicitor's request. It was not obliged to engage in a to and fro process with the plaintiff's solicitor before making a decision. That was all the more so in circumstances where the end of the public notification period was rapidly approaching and the Authority's early response would leave an opportunity for additional representations to be made prior to that time.
140. Fourth submission: The plaintiff submits that the defendant misled the plaintiff because the internet link provided in Mr Ponton's letter of 5 July 2012 did not include the entity advice nor the applicant information on the Nairn Report.
141. There was no evidence that the plaintiff, any member of the plaintiff or any agent of the plaintiff such as its solicitor was in fact misled. It is not clear how it is said that being misled would have given rise to a ground of review. I am not satisfied that the letter was in any event misleading as the documentation was in fact available and there was no representation that every piece of documentation to be considered by the Authority was available at that link or that all information or documentation relating to the DA had been provided at that stage. Therefore I am not satisfied that this submission gives rise to a ground for judicial review.
142. Fifth submission: The plaintiff also submits that the letter of Mr Ponton of 5 July 2012 was founded upon an error of law namely the denial of any power to extend on the grounds sought by the plaintiff.
143. I do not consider that the passage in Mr Ponton's letter relied upon by the plaintiff reveals that he was operating under an error of law. Mr Ponton said:
The provisions of the Act do not provide for an extension of time to submit representations to the planning and land authority on the grounds sought by you.
144. To read it as indicating an error of law would, in my view, be only possible if one was reading the letter with an overzealous eye keenly attuned to the perception of error: cf Minister for Immigration and Ethnic Affairs v Wu Shan Liang [1996] HCA 6; (1996) 185 CLR 259 at 271-272. The letter did not suggest that there was no power to grant an extension of time in order to allow the plaintiff to gather expert material. Rather, it made the point that the PD Act does not expressly contemplate this as one of the grounds for granting such an extension. In any event, it is clear that in making the First Decision the Authority accepted that there was power to grant an extension but exercised its discretion to not grant any extension in the circumstances. Therefore, whatever the position earlier adopted by Mr Ponton, it did not influence the challenged decision. It is therefore not to the point to suggest, as the plaintiff does, that Mr Ponton should have offered to reconsider the decision reflected in the letter of 5 July 2012.
145. Sixth submission: The plaintiff asserted that there was bad faith on the defendant's part by the repeated refusal to extend or reopen the notification period and the refusal to afford natural justice to the plaintiff.
146. Bad faith will only be found to exist where not only is a power exercised for an improper purpose but where it involves personal fault on the decision-maker's part: SBBS v Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs (2002) 194 ALR 749 at [43]; SCAS v Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs (2002) FCAFC 397 at [19] . Therefore any enquiry as to the existence of bad faith must be directed to the decision-maker's actual state of mind: Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs v SBAN [2002] FCAFC 431 at [8]; Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs v NAOS of 2002 [2003] FCAFC 142 at [19]- [21]. It will only be found in "rare and extreme" cases SBBS at [43]. Courts have declined to give a comprehensive definition of bad faith but, for example, an exercise of power to secure personal gain would be tainted by bad faith: R v Toohey; Ex parte Northern Land Council [1981] HCA 74; (1981) 151 CLR 170 at 232-233. There is "no such thing as deemed or constructive bad faith": SBAN at [8], [18].
147. In the present case there was no evidence that would support a finding of bad faith on the defendant's part in the sense articulated in the authorities referred to above.
148. Seventh submission: The plaintiff asserted that Mr Cilliers' email of 24 July 2012 contained an error of law in that it said "the proposal was notified under sections 153 and 155" when the plaintiff asserted that such notification had not occurred.
149. In this email Mr Cilliers simply provides some background information at the request of the solicitor for the plaintiff. It was a helpful email and no doubt allowed the solicitor for the plaintiff to have a greater understanding of the process that was being followed. The assertion that there was some error of law involved in this letter is a derivative one based upon the alleged defects in the major public notification under s 155. I do not consider that it involves any error of law on the part of Mr Cilliers. He was making a factual point not a legal one. Clearly enough he and the Authority proceeded on the basis that there had been major public notification under s 155 and whether or not any defects in that process provide grounds for granting of relief in relation to either challenged decision needs to be determined by reference to those decisions and not by reference to this incidental correspondence.
150. Eighth submission: The plaintiff submits that the First Decision failed to take into account the error of law said to exist in the letter of 5 July 2012 and hence failed to take into account a relevant consideration.
151. This submission appears to pick up, in relation to the 5 July 2012 letter, the submission that that letter involved an error of law in so far as it asserted that there was no power to grant an extension on the basis sought by the plaintiff. I have dealt with that submission above (see [144]). Even if the submission was correct, in my view the failure to have regard to the existence of that error in the earlier communication would not involve a failure to take into account a relevant consideration. The critical question in relation to the 6 August 2012 letter is whether or not the Authority considered that it did have a power which would permit it to grant an extension of time. It plainly did. The plaintiff's position is not made any better by asserting that the Authority had previously considered that it did not if ultimately it reached the correct position in relation to the scope of its power to grant an extension.
152. Ninth submission: The plaintiff submits that the letter of 6 August 2012 involved a false statement that "sufficient information was available in relation to the DA for informed public scrutiny" because the CFZ Code Criterion 14 material described as attached to the DA was not attached as required by s 139(2)(d). It is not clear from the plaintiff's submission what ground of review this "false statement" would be relevant to. However, the statement in the letter is a statement of an opinion and one which was reasonably open to the Authority to hold even if the Criterion 14 material was not annexed to the DA. In so far as this submission picks up the plaintiff's submission as to the effect of s 139(2), I deal with that submission at [166] below.
153. Tenth submission: The plaintiff asserts that the defendant incorrectly said in relation to the traffic report received by the defendant a few days earlier "that it was not a requirement per se for this to be made publicly available to the Plaintiff, which was in error as it is an "associated document" under s 30."
154. This submission seems to be based on a misunderstanding of the terms of the letter which was making the point that a traffic report was not a requirement of the DA and, contrary to the plaintiff's submission, said nothing about whether or not it was required to be made publicly available to the plaintiff.
155. Eleventh submission: The plaintiff also submitted that the letter of 6 August 2012 incorrectly asserted that all entity advice received by the defendant "and presumably the Report" were not a prerequisite for public notification. In my view, the position outlined in the letter is accurate. The conduct of public notification is not contingent upon the availability of entity advice obtained under s 148 (which is set out and discussed at [108] above) or otherwise.
156. Twelfth submission: The plaintiff submits that it was not necessary to open the public notification period simultaneously with the period in which entity advice had to be obtained and that to take into account the fact that "the purpose of the entity advice is therefore to inform the authority" and not, by implication, anyone else was to take into account an irrelevant consideration in refusing the extension.
157. The plaintiff is correct in its submission that, under the PD Act, it is not necessary to commence the public notification period at or around the same time as entity advice is sought. However, having regard to the statutory timeframes which govern the development approval process and the fact, illustrated in this case, that the initial entity advice may raise issues which require a response from the proponent or further investigation, it is administratively convenient and sensible to commence those processes which are pre-requisites to the making of the ultimate decision as soon as possible. There was no contravention of the PD Act in doing so.
158. Further, in my view there was no error in the Authority stating that the purpose of entity advice is to inform the Authority. That is clearly the purpose of entity advice notwithstanding that such advice may also be available for inspection by the public as a consequence of it being an associated document under s 30(1)(j). While public notice of a development application and public participation in the development assessment process is clearly very important under the PD Act, it is not the central aspect of development assessment under the Act. The central aspect of development assessment under the PD Act is the decision by the Authority (or Minister as the case may be) as to whether or not to approve the development. Advice from other entities and submissions from members of the public are matters which feed into that process rather than being ends in themselves.
159. Thirteenth submission: The plaintiff submits that a relevant consideration in the making of a decision under s 156(3) is whether there has been a breach of natural justice in relation to public notification to a standard required by the PD Act. It submits that such notification had not occurred because:
(a) there was no sign on the site to alert local residents or owners;
(b) there was no public register; and
(c) there was no provision for scrutiny of "associated documents" after 6 July 2012 when they public notification website was taken down.
160. This submission picks up a number of other substantive submissions that the plaintiff has made and asserts that the failure to take into account the legal conclusions asserted for by the plaintiff about the adequacy of notice under the PD Act amounted to a failure to take into account a relevant consideration.
161. In relation to issue (a) my findings of fact on this issue are set out above (see [56]). The issue was not one that was raised in Mr Balzola's letter of 1 August 2012. In my view the Authority was not obliged to take into account as possible reasons for the extension of the public notification period matters not put forward in the plaintiff's application. While certainly the Authority could have taken into account some difficulty with the public notification process of which it was aware, in circumstances where the applicant did not raise it as part of its submission in support of an extension of the notification period, it was not obliged to.
163. Fourteenth submission: The plaintiff also asserts that the letter of 6 August 2012 was wrong in asserting that the lack of information made available to the public did not place the plaintiff at "such a disadvantage as to warrant extension". The ground was put on the basis that the developer and applicant had misstated, with respect to Criterion 14 of the CFZ Code, that a "Traffic Impact Assessment" was attached and because this was not in fact attached the plaintiff was deprived an opportunity to comment on it within the notification period.
164. When expressing the conclusion that any disadvantage was not sufficient to warrant an extension Mr Papps was responding to Mr Balzola's complaint of a lack of information which included, as its first point, the "[a]bsence of a traffic report in the exhibition materials". Mr Papps was clearly aware of the chronology in relation to the provision of the Nairn Report because the issue of Criterion 14 of the CFZ Code was dealt with in some detail in the following paragraph of his letter.
165. The plaintiff's submission puts a clear position on the merits of the extension decision but does not disclose any ground for judicial review of the First Decision.
166. Fifteenth submission: The plaintiff submits that because the DA had failed to provide required information, members of the public should not be disadvantaged by that failure and that an amendment of the DA should have been required because to do otherwise would reward the applicant for failing to comply with s 139(2) of the PD Act at the time of the lodgement of the DA.
167. It is correct to say that had the DA been amended under s 144 of the PD Act then it is likely that the DA would have been re-notified under s 146 of the Act. However, an amendment may only be made where the Authority is asked to make the amendment by the applicant. Where there is no such request, the Authority is required to determine the application that has been made. An unamended application leaves open the possibility that further information provided by an applicant or other considerations arising during the course of the development assessment process leads the Authority to ultimately impose conditions which affect the form of the development. The fact that the Nairn Report was only provided after the end of the public notification period meant that it was not able to be the subject of representations by members of the public during that period. However that outcome is simply a result of the request for further information made in the context of a statutory scheme which provides limited and defined opportunities for representations to be made. It is not a matter which is contrary to the statute and does not give rise to a ground of judicial review.
168. Sixteenth submission: The plaintiff submits that there was no information in the DA in relation to any issues under the Precinct Code or the CPTED Code and that such an approach was "contrary to good practice in such matters".
169. The plaintiff is correct in so far as the Statement Against Relevant Criteria that formed a part of the DA addressed the two identified codes by simply asserting that the proposal had been assessed and found to comply with the relevant provisions of those codes. I accept that such a statement was not particularly useful to the Authority in carrying out its assessment of the DA and that to address the codes in that way was contrary to good town planning practice. However it does not provide a basis for judicial review of the First Decision.
170. Seventeenth submission: The plaintiff submits that no entity advice was available on the website as that was taken down on or shortly after 6 July 2012 and the arrangements made for access to entity advice as an "associated document" were contrary to the PD Act.
171. This submission repeats arguments which I have rejected elsewhere. The Authority's website was not the place where associated documents were required to be disclosed (see [87] above). Further, the advice received by the Authority was not formal entity advice under s 148 and not in any event required to be disclosed as an "associated document" (see [110]-[111]). Finally the arrangements for inspection of associated documents were not contrary to the PD Act (see [70]-[72]).
172. Eighteenth submission: The plaintiff submits that another relevant consideration was whether information withheld by the applicant from the DA was relevant to the development approval decision and should have been disclosed with it. It points in particular to the Site Investigation Report not included in response to Criterion 14 of the CFZ Code. The reference by the plaintiff to the Site Investigation Report should probably be to the Traffic Impact Assessment which formed part of the former report.
173. Whether or not the absence of the Traffic Impact Assessment from the DA was, notwithstanding that it was referred to in the Statement Against Relevant Criteria, "withheld", it is clear that Mr Papps had regard to the absence of a Traffic Impact Assessment in the DA, the manner in which issues relating to traffic were being dealt with and the capacity for members of the public to make representations within the public notification period notwithstanding the absence of the Traffic Impact Assessment or any other traffic report in the DA itself. Therefore I am not satisfied that the Authority failed to have regard to this issue.
174. Nineteenth submission: The plaintiff asserts that the statement that the defendant "has a duty to assess the proposal against the relevant provisions of the Territory Plan in order to satisfy itself whether or not such provisions have been met" involved an error of law because that approach was inconsistent with s 162 and s 170 of the PD Act.
175. The plaintiff's argument was based on the assumption that there was an onus on a proponent for development to demonstrate compliance with the relevant provisions of the Territory Plan and that it was not open to the Authority to investigate issues for itself. Instead the plaintiff submitted that the Authority was reliant upon the proponent discharging a burden upon it to demonstrate compliance with the Territory Plan. If the plaintiff's argument was correct it would have significant consequences because it would mean that all material that was necessary to conclude that a proposal was consistent with the Territory Plan would need to be incorporated within the DA. If it was not then it would not be open to the Authority to "plug the gap" by undertaking its own investigations or applying its own knowledge and experience to determine whether or not the requirements of the Plan had been complied with.
176. The plaintiff did not identify any provisions of the PD Act which had this effect or from which the position for which the plaintiff contended was a necessary implication. The plaintiff did, however, point to the part of the CFZ Code which, when explaining how proposals on the merit track and impact track were assessed against the provisions of the Code, said:
Proposals in the merit track and impact track must comply with each relevant rule or its associated criteria, where the rule is not mandatory (i.e. it has no related criteria). Where a rule is fully met, no reference to the related criterion needs to be made. If the rule is not met, or where a criterion only applies, the onus is on the applicant to demonstrate that the relevant criterion is satisfied, through supporting drawings and/or written documentation.
177. In my view the approach taken by the plaintiff is not correct. The provisions of the PD Act do not impose an onus on an applicant in the sense with which lawyers are familiar in the context of adversarial proceedings. The PD Act does, however, prohibit the Authority from granting an approval where the development approved is inconsistent with the Territory Plan: s 50. While the PD Act clearly does impose significant, detailed and burdensome obligations upon proponents, the ultimate question is whether or not the Authority is satisfied that the proposal is consistent with the Territory Plan and should be approved: ss 120, 162. Leaving aside the vexed issue whether compliance with the Territory Plan is a jurisdictional fact or a matter for the opinion of the Authority, whether or not the provisions of the Territory Plan are met or considered to be met will inevitably involve the Authority using its own knowledge and expertise to assess the proposal. The PD Act expressly contemplates the need for advice from other specialist agencies: ss 148-151. Nothing in the PD Act denies the entitlement of the Authority to take into account matters arising from its own assessment of the proposal or information provided by other agencies based on their assessment of the proposal. In those circumstances, in my view, it cannot be said that the Authority is disabled from having regard to material outside a development application when assessing compliance with the Territory Plan and deciding whether or not to approve it.
178. In relation to the provisions of the CFZ Code relied upon by the plaintiff, the provisions of that code, which forms part of the Territory Plan, cannot determine the proper operation of the PD Act. The quoted provisions of the CFZ Code make it clear that an applicant that is either required or chooses to satisfy a criterion in the code must ultimately persuade the Authority that the subjective terms of the criterion are satisfied. In that sense it is correct to say that an applicant bears an onus. However, the fact that an applicant runs a risk that an inadequately detailed development application might not satisfy the Authority as to compliance with a criterion does not disable the Authority from considering for itself whether or not the proposed development does satisfy that criterion. In considering the issue of compliance with the Authority may have regard to its own assessment and matters outside the four corners of the development application.
179. Twentieth submission: The plaintiff submitted that it was a relevant consideration not taken into account that the plaintiff should not be worse off because of the defendant and the applicant for approval had failed to comply with the PD Act by not submitting material in response to Criterion 14 of the CFZ Code and not requiring that the proponent amend the DA or have it refused. The plaintiff submitted that this was a relevant consideration "derived from the statutory context, and reflecting the objects of a people focused and transparent planning process" in the PD Act. This repeats the substance of submissions 15 and 18 which I have dealt with above.
180. Twenty-first submission: The plaintiff submits that the DA was required to be amended:
(a) to correct the responses in the statement of criteria in relation to Criterion 14 of the CFZ Code;
(b) by the addition of criteria in relation to the Gungahlin Town Centre Precinct Code and Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design General Code;
(c) to correct the response in relation to the Parking and Vehicular Access General Code; and
(d) "the lease correlation with the development application".
182. The plaintiff submitted that each such amendment required re-notification under s 146 and a consequential extension of time under s 169 for the making of the decision by the Authority.
183. Precisely how this submission impacted upon the First Decision was not made clear by the plaintiff's submissions. In so far as the submissions asserted that it was a precondition to the approval of the development that the application be formally amended under s 144, I have dealt with that in relation to the plaintiff's fifteenth submission above.
184. The plaintiff has made a number of submissions in relation to the decision to approve the DA made by the Authority on 29 August 2012. The submissions were directed to a number of Codes as contained in the Territory Plan, the HR Act, and the suitability of the subject land. The HR Act claim is dealt with separately. The balance of the submissions are addressed below.
185. The Community Facility Zone Development Table requires development proposals in the Community Facility Zone to comply with the CFZ Code. The CFZ Code further provides that precinct codes may also be relevant. In turn, the Gungahlin Town Centre Precinct Code (Precinct Code) applied "to development on land in Gungahlin Town Centre ... as shown in Figure 1", which relevantly included the site subject of these proceedings.
186. In the documents submitted as part of the DA there was no statement which addressed the consistency between the proposed development and the requirements of Precinct Code. The plaintiff makes three submissions about this which I will describe and deal with in sequence.
187. First submission: The plaintiff submits that the failure to refer to the Precinct Code in the "Statement Against Relevant Criteria" which accompanied the DA (Statement Against Relevant Criteria) is a matter which prevented approval of the DA by the defendant. Section 139 of the PD Act sets out the requirements for the form of a development application, including any information that is required to accompany an application. Section 139 provides:
(1) This section applies to an application for development approval.
(b) if the application is made by someone other than the lessee of the land to which the application relates - also be signed by -
(i) if the land to which the application relates is subject to a lease - the lessee of the land; or
(ii) if the land to which the application relates is public land or unleased land - the custodian for the land; or
(iii) in any other case - the planning and land authority; and
(c) if the application is for approval of a development in the code track - be accompanied by information or documents addressing the relevant rules; and
(d) if the application is for approval of a development in the merit track - be accompanied by information or documents addressing the relevant rules and relevant criteria; and
(e) if the application is for approval of a development in the merit track and the territory plan requires an assessment (an assessment of environmental effects) of the possible environmental effects of the development in detail that is sufficient taking into consideration the size and significance of the impact of the development on the environment - be accompanied by an assessment of environmental effects; and
(f) if the application is for approval of a development in the impact track - be accompanied by -
(i) information or documents addressing the relevant rules and relevant criteria; and
(ii) the completed EIS for the proposal, unless the application for the development approval for the proposal is exempted under section 211; and
(g) if the application is for approval of a s 277 chargeable variation of a nominal rent lease - be accompanied by a valuation by an accredited valuer that works out the amounts represented by V1 and V2 in section 277; and
(h) if the application is for approval of a development prescribed by regulation for this paragraph - be accompanied by an assessment prepared using criteria provided by 1 or more of the entities to which the application is required to be referred under division 7.3.3; and
(i) if the application is for approval of a development that requires construction work to be carried out on land that has previously been developed and is not leased for rural purposes - be accompanied by a survey certificate for the land where the development is to be carried out (unless otherwise prescribed by regulation); and
(j) if the application is for development to which section 205 (Development applications for developments undertaken without approval) applies - be accompanied by a plan of the development prepared by a registered surveyor that sets out the dimensions of the development; and
(k) if the application is for the subdivision of a units plan under the Unit Titles Act 2001, section 165B (Subdivision of units plan - application) - be accompanied by the resolution of the owners corporation under the Unit Titles Act 2001, section 160 (3) to cancel the units plan; and
(l) if division 9.4.2 (Varying concessional leases to remove concessional status) applies to the application - be accompanied by an assessment of -
(i) the social, cultural and economic impacts of the proposed variation; and
(ii) any other matter prescribed by regulation; and
Note Matters the Minister must consider before approving a variation are set out in s 261, and conditions to which the variation may be subject are set out in s 262.
(m) if the applicant wants the application for development approval assessed in the merit track on the ground of an environmental significance opinion that the development proposal is not likely to have a significant adverse environmental impact - be accompanied by -
(i) the environmental significance opinion for the proposal; and
(ii) if the relevant agency has sent an invoice to the applicant for the costs recoverable under section 138AC (1) - proof of payment of the invoice; and
(n) if the application is for the development of an estate - be accompanied by an estate development plan for the estate.
Note 1 A development application in the impact track must usually include an EIS (see s 128).
Note 2 A development application for a development proposal to which division 7.2.5 applies must include an EIS (see s 120 and div 7.2.4).
(3) A person who signs an application under subsection (2) (b) (i) is taken to be an applicant in relation to the application.
(4) A regulation may prescribe the requirements for an assessment mentioned in subsection (2) (l) (i).
(5) The Minister may make guidelines for the preparation of an assessment mentioned in subsection (2) (l) (i).
Note A notifiable instrument must be notified under the Legislation Act.
relevant criteria, for a development proposal, means the criteria that apply to the proposal in each relevant code.
s 277 chargeable variation - see section 276.
survey certificate, for land where development is to be carried out, means a certificate prepared by a registered surveyor that shows -
(b) the location of each building or structure on the land; and
188. The critical provision for the purposes of the plaintiffs submission is s 139(2)(d) but I have set out the whole of the section so as to illustrate the context in which s 139(2)(d) sits. It is of relevance to note that, in contrast to s 139(2)(d), most of the other paragraphs of s 139(2) are very specific in their description of what is required to accompany a development application. For example, paragraph (g) requires a valuation certificate, paragraph (i) requires a survey certificate, paragraph (k) requires a document recording the resolution of the owners corporation to cancel the units plan. These specific requirements contrast with the general requirements in paragraphs (c), (d) and (f) relating to the provision of information or documents addressing relevant rules and, where appropriate, criteria.
189. In addition to the requirements of s 139(2), the approved form for the lodgement of a development application at the time included a requirement to file a "Statement Against Relevant Criteria".
190. A document entitled "Statement Against Relevant Criteria" was included as part of the DA. That document did not in fact include any assessment of the proposed development against the requirements of the Precinct Code clearly an error or oversight on the part of the applicant. The statement did not, therefore, address all of the relevant rules and criteria.
191. However, in my view, the requirement in the PD Act that a DA "be accompanied by information or documents addressing the relevant rules and relevant criteria" does not have the effect that if there is no statement addressing each relevant rule or criterion identified in any code which is applicable to the proposal there has been non-compliance with s 139. It is enough that there is information or documents accompanying the DA that reasonably permits an assessment of the proposal against those relevant rules and criteria by the Authority. That interpretation is consistent with the contrast between the general provisions of s 139(2)(c), (d) and (f) and those other paragraphs which have specific prescriptive requirements as to what must be included. In the present case the documentation that was provided as part of the DA, in particular the plans describing the nature of the development proposed, were in fact sufficient to permit an assessment of the proposal against the terms of the Precinct Code.
192. In so far as the requirement in s 139(2)(d) is implemented by the terms of the approved form, at the relevant time the approved form for a DA (AF2011-77) required a Statement Against Relevant Criteria in a "preferred format" described as follows:
Where it is proposed to meet a criteria rather than a rule the applicant is to provide a written statement demonstrating that the proposed development satisfies the criteria and therefore the intent of the element.
193. A statement was in fact included with the DA and, in so far as there was an omission from that statement of any reference to the Precinct Code, substantial compliance with the requirements of the form is permitted: Legislation Act s 255(4), and, in my view, achieved.
194. Second submission: The plaintiff submits that the fact that the requirements of the Precinct Code were in fact considered as part of the assessment report prepared by Mr Cilliers does not remedy the situation because to have regard in the assessment report to matters which were not in the DA was to have regard to an irrelevant consideration or to make an error of law.
195. This argument appears to be based upon the proposition that the Authority cannot assess for itself whether or not there has been compliance with the requirements of a code. In my view the submission is without substance. Even if an assessment against the Precinct Code had been included in the Statement Against Relevant Criteria this could not have been simply accepted by the Authority at face value. The Authority needed to consider the issue for itself having regard to the obligation not to give development approval for a proposal on merit track unless the proposal was consistent with the relevant code: see s 119(1)(a) PD Act. Similarly, in circumstances where an applicant had failed to specifically address the terms of a code, the Authority remained obliged to consider whether or not the proposal was consistent with that code. Therefore it was necessary for Mr Cilliers to make the assessment that he did and in doing so he did not provide a ground for judicial review of the Second Decision.
196. Third submission: The plaintiff submitted that the Authority failed to have regard to Criterion 7 in the Precinct Code, which states:
Development complies with all of the following:
a) contributes to the desired planning outcomes of the town centre as described in the introduction of this document
b) corner buildings contain focal points providing architectural interest and variety to the building design
c) entrances to common lobbies for residential use provide strong visual connection to the street and ensure a high level of surveillance
d) buildings incorporate sun shading to reduce summer sun into the building interior
e) car parking structures are designed to integrate with the built form of adjoining development.
197. The desired planning outcomes referred to in paragraph (a) are set out in the introduction to the Precinct Code and included:
(e) promote social inclusion through providing accessible commercial and community facilities).
198. In his assessment against the Territory Plan code requirements, Mr Cilliers specifically considered the requirements of the Precinct Code. That assessment said:
The comments for the criterion or rule identified in the tables below are provided where it is considered warranted to clarify why a particular criterion or rule is either met or not met.
199. In the table below both Rules and Criteria 6 and 11 are specifically considered but there is no reference to Criterion 7.
200. To what extent was Criterion 7 arguably relevant? The building was not a corner building and hence paragraph (b) was not relevant. The building was also not a residential building and hence paragraph (c) was not relevant. Nor were there any adjoining buildings and hence any issue to do with car parking structures in (e) was not relevant. Finally, there was no evidence of any issue relating to the developments compliance with paragraph (a) or (d).
(a) the plaintiff has not identified any aspect of Criterion 7 which raised a particular issue that warranted specific mention or any arguable inconsistency with it.
(b) the assessment report prepared by Mr Cilliers only set out some of the applicable rules and criteria where "it is considered warranted to clarify why a particular criterion or rule is either met or not met"; and
(c) the ultimate conclusion reached for the purposes of s 119(1)(a) was that the proposal was consistent with the Precinct Code,
I am not satisfied that Mr Cilliers or the Authority failed to have regard to the requirements of Criterion 7.
202. Fourth submission: Rule 50 of the Precinct Code provided that
All building elements, including lift overruns and roof top plant are contained within building envelope controls shown in Figure 20.
203. The plaintiff submitted that it was essential that a building envelope diagram be provided as part of the DA and, because it was not, the DA plans did not demonstrate how of the envelope controls of height, bulk and scale were addressed.
204. Figure 20 in the Precinct Code shows that a building must fit within an envelope created by a vertical line 18 metres high at the boundary of the block from the top of which is a line pointing upwards at an angle of 30° towards the middle of the block from the centre point of each side of the block. The plans that formed part of the DA demonstrated that the highest structure to be constructed was 13.75 m above the floor level of the main prayer hall, which in turn was no more than two metres at the relevant point above natural ground level.
205. The evidence of Mr Cilliers was that in the absence of a building envelope diagram it was readily possible to work out from the scale plans provided as part of the application whether the proposal fitted within the envelope described in Figure 20. The proposal did in fact comply. Ms Middleton did not agree that it was clear that the building would fit within that building envelope. She considered that the purpose of the building envelope control related to the bulk and scale of the building, the footprint of the building on the ground, the elevation and the projection of the height and the setbacks from the boundaries. She appeared to accept that experienced planners would find it fairly obvious and easy to assess compliance with the envelope controls but said that the only way that the applicant could demonstrate satisfaction with the rule would be to show the whole extent of the building within a building envelope diagram.
206. I prefer the evidence of Mr Cilliers to that of Ms Middleton. In the present case the only aspect of the building which, on any view, came close to the boundaries of the building envelope defined by Figure 20 was the symbolic minaret. That was 13.75 m high and a slightly greater amount above natural ground level. On any view it was within the building envelope which was 18 metres high at the boundary of the block and increased in height towards the centre of the block. Any reasonably competent planner could have worked that out. In circumstances where compliance with a building envelope requirement is obvious or where there is only a single aspect of the building which even comes close to the boundaries of the building envelope it is unnecessary to produce a full building envelope diagram. Such a diagram is not required by Rule 50 of the Precinct Code. It is not required by the PD Act. It is not required by the approved form for lodging development applications.
207. In so far as the plaintiff submitted that a building envelope diagram was required in order to assess the "bulk and scale" of the building, bulk and scale consequences flow from compliance with Rule 50 but Rule 50 itself simply requires the building to fit within a building envelope. The nature of rules under codes is that if they are complied with no further enquiry is necessary. Therefore I do not accept that there was any failure to comply with any legally binding obligation arising from the non-provision of a building envelope diagram as a part of the DA.
208. Fifth submission: The plaintiff submitted that the Authority adopted an impermissible role of curing or supplementing the DA without either requiring it to be amended or refusing it. It submitted that the application could not be supplemented by other documents or information which were not mentioned in the DA but from which it was possible to work out whether rules and criteria were satisfied. I have addressed this argument above: see [174]-[178].
209. In the Statement Against the Relevant Criteria, Criterion 14 of the CFZ Code was addressed in the following manner.
The existing road network can accommodate the amount of traffic likely to be generated by the development
The Site Investigation Report prepared for the LDA included a Traffic Impact Assessment (copy attached). The report confirms that the road network can accommodate the amount of traffic likely to be generated by the development. On the basis of this assessment, the land was leased to CMC for the development as proposed.
210. In fact, the Traffic Impact Assessment referred to in the table was not attached to the DA. On 5 July 2012 TAMSD provided advice that the applicant needed to provide a parking and traffic study. On 6 July 2012 Mr Cilliers asked another officer of the Authority to telephone Mr Huda and ask him to provide the Traffic Impact Assessment which was stated to be attached to the DA. Mr Huda then made enquiries of the Economic Development Directorate of the ACT Government. An employee of that Directorate advised Mr Huda that "a traffic study was not commissioned by the Territory as part of the Direct Sale to the CMC." However she had found a traffic report prepared by a consultant in relation to the Gungahlin town centre (the Traffic Report) and provided it to Mr Huda. On 10 July 2012 Mr Huda provided the Traffic Report to the Authority saying:
Please let me know if this study provides enough information to address all traffic and parking issues for our development as proposed.
211. Plainly the Traffic Report did not provide enough information as on 12 July 2012 Mr Cilliers wrote to Mr Huda making the request for further information under s 141 which required the provision of a "Traffic Impact Assessment" and a "parking and traffic study". On 31 July 2012 Mr Huda provided the Nairn Report. That report separately assessed issues of access to the site, parking requirements and provision and traffic flows along The Valley Avenue.
212. Criterion 14 of the CFZ Code relevantly provides:
The existing road network can accommodate the amount of traffic likely to be generated by the development.
213. The plaintiff makes a number of submissions about the inadequacy of the proponent's response, in the form of the Nairn Report, to Criterion 14 and the manner in which the issue was dealt with by the Authority. These submissions of the plaintiff and my assessment of them are set out below.
214. First submission: The plaintiff submitted that the Court should make a finding that the statement made in relation to Criterion 14 that:
The Site Investigation Report prepared for the LDA included a Traffic Impact Assessment (copy attached) [which] confirms that the road network can accommodate the amount of traffic likely to be generated by the development" was deliberately false. It submits that there was no such document in existence and that "Mr Shoobridge's analysis demonstrates the lofty disdain for accuracy in the [DA] and in the Nairn report subsequently obtained to satisfy the criterion.
215. The plaintiff submits that the DA should have been refused on the basis of the deficiencies in the Statement Against Relevant Criteria.
216. It is clear that the statement that a Traffic Impact Assessment was attached to the DA was not correct. As a consequence it could not be said that of the non-existent Traffic Impact Assessment demonstrated compliance with the criterion. However, the incorrect statement in the document does not establish any ground for judicial review of the Second Decision. It is not necessary to make any finding as to whether or not the statement was "deliberately false". As will be apparent from the reasons given above, I do not accept that the absence of a Traffic Impact Assessment or the inaccuracy of the statement in the Statement Against Relevant Criteria required, as the plaintiff submitted, that the DA to be refused.
217. Second submission: The plaintiff makes a number of submissions about the accuracy of the conclusions in the Nairn Report:
(a) It challenges the assumptions made as to how many prayer mats would fit inside the mosque at the project site and hence the overall maximum number of people who might be using the mosque at any one time;
(b) It submits that an "observation survey" of the usage pattern of other mosques was required by "the dictates of good practice of traffic engineers" and by national standards set out in Exhibits 19, 20 and 21; and
(c) It criticises the comparison in the Nairn Report with the traffic generated by two local Christian churches in Gungahlin made in the absence of a survey of attendance profiles and the traffic generated by such profiles.
218. Annexed to the plaintiff's final set of written submissions was a sample of a traffic report which was said to demonstrate the sort of analysis done by other Australian governments. The plaintiff did not seek to reopen its case to tender this document and I did not have regard to it.
219. These are criticisms which go to the merits of the Nairn Report and to the merits of the ultimate planning decision by the Authority. In my view the criticisms reflect legitimate differences of opinion between experts. They do not demonstrate that the decision of the Authority was manifestly unreasonable or establish another ground of judicial review.
220. Third submission: The plaintiff also criticised Mr Cilliers' assessment report and the Second Decision because neither contained any projection of traffic volumes to a particular design year. The plaintiff submitted that the traffic study provided by Mr Huda on 10 July 2012 "proves that in 20 years from 2011 the roads of Gungahlin will fail" and that the study was based on the proposition that the subject block was vacant public land. It also points to Mr Shoobridge's evidence about the significance of The Valley Avenue entry and exit to the premises which, it submitted, "has disturbing consequences in this context".
221. I do not accept that the study provided by Mr Huda on 10 July 2012 which was put into evidence demonstrate that "the roads of Gungahlin will fail". The report was substantially more refined than the submission of the plaintiff would suggest. However the content of that report is really only of tangential relevance to the assessment of the specific proposal that was being put forward almost three years after its preparation. The study was clearly not adequate for the Authority's purposes and it was for that reason that a specific study was requested by Mr Cilliers.
222. There was no requirement in the PD Act or in a relevant code for a traffic modelling exercise to a particular design year to be undertaken or available for the purposes of assessing a development on the subject site. What needed to be satisfied were the terms of Criterion 14. That criterion did not look into the indefinite future. It spoke in the present tense. While any assessment of compliance with the criterion must have regard to the likely maximum potential usage of the site which may involve some projection into the future and may involve some assessment of surrounding development, it required a relatively limited exercise to be undertaken. In the context of a developing town centre where substantial areas remained yet to be developed and where there was likely to be significant development of the road network and traffic control infrastructure over the next 20 years, it was clearly open to the Authority to reach the conclusion that the criterion was satisfied. That was all the more so in circumstances where it had the expert opinion of Mr Nairn that the expected traffic generated by the development at its worst peak period is well within the capacity of The Valley Avenue. The absence of any projection to a design year does not vitiate the consideration by the Authority of Criterion 14 and does not establish any ground for judicial review of the Second Decision.
223. The plaintiff made other criticisms of merits of the proposal based upon Mr Shoobridge's critique of the Nairn Report. In relation to the single entry and exit to the premises, clearly on the worst case scenario, maximum attendance at Friday prayers, was considered as part of the Nairn Report which identified access as being "left-in/left out" from The Valley Avenue. Mr Shoobridge had criticisms of the approach adopted in the Nairn Report, particularly in relation to assessment of background traffic flows, the use of observational studies and the manner in which flow rates were expressed.
224. Notwithstanding the criticisms that Mr Shoobridge had of the report, it was expert information which was available to the Authority to consider. It specifically addressed flow rates and found that the estimated maximum flow rates were well within the capacity of The Valley Avenue and Hinder Street. The report had been provided TAMSD and to Paul Isaks, a transport specialist within the ESDD, both of whom had provided additional advice which did not raise any concerns about the capacity of the road network to accommodate traffic flows from the development. Mr Cilliers considered it in his assessment report and recognised that:
probable traffic and parking impacts associated with predicted peak-use of the proposed development can be appropriately managed through on site parking and overflow parking on the adjoining land to the south.
225. He appeared to accept that there would be impacts but that they were manageable. Having regard to the manner in which this issue was dealt with by the Authority it is clear that the issue of flow rates was taken into account and the plaintiff's submission does not demonstrate any ground for judicial review of the Second Decision.
226. Fourth submission: The plaintiff points to the insecurity of the Licence for the car parking area which is for a period of 10 years with an option to renew for a period of five years. That Licence could be terminated on six months notice. The plaintiff points out that the defendant did not impose a condition relating to the continued existence of the Licence or other provision to cope with traffic generation. It points to the reasons given in the Notice of Decision (Exhibit 7) that the licence agreement provided "sufficient security of tenure to be taken into consideration as a long-term arrangement for parking". The plaintiff submits that this involves an error of law or the taking into account of an irrelevant consideration because a license of this character does not offer any security of tenure and is merely a permission or consent pro tem.
227. I am not satisfied that this statement involved an error of law. The Notice of Decision reflected a merits decision that the license arrangement was, in the opinion of the defendant, sufficient security in relation to parking. The Notice of Decision specifically recognises that the licence agreement may be terminated: "It is acknowledged that there is a possibility that the licence agreement will be terminated by the signatories." However, the notice also referred to the stated intention of the CMC not to terminate the Licence arrangement and the view of the MPRG that "the licence agreement provided sufficient security of tenure to be taken into consideration as a long term arrangement for parking provision." While as a matter of law the Licence may have not been very good security, the assessment of the defendant was that, in all the circumstances, it was enough. That was a merits decision open to the defendant having regard to considerations of planning policy, in particular the early stage of the development of this part of the Gungahlin town centre and the interests of both the CMC and the Territory in maintaining parking supply for the development.
228. The conclusion that, in the circumstances, the licence agreement provided "sufficient security of tenure" did not involve any error of law. Nor did it involve, as the plaintiff submitted, the taking into account of an irrelevant consideration. In the context of parking, the security of a licence agreement to provide an area of additional parking was clearly a relevant consideration, having regard to the terms of the Parking and Vehicular Access General Code.
229. Fifth submission: Finally, the plaintiff submits that the combination of factors above lead to the decision being so unreasonable that no reasonable person could have exercised the power in that manner.
230. In Murrumbidgee Groundwater Preservation Association Inc v Minister for Natural Resources [2005] NSWCA 10; (2005) 138 LGERA 11 Spigelman CJ, with whom Beazley and Tobias JJA agreed, stated at [129]:
Perhaps the most appropriate formulation [of Wednesbury unreasonableness] is whether the decision is "illogical, irrational or lacking a basis in findings or inferences of fact supported on logical grounds": Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs Ex parte Applicant S20/2002 [2003] HCA 30; (2003) 77 ALJR 1165 at [52] and [37], [173]; see also Minister for Immigration and Multicultural and Indigenous Affairs v SGLB [2004] HCA 32; (2004) 78 ALJR 992 at [38].
231. In Marrickville Metro Shopping Centre Pty Ltd v Marrickville Council [2010] NSWCA 145; (2010) 174 LGERA 67 at [105]- [109] Tobias JA (with whom Basten JA and Handley AJA agreed) explained this formulation as follows:
105 This formulation was adopted by myself in Westfield Management Ltd v Perpetual Trustee Co Ltd [2006] NSWCA 245 at [71]. It was also adopted and applied by myself, with the agreement of Mason P and Hodgson JA, in Notaras v Waverley Council [2007] NSWCA 333; (2007) 161 LGERA 230 at [122]. In Notaras I cited (at [124]) [31] of the judgment of Biscoe J in Save Our Streets Inc v Settree [2006] NSWLEC 570; (2006) 149 LGERA 30 where his Honour drew a distinction between a decision which the court considers is unreasonable and a decision which the court considers is so unreasonable that no reasonable body could have come to it. The latter required "something overwhelming": Minister for Immigration and Multicultural Affairs v Eshetu [1999] HCA 21; (1999) 197 CLR 611 at [44].
106 In Wednesbury itself, Lord Greene MR at 229 referred to the relevant unreasonableness as "something so absurd that no sensible person could ever dream that it lay within the power of the authority". In Bromley London Borough Council v Greater London Council [1983] 1 AC 768 at 821, Lord Diplock defined Wednesbury unreasonable decisions as those which "looked at objectively, are so devoid of any plausible justification that no reasonable body of persons could have reached them". In Puhlhofer v Hillingdon London Borough Council [1986] UKHL 1; [1986] 1 AC 484 at 518, Lord Brightman said that the unreasonableness must be "verging on an absurdity".
107 Other synonyms have been described in the authorities. They are collected in Aronson, Dyer and Groves, Judicial Review of Administrative Action, 4th ed (2009) Lawbook Co at 376-377 [6.215].
108 What Lord Brightman said in Puhlhofer at 518 and, in particular, his Lordship's reference to the relevant body's decisions being, in effect, immune unless it was acting perversely, was cited by Gleeson CJ and McHugh J in Eshetu at [41]. The essential point relevant to the present appeal which their Honours made in that case was, as Mason J pointed out in Minister for Aboriginal Affairs v Peko-Wallsend Ltd [1986] HCA 40; (1986) 162 CLR 24 at 42, the necessity for a court to "proceed with caution ... lest it exceed its supervisory role by reviewing the decision on its merits".
109 The cases are replete with this warning with the consequence that the success of a challenge on the Wednesbury unreasonable ground is confined to extreme cases involving, as Aronson et al opine at 376, "demonstrably absurd decisions".
232. In the present case, the matters in respect of which complaint is made, and which are relied upon to support a finding of Wednesbury unreasonableness, do not come close to satisfying the tests to which I have referred. There was nothing absurd, irrational or implausible with respect to the decision of the Authority in relation to compliance with the requirements of Criterion 14 or, indeed, traffic and parking more generally. The approach to these issues was supported by expert opinion available to the Authority, subjected to a rational process and reaching a rational conclusion. Whether or not the plaintiff disagrees with the opinions considered or the conclusion reached by the Authority is irrelevant where a merits review of the Authority's decision is impermissible. Therefore, in so far as the first to fourth arguments are recast as, or submitted cumulatively to demonstrate, manifest unreasonableness, I do not accept that submission.
233. The Parking and Vehicular Access General Code (Parking Code) is one of the codes applicable to the assessment of the development. It provides both general requirements relating to the location and physical characteristics of parking and related vehicular access as well as identifying the parking provision rates relating to each of the Territory Plan's zones. Part 3.6 of the Parking Code relates to the Community Facility Zone.
234. The Notice of Decision records that the public submissions included the submission that there was inadequate parking and the concern as to what would happen when the licence agreement for overflow parking expired (see pages 9-11 of Exhibit 7).
235. The Notice of Decision drew a distinction between the requirement for the provision of parking and probable parking demand generated by the proposed development. It identified the rates set out in the Parking Code for developments in the Community Facility Zone. It noted that prayer mats instead of seats are used and, in order to calculate parking requirements for the purposes of the Code, adopted as a typical size 1.2m² for such mats with no allowance for circulation space. It therefore prepared a calculation for the parking demand for each component of the development namely the community activity centre, the place of worship and the religious associated use. It attributed 18 spaces to the community activity centre, 43 spaces to the place of worship and no spaces to the religious associated use. It explained that the nil assessment for religious associated use was adopted because there were likely to be no additional car trips generated by this use beyond that required for the place of worship or community activity centre. It concluded that the community activity centre and the place of worship were unlikely to be used simultaneously and provided reasons for that conclusion. It also pointed to the provisions of clause 3.6.4 of the Parking Code which permitted long stay parking within 200 metres, short stay parking within 100 metres and visitor parking within 100 metres of a development. Having regard to the rationale that it was unlikely that both aspects of the development would be used simultaneously and, in any event, the availability of 138 additional parking spaces south of the development under the Licence, the Authority considered that the provision of 43 car parking spaces on the development site would satisfy the relevant objectives and requirements under s 3.6 of the Parking Code.
236. The plaintiff put forward four submissions in relation to the approach adopted in the Notice of Decision.
237. First submission: The plaintiff submitted that the Parking Code addressed only circumstances where actual seats were used and that because actual seats were not used in a mosque the provisions of the Code did not apply.
238. The plaintiff was critical of the evidence of Ms Purdon which made sense of the parking provisions of the Code in the present case by adapting the parking provision rate for a place of worship to a situation such as the present case where the place of worship did not contain any seats. Her evidence was that such an approach made sense so far as a matter of town planning was concerned. Given that what was sought to be done was assess parking provision on the basis of likely usage, that evidence appears to be reasonable. If one were to take a strictly literal approach to the parking provision rates for the Community Facility Zone in the Parking Code then, because there were no seats in the place of worship, there would be no requirement to have any parking available for that use. Such an approach would be would not advance the plaintiff's position.
239. Second submission: The plaintiff submitted that it was significant that even the applicant thought that 43 car spaces was not enough and hence it sought and obtained the Licence from the defendant and the LDA.
240. The fact that prior to lodging a development application, the potential proponent of the development considers the issue of parking and obtains a licence so as to be able to accommodate parking in excess of that which on its interpretation of the Parking Code is required to be provided, does not of itself demonstrate that the Parking Code is not met by a lesser number or should be interpreted in a particular way. I therefore do not accept that this submission provides a ground for judicial review of the Second Decision.
241. Third submission: The plaintiff submitted that the proposed development was not "normal circumstances" for the purposes of the Parking Code and hence the parking provision rates set out in the Parking Code were not deemed to meet the relevant objectives (see clause 1.3), and that an analysis of the parking under clause 3.6 of the Parking Code was not done.
242. The reference to "normal circumstances" comes from clause 1.3 of the Parking Code. Clause 1.3 is an explanation of how of the Parking Code works. It provided:
1.3 Using the code
The code adopts a performance based approach and section 3 sets out, for each of the zones, objectives relating to the provision of parking which development proposals are required to meet. The relevant schedule in section 3 defines the minimum parking provision requirements for permitted development for each of the zones.
The scale of parking provision required is derived from a set of criteria relating to safety, economic efficiency, accessibility, commercial viability and social and environmental objectives. The parking provision rates take account of factors such as the availability of public parking and the potential for shared parking with neighbouring developments, accessibility of the location to public transport, and relevant transport, economic, social and environmental policies, such as travel demand management measures.
The parking provision rates are based on a range of empirical evidence available to the Department of Territory and Municipal Services (TaMS), interstate codes and guidelines and international guidelines to set the most appropriate standards for a particular zone.
The parking provision rates in conjunction with the scale of development are used to calculate the parking requirement that, in normal circumstances, would be deemed to meet the relevant objectives.
Any specific requirements for the provision of parking and access in areas subject to the National Capital Plan or to other codes of the Territory Plan would take precedence over the requirements specified in this code.
Parking generated by a development is generally required to be accommodated on site or in a location consistent with the criteria in section 2.
In cases where the physical constraints of a site make on-site provision impracticable, or the Territory may consider it undesirable for efficiency, traffic operation, pedestrian amenity or other reasons for the specified parking to be provided totally on-site, special arrangements may be negotiated or requirements may be waived at the discretion of the Territory. In such situations the ability to consolidate parking in publicly accessible off-site locations provides a superior outcome. Costs can be reduced by eliminating
the need for costly on-site basement car parking, and greater efficiency can be achieved through the increased potential for shared and complementary use.. (emphasis added)
243. There are two points to be made about the reference to "normal circumstances" in the fourth paragraph of the quote set out above. Firstly, it takes its meaning from its context. This includes, in particular, the subsequent paragraph which is consistent with circumstances other than normal circumstances being those where the National Capital Plan or other codes in the Territory Plan provide an alternative parking requirement. Upon that interpretation it would not be open to either the Authority or a third party to contend that parking provision greater than that specified in the Parking Code should be provided on the basis that the particular circumstances were other than "normal", except where the National Capital Plan or other provision of the Territory Plan provided an alternative requirement. Secondly, the final paragraph of the clause makes it clear that the Authority has considerable discretion as to whether or not to require compliance with the parking provision rates set out in the Parking Code and that the discretion to depart from its numerical requirements is dependent upon a range of town planning considerations. That is consistent with clause 1.3 which emphasises the discretion of the Authority to accept a lesser car parking provision than would otherwise be required by the Parking Code:
244. However, the performance approach adopted in these clauses provides the flexibility to enable a proposal to be supported where the proponent can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Territory that the objectives can be met either by provision of a less on-site rate or by utilising spare capacity in publicly available on-street or off-site parking.
245. The manner in which the issue is dealt with in the Notice of Decision provided two alternative basis for accepting the parking provision of 43 parking spaces on site. The first involved applying the Parking Code rates and the second involved taking account of the availability of off-site parking.
246. If I am correct in my interpretation of "normal circumstances" having regard to the context in which it appears, it was open to the proponent to rely upon the parking provision rates set out in the Parking Code and open to the Authority to accept them. That necessarily involved the exercise of discretion to reduce the overall parking requirement having regard to the unlikelihood of the different uses of the property being concurrent. That is a not uncommon approach and is clearly consistent with the last paragraph of clause 1.3.
247. Even if I am wrong in my interpretation of the meaning of normal circumstances and it is open to the Authority or a third party to contend that a particular proposal involves other than normal circumstances even though no other provision of the National Capital Plan or Territory Plan says so, it was open to the Authority to take into account the car parking spaces provided by the Licence even though those car parking spaces lacked security. That is because the Parking Code expressly contemplates the provision of parking other than on the site and that the extent of security required in relation to that parking is clearly a matter for the discretion of the Authority. There are routinely circumstances where the Authority can consider off-site parking where the proponent of the development does not have security of tenure, the availability of nearby on-street parking being the most obvious example. In adopting this approach, express reference and consideration was given to the objectives for revision of parking and access in the Community Facility Zone set out in paragraph 3.6.1 of the Parking Code, the Notice of Decision including:
the planning and land authority considers that the provision of 43 car parking spaces on the development site will satisfy the relevant objectives and requirements under section 3.6 of the [Parking Code] (emphasis added).
248. As a consequence, I do not consider that the Authority failed to take into account the objectives for car parking in the Community Facility Zone or otherwise erred in a way that gives rise to a ground for judicial review.
249. Fourth submission: The plaintiff annexed to its written submissions a document from the February 2013 edition of the Journal of the Institute of Transportation Engineers which was said to demonstrate the issues that needed to be addressed in relation to places of worship that were not. The plaintiff did not seek to reopen its case to tender this document and I did not take it into account.
250. In the Statement Against Relevant Criteria, the Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design General Code (Crime Code) was addressed by the following brief statement:
The proposal has been assessed and found to comply with the relevant provisions of this General Code.
251. The Notice of Decision itself made it clear that the assessment of the proposal specifically addressed crime-related issues and issues arising under the Crime Code. The assessment report prepared by Mr Cilliers assessed the proposal against the relevant provisions of the Code.
252. The plaintiff makes four submissions in relation to the Crime Code.
253. First submission: The plaintiff submits that this:
simple assertion of compliance in the [DA] is not sufficient as the applicant must demonstrate that there is compliance by reference to specific provisions of the Code, models, expert assistance, literature, plans, et cetera.
254. The plaintiff submits that this burden is imposed upon an applicant by clause 1.1 of the Territory Plan and the terms of the Crime Code itself. The plaintiff submits that the failure to address the Crime Code in this way involves a failure to comply with s 139 of the PD Act in relation to the form of the DA.
Proposals in the merit track have the option to comply with the rules or the criteria, unless the rule is mandatory. Where it is proposed to meet the criteria, the onus is on the applicant to demonstrate, by supporting plans and written documentation, that the proposed development satisfies the criteria and therefore the intent of the element.
256. Although the treatment of the Crime Code in the Statement Against Relevant Criteria was cursory, the documentation in support of the application permitted an assessment against the requirements of the Code.
257. I have dealt above (at [191]) with the submission that any failure to explicitly address and conclusively demonstrate compliance with every provision of every code that might be applicable to a development involves a failure to comply with s 139. In my view, the DA did not contravene s 139 by reason of the manner in which it addressed the Crime Code in the Statement Against Relevant Criteria. Therefore I do not accept that these submissions of the plaintiff demonstrate a basis for judicial review of the Second Decision.
258. Second submission: The plaintiff submits that the assessment demonstrated that the proposal did not comply with the requirements of the Crime Code. It relies upon the statement in Mr Cilliers assessment report that "The proposal meets all requirements of this Code that are relevant to the development, with the exception of those listed in the tables below."
259. In order to understand why this submission is incorrect it is necessary to set out in more detail the manner in which Crime Code issues were considered as part of the development assessment process.
260. Some issues identified during the assessment process were the subject of the request for further information made by Mr Cilliers on 12 July 2012. That request included, amongst the matters that needed to be provided:
"A lighting plan shall be provided showing compliance with the relevant Australian Standard(s)."
"Clarification of the external stair on the north-western side and how does it meet the relevant requirements of the [Crime Code]."
"Please address potential [Crime Code] issues in the development, by providing doors to the development or by addressing the issue in another way."
261. The response from Mr Huda on 31 July 2012 responded to these requirements:
Lighting Plan
A lighting plan has been prepared to comply with the requirements of the [Crime Code] and the relevant Australian Standards. The lighting plan is attached.
External Stair on the North-Western Side
This stair has been provided for fire escape in compliance with the BCA. The stair is open on the sides and at the ground level but is controlled through a door to the first floor prayer room. Appropriate lighting has been added to the stairs to comply with the [Crime Code] requirements.
Uncontrolled Access as Potential [Crime Code] Issues
A number of external doors and gates have now been added at the ground floor of the building to control unauthorised access and to address any [Crime Code] issues. This is shown on the revised Ground Floor Plan attached.
262. In his assessment report Mr Cilliers expressed the view that the proposal was consistent with the Crime Code. When addressing the probable and potential impacts of the development the specifically referred to Crime Code issues saying:
[Crime Code] and accessibility concerns were addressed by the proponent with additional information and minor amendments to the drawings submitted pursuant to s 141 of the Act. These measures include provision of gates to the entries to the courtyard, and to the external (fire) stairs at the north-western corner of the proposed building, lighting details and an accessibility ramp in proximity to accessible parking facilities.
263. When specifically assessing the proposal against the requirements of the Crime Code the assessment report suffers somewhat from adopting a template. It is this error that is fixed upon by the plaintiff. The assessment refers to various provisions of the Crime Code set out in a table, prefaced by the following:
The [Crime Code] is a Code relevant to this proposal. The proposal meets all requirements of this Code that are relevant to the development, with the exception of those listed in the tables below.
264. The entries in the table below actually in their terms demonstrate compliance with provisions of the Crime Code and do not indicate any failure to comply with it. There is thus a discontinuity between the opening words of the section and the matters identified in the table in that section. A similar error was made in relation to the assessment of compliance with the Bicycle Code and appears immediately prior to the assessment against the Crime Code. Any reasonable reader would be able to work out that it was an error and that in fact the assessing officer considered that the proposal complied with both codes.
265. As a consequence I do not place any significance upon the erroneous opening words of the section of the assessment report dealing with the Crime Code.
266. Third submission: The plaintiff submits that it was not open to the Authority to take into account new plans which were provided in response to the purported request under s 141. That includes a lighting diagram which included minor changes including provision of gates and lighting. The changes included annotations indicating that the plans involved compliance with two Australian Standards. This submission appears to raise the argument that it was not open to the Authority to take into account material going beyond a valid s 141 request or that went beyond the scope of requesting further information. I have dealt with that submission above (see [104]-[106]) and as a consequence I do not accept that the taking into account of this new plan was beyond the power of the defendant.
267. Fourth submission: The plaintiff also submits that Area 13 shown on drawing DA 03 is an intended play area for children and asserts that this play area is unsecured, is located at the extremity of the block with blank walls on the south and east, the vehicular entrance to the car park at the rear to the east and trees to the north. It submits that there is no natural surveillance from adjoining areas and that adjoining areas are not used by compatible groups. It therefore submits that paragraphs (a) and (b) of Criterion 9 of the Crime Code were not satisfied. The submission is made that Criterion 9 is simply not addressed in the DA, the assessment report prepared by Mr Cilliers or the Notice of Decision.
268. In part, this submission is an invitation to delve into the merits of the proposal as to whether or not paragraphs (a) and (b) of Criterion 9 of the Crime Code are satisfied which goes beyond the scope of judicial review. In so far as a possible failure to take into account relevant considerations is raised by the submission, it is clear that the situation of the children's play area was specifically considered as part of the decision-making process because one of the conditions of approval required revised plans be prepared to specifically address the situation of the children's play area, requiring it to be fenced to the satisfaction of the Authority.
269. Therefore, I am satisfied that the Authority had regard to the Crime Code in relation to the children's play area on drawing DA 03. The Authority clearly reached the view that, subject to the condition which was imposed upon the development approval, the design of the play area was consistent with the Crime Code. In so far as the submissions of the plaintiff contest that conclusion on the merits that does not provide a basis for judicial review of the Second Decision.
270. The plaintiff makes two submissions based on the requirements of s 120 of the PD Act, which provided:
120 Merit track - considerations when deciding development approval
In deciding a development application for a development proposal in the merit track, the decision-maker must consider the following:
(a) the objectives for the zone in which the development is proposed to take place;
(b) the suitability of the land where the development is proposed to take place for a development of the kind proposed;
(e) if the proposed development relates to land that is public land - the plan of management for the land;
271. First submission: The plaintiff submitted that s 120(b) and clause 1.1 of the Territory Plan (which repeats the effect of s 120) require consideration of the suitability of the land. The plaintiff submits that the proposed development is not in accordance with the provisions of the Crown Lease and that the failure to accept this proposition was a failure to take into account a relevant consideration which made the approval unauthorised. For the reasons that I give below in relation to the characterisation of the uses proposed by the DA, the proposed development was not inconsistent with the terms of the lease and hence I do not accept this aspect of the plaintiffs argument.
272. Second submission: The plaintiff next submitted that s 120(e) provides that if the development relates to public land the plan of management for the land must be considered and that the assessment report does not do that, instead stating that the proposal does not relate to public land. The plaintiff submits that that was an error. The plaintiff submits that the subject land is public land.
273. The plaintiff's submissions are based on a misconception as to the meaning of "public land" in the PD Act. Public land is defined in the Dictionary to the PD Act as meaning "land identified by the Territory Plan as public land." In relation to such areas the PD Act contains specific provisions requiring that plans of management be prepared: see ss 313-338. In the present case, neither the land the subject of the development nor the adjoining licensed land was identified as public land by the Territory Plan at the relevant time. Therefore the statement in the assessment report that the proposal did not relate to public land was accurate and there was no error of law or failure to take into account a relevant consideration as asserted by the plaintiff.
274. The plaintiff submitted that an area shown on the drawings forming part of the DA which is referred to as "store/deceased wash area" is a prohibited use which could not be approved as part of the development approval.
275. The area in question is located on the southern side of the proposed building immediately to the west of one of the entrances to the building. It is a small area which is accessed via an "office" which in fact served as an ante room. The total area of the deceased wash room and office is 48 m² out of a total development of 1412 m². The wash room appears to be slightly larger than the office area so occupies slightly more than half of the 48 m² total.
276. At the eastern end of the multipurpose hall, quite remote from the deceased wash room was located a kitchen, kitchen store and chiller room.
277. Mr Cilliers brief to the MPRG meeting on 16 August 2012 said:
Representations received raised concerns about the uses forming part of the proposed development, particularly with regard to the "chiller room" and "deceased wash room".
Clarification sought from the proponent about these concerns clarified that the "chiller room" adjoining the "kitchen store" will not be used for cadaver storage as purported in some representations. The proponent confirmed that the "chiller room" is to be used for storage of perishable food consumed during their religious festivals. The proposal is not for an undertaker facility. The proposed "deceased wash room" is required for traditional Islamic funeral practices as an "associated activity" ancillary to the use of a mosque, i.e. a place of worship as defined in the Territory Plan. (Also, it is not a funeral parlour as defined in the Territory Plan as it does not involve the profession of an undertaker.)
278. The minutes of the meeting indicate that the MPRG accepted this position, stating:
The MPRG formed the view that the "deceased wash room" is a religious associated use, but required further consultation with ACT Health with regard to any potential requirements for the "deceased wash room".
279. Mr Cilliers wrote to Mr Huda on 13 August 2012 requesting further information. Mr Huda replied the same day with information that described the process that would involve the use of the deceased wash room. Mr Cilliers also communicated with an officer of ACT Health who provided some advice about the regulation of an area such as this. The notice of decision required a further plan showing that the deceased wash room was connected to an ActewAGL approved sewer as well as the provision of a wash basin.
280. The Community Facility Zone Development Table prohibits the use of land as a "funeral parlour". The plaintiff submits that the washing, shrouding and prayers at the mosque site are part of the preparation of the dead for burial and therefore will involve "the use of the land by an undertaker whether pro tem by family as suggested by Mr Huda or by employed persons as appears to be the usual case from the evidence".
281. The purpose clause of the Crown lease provides that the permitted use is as follows:
To use the premises for the purpose of community use LIMITED to:
(i) place of worship; and
(ii) religious associated use
and ancillary to (i) and (ii) a community activity centre.
282. There is no express provision in the lease for ancillary uses other than a community activity centre.
283. The plaintiff submits that the approval of the development in circumstances where a component of that development involved a prohibited use involved a jurisdictional error and a failure to take into account relevant considerations and manifest unreasonableness.
284. It is clear that the building is generally a place of worship or a religious associated use. Those terms were defined in the Territory Plan at the relevant time as follows:
Place of worship means the use of land for the primary purposes of religious worship and associated activities by a congregation, religious group or members of the public whether or not the premises are also used for religious instruction, tuition, meetings, training and other community activities.
Religious associated use means the use of land for the activities conducted by religious organisations other than for worship or for offices and may include residential accommodation by ministers of religion.
285. In my view the submissions of the plaintiff, which focus on whether or not the deceased washroom area constitutes the operation of a funeral parlour, adopt an incorrect starting point. The starting point must be whether or not the deceased washroom area is part of the place of worship or religious associated use which is undoubtedly comprised by the development as a whole. It may be that a particular component of a use of land, if examined separately, could be characterised differently from the overall use of land. However, if a use of land is a subordinate use of land which is not independent from the dominant use of land then as a matter of characterisation it forms part of the dominant use: Foodbarn v Solicitor-General (1975) 32 LGERA 157.
286. In my view the plans of the building in combination with the description of the likely use of the deceased washroom is subordinate to and not an independent use from the use of the mosque as a whole. Therefore it forms part of the place of worship or is part of a religious associated use within the definition of those terms in the Territory Plan and the lease. Specifically, the use of the deceased washroom would be an activity conducted by a religious organisation other than for worship, meeting the requirements of a religious associated use. It is therefore not prohibited by the terms of the lease as it falls within the scope of the expressly permitted uses.
287. Further and in any event, the activities to be carried on at the deceased wash room would not involve "the use of land by an undertaker in the carrying out of that profession" which is how "funeral parlour" is defined in the Plan. There was no evidence to indicate that the area would be used for the conduct of the profession of an undertaker. The mere possibility that an undertaker may be involved in the transport of the deceased to and from the mosque would in no way be sufficient to satisfy the requirements of the definition in the Territory Plan.
288. The plaintiff made submissions directed to the proposition that the Second Decision was made in contravention of s 40B(1)(b) of the HR Act in that the Authority failed to give proper consideration to a relevant human right when making the First Decision and the Second Decision.
40B Public authorities must act consistently with human rights
(a) to act in a way that is incompatible with a human right; or
(b) in making a decision, to fail to give proper consideration to a relevant human right.
40C Legal proceedings in relation to public authority actions
(a) claims that a public authority has acted in contravention of section 40B; and
(b) alleges that the person is or would be a victim of the contravention.
(a) start a proceeding in the Supreme Court against the public authority; or
(b) rely on the person's rights under this Act in other legal proceedings.
(4) The Supreme Court may, in a proceeding under subsection (2), grant the relief it considers appropriate except damages.
291. The plaintiff lacks standing to seek relief under the HR Act because it is a body corporate created under the Associations Incorporation Act 1991, is not a natural person and is not a "victim" of any contravention for the purposes of s 40C of the Act.
292. The entitlement to bring proceedings under s 40C of the Act is limited to circumstances where the person "is or would be a victim of the contravention". "Victim" is not defined in the Act. Section 6 of the Act provides that only individuals have human rights. The Dictionary to the Legislation Act provides "individual means a natural person". Therefore the plaintiff does not have any human rights. In my view, consistently with the fact that only individuals have human rights, only individuals may be victims of a contravention under the HR Act. That is consistent with the drafting of s 40C(2)(b) which contemplates that it is the victim who has rights under the Act and hence must be an individual. It is also consistent with the decision of Master Harper in Chaloner v Australian Capital Territory [2013] ACTSC 269 at [29] where his Honour said "The victim of a contravention of s 40B, it seems to me, can only be the person whose human right is infringed." Therefore a body corporate such as the plaintiff is not entitled to bring proceedings based on alleged contraventions of the HR Act. For this reason alone the claims of the plaintiff to relief under the Act must fail.
293. The plaintiff's submissions are based on s 14(2) and s 17(a) of the HR Act.
(2) No-one may be coerced in a way that would limit his or her freedom to have or adopt a religion or belief in worship, observance, practice or teaching.
295. The plaintiff makes two submissions in relation to this provision.
296. First submission: The plaintiff submits that because the use of the mosque was exclusively for the provision of Islamic religious and funeral services and there was no condition of approval in a form equivalent to s 14(2) in relation to anyone proceeding onto the land or using the mosque or associated facilities such as the carpark on the land or the funeral services of the mosque. As a consequence, the plaintiff submits that the issue was simply disregarded.
297. The proposition underlying this submission must be that the Territory acts inconsistently with the right in s 14(2) if it approves the use of land by a religious organisation but does not impose a condition equivalent in its content to s 14(2). By merely approving the construction of a building in which religious worship can occur the Territory does not authorise coercion of persons in a way that would limit their religious freedom. In the same way, just because the Territory approves a development on land by a third party without imposing conditions expressly requiring users not to infringe the various other human rights it does not authorise a denial of those rights.
298. Second submission: The plaintiff submits that the approval had the result that burials undertaken at the Gungahlin mosque would be required to be buried in accordance with the washroom rights according to the rituals stated by Mr Huda and accepted by Mr Cilliers for the purposes of assessing the development proposal.
299. In relation to this submission the evidence was not clear as to whether or not the rituals described in the email from Mr Huda were adopted in all cases. However, even if there was a requirement that had to be adopted by the relatives of deceased persons who wished to make use of the mosque, that would not involve any coercion. It would merely make the use of the mosque conditional upon observance of those rituals in the same way as the use of many buildings owned by religious organisations would be conditional upon users complying with the precepts and rituals of that particular faith. Further, the approval of the building in which such rituals may occur would not involve the Territory or a Territory authority acting inconsistently with the right in s 14(2). The Territory, by approving the construction of this building does not authorise or approve any coercion.
Every citizen has the right, and is to have the opportunity, to -
take part in the conduct of public affairs, directly or through freely chosen representatives; and
301. The plaintiff makes two submissions about this provision.
302. First submission: The plaintiff submits that persons making representations to the defendant in relation to the DA were deprived of the right directly to take part to the fullest extent provided by law in public affairs because the major public notification period occurred before all relevant information and entity advice had been received or was required to be received under chapter 7 of the PD Act.
303. Section 17 of the HR Act is based on Article 25 of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR): see schedule 1 to the HR Act. The content of this human right is described in M Nowak UN Covenant on Civil and Political Rights CCPR Commentary 2nd revised edition (NP Engel, 2005) at 570-573. It is clear that the right is designed to ensure that the exercise of state authority must be based on the principle of sovereignty of the people and make it clear that governments based on absolute monarchical legitimacy, a "Fuhrerprinzip" or similar autocratic structure violate the fundamental right to political participation guaranteed to citizens under article 25(a). Section 17(a) was not engaged in the circumstances of this planning decision and the submission of the plaintiff cannot be accepted.
304. In so far as the submissions of the plaintiff state that s 17(a) "is cognate with ICCPR clause 19(2) 'the right to receive information' and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights Article 19 and 'the right to receive information'" the submission is inconsistent with the terms of s 17 of the HR Act and with schedule 1 of the Act which indicates the source of s 17.
305. Second submission: The plaintiff submits that the defendant failed to consider this human right when refusing the extension of time to the plaintiff and representors who had made representations about the inadequacy of the DA, in particular its failure to attach a traffic report. As I have pointed out in relation to the first submission, the submission is based on a misconception about the scope and operation of the right in s 17(a). It relates to high principles of popular sovereignty not to questions of whether or not a traffic report should have been provided with a development application.
306. Although the plaintiff's submissions on this aspect of the case were somewhat confused, in final submissions the plaintiff submitted that the ACT government has leased land to the CMC at less than market rates and licensed public land for the exclusive use of the CMC at very favourable rates. The plaintiff submits that this subsidisation of the religious activities of CMC
involves the use of the law, or the exercise of the executive power of the ACT, by a law having the consequence of restricting the free exercise of religion other than by those persons of the Islamic faith at the mosque, and in the manner of such persons controlling the mosque.
307. Although there was no challenge to the grant of the lease or the licence, the plaintiff appeared to submit that the contravention of s 116 was a relevant consideration which was not taken into account in approving the DA.
The Commonwealth shall not make any law for establishing any religion, or for imposing any religious observance, or for prohibiting the free exercise of any religion, and no religious test shall be required as a qualification for any office or public trust under the Commonwealth.
309. Counsel for the plaintiff made the following submission as to the application of s 116 to the polity created by the Australian Capital Territory (Self-Government) Act 1988 (Cth) (Self-Government Act):
The ACT of course as a territory of the Commonwealth is subject to the Constitutional guarantee in Constitution s 116: see Wurridgal v Commonwealth [2009] HCA 9 [sic]. Although the Commonwealth itself did not fund the mosque construction its delegate the ACT Government did, and its decision to do so, made in 2011 is or is treated as if it were a decision of law made by the Commonwealth, respondeat superior.
310. Two preliminary comments must be made about this submission. Firstly, the decision in Wurridjal v Commonwealth [2009] HCA 2; (2009) 237 CLR 309 did not decide that the guarantee in s 116 applied to laws made under s 122. Reference was made to some of the dicta in relation to the application of s 116 in the territories at [49], [54] and [62] but no more than that. On the issue in dispute in that case, namely, the application of s 51(xxxi), a majority found that it did qualify the power in s 122 of the Constitution: see [2009] HCA 2; (2009) 237 CLR 309 at [86], [189], [287]. It is therefore consistent with the integrationist trend in recent High Court authority on s 122 but does not determine the s 116 issue. Secondly, it is established that the Territory Assembly is not merely a delegate of the Commonwealth as the submission of the plaintiff asserts. Rather, it is a separate legislative body armed with general legislative authority as large and of the same nature as those of Parliament itself and laws of the Assembly do not involve an exercise of the legislative power of the Commonwealth: Capital Duplicators Pty Ltd v Australian Capital Territory [1992] HCA 51; (1992) 177 CLR 248 at 283, 284.
311. The authorities are divided upon whether or not s 116 qualifies the power to make laws for the government of a territory under s 122 of the Constitution. Those dicta consistent with s 116 qualifying the territories power include Adelaide Company of Jehovah's Witnesses Inc v The Commonwealth [1943] HCA 12; (1943) 67 CLR 116 at 123, 156-157; Lamshed v Lake [1958] HCA 14; (1958) 99 CLR 132 at 143;Teori Tau v Commonwealth [1969] HCA 62; (1969) 119 CLR 564 at 570; Attorney-General (Vict); Ex rel Black v The Commonwealth [1981] HCA 2; (1981) 146 CLR 559 at 576, 618, 622, 650; Kruger v Commonwealth [1997] HCA 27; (1997) 190 CLR 1 at 85-86, 121-123, 166-167. Those against qualifying the territories power include Spratt v Hermes [1965] HCA 66; (1965) 114 CLR 226 at 250; Attorney-General (Vict); Ex rel Black v The Commonwealth [1981] HCA 2; (1981) 146 CLR 559 at 593-594; Kruger v Commonwealth [1997] HCA 27; (1997) 190 CLR 1 at 58-60, 142. There has been very little consideration of how s 116 would operate in relation to the laws of a self-governing territory such as the Australian Capital Territory: Kruger v Commonwealth [1997] HCA 27; (1997) 190 CLR 1 at 123.
312. Consistently with the integrationist trend in recent High Court authority I will proceed, for the purposes of this argument, on the assumption most favourable to the plaintiff that s 116 does qualify the power in s 122 and, as a consequence, qualifies the power granted to the arms of the Territory government under the Self-Government Act. If it did so qualify the power under s 122 the qualification on the legislative power of the Commonwealth would mean that the powers granted both to the Legislative Assembly when legislating and to the Executive when executing those laws or exercising executive power rising directly under the Self Government Act, would be interpreted as similarly qualified: Acts Interpretation Act 1901 (Cth) s 15A.
313. The plaintiff's submission is that leasing or licensing land to a religious organisation amounts to a restriction on the free exercise of religion by persons who are not adherents to that faith because of the capacity to control the entry and impose conditions upon the entry onto the land the subject of the lease.
314. The submission is therefore one of a failure to comply with the free exercise provision in s 116 as opposed to a contravention of the imposition provision or the establishment provision. The content of the free exercise provision is summarised in the decision of Rein J in Hoxton Park Residents' Action Group Inc v Liverpool City Council [2010] NSWSC 1312 at [36]- [42] (Hoxton Park). Although that decision was varied on appeal: [2011] NSWCA 363, Basten JA, with whom the other judges of the Court of Appeal agreed, did not disagree with the decision below in so far as it summarised the current law. In any event, nothing said by Basten JA, in my view, cast doubt on what Rein J said in relation to the free exercise provision.
315. The argument put by the plaintiff in this case appears to be similar to that put in Hoxton Park and on that occasion it was dealt with by Rein J (at [44]) as follows:
44 The plaintiffs' claims include the proposition that the impugned legislation has the effect that the free exercise of religion is prohibited "in that the project, when operating, will prohibit the free exercise of other religions and faiths at the said institution or facility" (emphasis added): see paragraph 37(c) of the Amended Points of Claim. Again, on the plaintiff's approach, the Greek Orthodox Church, by establishing the prayers and practices of the Greek Orthodox religion at its churches, must prohibit or preclude the free observance of the Anglican faith or the Baha'i and other faiths in Australia. Adherents of the Catholic faith would no doubt be surprised to learn that by conducting a Mass at St Mary's Cathedral, the Catholic Church thereby prohibits the free observance of Judaism in Australia. To so state the propositions inherent in the plaintiffs' case demonstrates the flaws contained within it, both as to the free exercise provision and the imposition provision, which I shall deal with further below.
316. In my view, the plaintiff's submission is without substance. The leasing by the Territory government of a single parcel of land within one of the town centres of Canberra to a religious organisation does not prohibit the free exercise of other religions. The granting of a lease gives an entitlement to exclusive possession and that carries with it the capacity to control who enters upon the land. The fact that a religious organisation associated with one faith has rights of exclusive possession in relation to real property does not prohibit the free exercise of religion by persons of other faiths or, indeed, persons of no faith. Neither the laws nor the executive action by the Territory in granting the lease to the defendant involves any prohibition on the free exercise of religion.
317. Some use was sought to be made by the plaintiff of the fact that the lease was granted at less than market rates. If the plaintiff's argument was correct it is hard to see why the value obtained by the Territory for the grant of the lease would make any difference. However the evidence established that the lease and the licence were granted pursuant to a non-discriminatory policy implemented by legislation of granting concessional leases to religious organisations and licences to community groups (Exhibits 15 and 16).
318. The facts relevant to the standing of the plaintiff are limited.
319. Mr Irwin Ross applied to incorporate the plaintiff by application dated 9 August 2012. That application identified the total number of members as five, four of which were office bearers. Based on minutes of a meeting which occurred the previous day (Exhibit 10), it appears that the fifth member was the wife of the vice-president.
320. The objects of the association identified in the application for incorporation were: "to preserve the spirit and character of Canberra and through education, public awareness and lobbying." The association adopted the model rules set out in the Associations Incorporation Regulation 1991.
321. The postal address for the association was a post office box in Mitchell. Mr Ross' address was identified as an address in Higgins, a suburb some 14 kilometres away from the proposed development. The addresses of the office bearers of the organisation were not disclosed in the application, the address of each being simply care of the post office box of the incorporated association. The other evidence in the case discloses that one of the office holders resides in Palmerston, the suburb adjacent to the Gungahlin town centre to its south-west.
322. The certificate of incorporation which was in evidence indicates that the plaintiff was incorporated on 13 August 2012. Section 20 of the Associations Incorporation Act 1991 provides that an association is taken to have been incorporated from the date stated on the certificate of incorporation, that is, 13 August 2012.
323. On 9 September 2012 at a meeting said to be of the plaintiff, one of the committee members resigned and the wife of the vice-president was appointed as treasurer. One new member was nominated and accepted as a member. There was a discussion of the need for at least two other board members and the need to recruit more ordinary members. There was also discussion of the plans for opening the association's bank account.
324. In September 2012 the plaintiff made a complaint to the Australian Press Council relating to five articles in The Canberra Times between 7 July and 17 August 2012 concerning the plaintiff and Mr Ross. There is no evidence as to the outcome of that complaint.
325. By the 10 February 2014 the plaintiff had 10 members. The application form for new members requires that "Two Current Members who personally know the proposed new member" must nominate the new member for membership.
326. By 1 March 2014, two days prior to the commencement of the hearing, the plaintiff is recorded as having 18 members. In minutes of a meeting of the plaintiff on that date the president, Mr Ross, is recorded as stressing that "we urgently need more members, especially in the Gungahlin region". On that occasion a motion was passed which is recorded as being:
For its members to confirm their previous discussions and decisions over the past 18 months to commence court proceedings (Concern Citizens of Canberra v Chief Planning Executive (Planning and Land Authority) and that we have, and will, continue to oppose the Canberra Moslem Community development at Eastern Valley Way, Gungahlin in the Australian Capital Territory, (as being contrary to the public interest and contrary to the interests of all members and supporters of Concerned Citizens of Canberra.
327. The minutes recorded various matters to do with the funding of the litigation and that the association's bank account had a total of $4019.29.
328. Also admitted into evidence subject to a ruling on relevance was a supplementary statement of Mr Ross (Ex 9) the use of which I indicated I would limit to being evidence of Mr Ross's state of mind rather than that of the plaintiff. I now admit that document on the basis that I indicated as, in my view, the state of mind of the members of an organisation may be relevant to standing. That statement expresses what are described as "Civil Concerns as to the preservation of character of Gungahlin and North Canberra". Under this heading there are a series of paragraphs identified as (a)-(o) identifying various issues. Paragraph (a) relates to matters concerning the DA, planning issues and the current use of the land. The others can be summarised as a range of matters which indicate Mr Ross's generalised hostility to the Muslim religion and concern about what he perceives to be its spread. The paragraphs include:
"With the spread of mosques/schools, the property value of the land diminishes greatly",
"Local residents are often "encouraged" or intimidated to sell their homes at lower prices."
"Halal food covers nearly every spectrum of our food consumption and the halal tax is forced upon all the major supermarket chains, e.g. Coles, Woolworths, Aldi and others, we are all our major foods are forcibly Halal certified, although not always openly labelled that way. ... There is a growing amount of businesses that have been adversely affected by the imposition of Halal certification on the Australian economy... Halal certification is a multi-million-dollar industry in Australia, with all this public money being forcibly taken from the average Aussie shopping list and being funnelled into Islamic businesses/sources. Globally, this involves billions of dollars."
"There is growing expression of violence and separation of an Australian way of life. The recent Sydney riots is an example and there are many often unreported or played down incidents of violence in Australia of an Islamic way of life, forced marriages, female genital mutilation. While these practices are not restricted to followers of Islam, the main proponents stemmed from Islamic practices."
"Another effect of the negative effect of Islam growing in our nation is that public/governmental opinion is noticeably becoming anti-Christian and pro-Islam, for example in the Defence Forces."
"It is readily seen in England, France, America and many parts of Europe and Africa a strong emergence of Sharia law that is quite separate to the existing legal frameworks of those countries. It is a fact that Sharia law emanates from many of the existing mosques around the world. Sharia law is totally opposed to western democracies and their ideals."
329. Under the heading "Spiritual Concerns of CCC Inc" the statement says "The DA and its development represent a spiritual concern and challenge to the Christian beliefs of the members of the CCC Inc". It then goes on to describe what Mr Ross considers to be the differences between Islam and the Christian and Jewish faiths. It does so in terms which do not reflect any degree of theological sophistication and would be likely to be considered rather controversial. There is no evidence about the extent to which the small number of other members of the plaintiff share the concerns expressed by Mr Ross.
(a) The plaintiff has not established any real commitment to upholding the integrity of the ACT planning system all that it is a representative of community interest or concern. Even if it had demonstrated such a commitment that would still not give it standing.
(b) The spiritual cultural values said be associate with the plaintiff are so vague as to be meaningless. In so far as they exist they would not confer standing to challenge a decision under the PD Act. The views of Mr Ross are idiosyncratic religious or quasi-religious views which have not been demonstrated to be shared by other members of the plaintiff, shared by any substantial part of the community or representative of any established belief system.
(c) The plaintiff is not a representative local residents or community group.
(d) Standing is not attracted in relation to the matter by reason of the s 116 claim. That is because there is no constitutional bypass to the standing requirement and, in any event the s 116 claim is colourable so as not to confer standing.
331. In addition to contesting these submissions, the plaintiff makes a number of additional submissions in response.
(a) The defendant is precluded from raising the issue of standing having withdrawn its notice of objection to competency which it filed shortly after the commencement of proceedings and by not clearly raising the issue of standing prior to the hearing.
(b) The plaintiff was "an eligible entity" within the meaning of the ADJR Act on 9 August 2012 when it commenced proceedings and remained so today.
(c) The plaintiff is deemed to suffer material detriment by reason of s 419(1)(b) of the PD Act.
(d) The decision of the South Australian Supreme Court in Australian Conservation Foundation v South Australia (1990) 53 SASR 349 (ACF) indicates that the plaintiff has standing.
332. Leaving aside the particular submissions of the plaintiff relating to the amendments to the definition of eligible entity and the operation of s 419 of the PD Act the submissions of the parties did not draw a distinction between the standing requirement under the ADJR Act and for the purposes of the common law. I have proceeded on the basis that in this case there is no material difference in the application of the special interest tests and the requirement that the plaintiff be a person aggrieved for the purposes of the ADJR Act.
333. When the proceedings were commenced s 5 of the ADJR Act required that the applicant be "a person aggrieved by a decision to which this Act applies". Section 3B provided that a reference to a person aggrieved by a decision included a reference to "a person whose interests are adversely affected by the decision". The basic authorities on the concept of a person aggrieved by well-known. Argos v Corbell [2013] ACTCA 51 was a case where standing turned on issues which are not relevant here. However the Court of Appeal (at [29]) summarised some general principles on standing as follows:
(a) Unless an applicant is adversely affected to an extent greater than the public generally, such party does not have standing "to sue to prevent the violation of a public right or to enforce the performance of a public duty":Australian Conservation Foundation v The Commonwealth (1980) 146 CLR 493('Australian Conservation Foundation')at 526. It follows that a person seeking judicial review must have a "special interest" in the subject matter of the proceedings.
(b) The "special interest" rule is flexible and must be determined by reference to the "nature and subject matter of the litigation": Shop Distributive and Allied Employees Association v Minister for Industrial Affairs (SA) (1995) 183 CLR 552 at 558. In the same vein, a "special interest" should be determined as "an enabling, not a restrictive, procedural stipulation": Bateman's Bay Local Aboriginal Land Council v Aboriginal Community Benefit Fund Pty Ltd [1998] HCA 49; (1998) 194 CLR 247 ('Bateman's Bay') at [50].
(c) The requirement that an applicant for judicial review be a "person aggrieved" (s 5 of the ADJR Act) should also be construed broadly: Canberra Tradesmen's Union Club Inc v Commissioner for Land and Planning (1998) 100 LGERA 276 ('Canberra Tradesmen's Union Club Inc 100 LGERA 276') at 284.
...
334. In so far as the plaintiff's asserted interest in ensuring that the planning regime established by the PD Act is applied and enforced this alone is not sufficient to constitute a "special interest". A person does not have a special interest merely because the person has a "belief, however strongly felt, that the law generally, or a particular law, should be observed": ACF at 530-531, 547-548; Onus v Alcoa [1981] HCA 50; (1981) 149 CLR 27 at 53. "An allegation of non-compliance" with the law "is not enough of itself to confer standing": North Coast Environment Council Inc v Minister for Resources [1994] FCA 1556; (1994) 55 FCR 492 at 512 (North Coast).
335. Since the decision in ACF, courts appear to have accepted that even small incorporated associations may be found to be persons aggrieved or have standing at common law in circumstances where by having regard to a number of different features of the activities and history of the organisation it can be said that the interests of the organisation extend beyond those of any other member of the public. This multifactorial approach is best illustrated by the decision in North Coast. In that case Sackville J found that a small environmental organisation which had a long track record of activity relating both to environment protection generally and to matters concerning the grant of woodchip export licences to a particular company. His Honour said (at 511-512) that while the authorities recognised that the phrase "person aggrieved" in the ADJR Act was a broad one it has never been held that,
the principles governing the award of declarations and injunctions under the general law have been superseded by different and broader conceptions under the ADJR Act.
336. The facts which His Honour considered were most important were set out in his Honour's decision at 512-513. Firstly, North Coast was the peak environmental organisation in the north coast region of New South Wales, having 44 environmental groups as members. Its activities related to the areas affected by the operations generating the woodchips that were the subject of the export licence the subject of the decision. Secondly, North Coast had been recognised by the Commonwealth since 1977 as a significant and responsible environmental organisation. This recognition has taken the form of regular financial grants for the general purposes of the organisation. While the grants have been modest, they have been recurrent and reflect acceptance by the Commonwealth of the significance of the role played by North Coast in advocating environmental values. Thirdly, North Coast has been recognised by the Government of New South Wales as a body that should represent environmental concerns on advisory committees. Fourthly, North Coast has conducted or co-ordinated projects and conferences on matters of environmental concern, for which it had received significant Commonwealth funding. While these have not specifically concerned forest management or woodchipping, they reflected North Coast's standing as a respected and responsible environmental body. Fifthly, independently of North Coast's long involvement with successive woodchip export licences, it had made submissions on forestry management issues to the Resource Assessment Commission and has funded a study on old growth forests, focusing upon the area affected by the woodchip export licence. The decision in North Coast was applied by Higgins J in Manuka Business Association v Australian Capital Territory Executive (1998) 146 FLR 464.
337. In Ogle v Strickland (1987) 13 FCR 306 a Full Court of the Federal Court dealt with the standing of an Anglican priest and a Roman Catholic priest who sought to challenge the decision of the Censorship Board relating to the importation into Australia of an allegedly blasphemous film. The Court found that they did have standing. Although the judges differed in their reasoning, they held that the interests of the priests went beyond those of other members of the Christian community whose concern would be fairly described as being intellectual or emotional. Fisher J placed emphasis on the vocational and professional calling of the applicants. Lockhart J did as well, referring to the fact that they were in hierarchical Christian churches. He also considered the position of those in Christian sects that have little or no hierarchical structure but did not need to reach any conclusion in relation to their position. Wilcox J preferred a broader approach but also in the alternative emphasised the frustration of their professional activities which, on their case the film would occasion.
338. As I understood the plaintiff's submissions it sought to establish standing both on a similar basis to that in North Coast as well as on the basis of spiritual or cultural concern similar to that in Ogle.
339. My conclusions and reasons for those conclusions can be stated relatively briefly.
(a) The plaintiff does not have standing to challenge the First Decision because it did not exist when the decision was made. The interests of the incorporated association are distinct from the interests of those persons who made up the unincorporated association for whom Mr Balzola acted when he corresponded with the Authority. There are no relation back provisions in the Associations Incorporation Act 1991 which would permit any pre-incorporation activities to be taken to be the actions of the body corporate. Unlike in relation to rights of property where there is a statutory provision vesting property held on behalf of the association or proposed association by any person in the newly incorporated association: s 23, there is no provision of the Associations Incorporation Act 1991 which deems activities undertaken by persons who subsequently become members of an incorporated association to be the actions of that incorporated association. Therefore the actions of Mr Balzola were not undertaken on behalf of the plaintiff but instead on behalf of an unincorporated association the membership of which there is no direct evidence. The First Decision was not in response to any request for an extension of time by the plaintiff. There is no evidence to show what the relationship was between the membership of the unincorporated Concerned Citizens of Canberra and the plaintiff apart from the fact that Mr Ross was the driving force behind both.
(b) Because the plaintiff did not exist at the time of the First Decision, the decision in Australian Conservation Foundation v South Australia (1990) 53 SASR 349 cannot assist it. In that case an entity with a statutory entitlement to make representations on an application for planning approval was found to have standing to challenge the development on the basis that an unlawful process had been adopted which had the effect of denying the plaintiff its statutory rights. The principle in the case can have no application in the present case because the plaintiff did not exist when the First Decision was made and hence was not denied anything.
(c) It is open to the defendant to assert that the plaintiff lacks standing. I am not satisfied with the way in which the defendant has conducted the proceedings precludes it from now raising an issue in relation to the standing of the plaintiff. The notice objection to competency which was originally filed addressed the logical problem that existed for the plaintiff that it had purported to commence proceedings prior to it coming into existence. It did not either expressly or impliedly involve a waiver of any argument in relation to standing. The defendant did not concede the standing of the plaintiff by opposing the joinder of Mr Ross before Sidis AJ. There was no evidence led of any agreement between the parties or any misconception on the part of the plaintiff about whether or not any contention in relation to standing had been waived by the defendant.
(d) The plaintiff cannot establish standing on a basis analogous to that established in North Coast. In the present case the evidence discloses that the only activities of the plaintiff have been the commencement and conduct of these proceedings, fundraising associated with that activity, and the complaint to the Press Council. Because the association did not exist until after the proceedings were commenced, it has no previous history of activities which could provide a basis for finding that when it commenced the proceedings it was a person aggrieved by the First Decision. Similarly, by the time of the Second Decision, the only activity of the plaintiff had been to commence proceedings in relation to the First Decision.
(e) In so far as the objects of the plaintiff could be deployed in support of a claim to standing they are not either alone or in combination with other factors sufficient. The objects of the organisation are those set out in its application for incorporation quoted above. They are at such a high level of generality to be unhelpful for the purposes of characterising the actual purpose and activities of the organisation. In any event even if the objects were directly related to the present proposal that would be insufficient of itself to establish standing. That is a consequence of the decision of the High Court in ACF: North Coast at 512.
(f) The plaintiff does not have standing on the basis of its spiritual or cultural values. While spiritual and cultural beliefs have been accepted by the High Court as a basis for standing, this is not a case where that authority can be applied. First, unlike in Onus or in Ogle the applicant is an incorporated association necessarily without any religious or spiritual beliefs. Second, the only evidence of religious or spiritual beliefs is the evidence in relation to Mr Ross who describes himself as a "pastor" at "Olive Tree Ministries". He has no theological training. There is no evidence about his activities as a pastor or how long he has performed that role. It is clear from Exhibit 9, some extracts of which have been quoted above, he holds views which are very much against the acceptance or tolerance of the Muslim faith. Accepting that there are authorities which accord standing to organisations not on the basis of what they have done (such as North Coast) but who they represent (see Aronson Dyer and Groves, Judicial Review of Administrative Action (Thomson Reuters, 4th ed, 2009) at [11.100]) the evidence did not establish the interests of its members except in two respects. There was evidence of Mr Ross' interests but that did not extend beyond mere intellectual or emotional concerns. There was some evidence of Mr Adair's property interests but the evidence linking any affect on those interests to the development was limited and there was nothing that would demonstrate that those interests were held in common with other members of the association.
(g) The plaintiff was not "an eligible entity" within the meaning of the ADJR Act on 9 August 2012 and is not currently an eligible entity, if that was relevant. The submission of the plaintiff relying upon the definition of eligible entity is misconceived. As at 9 August 2012 the concept of "an eligible entity" did not exist in the ADJR Act. It was only introduced well after the commencement of these proceedings by an amendment to the Act in 2013. The insertion of a new s 4A in the ADJR Act by the Administrative Decisions (Judicial Review) Amendment Act 2013 which introduced the concept of eligible would not, if it applied, alter the standing of the plaintiff in the present case. Notwithstanding the liberalisation of standing requirements in relation to most administrative decisions, the Legislative Assembly carved out from that liberalisation decisions under the PD Act and the Heritage Act 2004 in relation to which it is still a requirement that the person's interests would be adversely affected by the decision: see s 4A(2). The challenge in this case being to decisions under the PD Act, the requirement for an adverse affect on the plaintiff's interests still applies. As a consequence, it is not necessary to determine whether those amended provisions could have any application in the present case notwithstanding that the proceedings were commenced prior to their enactment.
(h) The plaintiff is not deemed for the purposes of the ADJR Act to suffer material detriment by reason of s 419(1)(b) of the PD Act. The plaintiff's submission on this point was misconceived. It appeared to be that by reason of the definition of "material detriment" in s 419 of the PD Act, the plaintiff became a person aggrieved for the purposes of the ADJR Act. How the link between these two Acts was made was not explained. The reason for the inclusion of a definition of "material detriment" in s 419 is because that term is used in Schedule 1 to the Act. Schedule 1 describes decisions which are reviewable by the ACT Civil and Administrative Tribunal. In some of these items in Schedule 1 an "eligible entity" is required to have suffered "material detriment" before it is entitled to seek merits review of the decision in the Tribunal. These provisions do not have anything to do with a claim for judicial review under the ADJR Act.
(i) The position of the plaintiff is not improved by the making of allegations of contravention of the Constitution. Standing remains a necessary requirement to raise a justiciable controversy and the plaintiff in the present case does not even have the claim that it is a taxpayer: cf Davis v Commonwealth [1986] HCA 66; (1986) 61 ALJR 32 at 35; Pape v Federal Commissioner of Taxation [2009] HCA 23; (2009) 238 CLR 1 at 34. No connection has been identified by the plaintiff between its allegations of breach of the free exercise provision of s 116 and either itself or even its members.
340. As a consequence I find that the plaintiff does not have standing to bring proceedings under the ADJR Act or for prerogative relief.
341. The plaintiff does not have standing to bring proceedings to challenge the First Decision or the Second Decision. The plaintiff's proceedings would, in any event, fail on the merits. In the light of these conclusions the orders that I will make are as follows:
I certify that the preceding three-hundred-and-forty-one [341] numbered paragraphs are a true copy of the Reasons for Judgment of his Honour Master Mossop.
Concerned Citizens of Canberra
Chief Planning Executive
(1981) 146 CLR 559
(1990) 53 SASR 349
(1992) 177 CLR 248
(1986) 61 ALJR 32
(1975) 32 LGERA 157
(1997) 190 CLR 1
(1958) 99 CLR 132
(1998) 146 FLR 464
(2010) 174 LGERA 67
(1996) 185 CLR 259
(2005) 138 LGERA 11
(1994) 55 FCR 492
(1987) 13 FCR 306
(1981) 149 CLR 27
(2009) 238 CLR 1
(1998) 194 CLR 355
(1981) 151 CLR 170
(2002) 194 ALR 749
(1965) 114 CLR 226
(1937) 56 CLR 746
(1947) 74 CLR 492
(2009) 237 CLR 309
(1986) 162 CLR 24
(1981) 38 ALR 363
(2001) 206 CLR 323
(2005) 148 FCR 446
(2003) 77 ALJR 1165
(2004) 78 ALJR 992
(2007) 161 LGERA 230
(2006) 149 LGERA 30
(1999) 197 CLR 611
(1943) 67 CLR 116
(1969) 119 CLR 564
(1980) 146 CLR 493
(1995) 183 CLR 552
(1998) 194 CLR 247
(1998) 100 LGERA 276