The legislation
11 In Bluescope Steel (AIS) Pty Ltd v Australian Workers' Union [2019] FCAFC 84; 368 ALR 643, Allsop CJ described the Superannuation Guarantee Charge Act 1992 (Cth) and the Superannuation Guarantee Administration Act 1992 (Cth) as, "pieces of legislation at the heart of the national economy, of the national arrangements for the financial welfare and financial security of Australian employees and retirees, and Australians generally." In Roy Morgan Research Pty Ltd v Commissioner of Taxation [2011] HCA 35; 244 CLR 97, the Court explained that the effect of that legislation is to supply an incentive to employers to make contributions to superannuation for their employees, which gives effect to a national policy which encourages savings for retirement. The objective is to ensure that Australians have adequate provision for their retirement and, through this, to reduce the burden on government, and thereby the community more generally, in providing social security benefits to persons who have retired from the workforce. There are other substantial components of the legislative matrix governing superannuation, including legislation providing for favourable tax treatment of monies paid into superannuation funds, and of income earned by superannuation funds. The legislative matrix includes the SIS Act and the regulations made thereunder, which contain detailed provisions relating to the regulation of superannuation funds, including the circumstances in which benefits may be paid out from funds.
12 Section 19 of the SIS Act provides for the criteria to be satisfied for a superannuation fund to be a "regulated superannuation fund" -
19 Regulated superannuation fund
Definition
(1) A regulated superannuation fund is a superannuation fund in respect of which subsections (2) to (4) have been complied with.
Fund must have a trustee
(2) The superannuation fund must have a trustee.
Trustee must be a constitutional corporation or fund must be a pension fund
(3) Either of the following must apply:
(a) the trustee of the fund must be a constitutional corporation pursuant to a requirement contained in the governing rules;
(b) the governing rules must provide that the sole or primary purpose of the fund is the provision of old-age pensions.
Election by trustee
(4) The trustee or trustees must have given to APRA, or such other body or person as is specified in the regulations, a written notice that is:
(a) in the approved form; and
(b) signed by the trustee or each trustee;
electing that this Act is to apply in relation to the fund.
Note: The approved form of written notice may require the trustee or the trustees to set out the tax file number of the fund. See subsection 299U(1).
…
13 In the present case, it is not in dispute that the SMSFs satisfy the above criteria.
14 Section 31 of the SIS Act provides for a regulation-making power to prescribe standards applicable to the operation of regulated superannuation funds.
15 Regulation 6.17 of the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Regulations 1994 (Cth) (SIS Regulations) provides for restrictions on the payment of a member's benefit from a regulated superannuation fund. Material to this case are sub-regs 6.17(1) and (2), which provide -
6.17 Restriction on payment
(1) For the purposes of subsections 31(1) and 32(1) of the Act, the standards set out in subregulations (2), (2A) and (2B) are applicable to the operation of regulated superannuation funds and approved deposit funds.
(2) A member's benefits in a fund:
(a) may be paid:
(i) by being cashed in accordance with Division 6.3; or
(ii) by being rolled over or transferred in accordance with Division 6.4, 6.5 or 6.7; or
(iii) by being allotted under Division 6.7; and
(b) must not be paid in that way except when, and to the extent that, the fund is required or permitted under this Part to pay them; and
(c) must be paid in that way when, and to the extent that, the fund is required under this Part to pay them.
16 Regulation 6.18 of the SIS Regulations provides that a member's preserved benefits in a regulated superannuation fund may be cashed on or after the satisfaction by the member of a "condition of release". Part 1 of Schedule 1 of the SIS Regulations specifies the conditions of release of benefits for regulated superannuation funds. Those conditions of release include retirement, death, a terminal medical condition, permanent incapacity, and attaining the age of 65. There are other conditions of release prescribed by Part 1, and they include "severe financial hardship" in respect of which there is a cashing restriction of a single lump sum in each 12 month period of not less than $1,000 and not more than $10,000. Sub-regulation 6.01(5)(a) provides for criteria to be satisfied in order that a person is taken to be in severe financial hardship for the purposes of Schedule 1 of the Regulations.
17 Section 68B of the SIS Act, which is the provision that the respondent contravened, provides as follows -
68B Promotion of illegal early release schemes
(1) A person must not promote a scheme that has resulted, or is likely to result, in a payment being made from a regulated superannuation fund otherwise than in accordance with payment standards prescribed under subsection 31(1).
(2) Subsection (1) is a civil penalty provision as defined by section 193, and Part 21 therefore provides for civil and criminal consequences of contravening, or being involved in a contravention of, that subsection.
(3) In this section:
promote, in relation to a scheme, includes the following:
(a) enter into the scheme;
(b) induce another person to enter into the scheme;
(c) carry out the scheme;
(d) commence to carry out the scheme;
(e) facilitate entry into, or the carrying out of, the scheme.
scheme means:
(a) any agreement, arrangement, understanding, promise or undertaking:
(i) whether express or implied; or
(ii) whether or not enforceable, or intended to be enforceable, by legal proceedings; or
(b) any scheme, plan, proposal, action, course of action or course of conduct, whether unilateral or otherwise.
18 Section 193(ca) of the SIS Act provides that sub-section 68B(1) is a civil penalty provision. Section 196 of the SIS Act provides -
196 Court may make civil penalty orders
(1) This section applies if the Court is satisfied that a person has contravened a civil penalty provision, whether or not the contravention also constitutes an offence because of section 202.
Note: Section 220 provides that a certificate by a court that the court has declared a person to have contravened a civil penalty provision is conclusive evidence of the contravention.
(2) The Court is to declare that the person has, by a specified act or omission, contravened that provision in relation to a specified superannuation entity, but need not so declare if such a declaration is already in force under Division 4.
(3) The Court may also make against the person an order that the person pay to the Commonwealth a monetary penalty of an amount specified in the order that does not exceed 2,000 penalty units.
(4) The Court is not to make an order under subsection (3) unless it is satisfied that the contravention is a serious one.
(5) The Court is not to make an order under subsection (3) if it is satisfied that an Australian court has ordered the person to pay damages in the nature of punitive damages because of the act or omission constituting the contravention.
19 The following should be noted -
(1) section 196 is engaged upon the Court's satisfaction that a person has contravened a civil penalty provision;
(2) sub-section 196(2) mandates that a declaration is to be made;
(3) the power to make an order for a monetary penalty is discretionary, but the power is not engaged unless the Court is satisfied that the contravention is a serious one; and
(4) the maximum penalty for a contravention is 2,000 penalty units.
20 As noted at [3] above, the admitted contraventions span the period between September 2016 and August 2017. Until 30 June 2017, s 4AA of the Crimes Act 1914 (Cth) provided that a penalty unit was $180. Section 4AA was amended by the Crimes Amendment (Penalty Unit) Act 2017 (Cth) with effect from 1 July 2017, by which the value of a penalty unit increased to $210, subject to indexation from 1 July 2020. The parties are agreed that it is appropriate to apply the penalty unit in force prior to 1 July 2017, and to proceed on the basis that the maximum penalty for each contravention is $360,000.
21 Under s 197 of the SIS Act only the Regulator, or a delegate of the Regulator, may make an application for a civil penalty order. The term "Regulator" is defined in the Act in s 10 as follows -
Regulator means:
(a) APRA if the provision in which it occurs is, or is being applied for the purposes of, a provision that is administered by APRA; and
(b) ASIC if the provision in which it occurs is, or is being applied for the purposes of, a provision that is administered by ASIC; and
(c) the Commissioner of Taxation if the provision in which it occurs is, or is being applied for the purposes of, a provision that is administered by the Commissioner of Taxation; and
…
22 The applicant to this proceeding falls within the definition of "Regulator" because by s 6(1)(e) of the Act the Commissioner of Taxation has the general administration of a number of provisions of the Act to the extent that they relate to self-managed superannuation, including in particular part 7 of the Act, of which s 68B forms part.
23 Section 200 of the SIS Act provides that an order for a monetary penalty may be enforced as if it were a judgment of the Court -
200 Enforcement of order to pay monetary penalty
If the Court makes under subsection 196(3) an order that a person pay a monetary penalty:
(a) the penalty is payable to the Regulator on the Commonwealth's behalf; and
(b) the Regulator or the Commonwealth may enforce the order as if it were a judgment of the Court.
24 Section 315 of the SIS Act confers power on the Court to grant injunctions. The relevant provisions of s 315 are -
315 Injunctions
Restraining injunctions
(1) If a person (the perpetrator) has engaged, is engaging or is proposing to engage, in conduct that constituted, constitutes or would constitute:
(a) a contravention of this Act, a condition imposed on an RSE licence or a direction given under this Act by APRA or the Regulator; or
(b) attempting to contravene this Act, a condition imposed on an RSE licence or a direction given under this Act by APRA or the Regulator; or
(c) aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring a person to contravene this Act, a condition imposed on an RSE licence or a direction given under this Act by APRA or the Regulator; or
(d) inducing or attempting to induce, whether by threats, promises or otherwise, a person to contravene this Act, a condition imposed on an RSE licence or a direction given under this Act by APRA or the Regulator; or
(e) being in any way, directly or indirectly, knowingly concerned in, or party to, the contravention by a person of this Act, a condition imposed on an RSE licence or a direction given under this Act by APRA or the Regulator; or
(f) conspiring with others to contravene this Act, a condition imposed on an RSE licence or a direction given under this Act by APRA or the Regulator;
the Court may grant an injunction in accordance with subsection (2).
Nature of injunction
(2) If granted, the injunction:
(a) is to restrain the perpetrator from engaging in the conduct; and
(b) if in the opinion of the Court it is desirable to do so, may also require that person to do any act or thing.
The Court may only grant the injunction on the application of the Regulator, or of a person whose interests have been, are, or would be, affected by the conduct and may grant it on such terms as the Court thinks appropriate.
…
Consent injunctions
(4) If an application for an injunction under subsection (1) or (3) has been made, the Court may, if the Court determines it to be appropriate, grant an injunction by consent of all the parties to the proceedings, whether or not the Court is satisfied that that subsection applies.
…
Restraining injunctions
(7) The power of the Court to grant an injunction restraining a person from engaging in conduct may be exercised:
(a) whether or not it appears to the Court that the person intends to engage again, or to continue to engage, in conduct of that kind; and
(b) whether or not the person has previously engaged in conduct of that kind; and
(c) whether or not there is an imminent danger of substantial damage to any person if the first-mentioned person engages in conduct of that kind.
…
25 The enforcement of judgments of the Court is the subject of s 53(1) of the Federal Court of Australia Act 1976 (Cth), which provides -
53 Enforcement of judgment
(1) Subject to the Rules of Court, a person in whose favour a judgment of the Court is given is entitled to the same remedies for enforcement of the judgment in a State or Territory, by execution or otherwise, as are allowed in like cases by the laws of that State or Territory to persons in whose favour a judgment of the Supreme Court of that State or Territory is given.
26 The above provision is to be read together with r 41.10 of the Federal Court Rules 2011 (Cth), which provides -
41.10 Execution generally
(1) A party who wants to enforce a judgment or order of the Court may apply to the Court to make an order, to issue any writ, or to take any other step that can be taken in the Supreme Court of the State or Territory in which the judgment or order has been made as if the judgment or order was a judgment or order of that Supreme Court.
(2) An order made under subrule (1) authorises the Sheriff, when executing the orders of the Court, to act in the same manner as a similar officer of the Supreme Court of the State or Territory in which the order is being executed is entitled to act.
(3) A party who wants to enforce an order in more than one State or Territory may adopt the procedures and forms of process of the Supreme Court of the State or Territory in which the judgment or order has been made.
27 In the present case, the above provisions and the question of enforcement of orders for penalties direct attention to the applicable Victorian legislation, including the enforcement procedures under the Supreme Court (General Civil Procedure) Rules 2015 (Vic), and to s 5(4) of the Limitation of Actions Act 1958 (Vic), which provides that an action shall not be brought upon any judgment after the expiration of 15 years from the date on which the judgment became enforceable.
28 Finally, it is necessary to mention the Bankruptcy Act 1966 (Cth). Under s 153(1), subject to some exceptions not presently relevant, a discharge from bankruptcy operates to release the bankrupt only from debts provable in the bankruptcy. And under s 82(3), a penalty or fine imposed by a court in respect of "an offence against a law" is not provable in bankruptcy. In Mathers v Commonwealth [2004] FCA 217; 134 FCR 135 Heerey J held that a civil penalty imposed upon a corporation under s 76 of the Trade Practices Act 1974 (Cth) was a penalty or fine imposed by a court in respect of "an offence against a law" for the purposes of s 533B (as then in force) of the Corporations Act 2001 (Cth) which was modelled on s 82(3) of the Bankruptcy Act. Heerey J reasoned that the word "offence" was not confined to a criminal offence, so that a contravention of s 46 or 47 of the Trade Practices Act attracting a civil penalty was an offence against a law. Mathers has been followed in ACCC v Chaste Corporation Pty Ltd (in liquidation) [2005] FCA 1212 at [169] (Lander J); ACCC v Nonchalant Pty Ltd (in liq) [2013] FCA 605 at [48] (Gordon J); ACCC v South East Melbourne Cleaning Pty Ltd (in liq) (No 2) [2015] FCA 257 at [11] (Murphy J); Fair Work Ombudsman v Al Hilfi [2016] FCA 193 at [49] (Besanko J); Commissioner of Taxation v International Indigenous Football Foundation Australia Pty Ltd (In Liq) [2017] FCA 538 at [9] (Logan J); and ACCC v Cornerstone Investment Aust Pty Ltd (in liq) (No 5) [2019] FCA 1544 at [31] (Gleeson J).