1Summary Offences Regulations 2016

South Australia Summary Offences Regulations 2016 under the Summary Offences Act 1953

Contents Part 1—Preliminary 1 Short title 3 Interpretation Part 2—Weapons 4 Interpretation 5 Dangerous articles 6 Prohibited weapons 7 Article presumed to be prohibited weapon 8 Unlawful selling or marketing of knives 8A Refund of application fee 9 Information relating to knife related injuries 10 Effect of weapons prohibition order 11 Evidentiary provisions 12 Prescribed weapons under Schedule 2 of Act Part 2A—Liquor offences 12A Interpretation 12B Prescribed amounts 12C Disapplication of sections 21OB and 21OC of Act—prescribed circumstances Part 3—Tattooing, body piercing and body modification 13 Interpretation 14 Evidence of age of person 15 Pre‑conditions to performing certain procedures 16 Prescribed information 17 Record keeping Part 3A—Searches of persons to prevent and detect certain offences 17A Prescribed offence (section 66ZA) 17AB Prescribed person (section 66ZA) 17B Prescribed person (section 66ZC) Part 4—Interviewing certain suspects and vulnerable witnesses 18 Interpretation 19 Interviewing suspects with complex communication needs 20 Prescribed interviewers 21 Prescribed companions 22 Prescribed communication assistants and communication devices 23 Interviewing vulnerable witnesses 24 Access to audio visual record for training and assessment Part 5—Intimate search records Division 1—Interpretation 25 Interpretation Division 2—Register books 26 Obligation to keep register book 27 Initial entry in register book 28 Signing of register book etc 29 Inspection of register book by Commissioner Division 3—Storage, movement and destruction of intimate search records 30 Storage of intimate search records 31 Removal from storage and return of intimate search records 32 Copies of intimate search records 33 Destruction of intimate search records and copies Part 5A—Custody Notification Service 33A Interpretation 33B Application of Part 33C ALRM to be notified of detention of Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander persons Part 6—Miscellaneous 34 Declaration of vehicle immobilisation devices 35 Prescribed serious criminal offences 36 Prescribed form of written record of telephone application 37 Prescribed form of warrant (section 83C) Schedule 1—Register form Schedule 2—Forms Schedule 3—Savings and transitional provisions (Schedule 1 clause 76 of Independent Commissioner Against Corruption (CPIPC Recommendations) Amendment Act 2021) 1 Application of Act to continuing complaints etc Legislative history

Part 1—Preliminary 1—Short title These regulations may be cited as the Summary Offences Regulations 2016. 3—Interpretation In these regulations— Act means the Summary Offences Act 1953. Part 2—Weapons 4—Interpretation In this Part, unless the contrary intention appears— catapult includes a shanghai and a slingshot; designed includes adapted. 5—Dangerous articles Each of the following is declared to be a dangerous article for the purposes of Part 3A of the Act: (a) anti‑theft case—a case, satchel or similar article designed to administer an electric shock to a person who handles or interferes with the case, satchel or article or its contents; (b) blow‑gun—a blow‑pipe or similar device or instrument designed to propel an arrow, dart or similar projectile by air expelled from the mouth; (c) dart projector—a device (for example, a Darchery Dart Slinger) designed to propel a dart by means of elastic material; (d) gas injector device—a device (for example, a Farallon Shark Dart or a WASP Injector Knife) designed to kill or injure an animal by injecting a gas or other substance into the body of the animal; (e) plain catapult—a catapult made for commercial distribution, other than a brace catapult as described in regulation 6(c); (f) self‑protecting spray—a device or instrument designed to temporarily or permanently immobilise, incapacitate or injure a person by the emission or discharge of an offensive, noxious or irritant liquid, powder, gas or chemical; (g) self‑protection device—a hand held device or instrument designed to temporarily or permanently immobilise, incapacitate or injure a person by the emission or discharge of an electric current, sound waves or electromagnetic energy. 6—Prohibited weapons Each of the following is declared to be a prohibited weapon for the purposes of Part 3A of the Act: (a) ballistic knife—a device or instrument (other than a dart projector) designed to fire or discharge a knife, dagger or similar instrument by mechanical, percussive or explosive means; (b) bayonet—a stabbing weapon designed to be attached to or at the muzzle of a rifle; (c) brace catapult—a catapult (for example, a Saunders Falcon Hunting Sling) that includes or is designed to be used with a brace fitted or resting on the forearm or another part of the body in order to support the forearm or wrist when the catapult is activated; (d) butterfly knife—a knife comprised of a blade or spike and a handle, in respect of which— (i) the handle is in 2 sections that fold so as to wholly or partially cover the blade or spike when the knife is not in use; and (ii) the blade or spike can be exposed by gravity or centrifugal force; (e) chloroacetophenone—chloroacetophenone (known as CN) in all its forms; (f) concealed weapon—an article that appears to be harmless but that conceals a knife, spike or other weapon; (g) cross‑bow—a cross‑bow, other than a pistol cross‑bow as described in paragraph (u); (h) dagger—a sharp, pointed stabbing weapon (other than a bayonet or sword), ordinarily capable of being concealed on the person and having— (i) a flat blade with cutting edges on both sides; or (ii) a needle‑like blade that has a round or elliptical cross section or that has 3 or more sides; (i) dirk or sgian dhu—a ceremonial weapon associated with traditional Scottish culture; (j) dypenylaminechloroarsone—dypenylaminechloroarsone (known as DM or adamsite) in all its forms; (k) extendable baton—a baton designed for use as a weapon that can be extended in length by gravity or centrifugal force or by a release button or other device; (l) fighting knife—a knife (other than a bayonet or sword) designed for hand to hand fighting, for example, a butterfly knife, dagger, flick‑knife, push knife or trench knife; (m) flick‑knife—a knife in respect of which— (i) the blade is concealed when folded or recessed into the handle and springs or is released into the extended position by the operation of a button or other device on the handle; or (ii) the blade is wholly or partially concealed by a sheath that can be withdrawn into the handle of the knife by gravity, centrifugal force or by the operation of a button or other device; (n) hand or foot claw—an article designed as a weapon consisting of prongs or other projections worn on the hands or feet (for example, the martial arts weapons known as ninja hand claws, ninja foot claws or ninja claws); (o) knife belt—a belt or similar article (for example, a Bowen Knife Belt) designed to hold a knife, dagger or similar instrument so that the presence of the knife, dagger or instrument is concealed or disguised when the belt or article is worn; (p) knuckle duster—a device or instrument designed to be worn across the knuckles of a hand so as to— (i) increase the force or impact of a punch or blow when striking another with the hand; or (ii) protect the knuckles from injury, including a weighted or studded glove, but not including a boxing glove; (q) laser pointer—a hand held device, commonly known as a laser pointer, designed to emit a laser beam with an accessible emission level of greater than 1 milliwatt; (qa) machete—a large knife designed or adapted for use as an agricultural slashing tool or weapon; (r) morning star—an article designed as a weapon consisting of a weight (whether or not with spikes or blades) attached to a chain, rope or a length of other flexible material; (s) nunchakus—a device comprised of 2 or more bars joined by a chain, rope or other flexible material so that the bars can swing independently of each other; (t) orthochlorobenzalmalononitrile—orthochlorobenzalmalononitrile (known as CS) in all its forms; (u) pistol cross‑bow—a cross‑bow designed for aiming and discharging an arrow, dart, bolt or similar projectile when held in one hand; (v) poniard—a ceremonial weapon associated with the traditions of a prescribed masonic organisation; (w) push knife—a knife (for example, an Urban Pal Knife) comprised of a blade or spike with a transverse handle that is designed— (i) to be held between the fingers or the forefinger and thumb with the handle supported by the palm of the hand; and (ii) to inflict injury by a punching or pushing movement; (x) star knife—a device comprised of a number of points, blades or spikes pointing outwardly from a central axis and designed to spin around that axis, and capable of causing serious injury, when thrown; (xa) sword—a thing designed or adapted for use as a weapon with a long blade and a hilt or handle, or which is intended to be used with a hilt or handle, which has a sharp point or a cutting edge on one or more sides; (y) throwing knife—a knife that is designed to cause serious injury when thrown; (z) trench knife—a knife comprised of a blade or spike attached to one end of a handle that is designed to be held in the closed fist with the fingers through the handle which serves as a knuckle duster; (za) undetectable knife—a knife that— (i) is made wholly or partly of a material that prevents the knife from being detected, or being detected as a knife, by either a metal detector or by a method using X‑rays; and (ii) is capable of causing serious injury or death. 7—Article presumed to be prohibited weapon If an article could, but for this regulation, be declared by these regulations to be both a dangerous article and a prohibited weapon, it will be taken, unless the contrary intention appears, to be declared to be a prohibited weapon and not a dangerous article. 8—Unlawful selling or marketing of knives (1) Section 21D(1) of the Act does not apply to— (a) a razor blade permanently enclosed in a cartridge; or (b) a plastic or wooden knife used for, and intended to be disposed of after, eating; or (c) a butter knife, table knife or other knife of a kind typically sold in a cutlery set (whether or not the knife is actually sold in such a set), that does not have a sharp point. (2) For the purposes of section 21D(2)(a) of the Act, the following kinds of identification are prescribed: (a) a current photographic driver's licence issued under the Motor Vehicles Act 1959 or under a corresponding law of another State or a Territory; (b) a current photographic student identification card issued by an Australian education institution that shows the age of the person; (c) a current photographic Proof of Age card issued by the Registrar of Motor Vehicles or by a corresponding public authority of the Commonwealth or another State or a Territory; (d) a current passport issued by the Commonwealth or under the law of another country, bearing a photograph of the person and enabling the age of the person to be determined; (e) a current photographic Keypass identification card issued by Alfa Omega Nominees Pty Ltd, trading as Commonwealth Key and Property Register. (3) Section 21D(4) of the Act does not apply to a knife marketed solely to the defence forces of Australia or the naval, military or air force of some other country. 8A—Refund of application fee The Minister may refund the whole or part of the prescribed fee for an application to the Minister for an exempt person declaration under section 21F(5)(b) of the Act if— (a) in the Minister's opinion, the weapon concerned is not a prohibited weapon; or (b) in the Minister's opinion, the applicant falls within a category of exempt person in Schedule 2 of the Act; or (c) the application is refused. 9—Information relating to knife related injuries SA Police (within the meaning of the Police Act 1998) is a prescribed body for the purposes of section 21G(1) of the Act. 10—Effect of weapons prohibition order For the purposes of section 21I of the Act, a person must notify the Commissioner of the presence of a prohibited weapon on premises at which the person resides in the following manner: (a) by reporting the fact in person to a police officer on duty at a police station; (b) by describing to the police officer the circumstances of the presence of the prohibited weapon on the premises. 11—Evidentiary provisions For the purposes of section 21O(d) of the Act, in any proceedings under the Act, a document produced by the prosecution purporting to be signed by the Commissioner and purporting to certify— (a) that at a specified time, a specified person was or was not the subject of an approval under section 21B(1) of the Act and the conditions or limitations to which that approval was subject; or (b) that at a specified time, a specified person was or was not declared to be exempt from section 21F(1) of the Act in specified circumstances; or (c) that at a specified time, a weapons prohibition order applied to or did not apply to, or was or was not in force against, a specified person; or (d) that at a specified time, a specified laser pointer was tested and shown by the test to be capable of emitting a laser beam with an accessible emission level greater than 1 milliwatt, constitutes, in the absence of proof to the contrary, proof of the matters so certified. 12—Prescribed weapons under Schedule 2 of Act The following weapons are prescribed for the purposes of provisions of Schedule 2 of the Act as follows: (a) an extendable baton that can only be extended by means of gravity or centrifugal force is prescribed for the purposes of clause 19 of Schedule 2 of the Act; (b) a dirk or sgian dhu (also known as a "skean dhu") is prescribed for the purposes of clause 20 of Schedule 2 of the Act; (c) a dirk is prescribed for the purposes of clause 20(c)(ii) of Schedule 2 of the Act; (d) a poniard is prescribed for the purposes of clause 21 of Schedule 2 of the Act; (e) a laser pointer is prescribed for the purposes of clause 22 of Schedule 2 of the Act; (f) an undetectable knife is prescribed for the purposes of clause 23 of Schedule 2 of the Act. Part 2A—Liquor offences 12A—Interpretation In this Part— beer, liquor, spirits and wine have the same respective meanings as they have in the Liquor Licensing Act 1997; pre-mixed alcoholic beverage means a pre‑mixed beverage that contains liquor and another beverage that is not liquor. 12B—Prescribed amounts For the purposes of sections 21OB(6) and 21OC(2) of the Act, the prescribed amount of liquor is— (a) 750 millilitres of spirits; or (b) 4 litres of wine; or (c) 9 litres of beer; or (d) 4.5 litres of pre‑mixed alcoholic beverage. 12C—Disapplication of sections 21OB and 21OC of Act—prescribed circumstances (1) Pursuant to section 21OF(a) of the Act, section 21OB(1) of the Act does not apply to a person who— (a) has possession of liquor for the purpose of sale; or (b) transports liquor for the purpose of sale; or (c) transports liquor, for the purpose of sale, to a place other than a place at or on which liquor may lawfully be sold, in circumstances where that possession or transportation (as the case requires) is prohibited under another Act or law. (2) Pursuant to section 21OF(a) of the Act, section 21OC(1) of the Act does not apply to a person who— (a) supplies liquor; or (b) transports liquor with the intention to supply any of it, or believing that another person intends to supply any of it; or (c) possesses liquor intending to supply any of it, to a third person in a prescribed area in circumstances where that supply, transportation or possession is prohibited under another Act or law. Part 3—Tattooing, body piercing and body modification 13—Interpretation In this Part— customer, in relation to a service provider, means a person on whom the service provider is to carry out a body piercing or body modification procedure; service provider means a person who (or on whose behalf another person) is to perform a body piercing or body modification procedure on a third person. 14—Evidence of age of person For the purposes of sections 21R(4)(a)(i) and 21T(2)(a) of the Act, the following kinds of evidence of a person's age may be produced to a service provider: (a) a current photographic driver's licence issued under the Motor Vehicles Act 1959 or under a corresponding law of another State or a Territory; (b) a current photographic student identification card issued by an Australian education institution that shows the age of the person; (c) a current photographic Proof of Age card issued by the Registrar of Motor Vehicles or by a corresponding public authority of the Commonwealth or another State or a Territory; (d) a current passport issued by the Commonwealth or under the law of another country, bearing a photograph of the person and enabling the age of the person to be determined; (e) a current photographic Keypass identification card issued by Alfa Omega Nominees Pty Ltd, trading as Commonwealth Key and Property Register. 15—Pre‑conditions to performing certain procedures (1) For the purposes of section 21S(1)(a) of the Act, the following prescribed information must be included in the written agreement entered into between the service provider and the customer: (a) the name, address and phone number of the business where the procedure is to be performed; (b) the name of the person who will perform the procedure; (c) the name and address of the customer; (d) a description of the nature of the procedure to be performed on the customer and the manner in which it is to be carried out; (e) if more than 1 session will be required for the purpose of completing the procedure, an estimation of the number of such sessions required; (f) if the procedure includes a body piercing— (i) a detailed description of the type of jewellery that will be used in the piercing; and (ii) a description of the precise part of the body on which the procedure is to be performed. (2) For the purposes of section 21S(1)(b)(ii) of the Act, the consent form for a customer who is less than 16 years of age on whom a body piercing is to be performed must include the following information: (a) the name and address of the customer; (b) the date of birth of the customer; (c) the name, address and phone number of the customer's guardian; (d) the name, address and phone number of the business where the procedure is to be performed; (e) a detailed description of the body piercing to be performed on the customer. (3) The consent form must be— (a) signed and dated by the customer's guardian; and (b) verified by statutory declaration. Maximum penalty: $2 500. Expiation fee: $210. (4) For the purposes of paragraph (b) of the definition of prescribed information in section 21S(4) of the Act, information about the possible risks associated with body piercing or body modification is prescribed. 16—Prescribed information (1) For the purposes of section 21U of the Act, the following information is prescribed: (a) that it is an offence to perform an intimate body piercing or body modification procedure on a person under the age of 18 years; (b) that the penalty for an offence referred to in paragraph (a) is a fine of $5 000 or imprisonment for 12 months; (c) that it is an offence to perform any other body piercing on a minor under the age of 16 years without first obtaining the consent of the minor's guardian— (i) in person; or (ii) in writing in the prescribed form and verified by statutory declaration; (d) that the penalty for an offence referred to in paragraph (c) is a fine of $5 000 or imprisonment for 12 months; (e) that it is an offence to sell body modification equipment to a person under the age of 18 years; (f) that the penalty for an offence referred to in paragraph (e) is a fine of $2 500; (g) that proof of age may be required— (i) before a body piercing or body modification procedure may be performed; or (ii) before body modification equipment may be purchased. (2) The prescribed information must be printed on a notice in any readily legible font no smaller than 12 points and displayed in a prominent place at the premises at which the procedures are offered. 17—Record keeping For the purposes of section 21V(1), a service provider must keep the following records: (a) a written agreement entered into with a customer under section 21S(1)(a) of the Act; (b) the written consent of a customer's guardian and the statutory declaration verifying the consent under section 21S(1)(b)(ii) of the Act; (c) evidence of a person's age produced to the service provider. Part 3A—Searches of persons to prevent and detect certain offences 17A—Prescribed offence (section 66ZA) (1) For the purposes of section 66ZA(1)(a) of the Act, the following offences are prescribed: (a) an offence of violence; (b) an offence relating to the carriage of a weapon. (2) In this regulation— offence of violence means an offence against one of the following provisions of the Criminal Law Consolidation Act 1935: (a) section 11; (b) section 12A; (c) section 13; (d) section 20(4); (e) section 20AA; (f) section 20A (only where aggravated by the use of a weapon pursuant to section 5AA(1)(b) of the Criminal Law Consolidation Act 1935); (g) section 23; (h) section 24; (i) section 29; (j) section 29A; (k) section 31; (l) section 32; (m) section 32AA; (n) section 83B (only where aggravated by the use of a weapon pursuant to section 5AA(1)(b) of the Criminal Law Consolidation Act 1935); (o) section 83C (only where aggravated by the use of a weapon pursuant to section 5AA(1)(b) of the Criminal Law Consolidation Act 1935); (p) section 137 (only where aggravated by the use of a weapon pursuant to section 5AA(1)(b) of the Criminal Law Consolidation Act 1935); (q) section 170 (only where aggravated by the use of a weapon pursuant to section 5AA(1)(b) of the Criminal Law Consolidation Act 1935); (r) section 170A (only where aggravated by the use of a weapon pursuant to section 5AA(1)(b) of the Criminal Law Consolidation Act 1935); offence relating to the carriage of a weapon means an offence against a provision of Part 3A of the Summary Offences Act 1953 other than section 21B or 21D. 17AB—Prescribed person (section 66ZA) (1) For the purposes of section 66ZA(1)(c) of the Act, persons who are participants in street gangs are a prescribed class of person. (2) In this regulation— participant, in a street gang, has the same meaning as in Part 3BA of the Criminal Law Consolidation Act 1935; street gang has the same meaning as in Part 3BA of the Criminal Law Consolidation Act 1935. 17B—Prescribed person (section 66ZC) (1) For the purposes of the definition of prescribed person in section 66ZC(4) of the Act, the following persons are prescribed: (a) if the Commissioner has determined a person to be a prescribed person in relation to a declared shopping precinct, declared public transport hub, declared public transport service or declared place of worship—that person; plus (b) — (i) for a declared shopping precinct— (A) in the case of a shopping mall or other area where retail shops are concentrated on council‑owned land, where there is no owner or manager of the precinct—the Chief Executive Officer of the relevant council; or (B) in any other case—the owner or manager of the shopping precinct; (ii) for a declared public transport hub— (A) in the case of a public transport hub operated by the Transport Department—that Department; or (B) in the case of a public transport hub on or adjacent to a shopping precinct—the owner or manager of the shopping precinct and the Transport Department; or (C) in any other case—the owner or manager of the public transport hub and the Transport Department; (iii) for a declared public transport service—the Chief Executive (or equivalent) of the operator of the service; (iv) for a declared place of worship—the person responsible for the day to day management or operation of the place of worship. (2) In this regulation— Transport Department means the Department responsible for the administration of the Passenger Transport Act 1994. Part 4—Interviewing certain suspects and vulnerable witnesses 18—Interpretation (1) In this Part— intoxication means a temporary disorder, abnormality or impairment of the mind that results from the consumption or administration of intoxicants and will pass on metabolism or elimination of intoxicants from the body; prescribed communication assistant—see regulation 22(1); prescribed communication device—see regulation 22(2); prescribed companion—see regulation 21; prescribed interviewer—see regulation 20; suspect has the same meaning as in section 74D of the Act; vulnerable witness means a witness to whom Part 17 Division 3 of the Act applies. (2) For the purposes of this Part, a person who is to be interviewed may be taken to have complex communication needs if the person has significant difficulty in communicating effectively with the interviewer, whether the communication difficulty is temporary or permanent and whether caused by disability, illness or injury, but not by intoxication. 19—Interviewing suspects with complex communication needs (1) If an investigating officer proposes to interview a suspect whom the officer believes may have complex communication needs, the officer must, in addition to the requirements of section 74D of the Act, make the following arrangements as may be relevant: (a) arrangements for the suspect to be accompanied during the interview by a person who is a prescribed communication assistant; (b) arrangements for the suspect to use, or be provided with, a prescribed communication device for the purposes of the interview. (2) Despite subregulation (1)(a), if the investigating officer is satisfied that— (a) it is not reasonably practicable in the circumstances to make arrangements for the suspect to be accompanied by a prescribed communication assistant (whether because no suitable prescribed communication assistant is available or for some other reason); and (b) the circumstances do not warrant postponing the interview until such arrangements can be made, the interviewer may proceed with the interview without a prescribed communication assistant being present. (3) Despite subregulation (1)(b), if the investigating officer is satisfied that— (a) it is not reasonably practicable in the circumstances to make arrangements for the suspect to be provided with a prescribed communication device (whether because no suitable prescribed communication device is available or for some other reason); and (b) the circumstances do not warrant postponing the interview until such arrangements can be made, the interviewer may proceed with the interview without the use of a prescribed communication device. (4) For the purposes of section 74D of the Act— (a) the following information must be included in a record of an interview: (i) the date on which the record was made; (ii) the identity of all persons who were present at any time during the interview; (iii) details of any breaks in the interview, including the time the break commenced and concluded and (so far as is practicable) the reason for the break; and (b) if an audio visual record of an interview is made and the suspect— (i) is accompanied during the interview by a prescribed communication assistant; or (ii) is provided with a prescribed communication device for the purposes of the interview, the suspect, the communication assistant and the communication device (as the case may be) must be visible at all times in the recording. 20—Prescribed interviewers (1) For the purposes of section 74EB(b) of the Act, a prescribed interviewer is— (a) a police officer or public sector employee, or a police officer or public sector employee of a class, authorised by the Commissioner or the Minister by written notice to conduct interviews with vulnerable witnesses; or (b) a person, or a person of a class, authorised under a law of the Commonwealth or of another State or a Territory to conduct interviews with vulnerable witnesses; or (c) a person who has successfully completed a training course in conducting interviews with vulnerable witnesses— (i) approved by the Commissioner; or (ii) approved by the Minister. (2) In this regulation— Minister means the Minister for Health; public sector employee has the same meaning as in the Public Sector Act 2009. 21—Prescribed companions For the purposes of providing emotional support to a vulnerable witness while the witness is being interviewed, a person, or a person of any of the following classes, is prescribed: (a) a parent, guardian, spouse, domestic partner or any other relative of the witness; (b) a friend or carer of the witness; (c) any other person approved for the purposes of the interview with the witness by the prescribed interviewer who is to conduct the interview; (d) a person of a class approved by the Commissioner for the purposes of this regulation. 22—Prescribed communication assistants and communication devices (1) The following persons are prescribed as communication assistants for the purposes of providing communication assistance to a suspect or vulnerable witness while the suspect or witness is being interviewed by an investigating officer or prescribed interviewer: (a) a communication partner (within the meaning of section 4 of the Evidence Act 1929); (b) any other person approved for the purposes of the interview with the suspect or witness by the investigating officer or prescribed interviewer who is to conduct the interview. (2) The following communication devices are prescribed for the purposes of providing communication assistance to a suspect or vulnerable witness while the suspect or witness is being interviewed: (a) text, symbol or picture boards; (b) speak‑and‑spell communication devices; (c) voice output communication devices; (d) tablets, laptops or other computers or devices equipped with software designed to assist persons with complex communication needs to communicate more readily; (e) any other device, whether electronic or not, as may be approved for the purposes of the interview by the investigating officer or prescribed interviewer who is to conduct the interview. 23—Interviewing vulnerable witnesses (1) For the purposes of section 74EB(a) of the Act— (a) the following information must be included in an audio visual recording of an interview with a vulnerable witness: (i) the date on which the recording was made; (ii) the identity of all persons who were present at any time during the interview; (iii) details of any breaks in the interview, including the time the break commenced and concluded and (so far as is practicable) the reason for the break; and (b) if the vulnerable witness is accompanied during the interview by— (i) a prescribed companion; or (ii) a prescribed communication assistant, the witness, the companion and the communication assistant (as the case may be) must be visible at all times in the recording; and (c) if the vulnerable witness is provided with a prescribed communication device for the purpose of providing communication assistance during the interview, the witness and the communication device must be visible at all times in the recording. (2) A prescribed interviewer who proposes to interview a vulnerable witness whom the interviewer believes may have complex communication needs must make the following arrangements as may be relevant: (a) arrangements for the witness to be accompanied during the interview by a person who is a prescribed communication assistant; (b) arrangements for the witness to use, or be provided with, a prescribed communication device for the purposes of the interview. (3) Despite subregulation (2)(a), if the prescribed interviewer is satisfied that— (a) it is not reasonably practicable in the circumstances to make arrangements for the vulnerable witness to be accompanied by a prescribed communication assistant (whether because no suitable prescribed communication assistant is available or for some other reason); and (b) the circumstances do not warrant postponing the interview until such arrangements can be made, the interviewer may proceed with the interview without a prescribed communication assistant being present and the interview will, for the purposes of Part 17 Division 3 of the Act, be taken to have met the prescribed requirements. (4) Despite subregulation (2)(b), if the prescribed interviewer is satisfied that— (a) it is not reasonably practicable in the circumstances to make arrangements for the vulnerable witness to be provided with a prescribed communication device (whether because no suitable prescribed communication device is available or for some other reason); and (b) the circumstances do not warrant postponing the interview until such arrangements can be made, the interviewer may proceed with the interview without the use of a prescribed communication device and the interview will, for the purposes of Part 17 Division 3 of the Act, be taken to have met the prescribed requirements. (5) A prescribed interviewer who proposes to interview a vulnerable witness whom the interviewer believes should be provided with emotional or other support during the interview must, if the witness wishes to be accompanied by a person who is a prescribed companion, make arrangements for the witness to be so accompanied during the interview. (6) Despite subregulation (5), if the prescribed interviewer is satisfied that— (a) it is not reasonably practicable in the circumstances to make arrangements for the vulnerable witness to be accompanied by a prescribed companion (whether because no suitable prescribed companion is available or for some other reason); and (b) the circumstances do not warrant postponing the interview until such arrangements can be made, the interviewer may proceed with the interview without a prescribed companion being present and the interview will, for the purposes of Part 17 Division 3 of the Act, be taken to have met the prescribed requirements. (7) For the purposes of section 74EB(c), the manner in which an interview with a vulnerable witness is conducted will meet the prescribed requirements if— (a) so far as is practicable, any statement made by the vulnerable witness is not elicited by the use of leading questions; and (b) the vulnerable witness appears to understand that he or she must tell the truth; and (c) the interview is conducted in accordance with this regulation. 24—Access to audio visual record for training and assessment An audio visual record of an interview made under Part 17 of the Act, and any transcript or extract from a transcript of such an interview, may be accessed and used (in addition to its use for admission as evidence under section 74E or 74EC of the Act) for the purposes of reviewing, assessing and evaluating the conduct of interviews in order to— (a) provide training for interviewers; and (b) to make improvements to the conduct of interviews generally under that Part. Part 5—Intimate search records Division 1—Interpretation 25—Interpretation In this Part— intimate search record means any videotape recording, or a written record of an intimate search, made under section 81 of the Act; register book means the register book required to be kept at a police station by these regulations. Division 2—Register books 26—Obligation to keep register book (1) The police officer in charge of a police station must maintain and keep at the station a register book in which the details relating to intimate search records must be entered legibly as required by these regulations, using the form in Schedule 1. (2) The officer must comply with any directions of the Commissioner as to the form in which the register book is to be kept. 27—Initial entry in register book The police officer in charge of a police station at which an intimate search record is made must, as soon as practicable after the record is made, ensure that— (a) the details required by Part A of the form in Schedule 1 are entered in the register book; and (b) the record is clearly marked with a unique identifier enabling it to be linked with that entry in the register book. 28—Signing of register book etc A person who enters details in the register book must comply with the requirements of the form set out in Schedule 1 as to the signing of the register book and the obtaining of signed receipts. 29—Inspection of register book by Commissioner (1) The police officer in charge of a police station must ensure that the register book kept at the station is available for inspection at any time by the Commissioner or by a police officer authorised by the Commissioner to inspect register books. (2) The Commissioner must cause all register books to be inspected regularly and at least twice yearly for the purposes of ascertaining— (a) whether these regulations are being complied with; and (b) whether any intimate search records should be destroyed. Division 3—Storage, movement and destruction of intimate search records 30—Storage of intimate search records The police officer in charge of a police station at which an intimate search record is made must ensure that at all times, except while it is being used in connection with a purpose authorised by the Act or these regulations, the record is stored in a secure place at the police station so as to prevent unauthorised access. 31—Removal from storage and return of intimate search records (1) Subject to subregulation (2), a person must not remove an intimate search record from storage. (2) The police officer in charge of the police station at which an intimate search record is stored may remove an intimate search record from storage only— (a) if the officer requires the record for the purposes of these regulations or section 81(3c), (3d), (3e) or (3f) of the Act; (b) if another person has requested access to the record and the officer reasonably believes that the person requires the record for a purpose referred to in paragraph (a). (3) As soon as practicable after removing the record from storage, the officer in charge must enter in the register book the details required by Part B of the form in Schedule 1, including, except where the purpose of removal is destruction of the record, the estimated date of return of the record. (4) As soon as practicable after the record is returned, the officer in charge must ensure that the details required by Part C of the form in Schedule 1 are entered in the register book. (5) If an intimate search record is not returned by the estimated date of return— (a) the officer in charge must ask the person to whom the record was given to give an undertaking to return the record either immediately or on a reviewed estimated date of return; and (b) the officer in charge must ensure that the details required by Part D of the form in Schedule 1 are entered in the register book. (6) If the record is not returned within the time specified in an undertaking given under subregulation (5), the officer in charge must notify the Commissioner of that fact in writing. 32—Copies of intimate search records (1) Subject to subregulation (2), a person (other than the detainee) must not make a copy of an intimate search record. (2) A police officer in charge of a police station at which an intimate search record is stored, or another person with the approval of that officer, may make a copy of the record— (a) on request by the detainee; or (b) as may be required for purposes related to the investigation of an offence or alleged misconduct or for the purposes of, or purposes related to, legal proceedings, or proposed legal proceedings, to which the record is relevant. (3) The officer in charge must ensure that— (a) as soon as practicable after the copy is made— (i) the details of the making of the copy required by Part E of the form in Schedule 1 are entered in the register book; and (ii) the copy is clearly marked with a unique identifier enabling it to be linked with that entry in the register book; and (b) the copy— (i) is stored in a secure place at the police station so as to prevent unauthorised access; and (ii) is not removed from storage except by the officer in charge for the purpose of providing the copy to the person on whose request the copy was made. (4) As soon as practicable after a copy of an intimate search record is lawfully removed from storage or is given to the detainee, the officer in charge must ensure that the details required by Part F of the form in Schedule 1 are entered in the register book, including, except where the purpose of removal is destruction of the copy, the estimated date of return of the copy. (5) As soon as practicable after a copy of an intimate search record is returned to the police station, the officer in charge must ensure that the details required by Part G of the form in Schedule 1 are entered in the register book. (6) If a copy of an intimate search record is not returned by the estimated date of return— (a) the officer in charge must ask the person to whom the copy was given to give an undertaking to return the copy either immediately or on a reviewed estimated date of return; and (b) the officer in charge must ensure that the details required by Part H of the form in Schedule 1 are entered in the register book. (7) If the copy is not returned within the time specified in an undertaking given under subregulation (6), the officer in charge must notify the Commissioner of that fact in writing. 33—Destruction of intimate search records and copies (1) An intimate search record and any copy of such a record may only be destroyed— (a) by the police officer in charge of the police station at which the record is required to be kept; or (b) by some other person with the approval of that officer. (2) If an intimate search record is lawfully destroyed, any copies of the record (other than a copy provided to the detainee) must also be destroyed. (3) If an intimate search record is to be destroyed but the record or any copies of the record are not at the police station at which they are required to be kept, the Commissioner must direct the immediate return of the record or copies to that station. (4) If a record or a copy of a record is not returned as required by a direction given under subregulation (3), the officer in charge must notify the Commissioner of that fact in writing. (5) The officer in charge responsible for the destruction of an intimate search record and any copies must, as soon as practicable after the destruction, ensure that the details required by Part I of the form in Schedule 1 are entered in the register book. (6) An intimate search record consisting of a videotape recording will be regarded as having been destroyed if all material recorded on the videotape has been erased. Part 5A—Custody Notification Service 33A—Interpretation In this Part— ALRM means the Aboriginal Legal Rights Movement Ltd; ALRM representative means a person employed or engaged by ALRM; custodial police station has the same meaning as in section 78 of the Act; designated police facility has the same meaning as in section 78 of the Act; police facility means a custodial police station or designated police facility; responsible officer, in respect of a person detained at a police facility in police custody, means the police officer who is for the time being responsible for the custodial management of that person. 33B—Application of Part This Part is in addition to, and does not derogate from, a provision of this Act, or of any other Act or law, relating to the arrest or detention of Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander persons. 33C—ALRM to be notified of detention of Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander persons (1) The responsible officer in respect of a person (including, to avoid doubt, a child) detained at a police facility in police custody must, as soon as is reasonably practicable after the person is detained at the facility— (a) ask the person whether they are an Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander person; and (b) if the person identifies themself as, or appears to the responsible officer to be, an Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander person— (i) inform the person that ALRM will be notified of the person's detention at the police facility; and (ii) notify ALRM of the detention of the person in accordance with this regulation. (1a) The responsible officer must notify ALRM of the detention of the person— (a) by attempting to contact ALRM by telephone; and (b) if the telephone call is unanswered—by email to a dedicated email address provided by ALRM for that purpose (being an email address that ALRM has undertaken to monitor). (2) Without limiting the information that may be given to ALRM under this regulation, the responsible officer must ensure that ALRM is given— (a) the name of the Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander person (if known); and (b) details of the police facility where the Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander person is being detained; and (c) the name and contact details of the responsible officer. (3) A responsible officer must, at the request of an ALRM representative, allow the ALRM representative to speak by telephone to, or visit, (or both) the Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander person for a reasonable period. (4) The responsible officer must, as soon as is reasonably practicable after an ALRM representative has spoken to or visited an Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander person, be available to be contacted by the ALRM representative to discuss— (a) any concerns held by the ALRM representative regarding the welfare of the person (including any need the person may have for medical attention); and (b) whether the person needs the services of an interpreter, or the presence of a support person, when being interviewed in relation to an offence or in applying for bail. (5) The responsible officer must ensure that a record is made of— (a) a person being asked and informed (as the case requires) of the matters referred to in subregulation (1); and (b) ALRM being notified under subregulation (1a); and (c) any other occasion when there is contact between the responsible officer, or another police officer, and ALRM or an ALRM representative in respect of the Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander person, including details of any matters discussed during that contact. (6) A responsible officer who, without reasonable excuse, refuses or fails to comply with a requirement under this Part may be dealt with under the Police Complaints and Discipline Act 2016 for a breach of discipline. Part 6—Miscellaneous 34—Declaration of vehicle immobilisation devices Pursuant to section 74BAA(2) of the Act, devices of the following kinds are declared to be vehicle immobilisation devices: (a) the Stinger Spike System; (b) the Stop Stick; (c) the Scorpion Rat Trap; (d) the X‑Net. 35—Prescribed serious criminal offences For the purposes of the definition of serious criminal offence in section 74BA of the Act, offences against the following provisions are prescribed: (a) sections 21C(2)(a) and 21F(1)(a) of the Act; (b) section 25 of the Controlled Substances Act 1984; (c) sections 12, 23 and 48 of the Explosives Act 1936; (d) sections 75, 76 and 90 of the Lottery and Gaming Act 1936; (e) regulations 2.02, 4.02, 4.08, 4.10, 4.17, 4.25, 9.02 and 15.10 of the Explosives Regulations 2011; (f) regulation 5 of the Explosives (Fireworks) Regulations 2001. 36—Prescribed form of written record of telephone application The prescribed form for a written record of a telephone application for the purposes of section 78(4) of the Act is that set out in Form 1 of Schedule 2. 37—Prescribed form of warrant (section 83C) The prescribed form for a warrant for the purposes of section 83C of the Act is that set out in Form 2 of Schedule 2. Schedule 1—Register form (Part 5) Form 1—Register form (Part 5) Part A Initial entry in register book (regulation 27) Name and address of police station: Name of detainee: Address: Age: Sex: Type of record (videotape of search, written record of search or videotape of read over of written record): Unique identifier for the record: Date of search: Names of persons present at search, rank and station (if member of police force) and their role in the search: Objects found (if any) as a result of search: Date on which the written record (if any) was made: Name (and rank and station if member of police force) of person completing this Part: Signature of person completing this Part: Date: Name, rank and station of officer in charge of police station: Signature of officer in charge of police station: Date: Part B Removal of intimate search record from storage (regulation 31) Name and address of police station: Date on which record removed from storage: Name (and rank and station if member of the police force) of person requesting access to record: Office hours telephone number of person requesting access: Reason for access to the record: Estimated date of return of record (unless record is to be destroyed): Signature of person to whom record is supplied: Date: Name, rank and station of officer in charge of police station removing record from storage: Signature of officer in charge of police station: Date: Part C Return of intimate search record (regulation 31) Name and address of police station: Date of return of record: Name (and rank and station if member of police force) of person returning record: Signature of person returning the record: Date: Name (and rank and station if member of police force) of person completing this Part: Signature of person completing this Part: Date: Name, rank and station of officer in charge of police station: Signature of officer in charge of police station: Date: Part D If intimate search record not returned by estimated date of return (regulation 31) Name and address of police station: Action taken by officer in charge of police station in respect of non-return of record by estimated date of return stated in Part B: Undertakings given to officer in charge of police station as to return of record: Name (and rank and station if member of police force) of person completing this Part: Signature of person completing this Part: Date: Name, rank and station of officer in charge of police station: Signature of officer in charge of police station: Date: Part E Copies of intimate search records (regulation 32) Name and address of police station: Unique identifier for the copy: Date on which copy is made: Reasons for making copy (request by detainee/required for legal proceedings): Details of person copy supplied to: Name: Address: Office hours telephone no: Receipt signed & dated: Name (and rank and station if member of police force) of person completing this Part: Signature of person completing this Part: Date: Name, rank and station of officer in charge of police station: Signature of officer in charge of police station: Date: Part F Removal of copies (regulation 32) Name and address of police station: Date on which copy removed from storage: Name (and rank and station if member of the police force) of person requesting access to copy: Office hours telephone number of person requesting access: Reason for access to the copy: Estimated date of return of copy (unless copy is to be destroyed): Signature of person to whom copy supplied: Date: Name (and rank and station if member of police force) of person completing this Part: Signature of person completing this Part: Date: Name, rank and station of officer in charge of police station removing copy from storage: Signature of officer in charge of police station: Date: Part G Return of copies (regulation 32) Name and address of police station: Date of return of copy: Name (and rank and station if member of police force) of person returning copy: Signature of person returning copy: Date: Name (and rank and station if member of police force) of person completing this Part: Signature of person completing this Part: Date: Name, rank and station of officer in charge of police station: Signature of officer in charge of police station: Date: Part H If copy not returned by estimated date of return (regulation 32) Name and address of police station: Action taken by officer in charge of police station in respect of non-return by the estimated date of return stated in Part F: Undertakings given to the officer as to the return of the record: Name (and rank and station if member of police force) of person completing this Part: Signature of person completing this Part: Date: Name, rank and station of officer in charge of police station: Signature of officer in charge of police station: Date: Part I Destruction of intimate search record and any copies (regulation 33) Name and address of police station: Reason for destruction (tick whichever is applicable): (a) Commissioner satisfied that record not likely to be required for purposes referred to in section 81(3e) (b) order of court or tribunal Date and time of destruction: Method of destruction: Have all copies (other than that supplied to detainee) been destroyed? YES/NO Name, rank and station of officer carrying out the destruction: Signature of officer carrying out the destruction: Date: Name (and rank and station if member of police force) of person completing this Part: Signature of person completing this Part: Date: Name, rank and station of officer in charge of police station: Signature of officer in charge of police station: Date: Schedule 2—Forms (Part 6) Form 1—Application made by telephone for an authorisation pursuant to section 78 Summary Offences Act 1953 Application made by [insert applicant's name] of [insert applicant's address] on [insert date] at [insert time]. Name of person apprehended: Address: Age: Sex: Details of offence under investigation: Time and date of apprehension* or Time and date delivered into custody at police station* Grounds on which application made: Determination of application: If the application is granted, details of terms and conditions: Date: Magistrate: (*Delete whichever is inapplicable) cc Manager, Criminal Justice Section. Form 2—Warrant to enter premises pursuant to section 83C(3) Summary Offences Act 1953 Pursuant to section 83C(3) of the Summary Offences Act 1953, I authorise [state name of officer] to enter premises situated at [insert address] being the last place of residence of— * a deceased person of unknown identity * the following deceased person [insert name of deceased] * a deceased *male/female/adult/child for the purpose of— *(a) searching the premises for material that might identify or assist in identifying the deceased or relatives of the deceased; *(b) taking property of the deceased into safe custody. Date: Commissioner of Police: (*Delete if not known or inapplicable) Schedule 3—Savings and transitional provisions (Schedule 1 clause 76 of Independent Commissioner Against Corruption (CPIPC Recommendations) Amendment Act 2021) 1—Application of Act to continuing complaints etc The Act as in force before the commencement of Schedule 1 of the Independent Commissioner Against Corruption (CPIPC Recommendations) Amendment Act 2021 continues to apply in connection with any complaint, report or investigation referred to in clause 70 of that Schedule. Legislative history Notes • Variations of this version that are uncommenced are not incorporated into the text. • Please note—References in the legislation to other legislation or instruments or to titles of bodies or offices are not automatically updated as part of the program for the revision and publication of legislation and therefore may be obsolete. • Earlier versions of these regulations (historical versions) are listed at the end of the legislative history. • For further information relating to the Act and subordinate legislation made under the Act see the Index of South Australian Statutes or . Legislation revoked by principal regulations The Summary Offences Regulations 2016 revoked the following: Summary Offences (General) Regulations 2001 Summary Offences (Weapons) Regulations 2012 Principal regulations and variations New entries appear in bold. Year No Reference Commencement 2016 169 Gazette 30.6.2016 p2766 1.7.2016: r 2 2017 181 Gazette 22.6.2017 p2481 1.7.2017: r 2 2017 287 Gazette 4.10.2017 p4233 4.10.2017: r 2 2018 1 Gazette 23.1.2018 p284 23.1.2018: r 2 2018 106 Gazette 21.6.2018 p2263 1.7.2018: r 2 2019 108 Gazette 13.6.2019 p1959 1.7.2019: r 2 2020 127 Gazette 4.6.2020 p2961 1.7.2020: r 2 2020 228 Gazette 2.7.2020 p3702 1.10.2021—date varied by 288/2020 r 4 (Gazette 29.10.2020 p4928) and 15/2021 r 4 (Gazette 18.2.2021 p520) and 83/2021 r 4 (Gazette 24.6.2021 p2276) 2020 297 Gazette 19.11.2020 p5085 13.12.2020: r 2 2021 84 Gazette 24.6.2021 p2278 1.10.2021 immediately after r 4 of 228/2020: r 2 2021 151 Gazette 7.10.2021 p3704 7.10.2021: r 2 2022 12 Gazette 10.2.2022 p341 10.2.2022: r 2 2023 64 Gazette 6.7.2023 p2136 6.11.2023: r 2 2025 10 Gazette 3.4.2025 p560 3.4.2025: r 2 2025 52 Gazette 26.6.2025 p2119 1.7.2025: r 2 2025 100 Gazette 4.9.2025 p3778 1.7.2026: r 2 2026 13 Gazette 12.2.2026 p268 16.2.2026: r 2 Provisions varied New entries appear in bold. Entries that relate to provisions that have been deleted appear in italics. Provision How varied Commencement Pt 1