These regulations set technical rules for alcohol and drug testing of drivers and vessel operators: who may carry out tests and analyses, required qualifications and experience for analysts and operators, detailed procedures for breath, blood and oral-fluid sampling, labelling, custody and reporting, and prescribed illicit drugs and infringement penalties. They bind approved operators, analysts, police and persons tested by imposing specific compliance steps, recordkeeping, and penalty/disqualification options, and they rescind earlier related regulations.
These regulations set out detailed operational, evidentiary and administrative requirements under the Road Safety (Alcohol and Drugs) Act 1970 (the Act) and the Marine Safety (Misuse of Alcohol) Act 2006 (the Marine Act). They do not create new criminal offences; instead they prescribe qualifications, procedures, forms, custody and labelling rules, and penalty-unit and disqualification schedules that govern how breath, blood and oral-fluid testing is to be carried out and documented for enforcement and prosecution under the Acts. The regulations commence on the day the Road Safety (Alcohol and Drugs) Amendment Act 2017 commences (Reg 2) and define the Act and the Marine Act for the regulations’ purposes (Reg 3(1)). They also rescind several prior regulations listed in Schedule 3 (Reg 19; Schedule 3).
Mechanically, the instrument:
Prescribes who counts as a qualified person for taking samples (Reg 4) and what constitutes an approved analyst (Reg 5), including minimum academic qualifications and at least two years’ postgraduate experience in chemistry, pharmacy or toxicology (Reg 5(a)-(b)).
Requires annual (within 12 months) testing and certification of breath‑analysing instruments by an approved analyst before an approved operator may use the instrument for statutory breath analyses (Reg 6(1)-(2); Form 1 in Schedule 1).
Sets duties for approved operators using breath‑analysing instruments, including single‑use mouthpieces, a 15‑minute non‑consumption check before conducting the test, recording results, enquiring whether the person falls into specified statutory categories, completing the prescribed written statement, and providing the person tested with a printout (Reg 7(a)-(e); Reg 17 prescribes Forms 2-5).
Prescribes the method for taking blood samples, including approximate volume (about 15 ml), sterilisation requirements that avoid leaving volatile organic‑substance residues or use of sealed sterile instruments, and agitation/mixing requirements for containers (Reg 8(a)-(c)).
Current sections
Direct links to the current provisions in Road Safety (Alcohol and Drugs) Regulations 2018.
(a) the prescribed qualification for an approved analyst is –
(i) a Bachelor of Science; or
(ii) a Bachelor of Pharmacy; or
(iii) a qualification, or experience, that, in the opinion of the Minister, is equivalent to subparagraph (i) or (ii) ; and
(b) the prescribed experience for an approved analyst is the equivalent of at least 2 full years of postgraduate experience in the field of chemistry, pharmacy or toxicology.
6
Testing and use of breath analysing instruments
6 Testing and use of breath analysing instruments
(1) An approved operator is not to use a breath analysing instrument, for the purpose of carrying out a breath analysis under the Act or the Marine Act, unless a certificate referred to in subregulation (2) has been issued in respect of the instrument within the 12-month period immediately before the date on which the instrument is so used.
(2) An approved analyst must issue and sign a certificate, in accordance with Form 1 , in respect of the testing of a breath analysing instrument if the approved analyst –
(a) tested the breath analysing instrument; and
(b) was satisfied that, at the time of the testing, the instrument was accurate.
7
Duties of approved operators in relation to breath analysing instruments
7 Duties of approved operators in relation to breath analysing instruments
If a breath analysing instrument is to be used by an approved operator to carry out a breath analysis, the operator is to ensure –
(a) that the person submitting to the breath analysis gives a sample of breath into a mouthpiece supplied by the operator; and
(b) that an unused mouthpiece has been provided by the operator for use in the breath analysis; and
(c) that the operator does not carry out a breath analysis unless he or she is satisfied that the person has not consumed intoxicating liquor during the 15 minutes preceding the analysis; and
(d) that, after the completion of the breath analysis, the operator –
(i) records the resultant reading of the breath analysis; and
(ii) makes enquiries to ascertain whether the person is –
(A) if the breath analysis is carried out under the Act – a person mentioned in section 6(3) of the Act; or
(B) if the breath analysis is carried out under the Marine Act – an operator of a commercial vessel within the meaning of that Act; and
(iii) completes and signs the written statement required by –
(A) if the breath analysis is carried out under and for the Act – section 11(1) of the Act; or
(B) if the breath analysis is carried out under and for the Marine Act – section 29 of the Marine Act; and
(e) that the person submitting to the breath analysis is provided with a copy of the printout supplied by that instrument in respect of that breath analysis.
Part 3
Blood Samples
Part 3 Blood Samples
8
Taking of blood samples
8 Taking of blood samples
For the purposes of section 13(4) of the Act or section 32(2) of the Marine Act, a sample of blood is to be taken in the following manner:
(a) the sample is to consist of approximately 15 millilitres of blood;
(b) the instruments used for the purpose of taking the sample are to be –
(i) sterilised before use in a manner that does not leave any residue of a volatile organic substance on those instruments; or
(ii) used directly from packaging that has been designed to keep those instruments in a manner that would enable the use of those instruments in a medical procedure;
(c) after placing a part of the sample in a suitable container, the container is to be agitated to ensure that –
(i) the substances contained in the container are dissolved in the blood; and
(ii) those substances and the blood are thoroughly mixed.
9
Labelling of blood samples
9 Labelling of blood samples
(1) In this regulation –
control sample means that part of a blood sample that may not be analysed or otherwise dealt with, except as a court may otherwise direct or on a request under –
(a) if the blood sample is taken under and for the Act – section 13B(1) of the Act; and
(b) if the blood sample is taken under and for the Marine Act – section 35(3) of the Marine Act.
(2) For the purposes of section 13(5A) of the Act or section 32(5) of the Marine Act, each container into which a part of the sample of blood is placed is to be labelled in the following manner:
(a) the label on each container is to be marked with –
(i) the name of the person from whom the sample was taken; and
(ii) the date and time when the sample was taken; and
(iii) the name of the qualified person who took the sample;
(b) the label on the container which holds the control sample is, in addition to the requirements of paragraph (a) , to be marked with the word “Control”.
10
Provisions relating to blood samples delivered to police officers
10 Provisions relating to blood samples delivered to police officers
(1) In this regulation –
delivered to a police officer means –
(a) if the blood sample is taken under and for the Act – delivered under section 13(5B) of the Act; and
(b) if the blood sample is taken under and for the Marine Act – delivered under section 32(6) of the Marine Act;
police station, in relation to the Marine Act, includes a police vessel or a shore facility used in connection with the operation of police vessels.
(2) For the purposes of section 13A(1) of the Act or section 34(2) of the Marine Act, a container containing part of a sample of blood that is delivered to a police officer is to be kept –
(a) in the police officer’s possession, if the person from whom the sample is taken is not detained after being charged by the officer with an offence under the Act or the Marine Act; or
(b) at the police station in a place of safety, if the person from whom the sample is taken is detained after being charged with an offence under the Act or the Marine Act.
(3) If a blood sample has been kept at a police station under subregulation (2)(b) , the officer in charge of that station is prescribed as the person to whom a request referred to in section 13A(3) of the Act, or section 34(4) of the Marine Act, respectively, is to be made in respect of that sample.
Part 4
Oral fluids
Part 4 Oral fluids
11
Taking of oral fluids
11 Taking of oral fluids
For the purposes of section 13C(1)(a) of the Act, a sample of oral fluid is required to be taken from a person in the following manner:
(a) an approved operator is to provide the person with a swab to collect the sample of oral fluid;
(b) the swab is to be placed in the person’s mouth and kept there until the approved operator is satisfied that a sufficient sample of oral fluid has been collected from the person;
(c) the swab is to be placed into a suitable container provided by the approved operator;
(d) the approved operator is to ensure that the swab has been mixed with, or dissolved in, any mixture in the suitable container;
(e) the approved operator is to –
(i) divide the sample, mixed or dissolved, in accordance with paragraph (d) , into 2 suitable containers; and
(ii) seal those containers with a tamper proof seal; and
(iii) label those containers in accordance with regulation 12 .
12
Labelling of oral fluids
12 Labelling of oral fluids
(1) An approved operator, who sealed a container in accordance with regulation 11(e) into which part of a sample of oral fluid was placed under that regulation, is to label each container so sealed with –
(a) the initials of the person from whom the sample was taken; and
(b) the date and time when the sample was taken; and
(c) the initials of the approved operator.
(2) In addition to subregulation (1) , an approved operator is to label one container of a sample of oral fluid, sealed in accordance with regulation 11(e) , with the word “Control”.
Part 5
Miscellaneous
Part 5 Miscellaneous
13
Police officer to receive copy of reports of analysis
13 Police officer to receive copy of reports of analysis
For the purposes of section 35(6)(b)(ii) of the Marine Act, the police officer who requested that a sample of blood be taken under that Act is the prescribed police officer.
14
Identification of drivers
14 Identification of drivers
For the purposes of section 10(8) of the Act, the prescribed means of identification of a driver is a tag, or label or other similar article, bearing the word “Driver”.
15
Prescribed illicit drugs
15 Prescribed illicit drugs
For the purposes of the Act, the following drugs are prescribed as illicit drugs:
Liability for costs of medical reports and examinations
16 Liability for costs of medical reports and examinations
For the purposes of section 19(5) of the Act, the sum of $20 is prescribed as the sum exceeding which a person becomes liable to pay for the whole or a portion of the costs of a medical report and examination under that section.
17
Forms of statements
17 Forms of statements
For the purposes of section 11 of the Act, the prescribed form of written statement is –
(a) Form 2 , if the concentration of alcohol in the breath of a person submitting to a breath analysis, as determined by that analysis, is greater than the prescribed concentration; or
(i) it appears to an approved operator carrying out a breath analysis that the person submitting to the analysis is, or may be, a person mentioned in section 6(3) or (4) of the Act; and
(ii) the breath analysis indicates that alcohol is present in that person’s body; or
(i) the concentration of alcohol in the breath of a person submitting to a breath analysis, as determined by that analysis, is not greater than the prescribed concentration; and
(ii) it appears to an approved operator carrying out a breath analysis that the person submitting to the analysis is not, or may not be, a person mentioned in section 6(3) or (4) of the Act; or
(d) Form 5 , if the person has provided a sample of oral fluid for oral fluid analysis.
(a) an offence in a provision specified in column 1 of the table in Schedule 2 is prescribed as an infringement offence; and
(b) the penalty specified in column 2 of the table in Schedule 2 is prescribed as the penalty for the relevant offence specified in column 1 of that table; and
(c) the period of disqualification specified in column 3 of the table in Schedule 2 is prescribed for the relevant offence specified in column 1 of that table.
(2) An infringement notice may not be issued in respect of an offence against section 6(1) or 6A(1) of the Act, if the person who is reasonably believed to have committed the offence –
(a) has been convicted of –
(i) the crime of manslaughter, if that conviction relates to the driving of a motor vehicle; or
(ii) the crime of causing death by dangerous driving; or
(iii) the crime of causing grievous bodily harm by dangerous driving; or
| | Column 1Section of Act | Column 2Penalty units | Column 3Disqualification period |
| 1. | Section 5A(5) | 2 | - |
| 2. | Section 6(1) – | | |
| | (a) if the concentration of alcohol is less than 0.1 of a gram in 210 litres of breath or 100 millilitres of blood; or | 2 | 3 months |
| | (b) if the concentration of alcohol is 0.1 or more of a gram, but less than 0.15 of a gram, in 210 litres of breath or 100 millilitres of blood | 4 | 6 months |
| 3. | Section 6A(1) | 2 | 3 months |
| 4. | Section 7(1) | 2 | - |
| 5. | Section 7(2) | 1 | - |
| 6. | Section 7(3) | 1 | - |
| 7. | Section 14(1)(b) | 2 | - |
These regulations are administered in the Department of Police, Fire and Emergency Management.
Source text: opening excerpt
Sourced from Tasmanian Legislation Online (legislation.tas.gov.au), CC BY 4.0.
Part 1 Preliminary
Part 1 Preliminary
1 Short title
1 Short title
These regulations may be cited as the Road Safety (Alcohol and Drugs) Regulations 2018 .
2 Commencement
2 Commencement
These regulations take effect on the day on which the Road Safety (Alcohol and Drugs) Amendment Act 2017 commences.
3 Interpretation
3 Interpretation
(1) In these regulations –
the Act means the Road Safety (Alcohol and Drugs) Act 1970 ;
the Marine Act means the Marine Safety (Misuse of Alcohol) Act 2006 .
(2) In these regulations, a reference to a form by number is a reference to the form of that number in Schedule 1 .
Part 2 Administrative
Part 2 Administrative
4 Qualified persons
4 Qualified persons
For the purposes of paragraph (b) of the definition of qualified person in section 2(1) of the Act, the following qualifications are prescribed:
(a) a Certificate III in Pathology Collection or an equivalent certificate;
(b) a Certificate IV in Pathology or an equivalent certificate.
5 Qualifications for approved analysts
5 Qualifications for approved analysts
For the purposes of section 3(3) of the Act –
(a) the prescribed qualification for an approved analyst is –
(i) a Bachelor of Science; or
(ii) a Bachelor of Pharmacy; or
(iii) a qualification, or experience, that, in the opinion of the Minister, is equivalent to or ; and
Prescribes labelling requirements for blood containers, requires marking one part as the “Control” sample, and identifies how the control sample may be treated (Reg 9(1)-(2)).
Sets custody rules for blood samples delivered to police officers, distinguishing between detainees and persons not detained, and prescribes the officer in charge of a station as the person to whom sample‑access requests must be made (Reg 10(1)-(3)).
Specifies oral‑fluid collection technique (swab placement until sufficient sample is obtained), splitting of oral‑fluid samples into two containers, tamper‑proof sealing and labelling with initials, date/time and operator initials, and marking one container “Control” (Regs 11-12).
Prescribes the police officer who receives copies of analyses under the Marine Act (Reg 13), and prescribes a physical identifier for drivers where required , a tag or label bearing the word “Driver” (Reg 14).
Provides a detailed, enumerated list of illicit drugs for the Act (Reg 15) and prescribes the monetary threshold ($20) that determines when a person becomes liable to pay all or part of medical‑report/examination costs under s 19(5) of the Act (Reg 16).
Specifies which written statement forms to use depending on breath results and the status of the person tested (Reg 17; Schedule 1 Forms 2-5).
Designates certain offences as infringement notice offences, prescribes penalty units and disqualification periods for those offences (Reg 18; Schedule 2), and sets limits on when an infringement notice may be issued, for example where an alleged offender has particular prior convictions or was driving a prescribed vehicle at the time (Reg 18(2)).
Rescinds earlier amendments and regulations listed in Schedule 3 (Reg 19; Schedule 3).
The regulations therefore translate statutory rules in the Act and Marine Act into concrete, repeatable procedures for field operators, analysts, police stations, laboratories and courts. They allocate administrative responsibilities, fix evidential steps in sampling and labelling, and map specific contraventions to infringement penalties and disqualification periods (Schedule 2). The Department of Police, Fire and Emergency Management administers the instrument, as noted in the Gazette notice.
Main concepts
The regulations are concentrated on a small set of operational concepts that mediate between statutory power and admissible forensic evidence. The key concepts and how they are defined or employed in the instrument are:
The Act and the Marine Act (Reg 3(1)). The regulations repeatedly state they operate “for the purposes of” particular sections of the Act or the Marine Act. Each procedural requirement is therefore an implementation detail of specific statutory powers (for example, Reg 6 supports s 13/13B/11 of the Act; Reg 11 supports s 13C).
Qualified person (Reg 4 cross‑reference). Reg 4 prescribes certificate qualifications (Certificate III in Pathology Collection or Cert IV in Pathology, or equivalent) for the “qualified person” concept used in section 2(1) of the Act. That anchors who may take blood samples in minimum vocational qualifications.
Approved analyst (Reg 5). The instrument prescribes the academic qualification required to be an approved analyst , Bachelor of Science or Bachelor of Pharmacy, or equivalent in the Minister’s opinion , and two full years of postgraduate experience in relevant fields (chemistry, pharmacy or toxicology). Approved analysts certify breath instruments (Reg 6(2)) and provide laboratory analyses.
Approved operator (Regs 6-7, 11-12). Approved operators carry out breath analyses and oral fluid collection. They must rely on instrument certification (Reg 6(1)-(2)), follow operator duties such as use of unused mouthpieces, the 15‑minute abstention check, recording readings, completing the correct statutory written statement (Reg 7), and providing printouts to persons tested (Reg 7(e)). For oral fluids, the approved operator collects, divides, seals and labels samples (Reg 11).
Breath analysing instrument and its certification (Reg 6). Instruments must be tested and a Form 1 certificate issued by an approved analyst within 12 months of use for statutory purposes. This turns instrument calibration and certification into a recurring compliance cost and a prerequisite for admissible breath evidence.
Specimen handling , blood and oral fluid (Regs 8-12). The regulations prescribe blood volume (approx. 15 ml), instrument sterilisation that avoids volatile organic residues, agitation/mixing, labelling with name/date/time/qualified person and a control sample label “Control” (Regs 8-9). Oral fluid sampling requires swab collection, mixing into a suitable container, division into two tamper‑sealed containers, and labelling with initials/date/time/operator initials plus marking one as “Control” (Regs 11-12). The “control sample” is expressly defined as part of the blood sample that may not be analysed except as a court directs or as requested under the Acts (Reg 9(1)).
Custody definitions and procedures (Reg 10). Regulation 10 defines “delivered to a police officer” in the context of the relevant Act or Marine Act sections and provides custody locations depending on whether the person is detained. It prescribes the officer in charge as the person for sample access requests when samples are held at a station (Reg 10(2)-(3)).
Forms and prescribed statements (Reg 17; Schedule 1). The regulations prescribe specific form numbers for written statements and instrument certificates. Forms 2-5 correspond to different breath analysis outcomes or oral‑fluid sampling (Reg 17).
Infringement notice mapping (Reg 18; Schedule 2). The regulations list which Act provisions are infringement notice offences, the number of penalty units for each infringement, and the period of disqualification attached to each infringement, creating an administrative enforcement track for certain contraventions.
Prescribed illicit drugs (Reg 15). The regulations set an enumerated list of substances considered “illicit drugs” for the Act, which determines what constitutes a positive oral‑fluid or blood analysis for drug offences.
These concepts together form an infrastructure: qualifications delimit who may act, instrument certification and procedure rules delimit what evidence is admissible, sampling, labelling, custody and control sample rules delimit chain‑of‑custody and defence access, and the infringement schedule operationalises summary enforcement for lower‑end breaches.
Who it affects
The regulatory measures impose tasks and costs on a defined set of actors and affect legal rights for subjects of testing. The principal affected parties are:
Approved operators (police or other authorised personnel). They are required to use certified breath instruments, supply unused mouthpieces, enforce the 15‑minute non‑consumption rule, record and print results, complete the statutory written statements (Form 2-5 as appropriate), and follow oral‑fluid collection and sealing protocols (Regs 6-7, 11-12, 17). These duties affect training, equipment, record‑keeping and immediate operational behaviour.
Approved analysts and forensic laboratories. To issue certificates for breath instruments (Form 1) and to analyse samples, analysts must meet the qualification and experience thresholds in Reg 5 (Bachelor degree or Minister‑equivalent and two years’ postgraduate experience). Analysts bear the evidentiary burden of attesting to an instrument’s accuracy (Reg 6(2)) and thus face professional responsibility for calibration regimes, testing methodologies and timely certification.
Qualified persons who take blood samples. Reg 4 prescribes vocational certificates (Certificate III or IV in Pathology or equivalent). Medical practitioners or qualified phlebotomists who take blood must collect the prescribed volume (approx. 15 ml) and follow sterilisation and agitation rules (Reg 8). This affects hospitals, clinics and officers who may be authorised to take samples.
Detained persons and people subject to testing. Drivers, vessel operators, and other subjects of breath, blood or oral‑fluid tests are affected in their procedural rights. For example, they must be provided a breath‑analysis printout (Reg 7(e)). The availability of a labelled control sample, and rules about sample custody and access, bear directly on a person’s capacity to seek independent testing or challenge forensic results (Regs 9-10).
Police stations and officers in charge. Custody rules designate where samples must be held and who is the prescribed person to receive requests for access to samples that are held at a station (Reg 10(2)-(3)). The police officer who requested a blood sample under the Marine Act is the prescribed officer to receive analysis reports (Reg 13).
Commercial vessel operators. Several provisions explicitly operate under the Marine Act as well as the Act. Approved operators must determine whether a person is an “operator of a commercial vessel” when recording results (Reg 7(d)(ii)(B)), and the Marine Act specific custody and report rules are referenced (Regs 6, 8, 9, 10, 13).
Courts and prosecutors. The regulations define evidentiary forms, labelling and control samples which will be relevant to admissibility and chain‑of‑custody arguments in prosecution or defence (Regs 6-12, 17). Schedule 2’s infringement classifications affect case selection versus summary infringement processes.
Employers and insurers (indirectly). The disqualification periods in Schedule 2 affect an individual’s driving entitlement for specified periods following acceptance of an infringement notice. Although not directly altering employer obligations, the rules will have downstream operational impacts for commercial drivers and employer compliance practices.
Organisationally, the Department of Police, Fire and Emergency Management is named as the administering agency in the Gazette. The Minister retains a residual discretion to determine equivalence for qualifications of approved analysts (Reg 5(a)(iii)), which introduces an administrative decision‑making point affecting who may perform analyst functions.
Who pays: costs fall on multiple parties. Approved operators and agencies must pay for instrument calibration/testing and retain certified analysts; laboratories or health providers may bear equipment and analysis costs; the person tested may bear medical report/examination costs exceeding $20 (Reg 16) when s 19(5) of the Act applies; and persons who accept infringement notices pay the prescribed penalty units (Schedule 2). Who decides: the Minister may determine equivalence of qualifications for analysts (Reg 5) and approved analysts certify instruments and tests (Reg 6(2)); police officers exercise custody and initial sample receipt functions (Reg 10), and approved operators determine when sufficient oral fluid has been collected (Reg 11(b)).
Key duties and rights
This instrument allocates specific duties and limited statutory rights to operators, analysts, police and subjects of tests. The duties are granular; the rights are primarily documentary and access‑oriented.
Duties of approved operators (Reg 7):
Use a mouthpiece supplied by the operator and ensure the person provides breath into an unused mouthpiece (Reg 7(a)-(b)). This duty creates a protocol for single‑use hygiene and evidentiary integrity.
Verify the person has not consumed intoxicating liquor during the 15 minutes before the analysis (Reg 7(c)), which operationalises how post‑consumption contamination is mitigated.
Record the resultant reading after completion of the breath analysis (Reg 7(d)(i)).
Make enquiries to determine whether the person falls into specified statutory classes under the Act (section 6(3)) or is an operator of a commercial vessel under the Marine Act, and note the responses (Reg 7(d)(ii)(A)-(B)). This affects applicable procedural rules and potential charges.
Complete and sign the written statement required under section 11(1) of the Act or section 29 of the Marine Act as applicable; Reg 17 prescribes which Form to use depending on results and status (Reg 7(d)(iii); Reg 17).
Provide the person submitting to breath analysis with a copy of the instrument printout for that analysis (Reg 7(e)). This is a direct evidentiary right for the person tested.
Duties of approved analysts (Reg 6(2), Reg 5):
Test breath‑analysing instruments and issue and sign a Form 1 certificate if satisfied the instrument was accurate at the time of testing (Reg 6(2)). That certificate must be issued within 12 months prior to the instrument’s statutory use (Reg 6(1)). Analysts must meet qualifications and experience thresholds (Reg 5).
Duties and methods for blood sampling (Reg 8):
Take approximately 15 millilitres of blood (Reg 8(a)).
Use instruments sterilised in a way that does not leave residues of volatile organic substances or use instruments directly from packaging designed to keep them sterile (Reg 8(b)(i)-(ii)).
After placing part of the sample into a suitable container, agitate the container to dissolve contained substances into the blood and to thoroughly mix blood and substances (Reg 8(c)(i)-(ii)). This creates an evidentiary protocol for homogenisation of anticoagulants or preservatives with the sample.
Labelling duties for blood samples (Reg 9):
Label each container with the name of the person, date and time when taken, and the name of the qualified person who took the sample (Reg 9(2)(a)(i)-(iii)).
Mark the container holding the control sample with the word “Control” in addition to the above (Reg 9(2)(b)).
Custody duties and prescribed persons (Reg 10):
If a container is “delivered to a police officer” (defined in Reg 10(1)), the container must be kept in the police officer’s possession if the person is not detained following charging, or at the police station in a place of safety if detained (Reg 10(2)(a)-(b)).
If the sample is kept at a police station, the officer in charge of that station is the prescribed person to whom a request under the relevant statutory access provisions must be made (Reg 10(3)).
Duties for oral‑fluid collection and labelling (Regs 11-12):
Provide a swab, place it in the mouth until a sufficient sample is collected, place the swab into a suitable container and ensure the swab is mixed/dissolved in any mixture in the container (Reg 11(a)-(d)).
Divide the sample into two suitable containers, seal with a tamper‑proof seal, and label each container in accordance with Reg 12 (Reg 11(e)(i)-(iii)).
Label containers with the person’s initials, date/time, and the approved operator’s initials (Reg 12(1)), and mark one container “Control” (Reg 12(2)).
Prescribed forms and when to use them (Reg 17):
Use Form 2 when breath concentration is greater than the prescribed concentration (Reg 17(a)).
Use Form 3 if the person appears to be in the categories described in s 6(3) or (4) and alcohol is present (Reg 17(b)).
Use Form 4 if breath concentration is not greater than the prescribed concentration and the person is not in those categories (Reg 17(c)).
Use Form 5 when the person provided an oral‑fluid sample (Reg 17(d)).
Rights and limitations:
Right to receive the breath analysis printout (Reg 7(e)).
The “control sample” may not be analysed or otherwise dealt with except as a court may direct or on a request under the relevant statutory access provisions (Reg 9(1)), which preserves defence access and safeguards the integrity of a reserved portion of the sample.
Limits on issue of infringement notices: an infringement notice may not be issued for certain offences under s 6(1) or 6A(1) if the person reasonably believed to have committed the offence has specified prior convictions or was driving a prescribed vehicle at the time (Reg 18(2)). This constrains summary administrative disposal in certain higher‑risk contexts.
Collectively, these duties and rights define who must do what at the scene, in custody, in the lab and in the office, and they create documentary evidentiary layers that will be central in prosecution and defence.
Penalties and enforcement
The regulations do not create new offences but classify particular statutory offences as infringement notice offences and prescribe the penalty units and disqualification periods that apply to those infringement notices (Reg 18(1); Schedule 2). Enforcement mechanisms under the regulations are administrative in two main respects: certification and compliance duties for operators and analysts, and an infringement notice regime for certain offending.
Infringement notice offences and penalties (Reg 18(1); Schedule 2):
The regulations designate specific sections of the Act as infringement offences in Schedule 2 and prescribe penalty units and disqualification periods for each listed offence. Schedule 2’s table maps:
The disqualification periods in column 3 operate as administrative driving‑entitlement suspensions tied to acceptance of the infringement. The mapping in Schedule 2 therefore creates a lower‑level, administratively enforceable pathway for certain breath or conduct breaches, with scaled penalties tied to measured breath/blood concentrations.
Limits on issuing infringement notices (Reg 18(2)):
An infringement notice may not be issued for an offence under s 6(1) or s 6A(1) of the Act if the person reasonably believed to have committed the offence has any of the specified prior convictions: manslaughter related to driving, causing death by dangerous driving, causing grievous bodily harm by dangerous driving, dangerous driving, an offence against the Act, or an offence under s 32 of the Traffic Act 1925; or if the person was driving a prescribed vehicle at the time the offence is believed to be committed (Reg 18(2)(a)-(b)). This excludes some potentially serious repeat or high‑risk drivers from the summary infringement regime, routing them instead to court processes.
Administrative enforcement duties:
Approved analysts must certify breath‑analysing instruments within 12 months before use; an approved operator cannot use an uncertified instrument (Reg 6(1)). Failure to have a current certificate will render breath readings vulnerable to evidentiary challenge and could expose the operator or agency to administrative or disciplinary consequences even if no criminal sanction is prescribed in the regulations themselves.
Duties to label and preserve control samples and to place samples in police custody pursuant to the rules in Reg 10 create enforceable administrative chain‑of‑custody obligations that prosecutors will rely on and defence counsel may challenge.
Monetary liability for medical reports (Reg 16):
Reg 16 prescribes $20 as the sum above which a person becomes liable to pay for all or part of the costs of a medical report and examination under s 19(5) of the Act. This sets a threshold that affects who bears out‑of‑pocket costs for medical reports relevant to enforcement.
Operational enforcement and recordkeeping:
The regulations require the use of prescribed forms (Schedule 1) and that persons be provided with instrument printouts (Reg 7(e)). Non‑compliance with form or printout duties will have evidentiary consequences and may affect admissibility or the strength of prosecutions. The police officer who requested a blood sample under the Marine Act is the prescribed recipient of the analysis report (Reg 13), centralising where enforcement documents are directed.
The instrument therefore combines administrative controls (certification, labelling, custody), prescriptive procedural rules that create evidentiary expectations, and an explicit infringement schedule which channels lower‑level offending into administrative penalties with fixed disqualification periods. It also establishes discrete exclusions from the infringement route for serious prior convictions or prescribed vehicle operation.
How it interacts with other laws
These regulations operate as subordinate legislation implementing and clarifying procedures and administrative details required by the Road Safety (Alcohol and Drugs) Act 1970 and the Marine Safety (Misuse of Alcohol) Act 2006. Every procedural rule in the instrument is explicitly tied to a section of one of those Acts; the instrument repeatedly states that a regulation applies “for the purposes of” a specific statutory provision. The text makes multiple cross‑references; below are the principal interaction points:
Implementation of statutory sampling and analysis provisions. Many regulations are expressly “for the purposes of” particular sections of the Act or Marine Act. For example:
Reg 6 (instrument testing) is framed “for the purpose of carrying out a breath analysis under the Act or the Marine Act,” and links to the Act and Marine Act requirements for breath analysis (Reg 6(1)-(2)).
Reg 8 (blood sampling method) is “for the purposes of section 13(4) of the Act or section 32(2) of the Marine Act” and prescribes the sample volume and handling requirements (Reg 8).
Reg 11 (oral fluids) is for the purposes of s 13C(1)(a) of the Act and prescribes swab collection and sample division (Reg 11).
Reg 10 cross‑references sections 13A(1) of the Act and 34(2) of the Marine Act when describing custody of blood samples.
Access and control sample interplay with court powers. The definition of “control sample” in Reg 9(1) expressly ties its permitted handling to court directions or requests under the Act or Marine Act (Reg 9(1)). That preserves (and operationalises) statutory access rights for legal representatives and courts under the Acts.
Form rules and statutory written‑statement provisions. Reg 17 prescribes which Forms must be used under section 11 of the Act (section 11(1) is the statutory written statement requirement for breath analysis). Forms 2-5 are mapped to particular factual states specified in the Act (Reg 17).
Infringement notices and statutory offence provisions. Reg 18 operates under s 18A of the Act to designate which statutory offences may be dealt with by infringement notice and to set penalties and disqualification periods. Reg 18(2) also cross‑references the Act and the Traffic Act 1925 for exclusions to the infringement regime, signalling interaction among the Road Safety (Alcohol and Drugs) framework and other driving‑offence provisions (Reg 18(2)).
Marine Act interaction. Several provisions readily apply to both the Act and the Marine Act, rendering the same procedures for breath, blood and oral fluid sampling applicable to marine operators, and designating the police officer who requested a blood sample under the Marine Act as the prescribed recipient of reports (Reg 13). For example, Reg 7(d)(ii)(B) directs operators to make enquiries about whether the person is an operator of a commercial vessel under the Marine Act.
Delegation and ministerial discretion. Reg 5(a)(iii) allows the Minister to determine equivalence of qualifications or experience for approved analysts. That creates an administrative link between subordinate regulation and ministerial decision‑making under the parent Acts, which will usually occur under the Acts’ delegations and public administration rules.
Rescission of prior subordinate instruments. Reg 19 and Schedule 3 list multiple prior Road Safety (Alcohol and Drugs) Regulations and amendment regulations that are rescinded. That affects continuity of delegated powers and replaces prior procedural standards with those now prescribed.
Publication and administration. The Regulations are displayed and numbered “in accordance with” the Rules Publication Act 1953 and the Gazette notice indicates administration by the Department of Police, Fire and Emergency Management. That locates the instrument within the statutory publication and administrative framework (final lines of the instrument).
In short, the regulations are tightly integrated with the statutory sampling, analysis, notice and access framework of the Act and Marine Act, providing concrete technical standards and administrative mappings that operationalise the Acts’ powers. The instrument does not, on its face, alter substantive criminal liability; it prescribes procedural requirements and enforcement mechanisms that enable and constrain how those substantive powers are exercised and proven.
Amendment history
The instrument itself contains limited internal amendment history. It commences on the day the Road Safety (Alcohol and Drugs) Amendment Act 2017 commences (Reg 2), which indicates these regulations were designed to accompany and implement that amendment Act. The regulation rescinds a set of previously enacted subordinate regulation instruments, which provides the primary historical record contained in the instrument:
Regulation 19 rescinds the subordinate legislation specified in Schedule 3. Schedule 3 lists:
Road Safety (Alcohol and Drugs) Amendment (Public Vehicles Reform) Regulations 2000 (No. 73 of 2000)
Road Safety (Alcohol and Drugs) Amendment Regulations 2000 (No. 141 of 2000)
Road Safety (Alcohol and Drugs) Amendment Regulations 2005 (No. 70 of 2005)
Road Safety (Alcohol and Drugs) Amendment Regulations (No. 2) 2005 (No. 84 of 2005)
Road Safety (Alcohol and Drugs) Amendment Regulations 2006 (No. 144 of 2006)
Road Safety (Alcohol and Drugs) Regulations 2009 (No. 131 of 2009)
Road Safety (Alcohol and Drugs) Amendment Regulations 2015 (No. 46 of 2015)
The Gazette notification date is 28 November 2018. The instrument states it is administered by the Department of Police, Fire and Emergency Management.
Reg 3(2) standardises form references by tying any reference to a numbered form to the form of that number in Schedule 1; Schedule 1 contains graphical Forms 1-5. Reg 17 prescribes which of those forms must be used in particular circumstances. That indicates a deliberate replacement of earlier form‑based practice with the current Schedule 1 set.
Reg 5 permits the Minister to find equivalence of qualifications or experience for approved analysts (Reg 5(a)(iii)), which retains a capacity for future administrative flexibility without the need for legislative amendment.
Beyond these internal markers, the instrument does not contain a history of prior amendments to itself. The only explicit history within the text is the rescission of prior subordinate regulations shown in Schedule 3 and the link to the 2017 Amendment Act as the triggering commencement event (Reg 2). Practitioners seeking a full legislative history, including prior versions of subordinate regulations prior to the rescissions in Schedule 3, would need to consult the archival records for the listed instruments or the statute‑book maintained by the publication authority; such sources are not reproduced within the instrument itself.
Litigation history
The regulations contain no case citations and provide no record of litigation in their text. There is no internal litigation history supplied with the instrument. That absence means the regulation text itself does not report any judicial interpretation or challenge to its provisions.
From a practical standpoint, the regulations create multiple points that are likely to be contested in litigation under the parent Acts, though the instrument does not record outcomes. The procedural points created by the regulations that commonly attract litigation in forensic and road‑safety contexts, and which are established as regulatory duties here, include:
Instrument certification and accuracy. Reg 6 requires a certificate by an approved analyst within the 12 months before a breath analysing instrument is used, and that the analyst be satisfied the instrument was accurate at the time of testing (Reg 6(1)-(2); Form 1). Challenges may focus on whether the certificate existed, whether the test methods were appropriate, whether the analyst met the Reg 5 qualifications and experience thresholds, or whether the instrument’s condition changed between certification and use. The regulation imposes the certification obligation; contested issues in court will typically be whether the certification and any subsequent handling met Reg 6 and Reg 5 requirements. The regulation does not itself adjudicate those disputes.
Chain of custody and control sample protection. Regs 8-10 and 9(1) establish mixing/agitation requirements, labelling rules and that a control sample may not be analysed except by court direction or on specified statutory requests. Disputes may arise as to whether labelling met Reg 9(2), whether the control sample was preserved intact, or whether custody at a station complied with Reg 10(2). Reg 10(3) prescribes the officer in charge as the person to whom sample‑access requests are to be made if samples are held at a station; litigation may focus on whether the prescribed process for obtaining access was followed.
Oral‑fluid sampling and tamper‑proof sealing. Regs 11-12 require division into two containers, tamper‑proof sealing, and labelling with initials. Litigation might examine whether an “approved operator” followed Reg 11(b) in ensuring sufficient sample collection, the integrity of the tamper‑proof seal, or whether the labelling was accurate and compliant.
Use of prescribed forms and adequacy of statements. Reg 17 prescribes which form must be used and ties the written‑statement requirement to s 11 of the Act. Legal challenges could raise whether the correct form was used (Forms 2-5 in Schedule 1), whether it was properly completed and signed, and whether the person was provided the requisite printout under Reg 7(e). The regulation establishes the rule but leaves factual disputes to courts.
Administrative exclusion from infringement notices. Reg 18(2) expressly prevents infringement notices in cases where the person has certain prior convictions or was driving a prescribed vehicle; litigation touching the scope of those exclusions could arise in close fact situations where the prior conviction record or vehicle status is disputed.
Because the regulation expressly ties many rules to court direction (for example, control sample analysis: Reg 9(1)), it preserves judicial oversight of evidentiary access. The instrument’s provisions will therefore form the technical basis for many evidentiary disputes in prosecutions and administrative review, but the regulation itself does not record litigated outcomes or judicial construction. Practitioners relying on the regulation should expect to see challenges on the technical compliance points enumerated above, and should prepare to adduce documentary and witness evidence to show strict adherence to the procedural rules the regulation prescribes.
Gotchas
The regulations contain multiple procedural details that, if overlooked, will undermine evidence admissibility, trigger administrative breaches or restrict the ability to accept an infringement notice. Below are concrete pitfalls and potential operational consequences, anchored to the relevant regulation text.
An approved operator must not use a breath analysing instrument for statutory breath analysis unless a certificate by an approved analyst has been issued in respect of the instrument within the 12‑month period immediately before use (Reg 6(1)).
Gotcha: a certificate older than 12 months does not satisfy the requirement. If an operator uses the instrument without a current Form 1 certificate, the breath reading will be open to challenge and potentially inadmissible.
Approved analyst qualification and experience (Reg 5):
The analyst must hold a Bachelor of Science or Bachelor of Pharmacy or be judged equivalent by the Minister, and have the equivalent of at least two full years of postgraduate experience in chemistry, pharmacy or toxicology (Reg 5(a)-(b)).
Gotcha: relying on an analyst who lacks the specified experience or whose qualification is not explicitly declared equivalent by the Minister risks the validity of instrument certification and laboratory analyses.
Mouthpiece and 15‑minute rule (Reg 7(a)-(c)):
Operators must supply an unused mouthpiece and ensure the person has not consumed intoxicating liquor during the 15 minutes preceding analysis (Reg 7(a)-(c)).
Gotcha: failing to verify or record the 15‑minute non‑consumption period, or re‑using mouthpieces, creates hygiene issues and evidentiary vulnerability.
Printout provision (Reg 7(e)):
An operator must provide the person tested with a copy of the instrument printout.
Gotcha: failure to give the printout may breach Reg 7(e) and undermine the defence’s ability to inspect the printed result and related metadata.
Blood sample volume and sterilisation specifics (Reg 8):
Blood samples must be approximately 15 millilitres and instruments must be sterilised in a manner that does not leave volatile organic residues, or be used from appropriate sterile packaging (Reg 8(a)-(b)).
Gotcha: using sterilisation agents that leave volatile residues can contaminate samples and affect toxicology results; failure to obtain the approximate volume may invalidate comparisons.
Agitation/mixing requirement (Reg 8(c)):
After placing part of the sample in a container, the container must be agitated to dissolve substances in the blood and mix thoroughly (Reg 8(c)(i)-(ii)).
Gotcha: insufficient mixing could lead to inconsistent analyte distribution between aliquots, which a defence can exploit.
Control sample labeling and restricted handling (Reg 9(1)-(2)):
The control sample must be labelled “Control” and may not be analysed except by court order or on a statutory request (Reg 9(1)-(2)).
Gotcha: inadvertently analysing or otherwise dealing with the control sample without court direction may breach the regulation and complicate evidence integrity.
Custody rules based on detention status (Reg 10(2)):
If the person is not detained after being charged, the container must be kept in the delivering police officer’s possession; if detained, it must be stored at the police station in a “place of safety” (Reg 10(2)(a)-(b)).
Gotcha: misplacing custody responsibility or failing to log chain of custody at transfer points can be decisive in later challenges.
Officer in charge as prescribed person for access requests (Reg 10(3)):
If samples are at a station, a request under the statutory access provision must be made to the officer in charge (Reg 10(3)).
Gotcha: making a request to a subordinate or unit other than the officer in charge risks denial of access or delay; practitioners must address requests to the prescribed person explicitly.
Oral‑fluid split, seal and labelling technicalities (Regs 11-12):
Oral fluid must be divided into two containers, sealed with a tamper‑proof seal, and labelled with the person’s initials, date/time, and operator’s initials; one container must be marked “Control” (Reg 11(e); Reg 12(1)-(2)).
Gotcha: labelling with initials (not full name) is prescribed; mismatches between other records and initials can create identification disputes. Failure to seal or use tamper‑proof seals opens chain‑of‑custody challenges.
Choice of prescribed form (Reg 17):
Using the incorrect form for the breath analysis outcome (Forms 2-4) or oral fluid (Form 5) will not satisfy the written‑statement prescription linked to s 11 of the Act.
Gotcha: selecting Form 4 where Form 3 was required because the person falls into s 6(3) categories could be grounds to argue the statutory requirement was not met.
Limitations on infringement notices (Reg 18(2)):
An infringement notice may not be issued for certain s 6(1) or s 6A(1) offences where the alleged offender has specified prior convictions or was driving a prescribed vehicle at the time (Reg 18(2)).
Gotcha: issuing an infringement notice in those circumstances may be procedurally invalid and could be set aside.
Monetary threshold for medical report liability (Reg 16):
A person becomes liable to pay for all or part of medical report/examination costs only when the sum exceeds $20 (Reg 16).
Gotcha: charging an individual for reports below that threshold could be inconsistent with the prescribed rule.
Ministerial discretion on equivalence (Reg 5(a)(iii)):
The Minister may regard other qualifications or experience as equivalent for an approved analyst.
Gotcha: an analyst’s claimed equivalence lacking an explicit Ministerial determination is potentially contestable; ensure the Minister’s decision is documented.
In operational terms, the regulations leave little room for informal practice: the technical nature of each requirement means personnel must document compliance carefully. A single omitted signature, an out‑of‑date certificate, an unlabelled aliquot or an unsealed container can create defence lines that may be costly to rebut at trial.
How to comply
Compliance requires procedures, training, recordkeeping and occasional administrative actions. Below is a practical compliance checklist organised by actor, citing the relevant regulation(s). The checklist aims to convert the regulatory prescriptions into operational tasks.
For agencies that deploy breath‑testing equipment and approved operators:
Ensure every breath‑analysing instrument has a current Form 1 certificate signed by an approved analyst, dated within the prior 12 months before statutory use (Reg 6(1)-(2); Schedule 1 Form 1). Maintain a central register of certificates with expiry dates and instrument serial numbers.
Institute a scheduled calibration and verification programme, and maintain documentary proof of each approved analyst’s qualifications and postgraduate experience to satisfy Reg 5(a)-(b). Where equivalence is claimed, secure the Minister’s determination and keep it on file (Reg 5(a)(iii)).
Train approved operators to:
Provide and use an unused mouthpiece for each breath test (Reg 7(a)-(b)).
Enforce and record the 15‑minute non‑consumption period before testing (Reg 7(c)).
Record and retain the instrument printout and provide a copy to the person tested at the time of the test (Reg 7(e)).
Identify and record whether the person is within the statutory categories in s 6(3)/(4) or an operator of a commercial vessel under the Marine Act, so the correct statutory written statement is completed (Reg 7(d)(ii); Reg 17).
Complete, sign and file the prescribed written statement form immediately after testing (Reg 7(d)(iii); Reg 17).
For medical staff and qualified persons taking blood samples:
Ensure personnel taking blood meet the vocational qualification requirement (Reg 4) (Certificate III or Certificate IV in Pathology or equivalent). Maintain copies of qualification certificates and authorisations.
Take approximately 15 ml of blood for the statutory sample (Reg 8(a)); document the measured volume and procedure used.
Use sterilisation methods that leave no volatile organic residues, or use instruments from sealed sterile packaging suitable for medical procedures (Reg 8(b)(i)-(ii)). Maintain logs of sterilisation agents and batch numbers for single‑use instruments.
After aliquoting into containers, agitate containers as prescribed and document the mixing step (Reg 8(c)(i)-(ii)). Record the method and duration of agitation.
Labelling, control sample and custody:
Label each blood container with the person’s full name, date and time of sampling, and the name of the qualified person who took the sample (Reg 9(2)(a)(i)-(iii)). Mark the container holding the control sample distinctly with the word “Control” (Reg 9(2)(b)).
Treat the control sample as reserved material; do not analyse it except by court order or on a statutory request under the Acts (Reg 9(1)). Establish storage and access logs that reflect this constrained treatment.
When a sample is delivered to a police officer, maintain custody in accordance with detention status: in the delivering officer’s possession if the person is not detained, or stored at the station in a place of safety if detained (Reg 10(2)(a)-(b)). Document chain of custody transfers with time, name and rank.
If samples are stored at a station, route access requests to the officer in charge of the station (Reg 10(3)). Ensure the officer in charge has authority and a standard operating procedure to process access requests under the relevant sections of the Act or Marine Act.
For approved operators collecting oral fluid:
Use an approved swab and place it in the person’s mouth until you are satisfied a sufficient sample has been collected; document the operator’s satisfaction and the time taken (Reg 11(a)-(b)).
Place the swab into the provided suitable container and ensure it is mixed/dissolved in any mixture present (Reg 11(c)-(d)). Document the mixing step.
Divide the sample into two suitable containers; seal each with a tamper‑proof seal; label each container with the person’s initials, date/time of collection and the operator’s initials; label one container “Control” (Reg 11(e)(i)-(iii); Reg 12(1)-(2)). Keep a contemporaneous record that links initials to the person’s full name.
For analysts and laboratories:
Keep a current register of approved analysts and verify that each analyst meets Reg 5 academic and experience requirements before allowing them to sign Form 1 or perform analysis (Reg 5).
When testing or certifying breath‑analysing instruments, complete Form 1 and record the test methodology and results so that an operator can demonstrate compliance with Reg 6(2).
Maintain chain‑of‑custody documentation for each sample, preserving the control portion in accordance with Reg 9(1).
For police and administrative staff:
Maintain an inventory of instruments, certificates, sample containers, tamper‑proof seals and printed forms (Schedule 1 Forms 1-5) and ensure operators have immediate access to them.
When issuing infringement notices for designated offences, apply Schedule 2 penalty units and disqualification periods exactly as mapped. Do not issue infringement notices for s 6(1) or s 6A(1) offences when the exclusions in Reg 18(2) apply (prior convictions listed or driving a prescribed vehicle).
If a person is charged and detained, ensure sample storage in a “place of safety” at the police station and make the officer in charge the prescribed person for access requests (Reg 10(2)(b)-(3)).
Document retention and audit:
Keep instrument certificates, sample logs, chain‑of‑custody forms, sealed container evidence and copies of all issued written statements and printouts for a period that meets evidentiary needs under the Act and anticipated prosecution timelines. The regulations themselves do not specify a retention period; agencies should align retention with prosecution and disclosure obligations.
Develop audit checklists to verify compliance with Regs 6-12 and Reg 17. Audits should check certification dates, presence and condition of mouthpieces, 15‑minute checks, correct form usage, control sample labelling, tamper seals and custody logs.
Financial and cost compliance:
Apply the $20 threshold in Reg 16 when demanding payment for medical reports or examinations under s 19(5) of the Act.
Budget for regular instrument certification, training refreshers for approved operators, tamper‑proof materials and secure storage for control samples.
Record of ministerial equivalence:
Where a person’s qualification is claimed to be “equivalent” for approved analyst purposes, ensure there is a documented Ministerial decision or administrative record satisfying Reg 5(a)(iii). Without such documentation, the analyst’s status may be challenged.
By converting each prescriptive point in the regulations into an operational SOP, agencies and practitioners can reduce evidential risks. The regulations are detailed and procedural; compliance requires disciplined documentation of every step from sampling to storage to form completion.
(b) the prescribed experience for an approved analyst is the equivalent of at least 2 full years of postgraduate experience in the field of chemistry, pharmacy or toxicology.
6 Testing and use of breath analysing instruments
6 Testing and use of breath analysing instruments
(1) An approved operator is not to use a breath analysing instrument, for the purpose of carrying out a breath analysis under the Act or the Marine Act, unless a certificate referred to in subregulation (2) has been issued in respect of the instrument within the 12-month period immediately before the date on which the instrument is so used.
(2) An approved analyst must issue and sign a certificate, in accordance with Form 1 , in respect of the testing of a breath analysing instrument if the approved analyst –
(a) tested the breath analysing instrument; and
(b) was satisfied that, at the time of the testing, the instrument was accurate.
7 Duties of approved operators in relation to breath analysing instruments
7 Duties of approved operators in relation to breath analysing instruments
If a breath analysing instrument is to be used by an approved operator to carry out a breath analysis, the operator is to ensure –
(a) that the person submitting to the breath analysis gives a sample of breath into a mouthpiece supplied by the operator; and
(b) that an unused mouthpiece has been provided by the operator for use in the breath analysis; and
(c) that the operator does not carry out a breath analysis unless he or she is satisfied that the person has not consumed intoxicating liquor during the 15 minutes preceding the analysis; and
(d) that, after the completion of the breath analysis, the operator –
(i) records the resultant reading of the breath analysis; and
(ii) makes enquiries to ascertain whether the person is –
(A) if the breath analysis is carried out under the Act – a person mentioned in section 6(3) of the Act; or
(B) if the breath analysis is carried out under the Marine Act – an operator of a commercial vessel within the meaning of that Act; and
(iii) completes and signs the written statement required by –
(A) if the breath analysis is carried out under and for the Act – section 11(1) of the Act; or
(B) if the breath analysis is carried out under and for the Marine Act – section 29 of the Marine Act; and
(e) that the person submitting to the breath analysis is provided with a copy of the printout supplied by that instrument in respect of that breath analysis.
Part 3 Blood Samples
Part 3 Blood Samples
8 Taking of blood samples
8 Taking of blood samples
For the purposes of section 13(4) of the Act or section 32(2) of the Marine Act, a sample of blood is to be taken in the following manner:
(a) the sample is to consist of approximately 15 millilitres of blood;
(b) the instruments used for the purpose of taking the sample are to be –
(i) sterilised before use in a manner that does not leave any residue of a volatile organic substance on those instruments; or
(ii) used directly from packaging that has been designed to keep those instruments in a manner that would enable the use of those instruments in a medical procedure;
(c) after placing a part of the sample in a suitable container, the container is to be agitated to ensure that –
(i) the substances contained in the container are dissolved in the blood; and
(ii) those substances and the blood are thoroughly mixed.
9 Labelling of blood samples
9 Labelling of blood samples
(1) In this regulation –
control sample means that part of a blood sample that may not be analysed or otherwise dealt with, except as a court may otherwise direct or on a request under –
(a) if the blood sample is taken under and for the Act – section 13B(1) of the Act; and
(b) if the blood sample is taken under and for the Marine Act – section 35(3) of the Marine Act.
(2) For the purposes of section 13(5A) of the Act or section 32(5) of the Marine Act, each container into which a part of the sample of blood is placed is to be labelled in the following manner:
(a) the label on each container is to be marked with –
(i) the name of the person from whom the sample was taken; and
(ii) the date and time when the sample was taken; and
(iii) the name of the qualified person who took the sample;
(b) the label on the container which holds the control sample is, in addition to the requirements of paragraph (a) , to be marked with the word “Control”.
10 Provisions relating to blood samples delivered to police officers
10 Provisions relating to blood samples delivered to police officers
(1) In this regulation –
delivered to a police officer means –
(a) if the blood sample is taken under and for the Act – delivered under section 13(5B) of the Act; and
(b) if the blood sample is taken under and for the Marine Act – delivered under section 32(6) of the Marine Act;
police station, in relation to the Marine Act, includes a police vessel or a shore facility used in connection with the operation of police vessels.
(2) For the purposes of section 13A(1) of the Act or section 34(2) of the Marine Act, a container containing part of a sample of blood that is delivered to a police officer is to be kept –
(a) in the police officer’s possession, if the person from whom the sample is taken is not detained after being charged by the officer with an offence under the Act or the Marine Act; or
(b) at the police station in a place of safety, if the person from whom the sample is taken is detained after being charged with an offence under the Act or the Marine Act.
(3) If a blood sample has been kept at a police station under subregulation (2)(b) , the officer in charge of that station is prescribed as the person to whom a request referred to in section 13A(3) of the Act, or section 34(4) of the Marine Act, respectively, is to be made in respect of that sample.
Part 4 Oral fluids
Part 4 Oral fluids
11 Taking of oral fluids
11 Taking of oral fluids
For the purposes of section 13C(1)(a) of the Act, a sample of oral fluid is required to be taken from a person in the following manner:
(a) an approved operator is to provide the person with a swab to collect the sample of oral fluid;
(b) the swab is to be placed in the person’s mouth and kept there until the approved operator is satisfied that a sufficient sample of oral fluid has been collected from the person;
(c) the swab is to be placed into a suitable container provided by the approved operator;
(d) the approved operator is to ensure that the swab has been mixed with, or dissolved in, any mixture in the suitable container;
(e) the approved operator is to –
(i) divide the sample, mixed or dissolved, in accordance with paragraph (d) , into 2 suitable containers; and
(ii) seal those containers with a tamper proof seal; and
(iii) label those containers in accordance with regulation 12 .
12 Labelling of oral fluids
12 Labelling of oral fluids
(1) An approved operator, who sealed a container in accordance with regulation 11(e) into which part of a sample of oral fluid was placed under that regulation, is to label each container so sealed with –
(a) the initials of the person from whom the sample was taken; and
(b) the date and time when the sample was taken; and
(c) the initials of the approved operator.
(2) In addition to subregulation (1) , an approved operator is to label one container of a sample of oral fluid, sealed in accordance with regulation 11(e) , with the word “Control”.
Part 5 Miscellaneous
Part 5 Miscellaneous
13 Police officer to receive copy of reports of analysis
13 Police officer to receive copy of reports of analysis
For the purposes of section 35(6)(b)(ii) of the Marine Act, the police officer who requested that a sample of blood be taken under that Act is the prescribed police officer.
14 Identification of drivers
14 Identification of drivers
For the purposes of section 10(8) of the Act, the prescribed means of identification of a driver is a tag, or label or other similar article, bearing the word “Driver”.
15 Prescribed illicit drugs
15 Prescribed illicit drugs
For the purposes of the Act, the following drugs are prescribed as illicit drugs:
16 Liability for costs of medical reports and examinations
16 Liability for costs of medical reports and examinations
For the purposes of section 19(5) of the Act, the sum of $20 is prescribed as the sum exceeding which a person becomes liable to pay for the whole or a portion of the costs of a medical report and examination under that section.
17 Forms of statements
17 Forms of statements
For the purposes of section 11 of the Act, the prescribed form of written statement is –
(a) Form 2 , if the concentration of alcohol in the breath of a person submitting to a breath analysis, as determined by that analysis, is greater than the prescribed concentration; or
(b) Form 3 , if –
(i) it appears to an approved operator carrying out a breath analysis that the person submitting to the analysis is, or may be, a person mentioned in section 6(3) or (4) of the Act; and
(ii) the breath analysis indicates that alcohol is present in that person’s body; or
(c) Form 4 , if –
(i) the concentration of alcohol in the breath of a person submitting to a breath analysis, as determined by that analysis, is not greater than the prescribed concentration; and
(ii) it appears to an approved operator carrying out a breath analysis that the person submitting to the analysis is not, or may not be, a person mentioned in section 6(3) or (4) of the Act; or
(d) Form 5 , if the person has provided a sample of oral fluid for oral fluid analysis.
18 Infringement notice offences
18 Infringement notice offences
(1) For the purposes of section 18A of the Act –
(a) an offence in a provision specified in column 1 of the table in Schedule 2 is prescribed as an infringement offence; and
(b) the penalty specified in column 2 of the table in Schedule 2 is prescribed as the penalty for the relevant offence specified in column 1 of that table; and
(c) the period of disqualification specified in column 3 of the table in Schedule 2 is prescribed for the relevant offence specified in column 1 of that table.
(2) An infringement notice may not be issued in respect of an offence against section 6(1) or 6A(1) of the Act, if the person who is reasonably believed to have committed the offence –
(a) has been convicted of –
(i) the crime of manslaughter, if that conviction relates to the driving of a motor vehicle; or
(ii)
This is an opening excerpt, not the complete document.