Schedule Sch 1 - National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Amendment Instrument 2016 (No. 2) (PB 11 of 2016) - Amendments | Zoe

CTHRepealedLegislation

National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Amendment Instrument 2016 (No. 2) (PB 11 of 2016)

Sch 1Amendments

Start here

Get a plain-English read of Sch 1

Turn the raw legal text into a practical explanation grounded in National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Amendment Instrument 2016 (No. 2) (PB 11 of 2016).

Ask Zoe about this section View in full context

Schedule 1 Amendments

[1] Section 4

insert after the definition of “extemporaneously‑prepared pharmaceutical benefit”:

General Statement for drugs for the treatment of hepatitis C means the statement set out in Part 3 of Schedule 4;

[2] Schedule 1, entry for Aciclovir

substitute:

Eye ointment 30 mg per g, 4.5 g	Application to the eye		AciVision	DZ	MP NP	C5965		1	0	1
					AO	C5964		1	0	1
			Zovirax	GK	MP NP	C5965		1	0	1
					AO	C5964		1	0	1
Tablet 200 mg	Oral	a	Aciclovir Sandoz	HX	MP NP	C5936 C5942	P5936	50	0	25
		a	Acyclo‑V 200	AF	MP NP	C5936 C5942	P5936	50	0	25
		a	GenRx Aciclovir	GX	MP NP	C5936 C5942	P5936	50	0	50
		a	Lovir	GN	MP NP	C5936 C5942	P5936	50	0	25
		a	Zovirax 200 mg	GK	MP NP	C5936 C5942

Amino acid formula with fat, carbohydrate, vitamins, minerals and trace elements without phenylalanine	Bottles containing oral powder 34 g, 30 (PKU Easy Shake & Go)	Oral		PKU Easy Shake & Go	OH	MP NP	C5970		4	5	1

(a) omit:

(b) omit:

(a) omit:

(b) omit:

(a) omit:

(b) omit:

(a) omit:

(b) omit:

(a) omit:

(b) omit:

(a) insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:

(b) insert in the column headed “Schedule Equivalent” for the brands “Dostan” and “Dostinex”: a

(a) insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:

(b) insert in the column headed “Schedule Equivalent” for the brands “Dostan” and “Dostinex”: a

(a) omit from the column headed “Responsible Person” for the brand “Clovix 75”: QA substitute: RW
(b) omit from the column headed “Responsible Person” for the brand “Plidogrel”: FM substitute: RF

Tablet 30 mg	Oral	Daklinza	BQ	MP	C5969 C5972	P5969	28	2	28
				MP	C5969 C5972	P5972	28	5	28
				MP	See Note 2	See Note 2	See Note 2	See Note 2	28	C(100)
Tablet 60 mg	Oral	Daklinza	BQ	MP	C5969 C5972	P5969	28	2	28
				MP	C5969 C5972	P5972	28	5	28
				MP	See Note 2	See Note 2	See Note 2	See Note 2	28	C(100)

(a) insert in the column headed “Schedule Equivalent” for all brands: a
(b) omit:

(c) insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:

(a) insert in the column headed “Schedule Equivalent” for all brands: a
(b) omit:

(c) insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:

Tablet containing 5 mg empagliflozin with 1 g metformin hydrochloride	Oral	Jardiamet 5 mg/1000 mg	BY	MP	C5657 C5798 C5953 C5966	60	5	60
				NP	C5657 C5798 C5966	60	5	60
Tablet containing 5 mg empagliflozin with 500 mg metformin hydrochloride	Oral	Jardiamet 5 mg/500 mg	BY	MP	C5657 C5798 C5953 C5966	60	5	60
				NP	C5657 C5798 C5966	60	5	60
Tablet containing 12.5 mg empagliflozin with 1 g metformin hydrochloride	Oral	Jardiamet 12.5 mg/1000 mg	BY	MP	C5657 C5798 C5953 C5966	60	5	60
				NP	C5657 C5798 C5966	60	5	60
Tablet containing 12.5 mg empagliflozin with 500 mg metformin hydrochloride	Oral	Jardiamet 12.5 mg/500 mg	BY	MP	C5657 C5798 C5953 C5966	60	5	60
				NP	C5657 C5798 C5966	60	5	60

Tablet 125 mg	Oral	a	APO‑Famciclovir	TX	MP NP	C5937		40	1	40
		a	Auro-Famciclovir 125	DO	MP NP	C5937		40	1	40
		a	Ezovir	AF	MP NP	C5937		40	1	40
		a	Famciclovir AN	EA	MP NP	C5937		40	1	40
		a	Famciclovir‑GA	ED	MP NP	C5937		40	1	40
		a	Famvir	NV	MP NP	C5937		40	1	40
		a	Favic 125	QA	MP NP	C5937		40	1	40
Tablet 250 mg	Oral	a	APO‑Famciclovir	TX	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5937	20	1	20
		a	Ezovir	AF	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5937	20	1	20
		a	Famciclovir AN	EA	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5937	20	1	20
		a	Famciclovir‑GA	ED	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5937	20	1	20
		a	Famciclovir Sandoz	SZ	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5937	20	1	20
		a	Famvir	NV	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5937	20	1	20
		a	Favic 250	QA	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5937	20	1	20
		a	APO‑Famciclovir	TX	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5951	21	0	21
		a	Auro-Famciclovir 250	DO	MP NP	C5951 C5971	P5951	21	0	21
		a	Ezovir	AF	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5951	21	0	21
		a	Famciclovir AN	EA	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5951	21	0	21
		a	Famciclovir‑GA	ED	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5951	21	0	21
		a	Famciclovir generichealth 250	GQ	MP NP	C5951 C5971	P5951	21	0	21
		a	Famciclovir Sandoz	SZ	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5951	21	0	21
		a	Famciclovir SCP 250	CR	MP NP	C5951 C5971	P5951	21	0	21
		a	Famlo	RA	MP NP	C5951 C5971	P5951	21	0	21
		a	Famvir	NV	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5951	21	0	21
		a	Favic 250	QA	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5951	21	0	21
		a	APO‑Famciclovir	TX	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5971	56	5	56
		a	Auro-Famciclovir 250	DO	MP NP	C5951 C5971	P5971	56	5	56
		a	Ezovir	AF	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5971	56	5	56
		a	Famciclovir AN	EA	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5971	56	5	56
		a	Famciclovir‑GA	ED	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5971	56	5	56
		a	Famciclovir generichealth 250	GQ	MP NP	C5951 C5971	P5971	56	5	56
		a	Famciclovir Sandoz	SZ	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5971	56	5	56
		a	Famciclovir SCP 250	CR	MP NP	C5951 C5971	P5971	56	5	56
		a	Famlo	RA	MP NP	C5951 C5971	P5971	56	5	56
		a	Famvir	NV	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5971	56	5	56
		a	Favic 250	QA	MP NP	C5937 C5951 C5971	P5971	56	5	56
Tablet 500 mg	Oral	a	APO‑Famciclovir	TX	MP NP	C5943 C5947 C5948 C5949 C5954	P5943	30	0	30
		a	Auro-Famciclovir 500	DO	MP NP	C5943 C5947 C5948 C5949 C5954	P5943	30	0	30
		a	Chem mart Famciclovir	CH	MP NP	C5943 C5947 C5948 C5949 C5954	P5943	30	0	30
		a	Famciclovir AN	EA	MP NP	C5943 C5947 C5948 C5949 C5954	P5943	30	0	30
		a	Famciclovir Sandoz	SZ	MP NP	C5943 C5947 C5948 C5949 C5954	P5943	30	0	30
		a	Famvir	NV	MP NP	C5943 C5947 C5948 C5949 C5954	P5943	30	0	30
		a	Favic 500	QA	MP NP	C5943 C5947 C5948 C5949 C5954	P5943	30	0	30
		a	Terry White Chemists Famciclovir	TW	MP NP	C5943 C5947 C5948 C5949 C5954	P5943	30	0	30
		a	APO‑Famciclovir	TX	MP NP	C5943 C5947 C5948 C5949 C5954	P5947 P5948 P5949 P5954	56	5	56
		a	Auro-Famciclovir 500	DO	MP NP	C5943 C5947 C5948 C5949 C5954	P5947 P5948 P5949 P5954	56	5	56
		a	Chem mart Famciclovir	CH	MP NP	C5943 C5947 C5948 C5949 C5954	P5947 P5948 P5949 P5954	56	5	56
		a	Ezovir	AF	MP NP	C5947 C5948 C5949 C5954		56	5	56
		a	Famciclovir AN	EA	MP NP	C5943 C5947 C5948 C5949 C5954	P5947 P5948 P5949 P5954	56	5	56
		a	Famciclovir‑GA	ED	MP NP	C5947 C5948 C5949 C5954		56	5	56
		a	Famciclovir generichealth 500	GQ	MP NP	C5947 C5948 C5949 C5954		56	5	56
		a	Famciclovir Sandoz	SZ	MP NP	C5943 C5947 C5948 C5949 C5954	P5947 P5948 P5949 P5954	56	5	56
		a	Famvir	NV	MP NP	C5943 C5947 C5948 C5949 C5954	P5947 P5948 P5949 P5954	56	5	56
		a	Favic 500	QA	MP NP	C5943 C5947 C5948 C5949 C5954	P5947 P5948 P5949 P5954	56	5	56
		a	Terry White Chemists Famciclovir	TW	MP NP	C5943 C5947 C5948 C5949 C5954	P5947 P5948 P5949 P5954	56	5	56

MP	C5944 C5969 C5972	P5944	28	1	28
MP	C5944 C5969 C5972	P5969	28	2	28
MP	C5944 C5969 C5972	P5972	28	5	28
MP	See Note 2	See Note 2	See Note 2	See Note 2	28	C(100)

(a) insert in the column headed “Schedule Equivalent” for all brands: a
(b) insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:

(a) omit:

(b) omit:

(a) insert in the column headed “Schedule Equivalent” for all brands: a
(b) omit from the column headed “Brand”: Levetiracetam generichealth substitute: Levetiracetam GH
(c) omit from the column headed “Responsible Person” for the brand “Levi 500”: FM substitute: RW

(a) omit from the column headed “Responsible Person” for the brand “Chemists’ Own Macrogol with Electrolytes” (all instances):  
FM substitute: RW
(b) omit from the column headed “Responsible Person” for the brand “Macrovic” (all instances): QA substitute: RF

(a) omit:

(b) omit from the column headed “Responsible Person” for the brand “Metrol 50”: QA substitute: RW
(c) omit:

(a) omit:

(b) omit from the column headed “Responsible Person” for the brand “Metrol 100”: QA substitute: RW

(a) insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:

(b) omit:

(c) omit:

(a) insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:

(b) omit:

(c) omit:

(a) insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:

(b) omit:

(c) omit:

(a) insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:

(b) omit:

(c) omit:

(a) omit:

(b) omit from the column headed “Responsible Person” for the brand “Oxaliplatin SUN”: ZF substitute: RA

(a) insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:

(b) insert in the column headed “Schedule Equivalent” for the brand “Sifrol ER” (all instances): a

(a) omit:

(b) omit from the column headed “Responsible Person” for the brand “Quetia 25”: FM substitute: RW
(c) omit from the column headed “Responsible Person” for the brand “Seronia 25”: QA substitute: RF

(a) omit:

(b) omit from the column headed “Responsible Person” for the brand “Quetia 100”: FM substitute: RW

(a) omit:

(b) omit from the column headed “Responsible Person” for the brands “Quetia 200” and “Quetia 300” respectively: FM substitute: RW

Tablet 400 mg	Oral	Ibavyr	IX	MP	C5957 C5958	P5957	28	2	28
				MP	C5957 C5958	P5958	28	5	28
				MP	See Note 2	See Note 2	See Note 2	See Note 2	28	C(100)
Tablet 600 mg	Oral	Ibavyr	IX	MP	C5957 C5958	P5957	28	2	28
				MP	C5957 C5958	P5958	28	5	28
				MP	See Note 2	See Note 2	See Note 2	See Note 2	28	C(100)

Pack containing 168 tablets ribavirin 200 mg and 4 pre‑filled syringes peginterferon alfa‑2a injection 135 micrograms	Injection/oral	Pegasys RBV	RO	MP	C4184 C4185 C4187 C4188 C4193 C4197 C4206 C4207		2	5	1	PB(100)
Pack containing 112 tablets ribavirin 200 mg and 4 pre‑filled syringes peginterferon alfa‑2a injection 180 micrograms	Injection/oral	Pegasys RBV	RO	MP	C4184 C4185 C4187 C4188 C4193 C4197 C4206 C4207		2	5	1	PB(100)
Pack containing 140 tablets ribavirin 200 mg and 4 pre-filled syringes peginterferon alfa-2a injection 180 micrograms	Injection/oral	Pegasys RBV	RO	MP	C4184 C4185 C4187 C4188 C4193 C4197 C4206 C4207 C5956	P5956	1	2	1
				MP	See Note 2	See Note 2	See Note 2	See Note 2	1	C(100)
				MP	C4184 C4185 C4187 C4188 C4193 C4197 C4206 C4207 C5956	P4184 P4185 P4187 P4188 P4193 P4197 P4206 P4207	2	5	1	C(100)
Pack containing 168 tablets ribavirin 200 mg and 4 pre-filled syringes peginterferon alfa-2a injection 180 micrograms	Injection/oral	Pegasys RBV	RO	MP	C4184 C4185 C4187 C4188 C4193 C4197 C4206 C4207 C5956	P5956	1	2	1
				MP	See Note 2	See Note 2	See Note 2	See Note 2	1	C(100)
				MP	C4184 C4185 C4187 C4188 C4193 C4197 C4206 C4207 C5956	P4184 P4185 P4187 P4188 P4193 P4197 P4206 P4207	2	5	1	C(100)

(a) omit:

(b) omit:

(a) omit:

(b) omit:

(a) omit:

(b) omit:

(a) insert in the column headed “Schedule Equivalent” for all brands: a
(b) insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:

(a) insert in the column headed “Schedule Equivalent” for all brands: a
(b) insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:

(a) insert in the column headed “Schedule Equivalent” for all brands: a
(b) insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:

(a) insert in the column headed “Schedule Equivalent” for all brands: a
(b) insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:

(a) insert in the column headed “Schedule Equivalent” for all brands: a
(b) insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:

(a) insert in the column headed “Schedule Equivalent” for all brands: a
(b) insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:

(a) insert in the column headed “Schedule Equivalent” for all brands: a
(b) insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:

(a) insert in the column headed “Schedule Equivalent” for all brands: a
(b) insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:

(a) omit:

(b) omit:

(a) omit:

(b) omit:

(a) omit:

(b) omit:

(a) omit:

(b) omit:

(a) omit:

(b) omit from the column headed “Responsible Person” for the brand “Sumatran” (twice occurring): QA substitute: OW

APO‑Temazepam	TX	MP NP	P5661 P5684 P5770	50CN5661 CN5684 CN5770	5CN5661 CN5684 CN5770	25
Normison	QA	MP NP	P5661 P5684 P5770	50CN5661 CN5684 CN5770	5CN5661 CN5684 CN5770	25
Temaze	AF	MP NP	P5661 P5684 P5770	50CN5661 CN5684 CN5770	5CN5661 CN5684 CN5770	25
Temtabs	FM	MP NP	P5661 P5684 P5770	50CN5661 CN5684 CN5770	5CN5661 CN5684 CN5770	25

APO‑Temazepam	TX	MP NP	P5661 P5941 P5950	50CN5661 CN5941 CN5950	5CN5661 CN5941 CN5950	25
Normison	QA	MP NP	P5661 P5941 P5950	50CN5661 CN5941 CN5950	5CN5661 CN5941 CN5950	25
Temaze	AF	MP NP	P5661 P5941 P5950	50CN5661 CN5941 CN5950	5CN5661 CN5941 CN5950	25
Temtabs	FM	MP NP	P5661 P5941 P5950	50CN5661 CN5941 CN5950	5CN5661 CN5941 CN5950	25

(a) omit:

(b) omit:

(a) insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:

(b) insert in the column headed “Schedule Equivalent” for the brands “Ursofalk” and “Ursosan”: a

a	APO‑Valaciclovir	TX	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5960	20	0	10
a	Vaclovir	AF	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5960	20	0	10
a	Valaciclovir Actavis	ED	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5960	20	0	10
a	Valaciclovir AN	EA	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5960	20	0	10
a	Valaciclovir GA	GN	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5960	20	0	10
a	Valaciclovir Sandoz	SZ	MP NP	C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5960	20	0	10
a	Valnir	QA	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5960	20	0	10
a	Valtrex	AS	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5960	20	0	10
a	Zelitrex	FM	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5960	20	0	10
a	APO‑Valaciclovir	TX	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5940 P5961	30	5	30
a	Chem mart Valaciclovir	CH	MP NP	C5940 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5940 P5961	30	5	30
a	Shilova 500	DO	MP NP	C5940 C5961		30	5	30
a	Terry White Chemists Valaciclovir	TW	MP NP	C5940 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5940 P5961	30	5	30
a	Vaclovir	AF	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5940 P5961	30	5	30
a	Valaciclovir Actavis	ED	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5940 P5961	30	5	30
a	Valaciclovir AN	EA	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5940 P5961	30	5	30
a	Valaciclovir GA	GN	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5940 P5961	30	5	30
a	Valaciclovir generichealth	GQ	MP NP	C5940 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5940 P5961	30	5	30
a	Valaciclovir RBX	RA	MP NP	C5940 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5940 P5961	30	5	30
a	Valaciclovir Sandoz	SZ	MP NP	C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5961	30	5	30
a	Valaciclovir SZ	HX	MP NP	C5940 C5961		30	5	30
a	Valacor 500	CR	MP NP	C5940 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5940 P5961	30	5	30
a	Valnir	QA	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5940 P5961	30	5	30
a	Valtrex	AS	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5940 P5961	30	5	30
a	Zelitrex	FM	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5940 P5961	30	5	30
a	APO‑Valaciclovir	TX	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5962 P5968	42	0	42
a	Chem mart Valaciclovir	CH	MP NP	C5940 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5962 P5968	42	0	42
a	Terry White Chemists Valaciclovir	TW	MP NP	C5940 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5962 P5968	42	0	42
a	Vaclovir	AF	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5962 P5968	42	0	42
a	Valaciclovir Actavis	ED	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5962 P5968	42	0	42
a	Valaciclovir AN	EA	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5962 P5968	42	0	42
a	Valaciclovir GA	GN	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5962 P5968	42	0	42
a	Valaciclovir generichealth	GQ	MP NP	C5940 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5962 P5968	42	0	42
a	Valaciclovir RBX	RA	MP NP	C5940 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5962 P5968	42	0	42
a	Valaciclovir Sandoz	SZ	MP NP	C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5962 P5968	42	0	42
a	Valacor 500	CR	MP NP	C5940 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5962 P5968	42	0	42
a	Valnir	QA	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5962 P5968	42	0	42
a	Valtrex	AS	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5962 P5968	42	0	42
a	Zelitrex	FM	MP NP	C5940 C5960 C5961 C5962 C5968	P5962 P5968	42	0	42
a	APO‑Valaciclovir	TX	MP	C5939 C5975		500	2	100	C(100)
a	Valaciclovir RBX	RA	MP	C5939 C5975		500	2	100	C(100)
a	Valtrex	AS	MP	C5939 C5975		500	2	100	C(100)
a	Zelitrex	FM	MP	C5939 C5975		500	2	100	C(100)

C5936	P5936	Initial moderate to severe genital herpesMicrobiological confirmation of diagnosis [viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)] is desirable but need not delay treatment.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5936
C5942	P5942	Recurrent moderate to severe genital herpesEpisodic treatment or suppressive therapyMicrobiological confirmation of diagnosis [viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)] is desirable but need not delay treatment.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5942
C5946	P5946	Advanced human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) diseasePatient must have CD4 cell counts of less than 150 million per litre.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5946
C5959	P5959	Herpes zoster ophthalmicus	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5959
C5964		Herpes simplex keratitis
C5965		Herpes simplex keratitis
C5967	P5967	Herpes zosterThe treatment must be administered within 72 hours of the onset of the rash.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5967

	C5945			Eosinophilic oesophagitisInitial treatment for up to 3 monthsPatient must require an amino acid based formula as a component of a dietary elimination program.Patient must be 18 years of age or less.Must be treated by a clinical immunologist, suitably qualified allergist or gastroenterologist.Treatment with oral steroids should not be commenced during the period of initial treatment.Eosinophilic oesophagitis is demonstrated by the following criteria:(i) Chronic symptoms of reflux that persisted despite a 2-month trial of a proton pump inhibitor or chronic dysphagia; and(ii) A lack of demonstrable anatomic abnormality with the exception of stricture, which can be attributable to eosinophilic oesophagitis; and(iii) Eosinophilic infiltration of the oesophagus, demonstrated by oesophageal biopsy specimens obtained by endoscopy and where the most densely involved oesophageal biopsy had 20 or more eosinophils in any single 400 x high powered field, along with normal antral and duodenal biopsies.The date of birth of the patient must be included in the authority application.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures
	C5974			Eosinophilic oesophagitisContinuing treatmentPatient must have responded to an initial course of PBS-subsidised treatment.Patient must be 18 years of age or less.Must be treated by a clinical immunologist, suitably qualified allergist or gastroenterologist.Response to initial treatment is demonstrated by oesophageal biopsy specimens obtained by endoscopy, where the most densely involved oesophageal biopsy had 5 or less eosinophils in any single 400 x high powered field, along with normal antral and duodenal biopsies. The response criteria will not be deemed to have been met if oral steroids were commenced during initial treatment.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures

	C4415			Severe intestinal malabsorption including short bowel syndromePatient must have failed to respond to protein hydrolysate formulae; ORPatient must have been receiving parenteral nutrition.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures
	C5945			Eosinophilic oesophagitisInitial treatment for up to 3 monthsPatient must require an amino acid based formula as a component of a dietary elimination program.Patient must be 18 years of age or less.Must be treated by a clinical immunologist, suitably qualified allergist or gastroenterologist.Treatment with oral steroids should not be commenced during the period of initial treatment.Eosinophilic oesophagitis is demonstrated by the following criteria:(i) Chronic symptoms of reflux that persisted despite a 2-month trial of a proton pump inhibitor or chronic dysphagia; and(ii) A lack of demonstrable anatomic abnormality with the exception of stricture, which can be attributable to eosinophilic oesophagitis; and(iii) Eosinophilic infiltration of the oesophagus, demonstrated by oesophageal biopsy specimens obtained by endoscopy and where the most densely involved oesophageal biopsy had 20 or more eosinophils in any single 400 x high powered field, along with normal antral and duodenal biopsies.The date of birth of the patient must be included in the authority application.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures
	C5974			Eosinophilic oesophagitisContinuing treatmentPatient must have responded to an initial course of PBS-subsidised treatment.Patient must be 18 years of age or less.Must be treated by a clinical immunologist, suitably qualified allergist or gastroenterologist.Response to initial treatment is demonstrated by oesophageal biopsy specimens obtained by endoscopy, where the most densely involved oesophageal biopsy had 5 or less eosinophils in any single 400 x high powered field, along with normal antral and duodenal biopsies. The response criteria will not be deemed to have been met if oral steroids were commenced during initial treatment.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures

(a) omit:

	C3827			Chronic stable plaque type psoriasis vulgaris of the scalp in a patient who is not adequately controlled with either calcipotriol or potent topical corticosteroid monotherapy
	C5465	P5465	CN5465	Chronic stable plaque type psoriasis vulgarisThe condition must be on the patient's scalp; ANDThe condition must be inadequately controlled with either a vitamin D analogue or potent topical corticosteroid as monotherapy; ANDPatient must require more than 30 grams of the product per month.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5465

(b) insert in numerical order after existing text:

	C5955			Chronic stable plaque type psoriasis vulgarisThe condition must be inadequately controlled with either a vitamin D analogue or potent topical corticosteroid as monotherapy.
	C5963			Chronic stable plaque type psoriasis vulgarisThe condition must be inadequately controlled with either a vitamin D analogue or potent topical corticosteroid as monotherapy; ANDPatient must require more than 30 grams of product per month.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5963

Daclatasvir	C5969	P5969		Chronic hepatitis C infectionPatient must meet the criteria set out in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C; ANDPatient must be taking this drug as part of a regimen set out in the matrix in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C, based on the hepatitis C virus genotype, patient treatment history and cirrhotic status; ANDThe treatment must be limited to a maximum duration of 12 weeks.	Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures
	C5972	P5972		Chronic hepatitis C infectionPatient must meet the criteria set out in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C; ANDPatient must be taking this drug as part of a regimen set out in the matrix in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C, based on the hepatitis C virus genotype, patient treatment history and cirrhotic status; ANDThe treatment must be limited to a maximum duration of 24 weeks.	Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures

Empagliflozin	C4983			Diabetes mellitus type 2The treatment must be in combination with metformin; ORThe treatment must be in combination with a sulfonylurea; ANDPatient must have, or have had, a HbA1c measurement greater than 7% despite treatment with either metformin or a sulfonylurea; ORPatient must have, or have had, where HbA1c measurement is clinically inappropriate, blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests over a 2 week period despite treatment with either metformin or a sulfonylurea.The date and level of the qualifying HbA1c measurement must be, or must have been, documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment with a dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor (gliptin), a thiazolidinedione (glitazone), a glucagon-like peptide-1 or a sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor is initiated.The HbA1c must be no more than 4 months old at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 inhibitor was initiated.Blood glucose monitoring may be used as an alternative assessment to HbA1c levels in the following circumstances:(a) A clinical condition with reduced red blood cell survival, including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies; and/or(b) Had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months.The results of the blood glucose monitoring, which must be no more than 4 months old at the time of initiation of treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 inhibitor, must be documented in the patient's medical records.A patient whose diabetes was previously demonstrated unable to be controlled with metformin or a sulfonylurea does not need to requalify on this criterion before being eligible for PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4983
	C4991			Diabetes mellitus type 2The treatment must be in combination with insulin; ANDPatient must have, or have had, a HbA1c measurement greater than 7% prior to the initiation of a dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor (gliptin), a thiazolidinedione (glitazone), a glucagon-like peptide-1 or a sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor despite treatment with insulin and oral antidiabetic agents, or insulin alone where metformin is contraindicated; ORPatient must have, or have had, where HbA1c measurement is clinically inappropriate, blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests over a 2 week period prior to initiation with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 inhibitor despite treatment with insulin and oral antidiabetic agents, or insulin alone where metformin is contraindicated.The date and level of the qualifying HbA1c measurement must be, or must have been, documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 inhibitor is initiated.The HbA1c must be no more than 4 months old at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 inhibitor was initiated.Blood glucose monitoring may be used as an alternative assessment to HbA1c levels in the following circumstances:(a) A clinical condition with reduced red blood cell survival, including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies; and/or(b) Had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months.The results of the blood glucose monitoring, which must be no more than 4 months old at the time of initiation of treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 inhibitor, must be documented in the patient's medical records.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4991
	C5629			Diabetes mellitus type 2The treatment must be in combination with metformin; ANDThe treatment must be in combination with a sulfonylurea; ANDPatient must have, or have had, a HbA1c measurement greater than 7% prior to the initiation of a dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor (gliptin), a thiazolidinedione (glitazone), a glucagon-like peptide-1 or a sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor despite treatment with optimal doses of dual oral therapy; ORPatient must have, or have had, where HbA1c measurement is clinically inappropriate, blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests over a 2 week period prior to initiation with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 despite treatment with optimal doses of dual oral therapy.The date and level of the qualifying HbA1c measurement must be, or must have been, documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 inhibitor is initiated.The HbA1c must be no more than 4 months old at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 inhibitor was initiated.Blood glucose monitoring may be used as an alternative assessment to HbA1c levels in the following circumstances:(a) A clinical condition with reduced red blood cell survival, including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies; and/or(b) Had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months.The results of the blood glucose monitoring, which must be no more than 4 months old at the time of initiation of treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 inhibitor, must be documented in the patient's medical records.A patient whose diabetes was previously demonstrated unable to be controlled with metformin or a sulfonylurea does not need to requalify on this criterion before being eligible for PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5629

C5657	Diabetes mellitus type 2The treatment must be in combination with insulin; ANDPatient must have, or have had, a HbA1c measurement greater than 7% prior to the initiation of a dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor (gliptin), a thiazolidinedione (glitazone), a glucagon-like peptide-1 or a sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor despite treatment with insulin and oral antidiabetic agents, or insulin alone where metformin is contraindicated; ORPatient must have, or have had, where HbA1c measurement is clinically inappropriate, blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests over a 2 week period prior to initiation with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 inhibitor despite treatment with insulin and oral antidiabetic agents, or insulin alone where metformin is contraindicated.The date and level of the qualifying HbA1c measurement must be, or must have been, documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 inhibitor is initiated.The HbA1c must be no more than 4 months old at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 inhibitor was initiated.Blood glucose monitoring may be used as an alternative assessment to HbA1c levels in the following circumstances:(a) A clinical condition with reduced red blood cell survival, including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies; and/or(b) Had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months.The results of the blood glucose monitoring, which must be no more than 4 months old at the time of initiation of treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 inhibitor, must be documented in the patient's medical records.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5657
C5798	Diabetes mellitus type 2The treatment must be in combination with a sulfonylurea; ANDPatient must have, or have had, a HbA1c measurement greater than 7% prior to the initiation of a dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor (gliptin), a thiazolidinedione (glitazone), a glucagon-like peptide-1 or a sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor despite treatment with optimal doses of dual oral therapy; ORPatient must have, or have had, where HbA1c measurement is clinically inappropriate, blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests over a 2 week period prior to initiation with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 despite treatment with optimal doses of dual oral therapy.The date and level of the qualifying HbA1c measurement must be, or must have been, documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 inhibitor is initiated.The HbA1c must be no more than 4 months old at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 inhibitor was initiated.Blood glucose monitoring may be used as an alternative assessment to HbA1c levels in the following circumstances:(a) A clinical condition with reduced red blood cell survival, including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies; and/or(b) Had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months.The results of the blood glucose monitoring, which must be no more than 4 months old at the time of initiation of treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 inhibitor, must be documented in the patient's medical records.A patient whose diabetes was previously demonstrated unable to be controlled with metformin or a sulfonylurea does not need to requalify on this criterion before being eligible for PBS-subsidised treatment with this fixed dose combination.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5798
C5953	Diabetes mellitus type 2Patient must have, or have had, a HbA1c measurement greater than 7% despite treatment with metformin; ORPatient must have, or have had, where HbA1c measurement is clinically inappropriate, blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests over a 2 week period despite treatment with metformin.The date and level of the qualifying HbA1c measurement must be, or must have been, documented in the patient's medical records at the time treatment with a dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor (gliptin), a thiazolidinedione (glitazone), a glucagon-like peptide-1 or a sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor is initiated.The HbA1c must be no more than 4 months old at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 inhibitor was initiated.Blood glucose monitoring may be used as an alternative assessment to HbA1c levels in the following circumstances:(a) A clinical condition with reduced red blood cell survival, including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies; and/or(b) Had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months.The results of the blood glucose monitoring, which must be no more than 4 months old at the time of initiation of treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone, a glucagon-like peptide-1 or an SGLT2 inhibitor, must be documented in the patient's medical records.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5953
C5966	Diabetes mellitus type 2Continuing treatmentPatient must have previously received and been stabilised on a PBS-subsidised regimen of oral diabetic medicines which includes metformin and empagliflozin.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5966

C5937	P5937	Recurrent moderate to severe genital herpesEpisodic treatmentMicrobiological confirmation of diagnosis [viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)] is desirable but need not delay treatment.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5937
C5943	P5943	Herpes zosterPatient must be immunocompromised; ANDThe treatment must be administered within 72 hours of the onset of the rash.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5943
C5947	P5947	Recurrent moderate to severe oral or labial herpesEpisodic treatmentPatient must have HIV infection; ANDPatient must have a CD4 cell count of less than 500 million per litre.Microbiological confirmation of diagnosis [viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)] is desirable but need not delay treatment.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5947
C5948	P5948	Recurrent moderate to severe oral or labial herpesSuppressive therapyPatient must have HIV infection; ANDPatient must have CD4 cell counts of less than 150 million per litre.Microbiological confirmation of diagnosis [viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)] is desirable but need not delay treatment.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5948
C5949	P5949	Recurrent moderate to severe oral or labial herpesSuppressive therapyPatient must have HIV infection; ANDPatient must present with other opportunistic infections or AIDS defining tumours.Microbiological confirmation of diagnosis [viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)] is desirable but need not delay treatment.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5949
C5951	P5951	Herpes zosterThe treatment must be administered within 72 hours of the onset of the rash.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5951
C5954	P5954	Recurrent moderate to severe genital herpesEpisodic treatment or suppressive therapyPatient must be immunocompromised.Microbiological confirmation of diagnosis [viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)] is desirable but need not delay treatment.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5954
C5971	P5971	Recurrent moderate to severe genital herpesSuppressive therapyMicrobiological confirmation of diagnosis [viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)] is desirable but need not delay treatment.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5971

Folinic acid	C5938			Megaloblastic anaemiasThe condition must be a result of folic acid deficiency from the use of folic acid antagonists.
	C5973			Megaloblastic anaemiasThe condition must be a result of folic acid deficiency from the use of folic acid antagonists.

Ledipasvir with sofosbuvir	C5944	P5944		Chronic hepatitis C infectionPatient must meet the criteria set out in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C; ANDPatient must be taking this drug as part of a regimen set out in the matrix in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C, based on the hepatitis C virus genotype, patient treatment history and cirrhotic status; ANDThe treatment must be limited to a maximum duration of 8 weeks.	Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures
	C5969	P5969		Chronic hepatitis C infectionPatient must meet the criteria set out in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C; ANDPatient must be taking this drug as part of a regimen set out in the matrix in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C, based on the hepatitis C virus genotype, patient treatment history and cirrhotic status; ANDThe treatment must be limited to a maximum duration of 12 weeks.	Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures
	C5972	P5972		Chronic hepatitis C infectionPatient must meet the criteria set out in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C; ANDPatient must be taking this drug as part of a regimen set out in the matrix in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C, based on the hepatitis C virus genotype, patient treatment history and cirrhotic status; ANDThe treatment must be limited to a maximum duration of 24 weeks.	Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures

(a) omit:

		P5684	CN5684	Benzodiazepine dependencePatient must be receiving long-term nursing care and in respect of whom a Carer Allowance is payable as a disabled adult; ANDPatient must have demonstrated, within the past 6 months, benzodiazepine dependence by an unsuccessful attempt at gradual withdrawal.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures
		P5770	CN5770	Benzodiazepine dependencePatient must be receiving long-term nursing care on account of age, infirmity or other condition in hospitals, nursing homes or residential facilities; ANDPatient must have demonstrated, within the past 6 months, benzodiazepine dependence by an unsuccessful attempt at gradual withdrawal.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures

(b) insert in numerical order after existing text:

		P5941	CN5941	InsomniaPatient must be receiving this drug for the management of insomnia; ANDPatient must be receiving long-term nursing care; ANDPatient must be one in respect of whom a Carer Allowance is payable as a disabled adult; ANDPatient must have demonstrated, within the past 6 months, benzodiazepine dependence by an unsuccessful attempt at gradual withdrawal.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures
		P5950	CN5950	InsomniaPatient must be receiving this drug for the management of insomnia; ANDPatient must be receiving long-term nursing care on account of age, infirmity or other condition in a hospital, nursing home or residential facility; ANDPatient must have demonstrated, within the past 6 months, benzodiazepine dependence by an unsuccessful attempt at gradual withdrawal.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Ribavirin	C5957	P5957		Chronic hepatitis C infectionPatient must meet the criteria set out in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C; ANDPatient must be taking this drug as part of a regimen set out in the matrix in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C, based on the hepatitis C virus genotype, patient treatment history and cirrhotic status; ANDThe treatment must be limited to a maximum duration of 12 weeks.Patient must not be pregnant or breastfeeding. Female partners of male patients must not be pregnant. Patients and their partners must each be using an effective form of contraception if of child-bearing age.	Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures
	C5958	P5958		Chronic hepatitis C infectionPatient must meet the criteria set out in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C; ANDPatient must be taking this drug as part of a regimen set out in the matrix in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C, based on the hepatitis C virus genotype, patient treatment history and cirrhotic status; ANDThe treatment must be limited to a maximum duration of 24 weeks.Patient must not be pregnant or breastfeeding. Female partners of male patients must not be pregnant. Patients and their partners must each be using an effective form of contraception if of child-bearing age.	Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures

(a) insert in the column headed “Purposes Code” for Circumstances Codes C4184, C4185, C4187, C4188, C4193, C4197, C4206 and C4207 respectively:  
P4184  
P4185  
P4187  
P4188  
P4193  
P4197  
P4206  
P4207
(b) insert in numerical order:

	C5956	P5956		Chronic hepatitis C infectionPatient must meet the criteria set out in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C; ANDPatient must be taking this drug as part of a regimen set out in the matrix in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C, based on the hepatitis C virus genotype, patient treatment history and cirrhotic status; ANDThe treatment must be limited to a maximum duration of 12 weeks.Patient must not be pregnant or breastfeeding. Female partners of male patients must not be pregnant. Patients and their partners must each be using an effective form of contraception if of child-bearing age.	Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures

(a) omit from the column headed “Circumstances and Purposes” for Circumstances Codes C4669 and C4684:  
Where the patient is receiving treatment at/from a private hospital
(b) omit:

	C4758			Where the patient is receiving treatment at/from a public hospitalChronic genotype 1 hepatitis C infectionPatient must have compensated liver disease; ANDPatient must not have received prior interferon alfa or peginterferon alfa treatment for hepatitis C; ANDThe treatment must be in combination with peginterferon alfa and ribavirin; ANDThe treatment must be limited to a maximum duration of 12 weeks; ANDThe treatment must cease if the results of an HCV RNA quantitative assay at week 4 show that the plasma HCV RNA is 25 IU/mL or greaterPatient must be aged 18 years or older; ANDPatient must not be pregnant or breastfeeding. Female partners of male patients must not be pregnant. Patients and their partners must each be using an effective form of contraception if of child-bearing ageMust be treated in an accredited treatment centreEvidence of chronic genotype 1 hepatitis C infection (repeatedly anti-HCV positive and HCV RNA positive) must be documented in the patient's medical recordsPatients who have received prior treatment with an NS3/4A protease inhibitor are not eligible to receive PBS-subsidised simeprevir, except where the patient has developed an intolerance to the other NS3/4A protease inhibitor of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal. Details of the intolerance must be documented in the patient's medical records	Compliance with Written and Telephone Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4758
	C4759			Where the patient is receiving treatment at/from a public hospitalChronic genotype 1 hepatitis C infectionPatient must have compensated liver disease; ANDPatient must have received prior treatment with interferon alfa or peginterferon alfa for hepatitis C; ANDThe treatment must be in combination with peginterferon alfa and ribavirin; ANDThe treatment must be limited to a maximum duration of 12 weeks; ANDThe treatment must cease if the results of an HCV RNA quantitative assay at week 4 show that the plasma HCV RNA is 25 IU/mL or greaterPatient must be 18 years or older; ANDPatient must not be pregnant or breastfeeding. Female partners of male patients must not be pregnant. Patients and their partners must each be using an effective form of contraception if of child-bearing ageMust be treated in an accredited treatment centreEvidence of chronic genotype 1 hepatitis C infection (repeatedly anti-HCV positive and HCV RNA positive) must be documented in the patient's medical recordsPatients who have received prior treatment with an NS3/4A protease inhibitor are not eligible to receive PBS-subsidised simeprevir, except where the patient has developed an intolerance to the other NS3/4A protease inhibitor of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal. Details of the intolerance must be documented in the patient's medical records	Compliance with Written and Telephone Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 4759

Sofosbuvir	C5969	P5969		Chronic hepatitis C infectionPatient must meet the criteria set out in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C; ANDPatient must be taking this drug as part of a regimen set out in the matrix in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C, based on the hepatitis C virus genotype, patient treatment history and cirrhotic status; ANDThe treatment must be limited to a maximum duration of 12 weeks.	Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures
	C5972	P5972		Chronic hepatitis C infectionPatient must meet the criteria set out in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C; ANDPatient must be taking this drug as part of a regimen set out in the matrix in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C, based on the hepatitis C virus genotype, patient treatment history and cirrhotic status; ANDThe treatment must be limited to a maximum duration of 24 weeks.	Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures

(a) omit:

		P5684	CN5684	Benzodiazepine dependencePatient must be receiving long-term nursing care and in respect of whom a Carer Allowance is payable as a disabled adult; ANDPatient must have demonstrated, within the past 6 months, benzodiazepine dependence by an unsuccessful attempt at gradual withdrawal.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures
		P5770	CN5770	Benzodiazepine dependencePatient must be receiving long-term nursing care on account of age, infirmity or other condition in hospitals, nursing homes or residential facilities; ANDPatient must have demonstrated, within the past 6 months, benzodiazepine dependence by an unsuccessful attempt at gradual withdrawal.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures

(b) insert in numerical order after existing text:

		P5941	CN5941	InsomniaPatient must be receiving this drug for the management of insomnia; ANDPatient must be receiving long-term nursing care; ANDPatient must be one in respect of whom a Carer Allowance is payable as a disabled adult; ANDPatient must have demonstrated, within the past 6 months, benzodiazepine dependence by an unsuccessful attempt at gradual withdrawal.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures
		P5950	CN5950	InsomniaPatient must be receiving this drug for the management of insomnia; ANDPatient must be receiving long-term nursing care on account of age, infirmity or other condition in a hospital, nursing home or residential facility; ANDPatient must have demonstrated, within the past 6 months, benzodiazepine dependence by an unsuccessful attempt at gradual withdrawal.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures

C5939		Where the patient is receiving treatment at/from a private hospitalCytomegalovirus infection and diseaseProphylaxisPatient must have undergone a renal transplant; ANDPatient must be at risk of cytomegalovirus disease.	Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures
C5940	P5940	Recurrent moderate to severe genital herpesSuppressive therapyMicrobiological confirmation of diagnosis [viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)] is desirable but need not delay treatment.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5940
C5960	P5960	Initial moderate to severe genital herpesMicrobiological confirmation of diagnosis [viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)] is desirable but need not delay treatment.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5960
C5961	P5961	Recurrent moderate to severe genital herpesEpisodic treatmentMicrobiological confirmation of diagnosis [viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)] is desirable but need not delay treatment.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5961
C5962	P5962	Herpes zosterThe treatment must be administered within 72 hours of the onset of the rash.	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5962
C5968	P5968	Herpes zoster ophthalmicus	Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5968
C5975		Where the patient is receiving treatment at/from a public hospitalCytomegalovirus infection and diseaseProphylaxisPatient must have undergone a renal transplant; ANDPatient must be at risk of cytomegalovirus disease.	Compliance with Written or Telephone Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 5975