These regulations set detailed rules for what counts as liquor, how liquor may be made, sold, delivered and consumed, and the licensing, fees, record‑keeping, training and enforcement obligations that apply. They affect licensees (hotels, clubs, producers, wholesalers, special facility operators), event organisers, delivery services and consumers. The Director and licensing authority make approvals and conditions; licensees pay fees and must keep records, train staff and follow delivery, ID and offence rules to remain compliant.
These regulations operationalise the Liquor Control Act 1988 by prescribing definitions, thresholds, forms, fees, exemptions, procedural steps and many discrete rules that licensees, applicants and enforcement agencies must follow. Mechanically the instrument does the following (selective, grounded in the text):
Sets definitions and measurement thresholds used throughout the Act (for example, standard drink, low alcohol liquor at 3.5% ethanol by volume, and 0.5% ethanol as the threshold proportion for a beverage to be “liquor”: regs 3A, 4, 4AA).
Prescribes the form and content of applications and other documents (forms in Sch. 1; r. 3; plan and specification requirements at r. 11).
Lists classes of licences and types of special facility licences and attaches specific permitted purposes and conditions to many (for example, the catalogue of special facility purposes in r. 9A; default prohibition on sale of packaged liquor under r. 9B unless a regulation says otherwise).
Creates a detailed set of statutory exemptions from licensing rules (regulation 8 and follow‑ons 8A-8G), including specific limited exemptions for live entertainment venues, functions, tourism businesses, farmers’ markets, on‑demand charter vehicles, and liquor competitions.
Prescribes training, record‑keeping and incident‑reporting obligations (training and timing in r. 14AD; register and record details at r. 14AG, r. 18EB; records for transactions at r. 5 and r. 22; returns at r. 23 and r. 24).
Sets controls for sale and delivery of packaged liquor (detailed requirements for labelling, ID checks, permitted hours and delivery personnel training at r. 10C).
Establishes administrative mechanics for manager approvals and ID cards (r. 14ADA-14ADF) and gives the Director powers to impose, vary and remove conditions (r. 14ADB).
Current sections
Direct links to the current provisions in Liquor Control Regulations 1989.
5
Sch 1
Schedule 1
Forms
Sch 2
Schedule 2
Details of applicant
Sch 3
Fees
Schedule 3 — Fees
More sections below
Source text: opening excerpt
Sourced from the Western Australian Legislation website (legislation.wa.gov.au). Not the authorised version.
Western Australia
Liquor Control Act 1988
Liquor Control Regulations 1989
Western Australia
Liquor Control Regulations 1989
Contents
Citation 1
Commencement 1
Forms prescribed etc. (Sch. 1) 1
3A. Terms used 2
3AB. Kind of liquor prescribed (mist containing ethanol) (Act s. 3(1) kind) 4
3AC. Kind of liquor prescribed (aerosol containing ethanol) (Act s. 3(1) kind) 4
3AD. Kind of liquor prescribed (powdered alcohol) (Act s. 3(1) kind) 5
Level prescribed (Act s. 3(1) low alcohol liquor) 5
4AA. Proportion of ethanol prescribed (Act s. 3(1) liquor) 5
4A. Substances prescribed (food items) (Act s. 3(1) liquor) 5
4AD. Substance prescribed (powdered alcohol) (Act s. 3(1) liquor) 7
4AE. Substance prescribed (liqueur chocolate) (Act s. 3(1) liquor) 7
Sources of information prescribed (Act s. 3(1) record) 8
5A. Quantities prescribed (Act s. 3(1) sample) 9
5B. Positions of authority in body corporate prescribed (Act s. 3(4)(d)) 10
5C. Types of special facility licence prescribed (Act s. 4(6)) 11
Approved courses (Act s. 6(1)(c)) 11
Exemption from Act, certain sales etc. 12
8A. Exemption from Act, consumption at live entertainment venues 16
8B. Exemption from Act, sales etc. at certain functions 22
8C. Exemption from Act, complimentary supply by business 23
8CA. Exemption for complimentary supply by tourism businesses 24
8D. Exemption from Act, sales etc. at farmers’ markets 25
8E. Exemption from Act, sales etc. at functions on licensed premises 27
8F. Exemption from Act for consumption in on‑demand charter vehicle (Act s. 6(1)(o)) 28
Prescribes fees, timing for payment, late penalties and fee reductions (Schedule 3; r. 26, r. 27A).
Specifies enforcement and procedural tools, including prescribed offences that can be dealt with by infringement notice (r. 27), penalty amounts embedded in the regulations (for example r. 14AE, r. 14ADE, r. 23(3), r. 14AG(1a)), and documents for warrants (Form 20).
Declares defined geographic regimes: protected entertainment precincts (r. 28) and banned drinker areas (r. 29), with references to deposited plans and Schedule 4 images.
Implements subsidy mechanics for low alcohol wine and beer (regs 21, 21A, 21AC), including formulas for calculating subsidy payments.
The regulations therefore translate the Act’s broad licensing and public order objectives into operational rules that allocate obligations (who must do what), allocate discretion to the Director (who may impose conditions, approve courses and reduce fees; see r. 7, r. 14ADB, r. 26(2)) and create specific compliance tasks for private actors (training, registers, labelling and delivery checks). The instrument is not a policy statement; its text sets behavioural constraints and administrative procedures that will change the day‑to‑day compliance costs of businesses that sell or handle liquor and the decision space of the licensing authority.
Official purpose claims are largely implicit in the drafting (for example, defining low alcohol/liquor thresholds at r. 4 and r. 4AA, and prescribing incident reporting at r. 18EB). Where the regulations say a measure is “for the purposes” of a provision (eg r. 3A, r. 4, r. 9A), that is a legal attribution of scope rather than an empirical justification. Below I test those measures against incentives, costs, operational risk and market effects, citing the relevant regulation numbers.
Main concepts
This instrument contains recurring structural concepts that govern how licensing, exemptions and enforcement operate. Read these closely because they determine which rules apply to a particular business model or activity.
Definitions and measurement anchors. The regulations fix numerical thresholds used across the Act: low alcohol liquor is defined as liquor containing 3.5% ethanol at 20°C (r. 4); a “standard drink” is 10 g ethanol at 20°C (r. 3A); the 0.5% ethanol by volume threshold determines when a beverage is “liquor” (r. 4AA). These anchors determine treatment of products such as low‑alcohol wines, alcohol‑flavoured foods, aerosols and powdered alcohol (see regs 4A, 4AB, 4AC, 4AD, 4AE).
Licence taxonomy and purpose limits. The regulations specify types of licences and standard permitted purposes. Special facility licences are tied to explicit purposes (r. 9A) such as tourism, transport, education, sports arenas, foodhalls and online wine sales. Regulation 9B makes clear that, unless otherwise stated in the regulations, a special facility licence permits sale for consumption on premises and does not permit packaged liquor sales.
Exemptions as carved‑out liberties. Regulation 8 and its subregulations create specific carve‑outs from the Act for sales, supplies and consumption in narrowly described contexts: gift deliveries meeting conditions (r. 8(1)(c)), consumption at live entertainment venues where conditions are met (r. 8A), sales at functions (r. 8B), complimentary samples at businesses (r. 8C / 8CA), farmers’ markets (r. 8D), functions on licensed premises where an authorised arrangement exists (r. 8E), in‑vehicle consumption for on‑demand charter vehicles under conditions (r. 8F), and liquor competitions (r. 8G). Each exemption is conditional and often excluded in restricted or banned drinker areas.
Training, managerial approval and ID regime. The Director prescribes approved training courses (r. 7 and r. 18F). Supervisors, servers and crowd controllers must complete approved responsible service training within set timeframes (r. 14AD). Approved managers have a statutory approval and ID card regime (r. 14ADA-14ADF). The ID system and proof of age card are also defined and regulated (r. 3A; r. 18A-18D).
Recordkeeping, incident logs and reporting. The regulations prescribe the form and content of transactional records (r. 5, r. 22) and returns (r. 23, r. 24). Incident‑reporting obligations require licensees to keep particular details when specified incidents occur (r. 18EB), and additional steps where physical force is used (r. 18EC).
Delivery and online sales controls. Rules for sale and delivery of packaged liquor and off‑premises consumption set labelling, ID, delivery times and training requirements for delivery staff (r. 10C). For online wine sales under a special facility licence, r. 9A(24)-(25) prescribes ordering, dispatch and delivery recipient rules, and forbids inviting the purchaser to the premises.
Geographic regimes. The regulations identify “protected entertainment precincts” (r. 28; Schedule 4 deposited plans) and “banned drinker areas” (r. 29) and link these zones to restrictions and exemptions elsewhere in the Act and regulations.
Fees and penalties. Schedule 3 lists application and licence fees, fees for manager approvals and many operational fees; r. 26 sets payment timing and late‑payment consequences (including suspension and cancellation powers). Penalty amounts for several regulatory offences are specified in the regulations themselves (for example r. 14AE and r. 14AG(1a)) and r. 27 lists offences that are prescribed for infringement notices under s. 167 of the Act.
These main concepts structure how the Director and licensing authority exercise discretion, how businesses structure operations (for example, whether to hold a special facility licence for online wine sales), and how compliance effort is allocated between training, record‑keeping, ID systems and delivery logistics. The regulations are granular: they do not merely state broad duties but prescribe particular formats, time windows and numeric thresholds that create clear compliance tasks.
Who it affects
The regulations allocate duties across a mix of private actors, government decision‑makers and intermediaries. Key affected groups are:
Licensees across classes (hotel, nightclub, liquor store, producer, wholesaler, special facility, club etc). The instrument prescribes recordkeeping obligations (r. 22), returns and verification (r. 23, r. 24), registers of trained staff (r. 14AG), incident registers (r. 18EB) and delivery obligations for packaged liquor (r. 10C). Fees and licence renewal timing affect all licence holders (Schedule 3, r. 26).
Potential applicants and managers. Persons applying for a licence, a manager’s approval or approval to occupy a position of authority must provide prescribed documentation (reg 13; r. 14ADA; Schedule 2). Manager approval is an administrative authorisation with application, duration (r. 14ADC: 5 years) and renewal rules (r. 14ADD). Approved managers may be issued identification cards that they must produce on direction (r. 14ADE).
Employees and contractors who serve alcohol, supervise service, or work as crowd controllers. Supervisors and servers must complete approved responsible service training within 4 weeks of starting (r. 14AD(2)-(3)); crowd controllers have specific training windows (r. 14AD(4A)-(4B)). Licensees must maintain a register of employees who have completed training (r. 14AG).
Producers, wholesalers and low‑alcohol beverage sellers. Subsidy mechanics operate for wine and wholesalers (regs 21, 21A, 21AC). Producer licence holders have production and sale conditions (r. 10, r. 10A).
Businesses providing hospitality or tourism services that may rely on exemptions. Tourism businesses can provide complimentary supply under r. 8CA but must meet conditions, including approved training for the supplier (r. 8CA(2)(ba)). Caterers, bed and breakfast operators and other defined business types are covered by r. 9A and r. 8 exemptions.
Delivery agents and online retailers. Delivery of packaged liquor is regulated: labelling, identification of recipient (r. 10C(2)-(4)), delivery windows (r. 10C(8)), prohibition on delivery to restricted areas or to liquor restricted premises (r. 10C(7)) and training for delivery personnel (r. 10C(9)).
Responsible persons using the ID system and companies engaged by the Department to provide ID or secure webpage services. Regulation 18EBA and 18EBB prescribe persons and classes for secure web pages and for services used to identify people subject to barring notices.
The Director and authorised officers. The Director has approval, inspection and condition‑imposition powers (r. 7; r. 14ADB; r. 21B). Authorised officers have specified functions including confiscation and handling of documents (r. 18G); Form 20 is available to obtain search warrants under s. 161.
Residents and people in particular zones. Protected entertainment precincts (r. 28) and banned drinker areas (r. 29) are defined spatially and affect what sales and supplies are permitted or exempt.
Who pays: licence applicants and licensees pay application fees and annual licence fees in Schedule 3; delivery and compliance costs are borne by licensees and their contractors; training fees (if not supplied free) are a cost to employers; the public generally bears limited direct costs (for example, in proof of age card fees in Schedule 3). The Director can reduce or waive fees in specific cases (r. 26(2)).
Who decides: the Director (and the licensing authority and Commission in the Act) exercises discretionary approvals, imposes conditions and publishes approved courses (r. 7; r. 14ADB; r. 21B). The Director also prescribes forms, can impose conditions on subsidies (r. 21B) and directs identification and reporting practices.
What behaviour changes: businesses selling liquor will need to implement ID checks, restrict delivery times, train employees to approved standards and maintain transaction and incident registers. Producers and wholesalers need separate reporting for low‑alcohol sales to obtain subsidies (regs 21, 21A, 21AC). Operators in protected precincts and banned drinker areas will face place‑specific constraints. Online wine sellers must accept only orders via the licensee’s website and dispatch under prescribed rules (r. 9A(24)-(25)).
Key duties and rights
The regulations impose a mix of mandatory duties, conditional permissions and administrative rights. Key duties and rights that practitioners and compliance officers must note:
Duties on licensees and applicants
Maintain prescribed transactional records and returns: r. 5 prescribes sources that count as records; r. 22 sets the content of records for special facility, wholesaler and producer transactions; r. 24 prescribes the content of the return to the Director; r. 23 prescribes verification and lodgment timing (annual return within one month after 30 June).
Employee training and record duty: supervisors, servers and crowd controllers must complete Director‑approved training within stated timeframes (r. 14AD(2)-(4B)); the licensee must keep a register of persons who have completed the course and keep copies of certificates (r. 14AG). Failure to maintain the register is an offence with $5,000 penalty (r. 14AG(1a)).
Delivery obligations: labelling, recipient identity verification and time windows for delivery are mandatory for sale/delivery of packaged liquor or liquor for consumption off premises (r. 10C(2)-(9)). Licensees must ensure delivery staff have completed approved training when a delivery is made on the day of purchase (r. 10C(9)).
Incident reporting and recordkeeping: prescribed incidents at licensed premises must be recorded with the details listed in r. 18EB(1)-(2); where physical force is used, additional procedures and written statements are required (r. 18EC).
Manager approval and card production: applications for manager’s approvals must follow r. 14ADA, be lodged at Australia Post unless electronically permitted, and a manager must produce an ID card on direction or face a penalty (r. 14ADE(3)-(4)).
Discretion and administrative rights
Director’s powers: the Director may approve courses (r. 7), impose and vary conditions on manager approvals (r. 14ADB), impose conditions on subsidies (r. 21B), reduce or waive fees (r. 26(2)) and set particulars for electronic lodgment (r. 3(4)). The Director decides whether a person is exempt from training obligations (r. 14AD(5)).
Limited exemptions: exemptions from the Act are available where conditions in r. 8 and r. 8A-8G are met. These provide rights to supply or consume liquor without a licence in narrowly defined contexts, but they are conditional and often exclude restricted or banned areas (for example r. 8(1AA)).
Rights against overreach and process protections
Opportunity to make submissions before Director imposes conditions on a manager’s approval on the Director’s own initiative (r. 14ADB(4)). The Director must give a reasonable opportunity to make submissions when varying or imposing conditions under r. 14ADB(4).
Verification and appeal routes are provided in the Act; the regulations set fees for review of certain decisions (Schedule 3 items 22 and 23), and prescribe how review fees must be paid (r. 25B).
Specific numeric and procedural duties
Low alcohol threshold and sample sizes: product classification duties depend on thresholds at r. 4 and r. 5A (sample volumes: beer 100 ml; wine 50 ml; spirits 15 ml).
Spatial distance rules used in licensing and proximity tests are prescribed: e.g., 15 km distance for s. 36A (r. 9AA), and 5 km/12 km distances in r. 9AAB and r. 14AAA for packaged liquor premises separation calculations.
Timetables for extended trading permit and occasional licence applications are prescribed at r. 10B, r. 14AB, r. 14AC; long events require earlier lodgment (up to 90 days before) for large anticipated patron numbers.
Penalties and prescribed offences are set out across the regulations (r. 27 includes a table of Act sections that are prescribed offences for infringement notices; r. 14AE prescribes fines for training non‑compliance and secondary liability for licensees). The Director can suspend or cancel licences for late fees (r. 26(1a)-(1d)).
Rights and obligations therefore are very granular. Practitioners should map a business model (on‑premises sale, online fulfillment, delivery, special facility use, tourism sampling) against the specific regulations listed above to determine precisely applicable duties and the point at which Director discretion is triggered.
Penalties and enforcement
The regulations specify monetary penalties for certain regulatory failures, enable the Director and authorised officers to take enforcement actions, and list offences that may be processed via infringement notices. Key enforcement mechanics and penalties from the regulations:
Monetary fines and specified penalties (examples from the regulations)
Failure to complete required training and continue to be engaged in the role: person penalty $2,000. If convicted under r. 14AD(1) or (2), the licensee is taken to have also committed an offence and is liable to $5,000 (r. 14AE(1)-(3)).
Failure to produce an approved manager identification card when directed: penalty $2,000 (r. 14ADE(4)).
Failure to lodge or properly verify returns: r. 23(3) states a penalty of $1,000 where a person required to lodge the return fails to take reasonable steps to comply, or is the director of a company who fails to secure compliance.
Prescribed offences for infringement notices: regulation 27 lists many Act provisions the breach of which is a prescribed offence for infringement notices under s. 167 (r. 27(2) and (3) for certain regulations). The table is extensive and includes offences under multiple Act sections (r. 27).
Failure to maintain a register of trained staff: $5,000 (r. 14AG(1a)).
Where penalty levels under section 71 of the Interpretation Act apply to return or information defaults, r. 23(4) sets the applicable penalty at $100.
Enforcement powers and administrative consequences
Licence fee enforcement: unpaid licence fees can trigger a penalty equal to half the fee (r. 26(1b)), suspension by notice if fee remains unpaid after a Director’s notice (r. 26(1c)), and cancellation if unpaid by a later date (r. 26(1d)). Those are administrative enforcement tools with immediate commercial consequences.
Director’s condition powers: the Director may impose, vary or remove conditions on manager approvals at any time (r. 14ADB). The Director must give a reasonable opportunity to make submissions before imposing or varying a condition on the Director’s own initiative (r. 14ADB(4)), except in narrow transitional circumstances (r. 14ADG(2)).
Search warrants and confiscation: Form 20 is the search warrant form under s. 161; r. 18G prescribes that within 72 hours after confiscation of a document the authorised person must either deliver it to a police station or return it to the person from whom it was confiscated.
Incident follow‑up obligations: where physical force is used, licensees must prepare statements and invite crowd controllers to confirm accuracy; copies must be given to crowd control agents (r. 18EC). These procedural duties are enforceable and are linked to record obligations in r. 18EB.
Infringement notices: r. 27 prescribes a list of offences under the Act and regulations that can be penalised by infringement notice, enabling summary enforcement rather than prosecution in some cases.
Subsidy conditions: Director may impose conditions on subsidies and require applications and records; failure to comply with subsidy conditions could trigger reclaim or penalties under the provisions governing subsidies (r. 21B, r. 19).
Practical enforcement implications and risk
Many enforcement levers are monetary and administrative rather than criminal. Non‑payment of fees can lead quickly to licence suspension or cancellation (r. 26(1c)-(1d)), which has immediate business risk.
Recordkeeping deficiencies expose licensees to both fines and the inference that other regulatory standards are not met, potentially leading to licensing action under the Act; r. 22 and r. 24 list specific transactional items that must be kept and returned.
The Director’s wide discretion to impose conditions on approvals (r. 14ADB) creates implementation risk because conditions may materially alter how a business operates after approval is granted. The Director must give an opportunity to make submissions in many cases (r. 14ADB(4)), which provides a limited procedural protection.
Prescribed offences for infringement notices (r. 27) allow quicker resolution of breaches but may carry fixed on‑the‑spot or administrative fines that can accumulate if compliance systems are weak.
In sum, enforcement under the regulations combines administrative penalties, fines for specific breaches, obligatory record and reporting systems and the Director’s condition‑making powers. The combination is designed to enable both preventative compliance (training, registers, ID checks) and remedial action (fee suspension, infringement notices, prosecution).
How it interacts with other laws
These regulations are subordinate legislation implementing the Liquor Control Act 1988 and expressly cross‑reference or incorporate other State and Commonwealth laws. The interaction points of practical importance are as follows:
Cross‑references within the Liquor Control Act
The regulations consistently refer to sections of the Act to give meaning to terms and to prescribe particulars “for the purposes of” Act provisions (eg r. 3A defines terms used in the regulations and states that references to a section are references to sections of the Act).
Many operational mechanics are explicitly designed to implement Act powers, for example: manager’s approval provisions implement sections 102A-102F (regs 14ADA-14ADF); prescribed offences for infringement notices implement s. 167 (r. 27); recordkeeping and returns give effect to s. 145-146 (r. 22-24).
Integration with Commonwealth taxation and customs regimes
Subsidies are calculated with direct reference to Commonwealth wine tax concepts and tax periods (r. 3A definition of “WET” and regs 21 and 21A on subsidy calculation). Subsidy eligibility references WET paid and notional wholesale selling prices (r. 3A; r. 21).
Reg 5(1)(b)(iii) and (iv) treats customs/ excise documentation (Customs Act 1901 and Excise Act 1901 returns) as prescribed records, tying the Act’s record obligations into Commonwealth excise/warehouse and taxation systems.
Interaction with State Acts and planning/statutory instruments
Several definitions borrow from other State statutes: “metropolitan region” uses Planning and Development Act 2005 (r. 3A); “Authority” refers to the WA Land Information Authority established by the Land Information Authority Act 2006 (r. 3A).
Distance and area calculations relevant to licencing proximity rules reference road distance rules set for measuring distance by the shortest route by road (r. 9AA(2), r. 9AAB(2), r. 14AAA(2)).
Protected entertainment precincts and banned drinker areas are defined by deposited plans lodged with the Land Information Authority (r. 28, r. 29, Schedule 4).
Evidence and ID interaction with other jurisdictions
Proof of age documents recognised under the regulations include specified interstate photo cards and Commonwealth documents: current Australian driver’s licences, passports, WA photo cards, Australia Post Keypass ID card, and equivalent photo cards from other States (r. 18A). The regulation explicitly integrates accepted identity documents across jurisdictions.
The ID system and secure web page provisions refer to authorised officers and persons appointed to assist the Director (r. 18EBA) and prescribe classes of third parties engaged by the Department to provide equipment and software (r. 18EBB, r. 24AA), creating an interface between departmental IT systems and private suppliers.
Overlap and exclusion with other specialised instruments
The regulations and their schedules incorporate numerous separate liquor‑control statutory instruments for “restricted areas” (see r. 27(4) table), and they prescribe offences for breaches of those area regulations. That creates an overlapping regulatory mosaic in remote areas where local “restricted area” regulations operate.
Certain exemptions and permissions are time‑bound or event‑bound and interact with other statutory regimes, for example, exemptions for aircraft/carriage on interstate services (r. 8(1)(b), r. 8(1)(i), r. 8(1)(ja)) or cruise ships (r. 8(1)(jb)), which connect to the Commonwealth Navigation Act and State marine regulation.
Practical consequences of cross‑interaction
Compliance teams must map obligations across the Liquor Control Act, these regulations, Commonwealth tax and excise reporting, local restricted area regulations and ID regimes. For instance, claiming a WET‑related subsidy requires WET documentation (r. 21A(2)); delivery into a “banned drinker area” is prohibited (r. 10C(7) - cross‑referenced with r. 29).
Electronic service provisions under Part 5AA (r. 24A-24C) are linked to the Act’s procedural service mechanisms and prescribe acceptable electronic modes and timing rules, which creates an interface between administrative law process and modern communications infrastructure.
In short, the regulations do not operate in isolation: they are an implementation layer that presupposes interaction with taxation, customs, identity documents, planning/land recording, transport and separate restricted area instruments. Compliance must therefore be cross‑checked against that broader legal ecosystem.
Amendment history
The regulations have been amended many times since first made in 1989. The compilation table attached to the instrument summarises a dense amendment record which shows incremental, sometimes topic‑specific changes. Key amendment themes identifiable in the text are:
Modernisation and specificity of definitions. The regulations have repeatedly added and refined product definitions and testing thresholds: for example, “low alcohol liquor” was prescribed at 3.5% (r. 4 inserted 1998), 0.5% ethanol as the definition cut‑off for liquor (r. 4AA), and later additions included mist/aerosol/powdered forms and liqueur chocolate (r. 3AB/3AC/3AD/4AE), reflecting new product forms added at various dates (2005 for mist and aerosol; 2015 for powdered alcohol and liqueur chocolate).
Introduction of training and manager regimes. A major set of changes inserted in 2007 and consolidated in 2011 introduced manager approval mechanics, ID cards and an approved‑training regime (see r. 14ADA-14ADF, r. 14AD and r. 14AG series). These impose structured ongoing compliance obligations for approved managers, staff and licensees.
Exemptions and event‑based rules. From 2011 onwards a cluster of exemptions for live entertainment venues (r. 8A inserted 2011), functions (r. 8B), complimentary supplies (r. 8C and 8CA), farmers’ markets (r. 8D), and organised functions on licensed premises (r. 8E) were added. These were responses to the need to carve out particular commercial and community activities.
Spatial and social policy instruments. More recently, the regulations have introduced and updated definitions for protected entertainment precincts (r. 28; SL 2022/217) and banned drinker areas (r. 29; SL 2023/196). These are place‑specific instruments reflecting social policy and public order priorities.
E‑commerce and delivery adjustments. The rise of online sales led to specific rules for online wine sales under special facility licences (r. 9A(24)-(25), multiple amendments) and detailed delivery rules for packaged liquor (r. 10C inserted SL 2021/207 r. 7 and later amended). These amendments respond directly to changing commercial models.
Fees updates and consolidation. Schedule 3 and r. 26 have been updated repeatedly, with consolidated fee tables reinserted in the 2025 reprint (SL 2025/187) and related instruments adjusting fees and payment timing. The compilation table in the instrument lists many amendments affecting fees across years.
The compilation table (at the end of the instrument) shows amendment instruments by year and Gazette reference. A number of subordinate instruments were disallowed or had transitional provisions noted in the compilation table; for example some 2010-2012 instruments were disallowed or modified (notes in compilation table). The regulations thus reflect iterative policy responses, new product forms, training/manager regimes, e‑commerce, geographic targeting and cost recovery changes implemented over decades.
For practitioners this history matters because it demonstrates the regulations’ modular amendment approach: the executive updates discrete operational rules (definitions, forms, fees, exemptions) rather than wholesale rewriting, and changes can and do affect discrete business models rapidly (for example, online wine sales and delivery rules introduced or amended in 2018-2023).
Litigation history
The text of the regulations does not list judicial decisions. The instrument itself names no cases and contains no annotated judicial history. The compilation table does however record instances where subordinate instruments or changes were disallowed or where transitional provisions are no longer of effect (for example entries noting “disallowed” in the compilation table; see notes accompanying the compilation table).
Because this is subordinate legislation, litigation and judicial review will typically arise under the primary legislation (the Liquor Control Act 1988) or from judicial challenges to administrative decisions made under the Act and regulations (for example, licence refusals, condition imposition, or the Director’s exercise of discretion). The regulations do not provide a catalogue of such cases. Practitioners seeking case law on particular regulatory provisions (for example, the Director’s power to impose licence conditions, the correctness of a training‑related penalty, or the interpretation of exemptions such as r. 8A) must search judicial decisions under the Act and in the administrative law corpus.
The regulations’ compilation table does record disallowance events for certain amendment regulations (see table notes), which are legislative/ parliamentary oversight events rather than judicial determinations. Where an amendment was disallowed, the historical note may be relevant to understanding transitional arrangements and the law as it stood between amendment‑gazettal and disallowance.
In short, the regulations themselves contain no litigation docket; to understand legal contours for disputes arising under these regulations you must consult case law concerning the Liquor Control Act and administrative decisions of the Commission and courts, and cross‑reference particular regulatory amendments and their effective dates from the compilation table.
Gotchas
This section flags the non‑obvious traps and compliance friction points that commonly create operational risk or disputes. Each “gotcha” is grounded in the relevant regulation.
Exemptions are narrow and conditional, and often excluded in restricted/banned areas
Exemptions for gift deliveries, live entertainment consumption, complimentary supply and other contexts require strict conditions: e.g., gift deliveries must be between 7 a.m. and 7 p.m., recipient must be 18+, quantity limit 2 L, and the business must be “genuinely marketed as a service for sale and delivery of gifts” (r. 8(1)(c)). Subregulation 1AA excludes such gift deliveries in restricted areas and to liquor restricted premises.
Live entertainment exemption requires notifying the Director at least 14 days before relying on the exemption, a cap of 200 patrons, prohibition on juveniles being in charge and various behavioural and content restrictions (r. 8A(4)(d), (f), (g), (h), (k)). Failure to notify or comply with the detailed list removes the exemption and exposes operators to enforcement.
Delivery rules are detailed and operationally demanding
For delivery of packaged liquor, the licensee must label or mark boxes with purchaser and vendor addresses (r. 10C(2)), check ID on delivery (r. 10C(3)-(4)) and ensure deliveries are not left with people showing noticeable impairment (r. 10C(5)). Deliveries have permitted hours and prohibited zones (r. 10C(8)-(9), (7)). Delivery personnel must have completed approved training if delivering on the day of purchase (r. 10C(9)). These requirements create logistical and training obligations for businesses operating click‑and‑collect and home delivery models.
Training obligations have time windows and licensee secondary liability
Employees and crowd controllers must complete training within set windows; licensees face vicarious liability where employees continue in regulated roles without training , licensee penalty $5,000 and person penalty $2,000 (r. 14AD, r. 14AE). It is a defence for a licensee to show reasonable diligence (r. 14AE(4)), but the evidentiary burden and the need to keep registers (r. 14AG) means proactive compliance systems are required.
Manager approvals, ID cards and production requirements
Manager’s approvals need particular lodgment channels, often at Australia Post counters unless electronic lodgment is allowed (r. 14ADA(3)-(4)). Approved managers may be issued ID cards that must be produced on demand or face a $2,000 penalty (r. 14ADE). Keep track of approval durations (5 years, r. 14ADC) and renewal protections for in‑flight renewals (r. 14ADD(4)).
Special facility packaged liquor default prohibition and narrow carve‑ins
Regulation 9B states that special facility licences, unless otherwise provided in regulation 9A, do not permit the sale of packaged liquor. For online wine sales, a special facility licence must include explicit conditions and limits (r. 9A(24)-(25)). Operators must check whether their chosen special facility purpose permits packaged sales, because unintended packaged sales can be an offence.
Spatial rules are technical and measured by road distance
Distance calculations for many proximity and separation tests are to be made using the shortest route by road (r. 9AA(2), r. 9AAB(2), r. 14AAA(2)), which can produce surprising results in rural or island contexts. Deposited plans define precincts and banned drinker areas; consult the relevant deposited plan numbers (r. 28, r. 29, Schedule 4).
Subsidies are conditional and require tax documentation and a timing limit for claims
Subsidy claims must be made within two years of the sale (r. 19(2)) and are calculated using formulas referring to WET and notional wholesale selling price (r. 21, r. 21A). Subsidies are payable only once per sale (r. 21AC). Producers and wholesalers should maintain WET documentation and ensure sales meet the subsidy criteria.
Records and returns are specific and verified; late or incomplete returns attract penalties and personal liability for directors
Returns must be lodged annually and verified (r. 23). Failure to verify or lodge returns may expose officers and persons to penalties (r. 23(3)-(4)). Directors of companies must ensure verification to avoid personal liability.
Incident reporting includes ID system malfunction reporting
The incident register must record ID system failures and attempted use issues (r. 18EB(1)(h)-(i)), and those are reportable incidents with required particulars (r. 18EB(2)). If a licensee uses an ID system, malfunctions must be recorded and could be examinable in enforcement proceedings.
Fee timing and suspension/cancellation mechanics are unforgiving
Annual licence fees are due by 1 January (r. 26(1a)); late payment carries an immediate penalty equal to half the fee (r. 26(1b)), and the Director can suspend (r. 26(1c)) and then cancel licences (r. 26(1d)) if fees remain unpaid. Licence holders must calendar‑manage fee payments.
These “gotchas” are places where given the textual detail, commercial actors commonly misunderstand the boundary between lawful acts and regulatory breaches. Each is grounded in the cited regulation numbers above.
How to comply
This is a pragmatic compliance checklist mapped to the regulations. Each step cites the governing regulation so counsel, compliance officers or operators can cross‑check primary text.
Map your business model to licence class and special facility types
Determine the correct licence and whether a special facility licence is needed. Consult r. 9A and r. 9C for permitted special facility purposes. Check whether packaged liquor sales are permitted for your licence under r. 9B and r. 9A specific paragraphs.
Document and lodge applications in prescribed forms and formats
Use Schedule 1 forms where prescribed (r. 3) and ensure applications and accompanying documents (other than plans) are A4 unless the Director accepts electronic lodgment (r. 3(3)-(4)). Manager approval and renewal applications must follow r. 14ADA and r. 14ADD form and lodgment rules.
Implement training and maintain registers
Ensure supervisors, servers and crowd controllers complete Director‑approved responsible service courses within the timeframes: supervisors/servers within 4 weeks of engagement; crowd controllers within 4 weeks (r. 14AD(2)-(4B)). Maintain the register set out in r. 14AG(1), retain certificates and keep the register current to avoid a $5,000 penalty (r. 14AG(1a)).
Prepare recordkeeping and return systems
Record sources are prescribed (r. 5). For transactional records maintain the details listed in r. 22 and ensure returns under r. 24 include the specified items. Verify and lodge returns annually within one month after 30 June and follow verification rules in r. 23(1)-(1a) to avoid penalties.
Set up delivery and online fulfilment controls
If you deliver packaged liquor, ensure labelling on containers/boxes includes purchaser and vendor addresses (r. 10C(2)), that delivery staff check the prescribed ID documents (r. 10C(3)-(4) referencing r. 18A), that deliveries occur in permitted hours (r. 10C(8)) and are not left unattended unless authorised and out of sight (r. 10C(6)). Train delivery staff in approved responsible service training for same‑day deliveries (r. 10C(9)).
Manage exemptions carefully and notify the Director where required
If relying on the live entertainment exemption, notify the Director in the approved form at least 14 days before using the exemption (r. 8A(4)(d)). For organised functions on licensed premises ensure authorised arrangements are approved under s. 104 if relying on r. 8E. Confirm the site is not in a restricted area or a banned drinker area where exemptions do not apply (r. 8(1AA); r. 10C(7)).
Maintain incident logs and follow procedures for physical force incidents
Keep the incident register with particulars required by r. 18EB(2). For physical force incidents follow r. 18EC procedural steps: obtain crowd controller accounts, prepare written statements detailing reasons and manner of restraint or removal, invite confirmations and supply copies to crowd control agents.
Manage manager approvals, ID cards and producer/wholesaler subsidy documentation
Lodge manager approval and renewal applications per r. 14ADA and r. 14ADD, manage ID cards (r. 14ADE-14ADF) and maintain evidence for subsidy claims under regs 19, 21 and 21A (WET documentation and timely submissions within two years under r. 19(2)).
Monitor spatial rules and deposited plans
If operating near protected entertainment precincts (r. 28) or banned drinker areas (r. 29), consult the relevant deposited plan in Schedule 4 and calculate distances using shortest road route per r. 9AA(2) and r. 9AAB(2). Ensure delivery and supply decisions respect these zones (r. 10C(7)).
Control financial compliance and calendar licence renewals and payments
Pay licence fees by 1 January to avoid the half‑fee penalty (r. 26(1a)-(1b)); monitor the 8 January and 15 January cut‑offs because the Director has escalation powers (r. 26(1b)-(1d)). If a new licence starts after 1 April check r. 27A for a pro‑rata reduction.
Keep proof of age and ID processes tight
Accept only documents prescribed in r. 18A(1A) as proof of age and ensure staff are trained to check for forged or counterfeit documents (r. 18EB(1)(c)).
Build audit trails for Director interaction and submissions
Where the Director can impose or vary conditions (r. 14ADB) ensure processes exist to receive, log and respond to proposals, and prepare submissions where appropriate. Keep records of any fee waivers or reductions from the Director (r. 26(2)).
Test systems for digital service and secure page interactions
If relying on electronic service channels under Part 5AA, follow the additional rules in r. 24A-24C for method, consent and when service is effected (r. 24A-24C). For secure web pages provide designated authorised persons (r. 18EBA).
Legal and compliance review
Before launching novel product formats (mist, aerosol, powdered alcohol, liqueur chocolate) or new distribution models (online wine sales), cross‑check product classification against regs 4A, 4AB, 4AC, 4AD and r. 9A(24) to ensure the product is properly treated as liquor and the sale/fulfilment model complies.
This checklist should be converted into operational standard operating procedures, training curricula, IT and delivery system requirements and an audit programme. Build documentation to demonstrate “reasonable diligence” (r. 14AE(4)) for training and other duties to preserve defences to licensee secondary liability.
8G. Exemption from Act in relation to liquor competition (Act s. 6(1)(o)) 29
Persons who may take and administer oaths and affirmations (Act s. 18(3)(c)) 30
9AA. Distance prescribed (Act s. 36A(2)(b)) 31
9AAA. Area prescribed (Act s. 36B) 31
9AAB. Distance prescribed (Act s. 36B) 31
9A. Special facility licence, purposes for which may be granted 32
9AB. Kind of extended trading permit prescribed (Act s. 25(5a)) 40
9B. Special facility licence, effect of as to sale of packaged liquor 40
9C. Types of special facility licence prescribed (Act s. 46(6)) 40
9D. Act s. 33(6b) modified as to occasional licences 41
9E. Period prescribed (Act s. 33(6D)(b)) 41
9EA. Kinds of licence prescribed (Act s. 38(1)(a)) 41
9F. Kinds of permit prescribed (Act s. 38(1)(b)) 42
Requirements prescribed (Act s. 57(2)(d)) 42
10A. Condition prescribed (Act s. 55(2)) 43
10B. Days for making application prescribed (Act s. 64(1BA)) 43
10C. Prescribed requirements for sale and delivery of packaged liquor or liquor for consumption off licensed premises (Act s. 65(1)(b)) 44
Plans and specifications, requirements for (Act s. 66(4) and (5)) 46
Records as to applicant, requirements for (Act s. 68(1)(b)) 49
14A. Types etc. of premises prescribed (Act s. 77(5a)(b)) 49
14AA. Area prescribed (Act s. 77A) 49
14AAA. Distance prescribed (Act s. 77A) 50
14AB. Requirement for lodgment of application prescribed (Act s. 75(1)(b)) 50
14AC. Requirement for lodgment of application prescribed (Act s. 76(1)(b)) 50
14ADA. Manager’s approval, application for (Act s. 102B) 51
14ADB. Manager’s approval, conditions on (Act s. 102C) 52
14ADC. Manager’s approval, duration of (Act s. 102D) 52
14ADD. Manager’s approval, renewal of (Act s. 102E) 53
14ADE. Approved manager, identification card for 53
14ADF. Lost etc. identification card, replacement of 54
14ADG. Transitioned approvals (Act Sch. 1B) 55
14AD. Responsible practices in selling etc. liquor, courses on required (Act s. 103A(1)(a)) 55
14AE. Offences for r. 14AD 57
14AG. Licensee to maintain register (Act s. 103A(1)(b)) 58
Amount of liability prescribed (Act s. 107) 59
16AA. Quantity and area for offence (Act s. 109A) 59
16AB. Persons of prescribed class (Act s. 109A(4)(b)) 61
16AC. Vehicles of prescribed class (Act s. 109A(4)(c)) 62
16AD. Prescribed circumstance (Act s. 109A(4)(d)) 63
16A. Sports arenas prescribed (Act s. 110(4B) sports arena) 63
Out of bounds area, notice for (Act s. 121(6)) 64
Premises prescribed to be regulated premises (Act s. 122(1)(f)) 65
18A. Documents prescribed as evidence of age etc. (Act s. 126(1)(b)(i)(III) and s. 160(1)) 66
18B. Proof of age card, issue of etc. 67
18C. Proof of age card, form etc. of (r. 18B) 68
18D. Lost etc. proof of age card, replacement of 69
18E. Agreement or arrangement prescribed (Act s. 104(2)) 69
18EA. Information prescribed for websites (Act s. 113A) 69
18EBB. Prescribed class of persons (Act s. 115AC(1AA)(b)) 71
18EB. Incidents and information prescribed for register (Act s. 116A) 71
18EC. Prescribed incidents involving physical force 73
18F. Training courses prescribed (Act s. 121(11)(d)) 74
18G. Confiscated document, how to be dealt with (Act s. 126(2b)) 75
18H. Provisions prescribed (Act s. 126E(4)) 75
Subsidy, application for 75
Persons prescribed (Act s. 129 wholesaler) 76
Wholesaler, subsidy for (Act s. 130) 76
21A. Wine producer, subsidy for (Act s. 130) 77
21AC. Subsidy payable once in respect of sale of liquor 78
21B. Subsidy, conditions imposed by Director as to (Act s. 130(2)) 78
21C. Licensees prescribed (Act s. 145(1)) 78
Records prescribed etc. (Act s. 145) 79
Returns, verification and lodgment of (Act s. 146) 81
Return of information required etc. (Act s. 145) 82
24AA. Prescribed class of persons (Act s. 152K(2AA)(b)) 84
24A. Electronic means of service of documents under Part 5AA of Act (Act s. 152NZQ(4)(c)) 84
24B. Consent to service of documents under Part 5AA of Act (Act s. 152NZQ(5)) 85
24C. Time when documents under Part 5AA of Act are served (Act s. 152NZR(6)) 86
25A. Class of persons prescribed (Act s. 152P(4)(b)) 87
25B. Fee payable for review of decision related to banned drinker orders (Act s. 152YY(1)) 87
25C. Disclosure of information about banned drinker order and banned drinker (Act s. 152ZC(2)(d)) 87
Money payable under Act, how payable 88
Fees generally (Sch. 3) 88
27A. Reduction in licence fee for new licences 90
Prescribed offences for infringement notices (Act s. 167(2)) 90
Protected entertainment precincts (Act s. 175(1E)) 96
Banned drinker areas (Act s. 175(1G)) 97
Schedule 1
Forms
Schedule 2
Details of applicant
Schedule 3 — Fees
Schedule 4 — Images of deposited plans showing protected entertainment precincts
Fremantle 112
Hillarys 113
Mandurah 114
Perth and Northbridge 115
Scarborough 116
Notes
Compilation table 117
Other notes 131
Defined terms
Liquor Control Act 1988
Liquor Control Regulations 1989
1. Citation
These regulations may be cited as the Liquor Control Regulations 1989.
[Regulation 1 amended: Gazette 1 May 2007 p. 1864.]
2. Commencement
These regulations shall come into operation on the day on which the Liquor Control Act 1988 1 comes into operation.
3. Forms prescribed etc. (Sch. 1)
(1) For the purposes respectively specified in the heading to those forms, a form set out in the manner specified in Schedule 1 shall be deemed to be in the prescribed form.
(2) Where particulars or matters are referred to in a form to be used under these regulations information as to those particulars and matters is required to be supplied, in accordance with the directions, if any, on that form, in so far as may be applicable to the particular case.
(3) All applications and accompanying documents, other than plans, shall be on paper of A4 size.
(4) Subregulation (3) does not apply to applications and accompanying documents that are lodged by an electronic means acceptable to the Director.
[Regulation 3 amended: Gazette 3 Jun 2011 p. 1999.]
3A. Terms used
(1) In these regulations, unless the contrary intention appears —
anticipated number of patrons means, in relation to an application for a permit or licence, or an application to vary a condition of a permit or licence, the sum of the maximum number of patrons for each day of the period to which the application relates;
approved manager has the meaning given in section 102A;
Authority means the Western Australian Land Information Authority established by the Land Information Authority Act 2006 section 5(1);
crowd controller has the meaning given in section 126C(1);
Deposited Plan, followed by a number, means the deposited plan of that number —
(a) lodged with the Authority; and
(b) approved by an authorised land officer as defined in the Land Administration Act 1997 section 3(1);
higher education course has the meaning given in the Higher Education Act 2004 section 3;
higher education institution means an education institution as defined in the Higher Education Act 2004 section 3 that provides a higher education course;
ID system has the meaning given in section 152ZI;
liquor restricted premises has the meaning given in section 152N;
manager’s approval has the meaning given in section 102A;
maximum number of patrons means —
(a) in relation to a day of the period to which an application for a permit or licence relates, the maximum number of patrons that the person making the application reasonably expects to be in the place or on the premises in respect of which the application is made at any one time on that day;
(b) in relation to a day of the period to which an application to add or vary a condition of a permit or licence relates, the maximum number of patrons that the person making the application reasonably expects to be in the place or on the premises in respect of which the application is made at any one time on that day;
(c) in relation to a day of the period for which an occasional licence is granted, the maximum number of patrons that the licensee reasonably expected (at the time that they applied for the licence) to be on the licensed premises at any one time on that day;
metropolitan region has the meaning given in the Planning and Development Act 2005 section 4(1);
notional wholesale selling price, in relation to wine that is low alcohol liquor sold by a wholesaler or producer, means the price for which the wholesaler or producer could reasonably have been expected to sell the wine by wholesale under an arm’s length transaction and without the benefit of a subsidy under section 130;
prescribed incident means an incident that is prescribed by regulation 18EB(1) for the purposes of section 116A(1);
producer has the meaning given in section 129;
restricted area means an area of the State declared for the purposes of section 175(1a) to be a restricted area;
road has the meaning given in the Road Traffic (Administration) Act 2008 section 4;
standard drink means a drink containing not more than 10 g of ethanol measured at 20°C;
tax period has the meaning given by section 195‑1 of the Commonwealth A New Tax System (Goods and Services Tax) Act 1999;
vocational education and training institution means a college or other vocational education and training institution established under the Vocational Education and Training Act 1996;
WET has the meaning given to wine tax in section 33‑1 of the Commonwealth A New Tax System (Wine Equalisation Tax) Act 1999;
wholesaler has the meaning given in section 129.
(2) In these regulations, unless the contrary intention appears, a reference to a section is to be taken to be a reference to a section of the Act.
[Regulation 3A inserted: Gazette 30 Jan 1998 p. 561; amended: Gazette 22 May 1998 p. 2940; 28 Jul 2000 p. 4029; 28 Jun 2002 p. 3105‑6; 10 Aug 2004 p. 3186; 1 May 2007 p. 1864 and 1888; 15 Jan 2010 p. 70‑1; 22 Oct 2010 p. 5225; 3 Jun 2011 p. 1994; 6 Sep 2016 p. 3828; 10 Jan 2017 p. 140; 2 Oct 2018 p. 3798‑9; 1 Nov 2019 p. 3858; SL 2021/207 r. 4; SL 2023/196 r. 4.]
3AB. Kind of liquor prescribed (mist containing ethanol) (Act s. 3(1) kind)
For the purposes of paragraph (e) of the definition of a kind in section 3(1), a substance that regulation 4AB prescribes as being liquor is prescribed as being a kind of liquor.
[Regulation 3AB inserted: Gazette 11 Jan 2005 p. 98; amended: Gazette 1 May 2007 p. 1888.]
3AC. Kind of liquor prescribed (aerosol containing ethanol) (Act s. 3(1) kind)
For the purposes of paragraph (e) of the definition of a kind in section 3(1), a substance that regulation 4AC prescribes as being liquor is prescribed as being a kind of liquor.
[Regulation 3AC inserted: Gazette 11 Jan 2005 p. 98; amended: Gazette 1 May 2007 p. 1888.]
3AD. Kind of liquor prescribed (powdered alcohol) (Act s. 3(1) kind)
For the purposes of paragraph (e) of the definition of a kind in section 3(1), powdered alcohol that regulation 4AD(2) prescribes as being liquor is prescribed as being a kind of liquor.
[Regulation 3AD inserted: Gazette 7 Aug 2015 p. 3206.]
4. Level prescribed (Act s. 3(1) low alcohol liquor)
For the purposes of the definition of low alcohol liquor in section 3(1), the prescribed concentration of ethanol in liquor is 3.5% at 20°C.
[Regulation 4 inserted: Gazette 22 May 1998 p. 2940; amended: Gazette 28 Jul 2000 p. 4029; 1 May 2007 p. 1888.]
4AA. Proportion of ethanol prescribed (Act s. 3(1) liquor)
For the purposes of paragraph (a) of the definition of liquor in section 3(1), 0.5% ethanol by volume is prescribed as the proportion of a beverage which at 20°C is liquor.
[Regulation 4AA inserted: Gazette 22 May 1998 p. 2940; amended: Gazette 6 Oct 1998 p. 5564; 1 May 2007 p. 1888.]
4A. Substances prescribed (food items) (Act s. 3(1) liquor)
(1) The following substances are prescribed under paragraph (b) of the definition of liquor in section 3(1) as being liquor for the purposes of the Act —
(a) an alcohol based food essence that is sold by way of retail sale;
(b) an alcohol based novelty food item that is sold by way of retail sale.
(2) In subregulation (1) —
alcohol based food essence means a preparation of flavouring substance in liquid form with a concentration of ethanol exceeding 1.15% by volume in a container that has a volume exceeding —
(a) 100 ml, in the case of natural vanilla essence; or
(b) 50 ml, in any other case;
alcohol based novelty food item means a food item or ice confection which contains more than 0.5% ethanol by volume and is modelled on children’s food stuff, including but not limited to, lollipops, ice‑creams, or jellies;
retail sale has the meaning given in the Retail Trading Hours Act 1987.
[Regulation 4A inserted: Gazette 23 Sep 1994 p. 4901; amended: Gazette 30 Dec 1994 p. 7329; 26 Nov 1996 p. 6629; 30 Apr 1999 p. 1820‑1.]
4AB. Substance prescribed (mist containing ethanol) (Act s. 3(1) liquor)
For the purposes of paragraph (b) of the definition of liquor in section 3(1), a substance that is a mist made up of —
(a) a gas; and
(b) droplets of a liquid that at 20°C contains more than 0.5% ethanol by volume,
is prescribed as being liquor.
[Regulation 4AB inserted: Gazette 11 Jan 2005 p. 98‑9; amended: Gazette 1 May 2007 p. 1888‑9.]
4AC. Substance prescribed (aerosol containing ethanol) (Act s. 3(1) liquor)
For the purposes of paragraph (b) of the definition of liquor in section 3(1), a substance that —
(a) is sold in an aerosol container; and
(b) is intended to be inhaled by humans; and
(c) at 20°C contains more than 0.5% ethanol by volume,
is prescribed as being liquor.
[Regulation 4AC inserted: Gazette 11 Jan 2005 p. 99; amended: Gazette 1 May 2007 p. 1888‑9.]
4AD. Substance prescribed (powdered alcohol) (Act s. 3(1) liquor)
(1) In this regulation —
powdered alcohol means a substanc
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