Part 1Preliminary

Part 1—Preliminary Division 1.1—Definitions 1.1.1  Meaning of eligible non‑vocationally recognised medical practitioner  (1) In the table: eligible non‑vocationally recognised medical practitioner means:  (a) a medical practitioner (including an overseas trained practitioner or a temporary resident medical practitioner) who:  (i) is registered as a medical practitioner under the Rural Other Medical Practitioners’ Program; and  (ii) is providing general medical services in accordance with that Program; or  (i) is registered as a medical practitioner under the Outer Metropolitan (Other Medical Practitioners) Relocation Incentive Program; and  (iii) is not vocationally registered under section 3F of the Act, but is required under that Program to undertake additional training or other activities:  (A) that could enable vocational registration within 4 years or, on written application, 5 years, after commencing the training or other activities; and  (B) of which the Chief Executive Medicare has written notice; or  (c) a medical practitioner who:  (i) is registered as a medical practitioner under the MedicarePlus for Other Medical Practitioners Program; and  (iii) is not vocationally registered under section 3F of the Act; or  (d) a medical practitioner who:  (i) is registered as a medical practitioner under the After Hours Other Medical Practitioners Program; and  (iii) is not vocationally registered under section 3F of the Act.  (2) In subclause (1): After Hours Other Medical Practitioners Program means a program administered by the Chief Executive Medicare that, for medical services provided in accordance with the Program, provides a particular level of medicare benefits. MedicarePlus for Other Medical Practitioners Program means a program administered by the Chief Executive Medicare that, for medical services provided in accordance with the Program, provides a particular level of medicare benefits. Outer Metropolitan (Other Medical Practitioners) Relocation Incentive Program means a program administered by the Department that, for medical services provided in accordance with the Program, provides a particular level of medicare benefits. Rural Other Medical Practitioners’ Program means a program administered by the Chief Executive Medicare that, for medical services provided in accordance with the Program, provides a particular level of medicare benefits. 1.1.2  General practitioners for the purposes of the table   For the purposes of paragraph (c) of the definition of general practitioner in subsection 3(1) of the Act, the following medical practitioners are specified for the purposes of the table:  (a) a medical practitioner who is undertaking a placement in general practice that is approved by the RACGP:  (i) as part of a training program for general practice leading to the award of Fellowship of the RACGP; or  (ii) as part of another training program recognised by the RACGP as being of an equivalent standard;  (b) an eligible non‑vocationally recognised medical practitioner;  (c) a medical practitioner who is undertaking a placement in general practice as part of the Remote Vocational Training Scheme administered by Remote Vocational Training Scheme Limited;  (d) a medical practitioner who is undertaking a placement in general practice that is approved by the ACRRM:  (i) as part of a training program for general practice leading to the award of Fellowship of the ACRRM; or  (ii) as part of another training program recognised by the ACRRM as being of an equivalent standard. Note: For other medical practitioners who are general practitioners, see the definition of general practitioner in subsection 3(1) of the Act and section 22 of the Health Insurance Regulations 2018. 1.1.3  Meaning of multidisciplinary case conference multidisciplinary case conference means a process by which a multidisciplinary case conference team carries out all of the following activities:  (a) discussing a patient’s history;  (b) identifying the patient’s multidisciplinary care needs;  (c) identifying outcomes to be achieved by members of the multidisciplinary case conference team giving care and service to the patient;  (d) identifying tasks that need to be undertaken to achieve these outcomes, and allocating those tasks to members of the multidisciplinary case conference team;  (e) assessing whether previously identified outcomes (if any) have been achieved. 1.1.4  Meaning of multidisciplinary case conference team  (1) A multidisciplinary case conference team for a patient:  (a) includes a medical practitioner; and  (i) for items 735 to 758, 825 to 828, 855 to 858, 6029 to 6042 and 6064 to 6075—includes at least 2 other members; or  (ii) for an item mentioned in subclause (3)—includes at least 3 other members; and  (c) may also include a family member of the patient.  (2) For the members mentioned in paragraph (b):  (a) each member must provide a different kind of care or service to the patient; and  (b) each member must not be a family carer of the patient; and  (c) one member may be another medical practitioner. Example: Other members may be allied health professionals, home and community service providers and care organisers, including the following: (a) Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioners; (b) asthma educators; (c) audiologists; (d) dental therapists; (e) dentists; (f) diabetes educators; (g) dieticians; (h) mental health workers; (i) occupational therapists; (j) optometrists; (k) orthoptists; (l) orthotists or prosthetists; (m) pharmacists; (n) physiotherapists; (o) podiatrists; (p) psychologists; (q) registered nurses; (r) social workers; (s) speech pathologists; (t) education providers; (u) “meals on wheels” providers; (v) personal care workers; (w) probation officers.  (3) For the purposes of subparagraph (1)(b)(ii), the items are items 820, 822, 823, 830, 832, 834, 2946, 2949, 2954, 2978, 2984, 2988, 3032, 3040, 3044, 3069 and 3074. 1.1.5  Meaning of single course of treatment  (1) Use this clause for items 104 to 131, 133, 384 to 388, 2799, 2801 to 2840, 3003, 3005 to 3028, 6004, 6007 to 6015, 6018, 6019, 6024, 6025, 6026, 6051, 6052, 6058, 6059, 6060, 6062, 6063, 16401, 16404, 16406, 51700 and 51703.  (2) A single course of treatment for a patient:  (a) includes:  (i) the initial attendance on the patient by a specialist or consultant physician; and  (ii) the continuing management or treatment up to and including the stage when the patient is referred back to the care of the referring practitioner; and  (iii) any subsequent review of the patient’s condition by the specialist or consultant physician that may be necessary, whether the review is initiated by the referring practitioner or by the specialist or consultant physician; but  (b) does not include:  (i) referral of the patient to the specialist or consultant physician; or  (ii) an attendance (the later attendance) on the patient by the specialist or consultant physician, after the end of the period of validity of the last referral to have application under section 102 of the Health Insurance Regulations 2018 if:  (A) the referring practitioner considers the later attendance necessary for the patient’s condition to be reviewed; and  (B) the patient was most recently attended by the specialist or consultant physician more than 9 months before the later attendance. Note: Division 4 of Part 11 of the Health Insurance Regulations 2018 prescribes the manner in which patients are to be referred when an item in the table specifies a service that is to be rendered by a specialist or consultant physician to a patient who has been referred. 1.1.6  Meaning of symbol (H)   An item including the symbol (H) applies only to a service performed or provided in a hospital. Division 1.2—General application provisions 1.2.1  Application   An item in the table does not apply to a service provided in contravention of a law of the Commonwealth, a State or Territory. 1.2.2  Attendance by specialist or consultant physician  (1) Use this clause for items 99 to 137, 141 to 149, 288 to 389, 2799, 2801 to 2840, 3003, 3005 to 3028, 6004, 6007 to 6016, 6018 to 6028, 6051 to 6063, 13210, 16399, 16401, 16404, 16407, 16408, 16508, 16509, 16533, 16534, 17609 and 17640 to 17655.  (2) The item does not apply to an attendance on a patient by a specialist or consultant physician if:  (a) the attendance forms part of a single course of treatment for the patient; and  (b) the attendance is after the end of the period of validity (under section 102 of the Health Insurance Regulations 2018) of the referral that was valid for the first attendance on the patient by the specialist or consultant physician in the single course of treatment; and  (c) the attendance is not within the period of validity (under section 102 of the Health Insurance Regulations 2018) of a later referral. Note: Division 4 of Part 11 of the Health Insurance Regulations 2018 prescribes the manner in which patients are to be referred when an item in the table specifies a service that is to be rendered by a specialist or consultant physician to a patient who has been referred. 1.2.3  Limitation of items—certain attendances by specialists and consultant physicians  (1) Use this clause for items 105, 116, 119, 386, 2806, 2814, 3010, 3014, 6019, 6052 and 16404.  (2) The item does not apply to a service if:  (a) the service is an attendance on a patient by a specialist or a consultant physician on the same day as the day on which an operation is performed on the patient by the specialist or consultant physician; and  (b) the operation is a service to which an item in Group T8 applies; and  (c) the amount specified in the item in Group T8 as the fee for a service to which that item applies is $300 or more. 1.2.4  Professional attendance services  (1) Use this clause for items 3 to 338, 348 to 389, 410 to 417, 501 to 600, 900, 903, 2497 to 2840, 3003, 3005 to 3028, 5000 to 5267, 6004, 6007 to 6016, 6018 to 6026, 6051 to 6063, 13210, 16399, 16401, 16404, 16406, 16407, 16508, 16509, 16533, 16534, 17609 to 17690 and 90020 to 90096.  (2) A professional attendance includes the provision, for a patient, of any of the following services:  (a) evaluating the patient’s condition or conditions including, if applicable, evaluation using a health screening service mentioned in subsection 19(5) of the Act;  (b) formulating a plan for the management and, if applicable, for the treatment of the patient’s condition or conditions;  (c) giving advice to the patient about the patient’s condition or conditions and, if applicable, about treatment;  (d) if authorised by the patient—giving advice to another person, or other persons, about the patient’s condition or conditions and, if applicable, about treatment;  (e) providing appropriate preventive health care;  (f) recording the clinical details of the service or services provided to the patient.  (3) However, a professional attendance does not include the supply of a vaccine to a patient if:  (a) the vaccine is supplied to the patient in connection with a professional attendance mentioned in any of items 3 to 65, 5000 to 5267 and 90020 to 90096; and  (b) the cost of the vaccine is not subsidised by the Commonwealth or a State. 1.2.5  Personal attendance by medical practitioners generally  (1) Use this clause for items 3 to 149, 173 to 338, 348 to 536, 585 to 600, 2100 to 2220, 2497 to 2840, 3003, 3005 to 3028, 4001 to 6016, 6018 to 6024, 6051 to 6058, 6062, 6063, 10801 to 10816, 11012 to 11021, 11212, 11304, 11600, 11627, 11701, 11724, 11921 to 12004, 12201, 13030 to 13104, 13106 to 13110, 13209, 13210, 13290 to 13700, 13815 to 13888, 14100 to 14200, 14203 to 14212, 14224, 15600, 16003 to 16512, 16515 to 51318 and 90020 to 90096.  (2) The item applies to a service provided in the course of a personal attendance by a single medical practitioner on a single patient on a single occasion.  (3) A personal attendance by the medical practitioner on the patient includes any of the following:  (a) a telepsychiatry consultation to which any of items 353 to 361 applies;  (b) the planning, management and supervision of the patient on home dialysis to which item 13104 applies;  (c) participating in a video conferencing consultation referred to in items 99, 112 to 114, 149, 288, 384, 389, 2100, 2122, 2125, 2126, 2137, 2138, 2143, 2147, 2179, 2195, 2199, 2220, 2799, 2820, 3003, 3015, 6004, 6016, 6025, 6026, 6059, 6060, 13210, 16399 and 17609. 1.2.6  Personal attendance by medical practitioners  (1) Use this clause for items 3 to 723, 732, 900 to 6016, 6018 to 6024, 6028, 6051 to 6058, 6062, 6063, 10801 to 10816, 11012 to 11021, 11212, 11304, 11600, 11627, 11701, 11722, 11724, 11728, 11820, 11823, 11921, 12000, 12003, 12004, 12201, 13030 to 13104, 13106 to 13110, 13209, 13210, 13290 to 13700, 13815 to 13888, 14100 to 14200, 14203 to 14212, 14224, 15600, 16003 to 16512, 16515 to 51318 and items 90020 to 90096.  (2) The item applies to a service provided during a personal attendance by:  (a) a medical practitioner (other than a medical practitioner employed by the proprietor of a hospital that is not a private hospital); or  (i) is employed by the proprietor of a hospital that is not a private hospital; and  (ii) provides the service otherwise than in the course of employment by that proprietor.  (3) Subclause (2) applies whether or not another person provides essential assistance to the medical practitioner in accordance with accepted medical practice.  (4) A personal attendance by the medical practitioner on the patient includes any of the following:  (a) a telepsychiatry consultation to which any of items 353 to 361 applies;  (b) the planning, management and supervision of the patient on home dialysis to which item 13104 applies;  (c) participating in a video conferencing consultation referred to in items 99, 112 to 114, 149, 288, 384, 389, 2100, 2122, 2125, 2126, 2137, 2138, 2143, 2147, 2179, 2195, 2199, 2220, 2799, 2820, 3003, 3015, 6004, 6016, 6025, 6026, 6059, 6060, 13210, 16399 and 17609. 1.2.7  Application of items—services provided with non‑medicare services   Items 3 to 10816 and 90020 to 90096 do not apply to a service mentioned in the item if the service is provided at the same time as, or in connection with, a non‑medicare service. 1.2.8  Application of items—services rendered in certain circumstances   An item in the table does not apply to a service mentioned in the item if the service is rendered in any of the following circumstances:  (a) the service is rendered in relation to the provision of chelation therapy, in the form of the intravenous administration of ethylenediamine tetra‑acetic acid or any of its salts, otherwise than for the treatment of heavy‑metal poisoning;  (b) the service is rendered in association with the injection of human chorionic gonadotrophin in the management of obesity;  (c) the service is rendered in relation to the use of hyperbaric oxygen therapy in the treatment of multiple sclerosis;  (d) the service is rendered for the purpose of, or in relation to, the removal of tattoos;  (e) the service is rendered for the purposes of, or in relation to, the removal from a cadaver of kidneys for transplantation;  (f) the service is rendered to a patient of a hospital for the purposes of, or in relation to:  (i) the transplantation of a thoracic or abdominal organ, other than a kidney, or of part of an organ of that kind; or  (ii) the transplantation of a kidney in conjunction with the transplantation of a thoracic or other abdominal organ, or of a part of an organ of that kind;  (g) the service is rendered for the purpose of administering microwave (UHF radiowave) cancer therapy, including the intravenous injection of drugs used immediately before or during the therapy;  (h) the service is rendered to a patient at the same time, or in connection with, an injection of blood or a blood product that is autologous. 1.2.8A  Application of items—services provided with harvesting, storage, in vitro processing or injection of non‑haematopoietic stem cells   An item in the table does not apply to a service mentioned in the item if the service is provided to a patient at the same time as, or in connection with, the harvesting, storage, in vitro processing or injection of non‑haematopoietic stem cells. 1.2.9  Services that may be provided by persons other than medical practitioners  (1) Use this clause for items 10983 to 10989, 10997, 11000, 11003, 11004, 11005, 11006, 11009, 11024, 11027, 11200, 11203, 11204, 11205, 11210, 11211, 11215, 11218, 11221, 11224, 11235, 11237, 11240, 11241, 11242, 11243, 11244, 11300, 11303, 11306, 11309, 11312, 11315, 11318, 11324, 11327, 11330, 11332, 11333, 11336, 11339, 11503, 11505, 11506, 11507, 11508, 11512, 11602, 11604, 11605, 11610, 11611, 11612, 11614, 11615, 11700, 11702, 11708, 11709, 11710, 11711, 11712, 11713, 11715, 11718, 11721, 11725, 11726, 11727, 11800, 11810, 11830, 11833, 11900, 11903, 11906, 11909, 11912, 11915, 11919, 12012, 12017, 12021, 12022, 12024, 12200, 12203, 12204, 12205, 12207, 12208, 12210, 12213, 12215, 12217, 12250, 12500 to 12530, 13015, 13020, 13025, 13200 to 13203, 13206, 13212, 13215, 13218, 13221, 13703, 13706, 13709, 13750, 13755, 13757, 13760, 13915 to 13948, 14050, 14218, 14221, 15000 to 15336, 15339 to 15357, 15500 to 15539 and 16514.  (2) The item applies whether the medical service is given by:  (a) a medical practitioner; or  (b) a person, other than a medical practitioner, who:  (i) is employed by a medical practitioner; or  (ii) in accordance with accepted medical practice, acts under the supervision of a medical practitioner. Part 2—Services and fees Division 2.1—Groups A1 to A35 2.1.1  Meaning of amount under clause 2.1.1   In an item of the table mentioned in column 1 of table 2.1.1: amount under clause 2.1.1 means the sum of:  (i) if a practitioner attends not more than 6 patients in a single attendance—the amount mentioned in column 3 for the item, divided by the number of patients attended; or  (ii) if a practitioner attends more than 6 patients in a single attendance—the amount mentioned in column 4 for the item.   - Table 2.1.1—Amount under clause 2.1.1 - Item Column 1Item/s of the table Column 2Fee Column 3Amount if not more than 6 patients (to be divided by the number of patients) ($) Column 4Amount if more than 6 patients ($) - 1 4 The fee for item 3 26.35 2.05 - 3 24 The fee for item 23 26.35 2.05 - 5 37 The fee for item 36 26.35 2.05 - 7 47 The fee for item 44 26.35 2.05 - 9 58 $8.50 15.50 0.70 - 10 59, 2610, 2631, 2673 $16.00 17.50 0.70 - 11 60, 2613, 2633, 2675 $35.50 15.50 0.70 - 12 65, 2616, 2635, 2677 $57.50 15.50 0.70 - 17 195 The fee for item 193 25.95 2.00 - 18 414 The fee for item 410 25.85 2.00 - 19 415 The fee for item 411 25.85 2.00 - 20 416 The fee for item 412 25.85 2.00 - 21 417 The fee for item 413 25.85 2.00 - 22 2503 The fee for item 2501 25.95 2.00 - 23 2506 The fee for item 2504 25.95 2.00 - 24 2509 The fee for item 2507 25.95 2.00 - 25 2518 The fee for item 2517 25.95 2.00 - 26 2522 The fee for item 2521 25.95 2.00 - 27 2526 The fee for item 2525 25.95 2.00 - 28 2547 The fee for item 2546 25.95 2.00 - 29 2553 The fee for item 2552 25.95 2.00 - 30 2559 The fee for item 2558 25.95 2.00 - 31 5003 The fee for item 5000 25.95 2.00 - 32 5010 The fee for item 5000 46.70 3.30 - 33 5023 The fee for item 5020 25.95 2.00 - 34 5028 The fee for item 5020 46.70 3.30 - 35 5043 The fee for item 5040 25.95 2.00 - 36 5049 The fee for item 5040 46.70 3.30 - 37 5063 The fee for item 5060 25.95 2.00 - 38 5067 The fee for item 5060 46.70 3.30 - 39 5220 $18.50 15.50 0.70 - 40 5223 $26.00 17.50 0.70 - 41 5227 $45.50 15.50 0.70 - 42 5228 $67.50 15.50 0.70 - 43 5260 $18.50 27.95 1.25 - 44 5263 $26.00 31.55 1.25 - 45 5265 $45.50 27.95 1.25 - 46 5267 $67.50 27.95 1.25 Division 2.2—Group A1: General practitioner attendances to which no other item applies   - Group A1—General practitioner attendances to which no other item applies - 3 Professional attendance at consulting rooms (other than a service to which another item applies) by a general practitioner for an obvious problem characterised by the straightforward nature of the task that requires a short patient history and, if required, limited examination and management—each attendance 17.20 - 4 Professional attendance by a general practitioner (other than attendance at consulting rooms or a residential aged care facility or a service to which another item in the table applies) that requires a short patient history and, if necessary, limited examination and management—an attendance on one or more patients at one place on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 23 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at consulting rooms (other than a service to which another item in the table applies), lasting less than 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—each attendance 37.60 - 24 Professional attendance by a general practitioner (other than attendance at consulting rooms or a residential aged care facility or a service to which another item in the table applies), lasting less than 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—an attendance on one or more patients at one place on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 36 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at consulting rooms (other than a service to which another item in the table applies), lasting at least 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a detailed patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—each attendance 72.80 - 37 Professional attendance by a general practitioner (other than attendance at consulting rooms or a residential aged care facility or a service to which another item in the table applies), lasting at least 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a detailed patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—an attendance on one or more patients at one place on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 44 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at consulting rooms (other than a service to which another item in the table applies), lasting at least 40 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking an extensive patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—each attendance 107.15 - 47 Professional attendance by a general practitioner (other than attendance at consulting rooms or a residential aged care facility or a service to which another item in the table applies), lasting at least 40 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking an extensive patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—an attendance on one or more patients at one place on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 Division 2.3—Group A2: Other non‑referred attendances to which no other item applies 2.3.1  Effect of determination under section 106TA of Act  (1) This clause applies to a general practitioner, if:  (a) the practitioner is the subject of a final determination that is in force under section 106TA of the Act; and  (b) the determination contains a direction, given under subparagraph 106U(1)(g)(i) of the Act, that the practitioner be disqualified for a professional service; and  (c) the determination states that the practitioner is disqualified for a service mentioned in an item in Group A1; and  (d) the practitioner provides a service mentioned in an item in Group A2.  (2) The determination applies to the service mentioned in paragraph (1)(d).   - Group A2—Other non‑referred attendances to which no other item applies - 52 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of not more than 5 minutes in duration (other than a service to which any other item applies)—each attendance, by:(a) a medical practitioner (who is not a general practitioner); or(b) a general practitioner to whom clause 2.3.1 applies 11.00 - 53 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of more than 5 minutes in duration but not more than 25 minutes (other than a service to which any other item applies)—each attendance, by:(a) a medical practitioner (who is not a general practitioner); or(b) a general practitioner to whom clause 2.3.1 applies 21.00 - 54 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of more than 25 minutes in duration but not more than 45 minutes (other than a service to which any other item applies)—each attendance, by:(a) a medical practitioner (who is not a general practitioner); or(b) a general practitioner to whom clause 2.3.1 applies 38.00 - 57 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of more than 45 minutes in duration (other than a service to which any other item applies)—each attendance, by:(a) a medical practitioner (who is not a general practitioner); or(b) a general practitioner to whom clause 2.3.1 applies 61.00 - 58 Professional attendance (other than an attendance at consulting rooms or a residential aged care facility or a service to which any other item in the table applies), not more than 5 minutes in duration—an attendance on one or more patients at one place on one occasion—each patient, by:(a) a medical practitioner (who is not a general practitioner); or(b) a general practitioner to whom clause 2.3.1 applies Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 59 Professional attendance (other than an attendance at consulting rooms or a residential aged care facility or a service to which any other item in the table applies) of more than 5 minutes in duration but not more than 25 minutes—an attendance on one or more patients at one place on one occasion—each patient, by:(a) a medical practitioner (who is not a general practitioner); or(b) a general practitioner to whom clause 2.3.1 applies Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 60 Professional attendance (other than an attendance at consulting rooms or a residential aged care facility or a service to which any other item in the table applies) of more than 25 minutes in duration but not more than 45 minutes—an attendance on one or more patients at one place on one occasion—each patient, by:(a) a medical practitioner (who is not a general practitioner); or(b) a general practitioner to whom clause 2.3.1 applies Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 65 Professional attendance (other than an attendance at consulting rooms or a residential aged care facility or a service to which any other item in the table applies) of more than 45 minutes in duration—an attendance on one or more patients at one place on one occasion—each patient, by:(a) a medical practitioner (who is not a general practitioner); or(b) a general practitioner to whom clause 2.3.1 applies Amount under clause 2.1.1 Division 2.4—Group A3: Specialist attendances to which no other item applies 2.4.1  Limitation of items 99 and 113   Items 99 and 113 do not apply if the patient or the specialist travels to a place to satisfy the requirement in:  (a) for item 99—sub‑subparagraph (d)(i)(B) of the item; and  (b) for item 113—sub‑subparagraph (c)(i)(B) of the item.   - Group A3—Specialist attendances to which no other item applies - 99 Professional attendance on a patient by a specialist practising in his or her specialty if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) the attendance is for a service:(i) provided with item 104 lasting more than 10 minutes; or(ii) provided with item 105; and(c) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(d) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies 50% of the fee for item 104 or 105 - 104 Professional attendance at consulting rooms or hospital by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty after referral of the patient to him or her—each attendance, other than a second or subsequent attendance, in a single course of treatment, other than a service to which item 106, 109 or 16401 applies 86.85 - 105 Professional attendance by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty following referral of the patient to him or her—an attendance after the first in a single course of treatment, if that attendance is at consulting rooms or hospital, other than a service to which item 16404 applies 43.65 - 106 Professional attendance by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of ophthalmology and following referral of the patient to him or her—an attendance (other than a second or subsequent attendance in a single course of treatment) at which the only service provided is refraction testing for the issue of a prescription for spectacles or contact lenses, if that attendance is at consulting rooms or hospital (other than a service to which any of items 104, 109 and 10801 to 10816 applies) 72.05 - 107 Professional attendance by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty following referral of the patient to him or her—an attendance (other than a second or subsequent attendance in a single course of treatment), if that attendance is at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital 127.40 - 108 Professional attendance by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty following referral of the patient to him or her—each attendance after the first in a single course of treatment, if that attendance is at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital 80.65 - 109 Professional attendance by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of ophthalmology following referral of the patient to him or her—an attendance (other than a second or subsequent attendance in a single course of treatment) at which a comprehensive eye examination, including pupil dilation, is performed on:(a) a patient aged 9 years or younger; or(b) a patient aged 14 years or younger with developmental delay;(other than a service to which any of items 104, 106 and 10801 to 10816 applies) 195.70 - 111 Professional attendance at consulting rooms or in hospital by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance after the first attendance in a single course of treatment, if:(a) during the attendance, the specialist determines the need to perform an operation on the patient that had not otherwise been scheduled; and(b) the specialist subsequently performs the operation on the patient, on the same day; and(c) the operation is a service to which an item in Group T8 applies; and(d) the amount specified in the item in Group T8 as the fee for a service to which that item applies is $300 or moreFor any particular patient, once only on the same day 43.65 - 113 Initial professional attendance of 10 minutes or less in duration on a patient by a specialist in the practice of his or her speciality if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(c) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies; and(d) no other initial consultation has taken place for a single course of treatment 65.15 Division 2.5—Group A4: Consultant physician (other than psychiatry) attendances to which no other item applies 2.5.1  Limitation of items 112 and 114   Items 112 and 114 do not apply if the patient, specialist or physician travels to a place to satisfy the requirement in:  (a) for item 112—sub‑subparagraph (d)(i)(B) of the item; and  (b) for item 114—sub‑subparagraph (c)(i)(B) of the item.   - Group A4—Consultant physician attendances to which no other item applies - 110 Professional attendance at consulting rooms or hospital, by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty (other than psychiatry) following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—initial attendance in a single course of treatment 153.15 - 112 Professional attendance on a patient by a consultant physician practising in his or her specialty if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) the attendance is for a service:(i) provided with item 110 lasting more than 10 minutes; or(ii) provided with item 116, 119, 132 or 133; and(c) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(d) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the physician; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies 50% of the fee for item 110, 116, 119, 132 or 133 - 114 Initial professional attendance of 10 minutes or less in duration on a patient by a consultant physician practising in his or her specialty if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(c) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the physician; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies; and(d) no other initial consultation has taken place for a single course of treatment 114.90 - 116 Professional attendance at consulting rooms or hospital, by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty (other than psychiatry) following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—each attendance (other than a service to which item 119 applies) after the first in a single course of treatment 76.65 - 117 Professional attendance at consulting rooms or in hospital, by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty (other than psychiatry) following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance after the first attendance in a single course of treatment, if:(a) the attendance is not a minor attendance; and(b) during the attendance, the consultant physician determines the need to perform an operation on the patient that had not otherwise been scheduled; and(c) the consultant physician subsequently performs the operation on the patient, on the same day; and(d) the operation is a service to which an item in Group T8 applies; and(e) the amount specified in the item in Group T8 as the fee for a service to which that item applies is $300 or moreFor any particular patient, once only on the same day 76.65 - 119 Professional attendance at consulting rooms or hospital, by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty (other than psychiatry) following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—each minor attendance after the first in a single course of treatment 43.65 - 120 Professional attendance at consulting rooms or in hospital by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty (other than psychiatry) following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance after the first attendance in a single course of treatment, if:(a) the attendance is a minor attendance; and(b) during the attendance, the consultant physician determines the need to perform an operation on the patient that had not otherwise been scheduled; and(c) the consultant physician subsequently performs the operation on the patient, on the same day; and(d) the operation is a service to which an item in Group T8 applies; and(e) the amount specified in the item in Group T8 as the fee for a service to which that item applies is $300 or moreFor any particular patient, once only on the same day 43.65 - 122 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital, by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty (other than psychiatry) following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—initial attendance in a single course of treatment 185.85 - 128 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital, by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty (other than psychiatry) following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—each attendance (other than a service to which item 131 applies) after the first in a single course of treatment 112.40 - 131 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital, by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty (other than psychiatry) following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—each minor attendance after the first in a single course of treatment 80.95 - 132 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty (other than psychiatry) of at least 45 minutes in duration for an initial assessment of a patient with at least 2 morbidities (which may include complex congenital, developmental and behavioural disorders) following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner, if:(a) an assessment is undertaken that covers:(i) a comprehensive history, including psychosocial history and medication review; and(ii) comprehensive multi or detailed single organ system assessment; and(iii) the formulation of differential diagnoses; and(b) a consultant physician treatment and management plan of significant complexity is prepared and provided to the referring practitioner, which involves:(i) an opinion on diagnosis and risk assessment; and(ii) treatment options and decisions; and(iii) medication recommendations; and(c) an attendance on the patient to which item 110, 116 or 119 applies did not take place on the same day by the same consultant physician; and(d) this item has not applied to an attendance on the patient in the preceding 12 months by the same consultant physician 267.85 - 133 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty (other than psychiatry) of at least 20 minutes in duration after the first attendance in a single course of treatment for a review of a patient with at least 2 morbidities (which may include complex congenital, developmental and behavioural disorders) if:(a) a review is undertaken that covers:(i) review of initial presenting problems and results of diagnostic investigations; and(ii) review of responses to treatment and medication plans initiated at time of initial consultation; and(iii) comprehensive multi or detailed single organ system assessment; and(iv) review of original and differential diagnoses; and(b) the modified consultant physician treatment and management plan is provided to the referring practitioner, which involves, if appropriate:(i) a revised opinion on the diagnosis and risk assessment; and(ii) treatment options and decisions; and(iii) revised medication recommendations; and(c) an attendance on the patient to which item 110, 116 or 119 applies did not take place on the same day by the same consultant physician; and(d) item 132 applied to an attendance claimed in the preceding 12 months; and(e) the attendance under this item is claimed by the same consultant physician who claimed item 132 or a locum tenens; and(f) this item has not applied more than twice in any 12 month period 134.10 Division 2.6—Group A29: Early intervention services for children with autism, pervasive developmental disorder or disability 2.6.1  Meanings of eligible allied health provider and risk assessment   In items 135, 137 and 139: eligible allied health provider means any of the following:  (a) an audiologist;  (b) an occupational therapist;  (c) an optometrist;  (d) an orthoptist;  (e) a physiotherapist;  (f) a psychologist;  (g) a speech pathologist. Risk assessment means an assessment of:  (a) the risk to the patient of a contributing co‑morbidity; and  (b) environmental, physical, social and emotional risk factors that may apply to the patient or to another individual. 2.6.2  Meaning of eligible disability   An eligible disability means any of the following:  (a) sight impairment that results in vision of less than or equal to 6/18 vision or equivalent field loss in the better eye, with correction;  (b) hearing impairment that results in:  (i) a hearing loss of 40 decibels or greater in the better ear, across 4 frequencies; or  (ii) permanent conductive hearing loss and auditory neuropathy;  (c) deafblindness;  (d) cerebral palsy;  (e) Down syndrome;  (f) Fragile X syndrome;  (g) Prader‑Willi syndrome;  (h) Williams syndrome;  (i) Angelman syndrome;  (j) Kabuki syndrome;  (k) Smith‑Magenis syndrome;  (l) CHARGE syndrome;  (m) Cri du Chat syndrome;  (n) Cornelia de Lange syndrome;  (o) microcephaly, if a child has:  (i) a head circumference less than the third percentile for age and sex; and  (ii) a functional level at or below 2 standard deviations below the mean for age on a standard development test or an IQ score of less than 70 on a standardised test of intelligence;  (p) Rett’s disorder.   - Group A29—Early intervention services for children with autism, pervasive developmental disorder or disability - 135 Professional attendance of at least 45 minutes in duration at consulting rooms or hospital, by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of paediatrics, following referral of the patient to the consultant by a referring practitioner, for assessment, diagnosis and preparation of a treatment and management plan for a patient aged under 13 years with autism or another pervasive developmental disorder, if the consultant paediatrician does all of the following:(a) undertakes a comprehensive assessment and makes a diagnosis (if appropriate, using information provided by an eligible allied health provider);(b) develops a treatment and management plan, which must include the following:(i) an assessment and diagnosis of the patient’s condition;(ii) a risk assessment;(iii) treatment options and decisions;(iv) if necessary—medical recommendations;(c) provides a copy of the treatment and management plan to:(i) the referring practitioner; and(ii) one or more allied health providers, if appropriate, for the treatment of the patient;(other than attendance on a patient for whom payment has previously been made under this item or item 137, 139 or 289) 267.85 - 137 Professional attendance of at least 45 minutes in duration at consulting rooms or hospital, by a specialist or consultant physician (not including a general practitioner) following referral of the patient to the consultant by a referring practitioner, for assessment, diagnosis and preparation of a treatment and management plan for a patient under 13 years with an eligible disability if the specialist or consultant physician does all of the following:(a) undertakes a comprehensive assessment and makes a diagnosis (if appropriate, using information provided by an eligible allied health provider);(b) develops a treatment and management plan, which must include the following:(i) an assessment and diagnosis of the patient’s condition;(ii) a risk assessment;(iii) treatment options and decisions;(iv) if necessary—medication recommendations;(c) provides a copy of the treatment and management plan to one or more allied health providers, if appropriate, for the treatment of the patient;(other than attendance on a patient for whom payment has previously been made under this item or item 135, 139 or 289) 267.85 - 139 Professional attendance of at least 45 minutes in duration at consulting rooms only, by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or consultant physician) for assessment, diagnosis and preparation of a treatment and management plan for a patient under 13 years with an eligible disability if the general practitioner does all of the following:(a) undertakes a comprehensive assessment and makes a diagnosis (if appropriate, using information provided by an eligible allied health provider);(b) develops a treatment and management plan, which must include the following:(i) an assessment and diagnosis of the patient’s condition;(ii) a risk assessment;(iii) treatment options and decisions;(iv) if necessary—medication recommendations;(c) provides a copy of the treatment and management plan to one or more allied health providers, if appropriate, for the treatment of the patient;(other than attendance on a patient for whom payment has previously been made under this item or item 135, 137 or 289) 134.50 Division 2.7—Group A28: Geriatric medicine 2.7.1  Limitation of item 149   Item 149 does not apply if the patient, physician or specialist travels to a place to satisfy the requirement in sub‑subparagraph (d)(i)(B) of the item.   - Group A28—Geriatric medicine - 141 Professional attendance of more than 60 minutes in duration at consulting rooms or hospital by a consultant physician or specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of geriatric medicine, if:(a) the patient is at least 65 years old and referred by a medical practitioner practising in general practice (including a general practitioner, but not including a specialist or consultant physician) or a participating nurse practitioner; and(b) the attendance is initiated by the referring practitioner for the provision of a comprehensive assessment and management plan; and(c) during the attendance:(i) the medical, physical, psychological and social aspects of the patient’s health are evaluated in detail using appropriately validated assessment tools if indicated (the assessment); and(ii) the patient’s various health problems and care needs are identified and prioritised (the formulation); and(iii) a detailed management plan is prepared (the management plan) setting out:(A) the prioritised list of health problems and care needs; and(B) short and longer term management goals; and(C) recommended actions or intervention strategies to be undertaken by the patient’s general practitioner or another relevant health care provider that are likely to improve or maintain health status and are readily available and acceptable to the patient and the patient’s family and carers; and(iv) the management plan is explained and discussed with the patient and, if appropriate, the patient’s family and any carers; and(v) the management plan is communicated in writing to the referring practitioner; and(d) an attendance to which item 104, 105, 107, 108, 110, 116 or 119 applies has not been provided to the patient on the same day by the same practitioner; and(e) an attendance to which this item or item 145 applies has not been provided to the patient by the same practitioner in the preceding 12 months 459.45 - 143 Professional attendance of more than 30 minutes in duration at consulting rooms or hospital by a consultant physician or specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of geriatric medicine to review a management plan previously prepared by that consultant physician or specialist under item 141 or 145, if:(a) the review is initiated by the referring medical practitioner practising in general practice or a participating nurse practitioner; and(b) during the attendance:(i) the patient’s health status is reassessed; and(ii) a management plan prepared under item 141 or 145 is reviewed and revised; and(iii) the revised management plan is explained to the patient and (if appropriate) the patient’s family and any carers and communicated in writing to the referring practitioner; and(c) an attendance to which item 104, 105, 107, 108, 110, 116 or 119 applies was not provided to the patient on the same day by the same practitioner; and(d) an attendance to which item 141 or 145 applies has been provided to the patient by the same practitioner in the preceding 12 months; and(e) an attendance to which this item or item 147 applies has not been provided to the patient in the preceding 12 months, unless there has been a significant change in the patient’s clinical condition or care circumstances that requires a further review 287.20 - 145 Professional attendance of more than 60 minutes in duration at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital by a consultant physician or specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of geriatric medicine, if:(a) the patient is at least 65 years old and referred by a medical practitioner practising in general practice (including a general practitioner, but not including a specialist or consultant physician) or a participating nurse practitioner; and(b) the attendance is initiated by the referring practitioner for the provision of a comprehensive assessment and management plan; and(c) during the attendance:(i) the medical, physical, psychological and social aspects of the patient’s health are evaluated in detail utilising appropriately validated assessment tools if indicated (the assessment); and(ii) the patient’s various health problems and care needs are identified and prioritised (the formulation); and(iii) a detailed management plan is prepared (the management plan) setting out:(A) the prioritised list of health problems and care needs; and(B) short and longer term management goals; and(C) recommended actions or intervention strategies, to be undertaken by the patient’s general practitioner or another relevant health care provider that are likely to improve or maintain health status and are readily available and acceptable to the patient, the patient’s family and any carers; and(iv) the management plan is explained and discussed with the patient and, if appropriate, the patient’s family and any carers; and(v) the management plan is communicated in writing to the referring practitioner; and(d) an attendance to which item 104, 105, 107, 108, 110, 116 or 119 applies has not been provided to the patient on the same day by the same practitioner; and(e) an attendance to which this item or item 141 applies has not been provided to the patient by the same practitioner in the preceding 12 months 557.10 - 147 Professional attendance of more than 30 minutes in duration at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital by a consultant physician or specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of geriatric medicine to review a management plan previously prepared by that consultant physician or specialist under items 141 or 145, if:(a) the review is initiated by the referring medical practitioner practising in general practice or a participating nurse practitioner; and(b) during the attendance:(i) the patient’s health status is reassessed; and(ii) a management plan that was prepared under item 141 or 145 is reviewed and revised; and(iii) the revised management plan is explained to the patient and (if appropriate) the patient’s family and any carers and communicated in writing to the referring practitioner; and(c) an attendance to which item 104, 105, 107, 108, 110, 116 or 119 applies has not been provided to the patient on the same day by the same practitioner; and(d) an attendance to which item 141 or 145 applies has been provided to the patient by the same practitioner in the preceding 12 months; and(e) an attendance to which this item or 143 applies has not been provided by the same practitioner in the preceding 12 months, unless there has been a significant change in the patient’s clinical condition or care circumstances that requires a further review 348.25 - 149 Professional attendance on a patient by a consultant physician or specialist practising in his or her specialty of geriatric medicine if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) item 141 or 143 applies to the attendance; and(c) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(d) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the physician or specialist; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service: for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies 50% of the fee for item 141 or 143 Division 2.8—Group A5: Prolonged attendances to which no other item applies 2.8.1  Application of items 160 to 164  (1) Items 160 to 164 apply only to a service provided in the course of a personal attendance by one or more general practitioners, specialists or consultant physicians on a single patient on a single occasion.  (2) If the personal attendance is provided by one or more general practitioners, specialists or consultant physicians concurrently, each general practitioner, specialist or consultant physician may claim an attendance fee.  (3) However, if the personal attendance is not continuous, the occasion on which the service is provided is taken to be the total time of the attendance.   - Group A5—Prolonged attendances to which no other item applies - 160 Professional attendance for a period of not less than 1 hour but less than 2 hours (other than a service to which another item applies) on a patient in imminent danger of death 221.50 - 161 Professional attendance for a period of not less than 2 hours but less than 3 hours (other than a service to which another item applies) on a patient in imminent danger of death 369.15 - 162 Professional attendance for a period of not less than 3 hours but less than 4 hours (other than a service to which another item applies) on a patient in imminent danger of death 516.65 - 163 Professional attendance for a period of not less than 4 hours but less than 5 hours (other than a service to which another item applies) on a patient in imminent danger of death 664.55 - 164 Professional attendance for a period of 5 hours or more (other than a service to which another item applies) on a patient in imminent danger of death 738.40 Division 2.9—Group A6: Group therapy   - Group A6—Group therapy - 170 Professional attendance for the purpose of Group therapy of not less than 1 hour in duration given under the direct continuous supervision of a general practitioner, specialist or consultant physician (other than a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry) involving members of a family and persons with close personal relationships with that family—each Group of 2 patients 117.55 - 171 Professional attendance for the purpose of Group therapy of not less than 1 hour in duration given under the direct continuous supervision of a general practitioner, specialist or consultant physician (other than a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry) involving members of a family and persons with close personal relationships with that family—each Group of 3 patients 123.85 - 172 Professional attendance for the purpose of Group therapy of not less than 1 hour in duration given under the direct continuous supervision of a general practitioner, specialist or consultant physician (other than a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry) involving members of a family and persons with close personal relationships with that family—each Group of 4 or more patients 150.70 Division 2.10—Group A7: Acupuncture and Non‑Specialist Practitioner Items 2.10.1  Meaning of qualified medical acupuncturist   A general practitioner is a qualified medical acupuncturist, for an item, if the Chief Executive Medicare has received a written notice from the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners stating that the general practitioner meets the skills requirements for providing the service described in the item.   - Group A7—Acupuncture and Non‑Specialist Practitioner Items - Subgroup 1—Acupuncture - 173 Professional attendance at which acupuncture is performed by a medical practitioner by application of stimuli on or through the surface of the skin by any means, including any consultation on the same occasion and another attendance on the same day related to the condition for which the acupuncture was performed 21.65 - 193 Professional attendance by a general practitioner who is a qualified medical acupuncturist, at a place other than a hospital, lasting less than 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, at which acupuncture is performed by the qualified medical acupuncturist by the application of stimuli on or through the skin by any means, including any consultation on the same occasion and another attendance on the same day related to the condition for which the acupuncture is performed 37.05 - 195 Professional attendance by a general practitioner who is a qualified medical acupuncturist, on one or more patients at a hospital, lasting less than 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, at which acupuncture is performed by the qualified medical acupuncturist by the application of stimuli on or through the skin by any means, including any consultation on the same occasion and another attendance on the same day related to the condition for which the acupuncture is performed Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 197 Professional attendance by a general practitioner who is a qualified medical acupuncturist, at a place other than a hospital, lasting at least 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a detailed patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, at which acupuncture is performed by the qualified medical acupuncturist by the application of stimuli on or through the skin by any means, including any consultation on the same occasion and another attendance on the same day related to the condition for which the acupuncture is performed 71.70 - 199 Professional attendance by a general practitioner who is a qualified medical acupuncturist, at a place other than a hospital, lasting at least 40 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking an extensive patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, at which acupuncture is performed by the qualified medical acupuncturist by the application of stimuli on or through the skin by any means, including any consultation on the same occasion and another attendance on the same day related to the condition for which the acupuncture is performed 105.55 Division 2.11—Group A8: Consultant physician in practice of psychiatry for attendances to which no other item applies 2.11.1  Application of items 291, 293 and 359   Items 291, 293 and 359 may only apply once in a 12 month period. 2.11.2  Application of items 342, 344 and 346   Items 342, 344 and 346 apply only to a service provided in the course of a personal attendance by a single medical practitioner. 2.11.3  Restriction of telepsychiatry consultations to regional, rural and remote areas   Items 353 to 361 apply only to a consultation that is provided to a patient in a regional, rural or remote area. 2.11.4  Limitation of item 288   Item 288 does not apply if the patient or physician travels to a place to satisfy the requirement in sub‑subparagraph (d)(i)(B) of the item. 2.11.5  Meanings of eligible allied health provider and risk assessment   In item 289: eligible allied health provider means any of the following:  (a) an audiologist;  (b) an occupational therapist;  (c) an optometrist;  (d) an orthoptist;  (e) a physiotherapist;  (f) a psychologist;  (g) a speech pathologist. Risk assessment means an assessment of:  (a) the risk to the patient of a contributing co‑morbidity; and  (b) environmental, physical, social and emotional risk factors that may apply to the patient or to another individual.   - Group A8—Consultant psychiatrist attendances to which no other item applies - 288 Professional attendance on a patient by a consultant physician practising in his or her specialty of psychiatry if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) item 291, 293, 296, 300, 302, 304, 306, 308, 310, 312, 314, 316, 318, 319, 348, 350 or 352 applies to the attendance; and(c) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(d) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the physician; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies 50% of the fee for item 291, 293, 296, 300, 302, 304, 306, 308, 310, 312, 314, 316, 318, 319, 348, 350 or 352 - 289 Professional attendance of at least 45 minutes in duration at consulting rooms or hospital, by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry, following referral of the patient to the consultant by a referring practitioner, for assessment, diagnosis and preparation of a treatment and management plan for a patient under 13 years with autism or another pervasive developmental disorder, if the consultant psychiatrist does all of the following:(a) undertakes a comprehensive assessment and makes a diagnosis (if appropriate, using information provided by an eligible allied health provider);(b) develops a treatment and management plan which must include the following:(i) an assessment and diagnosis of the patient’s condition;(ii) a risk assessment;(iii) treatment options and decisions;(iv) if necessary—medication recommendations;(c) provides a copy of the treatment and management plan to the referring practitioner;(d) provides a copy of the treatment and management plan to one or more allied health providers, if appropriate, for the treatment of the patient;(other than attendance on a patient for whom payment has previously been made under this item or item 135, 137 or 139) 267.85 - 291 Professional attendance of more than 45 minutes in duration at consulting rooms by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry, if:(a) the attendance follows referral of the patient to the consultant for an assessment or management by a medical practitioner in general practice (including a general practitioner, but not a specialist or consultant physician) or a participating nurse practitioner; and(b) during the attendance, the consultant:(i) uses an outcome tool (if clinically appropriate); and(ii) carries out a mental state examination; and(iii) makes a psychiatric diagnosis; and(c) the consultant decides that it is clinically appropriate for the patient to be managed by the referring practitioner without ongoing treatment by the consultant; and(d) within 2 weeks after the attendance, the consultant:(i) prepares a written diagnosis of the patient; and(ii) prepares a written management plan for the patient that:(A) covers the next 12 months; and(B) is appropriate to the patient’s diagnosis; and(C) comprehensively evaluates the patient’s biological, psychological and social issues; and(D) addresses the patient’s diagnostic psychiatric issues; and(E) makes management recommendations addressing the patient’s biological, psychological and social issues; and(iii) gives the referring practitioner a copy of the diagnosis and the management plan; and(iv) if clinically appropriate, explains the diagnosis and management plan, and a gives a copy, to:(A) the patient; and(B) the patient’s carer (if any), if the patient agrees 459.45 - 293 Professional attendance of more than 30 minutes but not more than 45 minutes in duration at consulting rooms by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry, if:(a) the patient is being managed by a medical practitioner or a participating nurse practitioner in accordance with a management plan prepared by the consultant in accordance with item 291; and(b) the attendance follows referral of the patient to the consultant for review of the management plan by the medical practitioner or a participating nurse practitioner managing the patient; and(c) during the attendance, the consultant:(i) uses an outcome tool (if clinically appropriate); and(ii) carries out a mental state examination; and(iii) makes a psychiatric diagnosis; and(iv) reviews the management plan; and(d) within 2 weeks after the attendance, the consultant:(i) prepares a written diagnosis of the patient; and(ii) revises the management plan; and(iii) gives the referring practitioner a copy of the diagnosis and the revised management plan; and(iv) if clinically appropriate, explains the diagnosis and the revised management plan, and gives a copy, to:(A) the patient; and(B) the patient’s carer (if any), if the patient agrees; and(e) in the preceding 12 months, a service to which item 291 applies has been provided; and(f) in the preceding 12 months, a service to which this item or item 293 applies has not been provided 287.20 - 296 Professional attendance of more than 45 minutes in duration by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her speciality of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance at consulting rooms if the patient:(a) is a new patient for this consultant psychiatrist; or(b) has not received a professional attendance from this consultant psychiatrist in the preceding 24 months;other than attendance on a patient in relation to whom this item, item 297 or 299, or any of items 300 to 346, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370, has applied in the preceding 24 months 264.20 - 297 Professional attendance of more than 45 minutes by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her speciality of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance at hospital if the patient:(a) is a new patient for this consultant psychiatrist; or(b) has not received a professional attendance from this consultant psychiatrist in the preceding 24 months;other than attendance on a patient in relation to whom this item, item 296 or 299, or any of items 300 to 346, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370, has applied in the preceding 24 months (H) 264.20 - 299 Professional attendance of more than 45 minutes by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her speciality of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance at a place other than consulting rooms or a hospital if the patient:(a) is a new patient for this consultant psychiatrist; or(b) has not received a professional attendance from this consultant psychiatrist in the preceding 24 months;other than attendance on a patient in relation to whom this item, item 296 or 297, or any of items 300 to 346, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370, has applied in the preceding 24 months 315.95 - 300 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of not more than 15 minutes in duration at consulting rooms, if that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296, 300 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies have not exceeded 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 44.00 - 302 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of more than 15 minutes, but not more than 30 minutes, in duration at consulting rooms, if that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296, 300 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies have not exceeded 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 87.75 - 304 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of more than 30 minutes, but not more than 45 minutes, in duration at consulting rooms), if that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296, 300 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies have not exceeded 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 135.10 - 306 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of more than 45 minutes, but not more than 75 minutes, in duration at consulting rooms, if that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296, 300 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies have not exceeded 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 186.40 - 308 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of more than 75 minutes in duration at consulting rooms), if that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296, 300 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies have not exceeded 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 216.35 - 310 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of not more than 15 minutes in duration at consulting rooms, if that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296, 300 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies exceed 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 21.90 - 312 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of more than 15 minutes, but not more than 30 minutes, in duration at consulting rooms, if that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296, 300 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies exceed 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 44.00 - 314 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of more than 30 minutes, but not more than 45 minutes, in duration at consulting rooms, if that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296, 300 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies exceed 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 67.65 - 316 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of more than 45 minutes, but not more than 75 minutes, in duration at consulting rooms, if that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296, 300 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies exceed 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 93.35 - 318 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of more than 75 minutes in duration at consulting rooms, if that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296, 300 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies exceed 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 108.20 - 319 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of more than 45 minutes in duration at consulting rooms, if the patient has:(a) been diagnosed as suffering severe personality disorder, anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, dysthymic disorder, substance‑related disorder, somatoform disorder or a pervasive development disorder; and(b) for persons 18 years and over—been rated with a level of functional impairment within the range 1 to 50 according to the Global Assessment of Functioning Scale;if that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296, 300 to 319, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies have not exceeded 160 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 186.40 - 320 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of not more than 15 minutes in duration at hospital 44.00 - 322 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of more than 15 minutes, but not more than 30 minutes, in duration at hospital 87.75 - 324 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of more than 30 minutes, but not more than 45 minutes, in duration at hospital 135.10 - 326 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of more than 45 minutes, but not more than 75 minutes, in duration at hospital 186.40 - 328 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of more than 75 minutes in duration at hospital 216.35 - 330 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of not more than 15 minutes in duration if that attendance is at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital 80.75 - 332 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of more than 15 minutes, but not more than 30 minutes, in duration if that attendance is at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital 126.50 - 334 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of more than 30 minutes, but not more than 45 minutes, in duration if that attendance is at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital 184.35 - 336 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of more than 45 minutes, but not more than 75 minutes, in duration if that attendance is at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital 223.05 - 338 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—an attendance of more than 75 minutes in duration if that attendance is at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital 253.30 - 342 Group psychotherapy (including any associated consultations with a patient taking place on the same occasion and relating to the condition for which Group therapy is conducted) of not less than 1 hour in duration given under the continuous direct supervision of a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry, involving a Group of 2 to 9 unrelated patients or a family Group of more than 3 patients, each of whom is referred to the consultant physician by a referring practitioner—each patient 50.05 - 344 Group psychotherapy (including any associated consultations with a patient taking place on the same occasion and relating to the condition for which Group therapy is conducted) of not less than 1 hour in duration given under the continuous direct supervision of a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry, involving a family Group of 3 patients, each of whom is referred to the consultant physician by a referring practitioner—each patient 66.45 - 346 Group psychotherapy (including any associated consultations with a patient taking place on the same occasion and relating to the condition for which Group therapy is conducted) of not less than 1 hour in duration given under the continuous direct supervision of a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry, involving a family Group of 2 patients, each of whom is referred to the consultant physician by a referring practitioner—each patient 98.25 - 348 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry, following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner, involving an interview of a person other than the patient of not less than 20 minutes, but less than 45 minutes, in duration, in the course of initial diagnostic evaluation of a patient 128.65 - 350 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry, following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner, involving an interview of a person other than the patient of not less than 45 minutes in duration, in the course of initial diagnostic evaluation of a patient 177.60 - 352 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry, following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner, involving an interview of a person other than the patient of not less than 20 minutes in duration, in the course of continuing management of a patient—if that attendance and another attendance to which this item applies have not exceeded 4 in a calendar year for the patient 128.65 - 353 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—a telepsychiatry consultation of not more than 15 minutes in duration, if:(a) that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 353 to 358 and 361 applies have not exceeded 12 attendances in a calendar year for the patient; and(b) that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies have not exceeded 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 58.05 - 355 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—a telepsychiatry consultation of more than 15 minutes, but not more than 30 minutes, in duration, if:(a) that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 353 to 358 and 361 applies have not exceeded 12 attendances in a calendar year for the patient; and(b) that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies have not exceeded 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 116.15 - 356 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—a telepsychiatry consultation of more than 30 minutes, but not more than 45 minutes, in duration, if:(a) that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 353 to 358 and 361 applies have not exceeded 12 attendances in a calendar year for the patient; and(b) that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies have not exceeded 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 170.30 - 357 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—a telepsychiatry consultation of more than 45 minutes, but not more than 75 minutes, in duration, if:(a) that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 353 to 358 and 361 applies have not exceeded 12 attendances in a calendar year for the patient; and(b) that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies have not exceeded 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 234.90 - 358 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—a telepsychiatry consultation of more than 75 minutes in duration, if:(a) that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 353 to 358 and 361 applies have not exceeded 12 attendances in a calendar year for the patient; and(b) that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies have not exceeded 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 286.25 - 359 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry—a telepsychiatry consultation of more than 30 minutes but not more than 45 minutes in duration, if:(a) the patient is being managed by a medical practitioner or a participating nurse practitioner in accordance with a management plan prepared by the consultant psychiatrist in accordance with item 291; and(b) the attendance follows referral of the patient to the consultant for review of the management plan by the referring practitioner managing the patient; and(c) during the attendance, the consultant:(i) uses an outcome tool (if clinically appropriate); and(ii) carries out a mental state examination; and(iii) makes a psychiatric diagnosis; and(iv) reviews the management plan; and(d) within 2 weeks after the attendance, the consultant:(i) prepares a written diagnosis of the patient; and(ii) revises the management plan; and(iii) gives the referring practitioner a copy of the diagnosis and the revised management plan; and(iv) if clinically appropriate, explains the diagnosis and the revised management plan, and gives a copy, to:(A) the patient; and(B) the patient’s carer (if any), if the patient agrees; and(e) the patient is located in a regional, rural or remote area; and(f) in the preceding 12 months, a service to which item 291 applies has been performed; and(g) in the preceding 12 months, a service to which this item or item 293 applies has not been performed 330.25 - 361 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—a telepsychiatry consultation of more than 45 minutes in duration, if the patient:(a) either:(i) is a new patient for this consultant psychiatrist; or(ii) has not received a professional attendance from this consultant psychiatrist in the preceding 24 months; and(b) is located in a regional, rural or remote area;other than attendance on a patient in relation to whom this item, item 296, 297 or 299, or any of items 300 to 346 and 353 to 370, has applied in the preceding 24 month period 303.80 - 364 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—a face‑to‑face consultation of not more than 15 minutes in duration, if:(a) the patient has had a telepsychiatry consultation to which any of items 353 to 358 and 361 applies before that attendance; and(b) that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies have not exceeded 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 44.00 - 366 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—a face‑to‑face consultation of more than 15 minutes, but not more than 30 minutes, in duration, if:(a) the patient has had a telepsychiatry consultation to which any of items 353 to 358 and 361 applies before that attendance; and(b) that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies have not exceeded 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 87.75 - 367 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—a face‑to‑face consultation of more than 30 minutes, but not more than 45 minutes, in duration, if:(a) the patient has had a telepsychiatry consultation to which any of items 353 to 358 and 361 applies before that attendance; and(b) that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies have not exceeded 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 135.10 - 369 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—a face‑to‑face consultation of more than 45 minutes, but not more than 75 minutes, in duration, if:(a) the patient has had a telepsychiatry consultation to which any of items 353 to 358 and 361 applies before that attendance; and(b) that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies have not exceeded 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 186.55 - 370 Professional attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—a face‑to‑face consultation of more than 75 minutes in duration, if:(a) the patient has had a telepsychiatry consultation to which any of items 353 to 358 and 361 applies before that attendance; and(b) that attendance and another attendance to which any of items 296 to 308, 353 to 358 and 361 to 370 applies have not exceeded 50 attendances in a calendar year for the patient 216.35 Division 2.12—Group A12: Consultant occupational physician attendances to which no other item applies 2.12.1  Consultant occupational physician   An item applies to an attendance by a consultant occupational physician only if the attendance relates to one or more of the following matters:  (a) evaluating and assessing a patient’s rehabilitation requirements when, in the consultant’s opinion, the patient has an accepted medical condition that:  (i) may be affected by the patient’s working environment; or  (ii) affects the patient’s capacity to be employed;  (b) managing an accepted medical condition that, in the consultant’s opinion, may affect a patient’s capacity for continued employment, or return to employment, following a non‑compensable accident, injury or ill‑health;  (c) evaluating and forming an opinion about, including management as the case requires, a patient’s medical condition when causation may be related to acute or chronic exposure to scientifically acknowledged environmental hazards or toxins. 2.12.2  Limitation of items 384 and 389   Items 384 and 389 do not apply if the patient or physician travels to a place to satisfy the requirement in:  (a) for item 384—sub‑subparagraph (c)(i)(B) of the item; and  (b) for item 389—sub‑subparagraph (d)(i)(B) of the item.   - Group A12—Consultant occupational physician attendances to which no other item applies - 384 Initial professional attendance of 10 minutes or less in duration on a patient by a consultant occupational physician practising in his or her specialty of occupational medicine if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(c) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the physician; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies; and(d) no other initial consultation has taken place for a single course of treatment 65.15 - 385 Professional attendance at consulting rooms or hospital by a consultant occupational physician in the practice of his or her specialty of occupational medicine following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—initial attendance in a single course of treatment 86.85 - 386 Professional attendance at consulting rooms or hospital by a consultant occupational physician in the practice of his or her specialty of occupational medicine following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—each attendance after the first in a single course of treatment 43.65 - 387 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital by a consultant occupational physician in the practice of his or her specialty of occupational medicine following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—initial attendance in a single course of treatment 127.40 - 388 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital by a consultant occupational physician in the practice of his or her specialty of occupational medicine following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—each attendance after the first in a single course of treatment 80.65 - 389 Professional attendance on a patient by a consultant occupational physician practising in his or her specialty of occupational medicine if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) the attendance is for a service:(i) provided with item 385 lasting more than 10 minutes; or(ii) provided with item 386; and(c) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(d) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the physician; or 50% of the fee for item 385 or 386 - (ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies Division 2.13—Group A13: Public health physician attendances to which no other item applies 2.13.1  Public health physicians   Items 410 to 417 apply to an attendance on a patient by a public health physician only if the attendance relates to one or more of the following matters:  (a) management of a patient’s vaccination requirements for immunisation programs;  (b) prevention or management of sexually transmitted disease;  (c) prevention or management of disease caused by scientifically accepted environmental hazards or toxins;  (d) prevention or management of infection arising from an outbreak of an infectious disease;  (e) prevention or management of an exotic disease. Note: An exotic disease is medically accepted as a disease that is of foreign origin.   - Group A13—Public health physician attendances to which no other item applies - 410 Professional attendance at consulting rooms by a public health physician in the practice of his or her specialty of public health medicine—attendance for an obvious problem characterised by the straightforward nature of the task that requires a short patient history and, if required, limited examination and management 19.85 - 411 Professional attendance by a public health physician in the practice of his or her specialty of public health medicine at consulting rooms, lasting less than 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation 43.40 - 412 Professional attendance by a public health physician in the practice of his or her specialty of public health medicine at consulting rooms, lasting at least 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a detailed patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation 83.90 - 413 Professional attendance by a public health physician in the practice of his or her specialty of public health medicine at consulting rooms, lasting at least 40 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking an extensive patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation 123.55 - 414 Professional attendance at other than consulting rooms by a public health physician in the practice of his or her specialty of public health medicine—attendance for an obvious problem characterised by the straightforward nature of the task that requires a short patient history and, if required, limited examination and management Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 415 Professional attendance by a public health physician in the practice of his or her specialty of public health medicine at other than consulting rooms, lasting less than 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 416 Professional attendance by a public health physician in the practice of his or her specialty of public health medicine at other than consulting rooms, lasting at least 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a detailed patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 417 Professional attendance by a public health physician in the practice of his or her specialty of public health medicine at other than consulting rooms, lasting at least 40 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking an extensive patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation Amount under clause 2.1.1 Division 2.14—Miscellaneous services Division 2.15—Group A21: Emergency physician attendances to which no other item applies 2.15.1  Meaning of recognised emergency department recognised emergency department, of a private hospital, means a department of the hospital that is licensed, under a law of the State or Territory in which the hospital is located, to operate as an emergency department. 2.15.2  Meaning of problem focussed history   In items 501, 503 and 507: problem focussed history, for a patient, means a history focussing on the medical condition of the patient that necessitates the patient presenting for emergency attention. 2.15.3  Attendance for emergency evaluation of critically ill patients   In items 519 to 536, an attendance, for an emergency evaluation of a critically ill patient with an immediately life threatening problem, is an attendance that requires:  (a) immediate and rapid assessment; and  (b) initiation of resuscitation and electronic monitoring of vital signs; and  (c) taking a comprehensive history and evaluation while undertaking resuscitative measures; and  (d) ordering and evaluation of appropriate investigations; and  (e) transitional evaluation and monitoring; and  (f) formulation and documentation of a diagnosis and management plan in relation to one or more problems; and  (g) initiation of appropriate treatment interventions; and  (h) liaison with relevant health care professionals and discussion with, as appropriate, the patient or the patient’s relatives or agent.   - Group A21—Emergency physician attendances to which no other item applies - 501 Professional attendance at a recognised emergency department of a private hospital by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of emergency medicine—attendance for the unscheduled evaluation and management of a patient, involving straightforward medical decision making that requires:(a) taking a problem focussed history; and(b) limited examination; and(c) diagnosis; and(d) initiation of appropriate treatment interventions 34.70 - 503 Professional attendance at a recognised emergency department of a private hospital by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of emergency medicine—attendance for the unscheduled evaluation and management of a patient, involving medical decision making of low complexity that requires:(a) taking an expanded problem focussed history; and(b) expanded examination of one or more systems; and(c) formulation and documentation of a diagnosis and management plan in relation to one or more problems; and(d) initiation of appropriate treatment interventions 58.65 - 507 Professional attendance at a recognised emergency department of a private hospital by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of emergency medicine—attendance for the unscheduled evaluation and management of a patient, involving medical decision making of moderate complexity that requires:(a) taking an expanded problem focussed history; and(b) expanded examination of one or more systems; and(c) ordering and evaluation of appropriate investigations; and(d) formulation and documentation of a diagnosis and management plan in relation to one or more problems; and(e) initiation of appropriate treatment interventions 98.50 - 511 Professional attendance at a recognised emergency department of a private hospital by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of emergency medicine—attendance for the unscheduled evaluation and management of a patient, involving medical decision making of moderate complexity that requires:(a) taking a detailed history; and(b) detailed examination of one or more systems; and(c) ordering and evaluation of appropriate investigations; and(d) formulation and documentation of a diagnosis and management plan in relation to one or more problems; and(e) initiation of appropriate treatment interventions; and(f) liaison with relevant health care professionals and discussion with, as appropriate, the patient or the patient’s relatives or agent 139.35 - 515 Professional attendance at a recognised emergency department of a private hospital by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of emergency medicine—attendance for the unscheduled evaluation and management of a patient, involving medical decision making of high complexity that requires:(a) taking a comprehensive history; and(b) comprehensive examination of one or more systems; and(c) ordering and evaluation of appropriate investigations; and(d) formulation and documentation of a diagnosis and management plan in relation to one or more problems; and(e) initiation of appropriate treatment interventions; and(f) liaison with relevant health care professionals and discussion with, as appropriate, the patient or the patient’s relatives or agent 215.80 - 519 Professional attendance at a recognised emergency department of a private hospital by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of emergency medicine—attendance for a total period (whether or not continuous) of at least 30 minutes but less than 1 hour (before the patient’s admission to an in‑patient hospital bed) for emergency evaluation of a critically ill patient with an immediately life threatening problem 148.40 - 520 Professional attendance at a recognised emergency department of a private hospital by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of emergency medicine—attendance for a total period (whether or not continuous) of at least 1 hour but less than 2 hours (before the patient’s admission to an in‑patient hospital bed) for emergency evaluation of a critically ill patient with an immediately life threatening problem 285.05 - 530 Professional attendance at a recognised emergency department of a private hospital by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of emergency medicine—attendance for a total period (whether or not continuous) of at least 2 hours but less than 3 hours (before the patient’s admission to an in‑patient hospital bed) for emergency evaluation of a critically ill patient with an immediately life threatening problem 467.20 - 532 Professional attendance at a recognised emergency department of a private hospital by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of emergency medicine—attendance for a total period (whether or not continuous) of at least 3 hours but less than 4 hours (before the patient’s admission to an in‑patient hospital bed) for emergency evaluation of a critically ill patient with an immediately life threatening problem 649.35 - 534 Professional attendance at a recognised emergency department of a private hospital by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of emergency medicine—attendance for a total period (whether or not continuous) of at least 4 hours but less than 5 hours (before the patient’s admission to an in‑patient hospital bed) for emergency evaluation of a critically ill patient with an immediately life threatening problem 831.65 - 536 Professional attendance at a recognised emergency department of a private hospital by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of emergency medicine—attendance for a total period (whether or not continuous) of at least 5 hours (before the patient’s admission to an in‑patient hospital bed) for emergency evaluation of a critically ill patient with an immediately life threatening problem 922.75 Division 2.16—Group A11: Urgent attendances after hours 2.16.1  Meaning of patient’s medical condition requires urgent assessment  (1) A patient’s medical condition requires urgent assessment if:  (a) medical opinion is to the effect that the patient’s medical condition requires assessment within the unbroken after‑hours period in which the attendance mentioned in the item was requested; and  (b) assessment could not be delayed until the start of the next in‑hours period.  (2) For the purposes of subclause (1), medical opinion is to a particular effect if:  (a) the attending practitioner is of that opinion; and  (b) in the circumstances that existed and on the information available when the opinion was formed, that opinion would be acceptable to the general body of medical practitioners. 2.16.2  Meaning of responsible person   For items 585 to 600: responsible person, for a patient:  (a) includes a spouse, parent, carer or guardian of the patient; but  (b) does not include:  (i) the attending medical practitioner; or  (ii) an employee of the attending medical practitioner; or  (iii) a person contracted by, or an employee or member of, the general practice of which the attending medical practitioner is a contractor, employee or member; or  (iv) a call centre; or  (v) a reception service. 2.16.3  Application of Group A11  (1) Items 585 to 600 do not apply to a service provided by a medical practitioner if:  (a) the service is provided at consulting rooms; and  (b) the practitioner:  (i) routinely provides services to patients in after‑hours periods at consulting rooms; or  (ii) provides the service (as a contractor, employee, member or otherwise) for a general practice or clinic that routinely provides services to patients in after‑hours periods at consulting rooms.  (2) Item 585, 588, 591, 599 or 600 applies to a service only if the practitioner keeps a record of the assessment of the patient. 2.16.4  Meaning of after‑hours rural area after‑hours rural area means an area that is a Modified Monash 2 area, Modified Monash 3 area, Modified Monash 4 area, Modified Monash 5 area, Modified Monash 6 area or Modified Monash 7 area. 2.16.5  References to general practitioner in items do not include certain participants in After Hours Other Medical Practitioners Program   For items 585 to 594, a reference to a general practitioner does not include a reference to an eligible non‑vocationally recognised medical practitioner registered under the After Hours Other Medical Practitioners Program (within the meaning of subclause 1.1.1(2)) who provides services through a medical deputising service.   - Group A11—Urgent attendances after hours - 585 Professional attendance by a general practitioner on one patient on one occasion—each attendance (other than an attendance in unsociable hours) in an after‑hours period if:(a) the attendance is requested by the patient or a responsible person in the same unbroken after‑hours period; and(b) the patient’s medical condition requires urgent assessment; and(c) if the attendance is at consulting rooms—it is necessary for the practitioner to return to, and specially open, the consulting rooms for the attendance 129.80 - 588 Professional attendance by a medical practitioner (other than a general practitioner) on one patient on one occasion—each attendance (other than an attendance in unsociable hours) in an after‑hours period if:(a) the attendance is requested by the patient or a responsible person in the same unbroken after‑hours period; and(b) the patient’s medical condition requires urgent assessment; and(c) the attendance is in an after‑hours rural area; and(d) if the attendance is at consulting rooms—it is necessary for the practitioner to return to, and specially open, the consulting rooms for the attendance 129.80 - 591 Professional attendance by a medical practitioner (other than a general practitioner) on one patient on one occasion—each attendance (other than an attendance in unsociable hours) in an after‑hours period if:(a) the attendance is requested by the patient or a responsible person in the same unbroken after‑hours period; and(b) the patient’s medical condition requires urgent assessment; and(c) the attendance is not in an after‑hours rural area; and(d) if the attendance is at consulting rooms—it is necessary for the practitioner to return to, and specially open, the consulting rooms for the attendance 100.00 - 594 Professional attendance by a medical practitioner—each additional patient at an attendance that qualifies for item 585, 588 or 591 in relation to the first patient 41.95 - 599 Professional attendance by a general practitioner on not more than one patient on one occasion—each attendance in unsociable hours if:(a) the attendance is requested by the patient or a responsible person in the same unbroken after‑hours period; and(b) the patient’s medical condition requires urgent assessment; and(c) if the attendance is at consulting rooms—it is necessary for the practitioner to return to, and specially open, the consulting rooms for the attendance 153.00 - 600 Professional attendance by a medical practitioner (other than a general practitioner) on not more than one patient on one occasion—each attendance in unsociable hours if:(a) the attendance is requested by the patient or a responsible person in the same unbroken after‑hours period; and(b) the patient’s medical condition requires urgent assessment; and(c) if the attendance is at consulting rooms—it is necessary for the practitioner to return to, and specially open, the consulting rooms for the attendance 124.25 Division 2.17—Group A14: Health assessments 2.17.1  Application of Group A14   Items 701 to 715 apply only to a service provided in the course of a personal attendance by a single general practitioner on a single patient. 2.17.2  Types of health assessments  (1) The following health assessments may be performed under item 701, 703, 705 or 707:  (a) a Type 2 Diabetes Risk Evaluation, in accordance with clause 2.17.4, for a patient who:  (i) is at least 40 years old and under 50 years old; and  (ii) has a high risk of developing type 2 diabetes as determined by the Australian Type 2 Diabetes Risk Assessment Tool; and  (iii) is not an in‑patient of a hospital;  (b) a 45 year old Health Assessment, in accordance with clause 2.17.5, for a patient who is:  (i) at least 45 years old and under 50 years old; and  (ii) at risk of developing a chronic disease; and  (iii) not an in‑patient of a hospital or a care recipient in a residential aged care facility;  (c) an Older Person’s Health Assessment, in accordance with clause 2.17.6, for a patient who is:  (i) at least 75 years old; and  (ii) not an in‑patient of a hospital or a care recipient in a residential aged care facility;  (d) a Comprehensive Medical Assessment, in accordance with clause 2.17.7, for a patient who is a permanent resident of a residential aged care facility;  (e) a health assessment, in accordance with clause 2.17.8, for a person with an intellectual disability, if the patient is not an in‑patient of a hospital or a care recipient in a residential aged care facility;  (f) a health assessment, in accordance with clause 2.17.9, for a patient who:  (i) is a refugee or humanitarian entrant, with eligibility for Medicare; and  (A) holds a relevant visa that the person has held for less than 12 months at the time of the assessment; or  (B) first entered Australia less than 12 months before the assessment is performed; and  (iii) is not an in‑patient of a hospital or a care recipient in a residential aged care facility;  (g) an Australian Defence Force Post‑discharge GP Health Assessment, in accordance with clause 2.17.10, for a patient who:  (i) is a former member of the Permanent Forces (within the meaning of the Defence Act 1903) or a former member of the Reserves (within the meaning of that Act); and  (ii) has not already received such an assessment. Note: The Australian Type 2 Diabetes Risk Assessment Tool could in 2018 be viewed on the Department’s website (http://www.health.gov.au).  (2) In this clause: relevant visa means any of the following visas granted under the Migration Act 1958:  (a) Subclass 070 Bridging (Removal Pending) visa;  (b) Subclass 200 (Refugee) visa;  (c) Subclass 201 (In‑country Special Humanitarian) visa;  (d) Subclass 202 (Global Special Humanitarian) visa;  (e) Subclass 203 (Emergency Rescue) visa;  (f) Subclass 204 (Woman at Risk) visa;  (g) Subclass 695 (Return Pending) visa;  (h) Subclass 786 (Temporary (Humanitarian Concern)) visa;  (i) Subclass 866 (Protection) visa. 2.17.3  Application of item 715 to certain patients only  (1) The following health assessments may be performed under item 715:  (a) an Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander child health assessment, in accordance with clause 2.17.11, for a patient if the patient is:  (ii) under 15 years old; and  (iii) not an in‑patient of a hospital;  (b) an Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander adult health assessment, in accordance with clause 2.17.12, for a patient if the patient is:  (ii) at least 15 years old and under 55 years old; and  (iii) not an in‑patient of a hospital or a care recipient in a residential aged care facility;  (c) an Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Older Person’s Health Assessment, in accordance with clause 2.17.13, for a patient if the patient is:  (ii) at least 55 years old; and  (iii) not an in‑patient of a hospital or a care recipient in a residential aged care facility.  (2) For this clause and item 715, a person is of Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander descent if the person identifies himself or herself as being of that descent. 2.17.4  Type 2 Diabetes Risk Evaluation  (1) A Type 2 Diabetes Risk Evaluation must include:  (a) a review of the risk factors underlying a patient’s high risk score as identified by the Australian Type 2 Diabetes Risk Assessment Tool; and  (b) initiating interventions, if appropriate, to address risk factors or to exclude diabetes.  (2) The Type 2 Diabetes Risk Evaluation for a patient must also include:  (a) assessing the patient’s high risk score as determined by the Australian Type 2 Diabetes Risk Assessment Tool (to be completed by the patient within 3 months before performing the Type 2 Diabetes Risk Evaluation); and  (b) updating the patient’s history and performing physical examinations and clinical investigations; and  (c) making an overall assessment of the patient’s risk factors and the results of examinations and investigations; and  (d) initiating interventions, if appropriate, including referrals and follow‑up services relating to the management of any risk factors identified; and  (e) giving the patient advice and information, including strategies to achieve lifestyle and behaviour changes if appropriate.  (3) A Type 2 Diabetes Risk Evaluation must not be provided more than once every 3 years to an eligible person.  (4) For this clause, risk factors includes:  (a) lifestyle risk factors (for example smoking, physical inactivity or poor nutrition); and  (b) biomedical risk factors (for example high blood pressure, impaired glucose metabolism or excess weight); and  (c) a family history of a chronic disease. Note: The Australian Type 2 Diabetes Risk Assessment Tool could in 2018 be viewed on the Department’s website (http://www.health.gov.au). 2.17.5  45 year old Health Assessment  (1) A 45 year old Health Assessment is an assessment for a patient if the patient, in the clinical judgement of the attending general practitioner based on the identification of a specific risk factor, is at risk of developing a chronic disease.  (2) The 45 year old Health Assessment must include:  (a) information collection, including taking a patient’s history and performing examinations and investigations, as required; and  (b) making an overall assessment of the patient; and  (c) initiating interventions or referrals, as appropriate; and  (d) giving health advice and information to the patient.  (3) The general practitioner providing the assessment is responsible for the overall health assessment of the patient.  (4) A 45 year old Health Assessment must not be given more than once to an eligible person.  (5) In this clause: chronic disease means a disease that has been, or is likely to be, present for at least 6 months, including asthma, cancer, cardiovascular illness, diabetes mellitus, a mental health condition, arthritis or a musculoskeletal condition. specific risk factors includes:  (a) lifestyle risk factors (for example smoking, physical inactivity, poor nutrition or alcohol misuse); and  (b) biomedical risk factors (for example high cholesterol, high blood pressure, impaired glucose metabolism or excess weight); and  (c) a family history of a chronic disease. 2.17.6  Older Person’s Health Assessment  (1) An Older Person’s Health Assessment is the assessment of:  (b) whether preventive health care and education should be offered to the patient, to improve the patient’s health and physical, psychological and social function.  (2) An Older Person’s Health Assessment must include:  (b) measurement of the patient’s blood pressure, pulse rate and rhythm; and  (c) assessment of the patient’s medication; and  (d) assessment of the patient’s continence; and  (e) assessment of the patient’s immunisation status for influenza, tetanus and pneumococcus; and  (f) assessment of the patient’s physical functions, including the patient’s activities of daily living and whether or not the patient has had a fall in the last 3 months; and  (g) assessment of the patient’s psychological function, including the patient’s cognition and mood; and  (h) assessment of the patient’s social function, including:  (i) the availability and adequacy of paid, and unpaid, help; and  (ii) whether the patient is responsible for caring for another person.  (3) An Older Person’s Health Assessment must also include:  (b) offering the patient a written report on the health assessment, with recommendations about matters covered by the health assessment; and  (c) offering the patient’s carer (if any, and if the practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient agrees) a copy of the report or extracts of the report relevant to the carer.  (4) An Older Person’s Health Assessment must not be provided more than once every 12 months to an eligible person. 2.17.7  Comprehensive Medical Assessment for permanent resident of residential aged care facility  (1) A Comprehensive Medical Assessment of a permanent resident of a residential aged care facility includes an assessment of the resident’s health and physical and psychological function.  (2) A Comprehensive Medical Assessment must include:  (b) taking a detailed patient history of the resident; and  (c) conducting a comprehensive medical examination of the resident; and  (d) developing a list of diagnoses and medical problems based on the medical history and examination; and  (e) giving a written copy of a summary of the outcomes of the assessment to the residential aged care facility for the resident’s medical records.  (3) A Comprehensive Medical Assessment must also include:  (a) making a written summary of the Comprehensive Medical Assessment; and  (b) giving a copy of the summary to the residential aged care facility; and  (c) offering the resident a copy of the summary.  (4) A Comprehensive Medical Assessment may be provided:  (a) on admission to a residential aged care facility, if a Comprehensive Medical Assessment has not already been provided in another residential aged care facility in the last 12 months; and  (b) at 12 month intervals after that assessment.  (5) A Comprehensive Medical Assessment may be performed in conjunction with a consultation for another purpose, but must be claimed separately. 2.17.8  Health assessment for a person with an intellectual disability  (1) A health assessment for a person with an intellectual disability is an assessment of:  (a) the patient’s physical, psychological and social function; and  (b) whether any medical intervention and preventive health care is required.  (2) The health assessment for a person with an intellectual disability must include the following matters to the extent that they are relevant to the patient:  (a) checking dental health (including dentition);  (b) conducting an aural examination (including arranging a formal audiometry if an audiometry has not been conducted within the last 5 years);  (c) assessing ocular health (arrange review by an ophthalmologist or optometrist if a comprehensive eye examination has not been conducted within the last 5 years);  (d) assessing nutritional status (including weight and height measurements) and a review of growth and development;  (e) assessing bowel and bladder function (particularly for incontinence or chronic constipation);  (f) assessing medications including:  (i) non‑prescription medicines taken by the patient, prescriptions from other doctors, medications prescribed but not taken, interactions, side effects and review of indications; and  (ii) advice to carers on the common side‑effects and interactions; and  (iii) consideration of the need for a formal medication review;  (g) checking immunisation status (including influenza, tetanus, hepatitis A and B, measles, mumps, rubella and pneumococcal vaccinations) with reference to the Australian Immunisation Handbook, as existing on 1 July 2018, for appropriate vaccination schedules; Note: The Australian Immunisation Handbook could in 2018 be viewed on the Department’s website (http://www.health.gov.au).  (h) checking exercise opportunities (with the aim of moderate exercise for at least 30 minutes each day);  (i) checking whether the support provided for activities of daily living adequately and appropriately meets the patient’s needs, and considering formal review if required;  (j) considering the need for breast examination, mammography, papanicolaou smears, testicular examination, lipid measurement and prostate assessment as for the general population;  (k) checking for dysphagia and gastro‑oesophageal disease (especially for patients with cerebral palsy) and arranging for investigation or treatment as required;  (l) assessing risk factors for osteoporosis (including diet, exercise, Vitamin D deficiency, hormonal status, family history, medication and fracture history) and arranging for investigation or treatment as required;  (m) for a patient diagnosed with epilepsy—reviewing seizure control (including anticonvulsant drugs) and considering referral to a neurologist at appropriate intervals;  (n) screening for thyroid disease at least every 2 years (or yearly for patients with Down syndrome);  (o) for a patient without a definitive aetiological diagnosis—considering referral to a genetic clinic every 5 years;  (p) assessing or reviewing treatment for co‑morbid mental health issues;  (q) considering timing of puberty and management of sexual development, sexual activity and reproductive health;  (r) considering whether there are any signs of physical, psychological or sexual abuse.  (3) A health assessment for a person with an intellectual disability must also include:  (b) offering the patient a written report on the health assessment; and  (c) offering the patient’s carer (if any, and if the general practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient agrees) a copy of the report or extracts of the report; and  (d) offering relevant disability professionals (if the general practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient or, if appropriate, the patient’s carer, agrees) a copy of the report or extracts of the report.  (4) A health assessment for a person with an intellectual disability must not be provided more than once every 12 months to an eligible person. 2.17.9  Health assessment for a refugee or other humanitarian entrant  (1) A health assessment for a refugee or other humanitarian entrant is the assessment of:  (a) the patient’s health and physical, psychological and social function; and  (b) whether preventive health care and education should be offered to the patient to improve their health and physical, psychological or social function.  (2) A health assessment for a refugee or other humanitarian entrant must include:  (b) taking the patient’s history; and  (c) examining the patient; and  (d) performing or arranging any required investigations; and  (e) assessing the patient, using the information gained in paragraphs (b), (c) and (d); and  (f) developing a management plan addressing the patient’s health care needs, health problems and relevant conditions; and  (g) making or arranging any necessary interventions and referrals.  (3) A health assessment for a refugee or other humanitarian entrant must also include:  (b) offering to provide the patient with a written report of the health assessment.  (4) A health assessment for a refugee or other humanitarian entrant must not be provided to a patient more than once. 2.17.10  Australian Defence Force Post‑discharge GP Health Assessment  (1) An Australian Defence Force Post‑discharge GP Health Assessment is an assessment of:  (a) a patient’s physical and psychological health and social function; and  (b) whether health care, education or other assistance should be offered to the patient to improve the patient’s physical or psychological health or social function.  (2) The assessment must be performed by the patient’s usual doctor.  (3) The assessment must not be performed in conjunction with a separate consultation in relation to the patient unless the consultation is clinically necessary.  (4) The assessment may be performed using the ADF Post‑discharge GP Health Assessment Tool, as existing on 1 July 2018. Note 1: The ADF Post‑discharge GP Health Assessment Tool could in 2018 be viewed on the Department of Veterans’ Affairs’ At Ease website (http://at‑ease.dva.gov.au). Note 2: Other assessment tools mentioned in the Department of Veterans’ Affairs Mental Health Advice Book may be relevant. The Mental Health Advice Book could in 2018 be viewed on the Department of Veterans’ Affairs’ At Ease website (http://at‑ease.dva.gov.au).  (5) The assessment must include taking a history of the patient that includes the following:  (a) the patient’s service with the Australian Defence Force, including service type, years of service, field of work, number of deployments and reason for discharge;  (b) the patient’s social history, including relationship status, number of children (if any) and current occupation;  (c) the patient’s current medical conditions;  (d) whether the patient suffers from hearing loss or tinnitus;  (e) the patient’s use of medication, including medication prescribed by another doctor and medication obtained without a prescription;  (f) the patient’s smoking, if applicable;  (g) the patient’s alcohol use, if applicable;  (h) the patient’s substance use, if applicable;  (i) the patient’s level of physical activity;  (j) whether the patient has bodily pain;  (k) whether the patient has difficulty getting to sleep or staying asleep;  (l) whether the patient has psychological distress;  (m) whether the patient has posttraumatic stress disorder;  (n) whether the patient is at risk of harm to self or others;  (o) whether the patient has anger problems;  (p) the patient’s sexual health;  (q) any other health concerns the patient has.  (6) The assessment must also include the following:  (a) measuring the patient’s height;  (b) weighing the patient and ascertaining, or asking the patient, whether the patient’s weight has changed in the last 12 months;  (c) measuring the patient’s waist circumference;  (d) taking the patient’s blood pressure;  (e) using information gained in the course of taking the patient’s history to assess whether any further assessment of the patient’s health is necessary;  (f) either:  (i) making the further assessment mentioned in paragraph (e); or  (ii) referring the patient to another medical practitioner who can make the further assessment;  (g) documenting a strategy for improving the patient’s health;  (h) offering to give the patient a written report of the assessment that makes recommendations for treating the patient including preventive health measures.  (7) The doctor must keep a record of the assessment.  (8) In this clause: usual doctor, in relation to a patient, means a general practitioner employed by a medical practice:  (a) that has provided at least 50% of the primary health care required by the patient in the last 12 months; or  (b) that the patient anticipates will provide at least 50% of the patient’s primary health care requirements in the next 12 months. 2.17.11  Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander child health assessment  (1) An Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander child health assessment is the assessment of:  (b) whether preventive health care, education and other assistance should be offered to the patient, or the patient’s parent or carer, to improve the patient’s health and physical, psychological or social function.  (2) An Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander child health assessment must include:  (b) taking the patient’s history, including the following:  (i) mother’s pregnancy history;  (ii) birth and neo‑natal history;  (iii) breastfeeding history;  (iv) weaning, food access and dietary history;  (v) physical activity engaged in;  (vi) previous presentations, hospital admissions and medication use;  (vii) relevant family medical history;  (viii) immunisation status;  (ix) vision and hearing (including neo‑natal hearing screening);  (x) development (including achievement of age‑appropriate milestones);  (xi) family relationships, social circumstances and whether the person is cared for by another person;  (xii) exposure to environmental factors (including tobacco smoke);  (xiii) environmental and living conditions;  (xiv) educational progress;  (xv) stressful life events experienced;  (xvi) mood (including incidence of depression and risk of self‑harm);  (xvii) substance use;  (xviii) sexual and reproductive health;  (xix) dental hygiene (including access to dental services); and  (c) examination of the patient, including the following:  (i) measurement of the patient’s height and weight to calculate the patient’s body mass index and position on the growth curve;  (ii) newborn baby check (if not previously completed);  (iii) vision (including red reflex in a newborn);  (iv) ear examination (including otoscopy);  (v) oral examination (including gums and dentition);  (vi) trachoma check, if indicated;  (vii) skin examination, if indicated;  (viii) respiratory examination, if indicated;  (ix) cardiac auscultation, if indicated;  (x) development assessment, to determine whether age‑appropriate milestones have been achieved, if indicated;  (xi) assessment of parent and child interaction, if indicated;  (xii) other examinations as indicated by a previous child health assessment; and  (d) performing or arranging any required investigation, in particular considering the need for the following tests:  (i) haemoglobin testing for those at a high risk of anaemia;  (ii) audiometry, especially for school age children; and  (e) assessing the patient using the information gained in the child health assessment; and  (f) making or arranging any necessary interventions and referrals, and documenting a strategy for the good health of the patient; and  (g) both:  (i) keeping a record of the health assessment; and  (ii) offering the patient, or the patient’s parent or carer, a written report on the health assessment, with recommendations on matters covered by the health assessment (including a strategy for the good health of the patient). 2.17.12  Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander adult health assessment  (1) An Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander adult health assessment is the assessment of:  (b) whether preventive health care, education and other assistance should be offered to the patient to improve their health and physical, psychological or social function.  (2) An Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander adult health assessment must include:  (b) taking the patient’s history, including the following:  (i) current health problems and risk factors;  (ii) relevant family medical history;  (iii) medication use (including medication obtained without prescription or from other doctors);  (iv) immunisation status, by reference to the appropriate current age and sex immunisation schedule;  (v) sexual and reproductive health;  (vi) physical activity, nutrition and alcohol, tobacco or other substance use;  (vii) hearing loss;  (viii) mood (including incidence of depression and risk of self‑harm);  (ix) family relationships and whether the patient is a carer, or is cared for by another person;  (x) vision; and  (c) examination of the patient, including the following:  (i) measurement of the patient’s blood pressure, pulse rate and rhythm;  (ii) measurement of height and weight to calculate the patient’s body mass index and, if indicated, measurement of waist circumference for central obesity;  (iii) oral examination (including gums and dentition);  (iv) ear and hearing examination (including otoscopy and, if indicated, a whisper test);  (v) urinalysis (by dipstick) for proteinuria;  (vi) eye examination; and  (d) performing or arranging any required investigation, in particular considering the need for the following tests:  (i) fasting blood sugar and lipids (by laboratory‑based test on venous sample) or, if necessary, random blood glucose levels;  (ii) papanicolaou smear;  (iii) examination for sexually transmitted infection (by urine or endocervical swab for chlamydia and gonorrhoea, especially for those 15 to 35 years old);  (iv) mammography, if eligible (by scheduling appointments with visiting services or facilitating direct referral); and  (e) assessing the patient using the information gained in the health assessment; and  (f) making or arranging any necessary interventions and referrals, and documenting a simple strategy for the good health of the patient.  (3) An Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander adult health assessment must also include:  (b) offering the patient a written report on the health assessment, with recommendations on matters covered by the health assessment (including a simple strategy for the good health of the patient). 2.17.13  Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Older Person’s Health Assessment  (1) An Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Older Person’s Health Assessment is the assessment of:  (b) whether preventive health care and education should be offered to the patient, to improve the patient’s health and physical, psychological or social function.  (2) An Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Older Person’s Health Assessment must include:  (b) measurement of the patient’s blood pressure, pulse rate and rhythm; and  (c) assessment of the patient’s medication; and  (d) assessment of the patient’s continence; and  (e) assessment of the patient’s immunisation status for influenza, tetanus and pneumococcus; and  (f) assessment of the patient’s physical functions, including the patient’s activities of daily living and whether or not the patient has had a fall in the last 3 months; and  (g) assessment of the patient’s psychological function, including the patient’s cognition and mood; and  (h) assessment of the patient’s social function, including:  (i) the availability and adequacy of paid, and unpaid, help; and  (ii) whether the patient is responsible for caring for another person; and  (i) an examination of the patient’s eyes.  (3) An Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Older Person’s Health Assessment must also include:  (b) offering the patient a written report on the health assessment, with recommendations on matters covered by the health assessment; and  (c) offering the patient’s carer (if any, and if the practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient agrees) a copy of the report or extracts of the report relevant to the carer. 2.17.14  Restrictions on health assessments for Group A14  (1) A health assessment mentioned in an item in Group A14 must not include a health screening service.  (2) A separate consultation must not be performed in conjunction with a health assessment, unless clinically necessary.  (3) A health assessment must be performed by the patient’s usual general practitioner, if reasonably practicable.  (4) Practice nurses, Aboriginal health workers and Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioners may assist general practitioners in performing a health assessment, in accordance with accepted medical practice, and under the supervision of the general practitioner.  (5) For the purposes of subclause (4), assistance may include activities associated with:  (a) information collection, and  (b) at the direction of the general practitioner—provision to patients of information on recommended interventions.  (6) In this clause: health screening service has the same meaning as in subsection 19(5) of the Act.   - Group A14—Health assessments - 701 Professional attendance by a general practitioner (other than a specialist or consultant physician) to perform a brief health assessment, lasting not more than 30 minutes and including:(a) collection of relevant information, including taking a patient history; and(b) a basic physical examination; and(c) initiating interventions and referrals as indicated; and(d) providing the patient with preventive health care advice and information 59.35 - 703 Professional attendance by a general practitioner (other than a specialist or consultant physician) to perform a standard health assessment, lasting more than 30 minutes but less than 45 minutes, including:(a) detailed information collection, including taking a patient history; and(b) an extensive physical examination; and(c) initiating interventions and referrals as indicated; and(d) providing a preventive health care strategy for the patient 137.90 - 705 Professional attendance by a general practitioner (other than a specialist or consultant physician) to perform a long health assessment, lasting at least 45 minutes but less than 60 minutes, including:(a) comprehensive information collection, including taking a patient history; and(b) an extensive examination of the patient’s medical condition and physical function; and(c) initiating interventions and referrals as indicated; and(d) providing a basic preventive health care management plan for the patient 190.30 - 707 Professional attendance by a general practitioner (other than a specialist or consultant physician) to perform a prolonged health assessment (lasting at least 60 minutes) including:(a) comprehensive information collection, including taking a patient history; and(b) an extensive examination of the patient’s medical condition, and physical, psychological and social function; and(c) initiating interventions or referrals as indicated; and(d) providing a comprehensive preventive health care management plan for the patient 268.80 - 715 Professional attendance by a general practitioner (other than a specialist or consultant physician) at consulting rooms or in another place other than a hospital or residential aged care facility, for a health assessment of a patient who is of Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander descent—not more than once in a 9 month period 212.25 Division 2.18—Group A15: GP management plans, team care arrangements and multidisciplinary care plans and case conferences 2.18.1  Service by medical practitioners  (1) Items 729 to 866 apply only to a service provided by:  (a) a medical practitioner (other than a medical practitioner employed by the proprietor of a hospital that is not a private hospital); or  (i) is employed by the proprietor of a hospital that is not a private hospital; and  (ii) provides the service otherwise than in the course of employment by that proprietor.  (2) Paragraph (1)(b) applies whether or not another person provides essential assistance to the medical practitioner in accordance with accepted medical practice. Subdivision B—Subgroup 1 of Group A15 2.18.2  Meaning of associated general practitioner   In item 732: associated general practitioner means a general practitioner who, if not engaged in the same general practice as the general practitioner mentioned in the item, performs the service mentioned in the item at the request of the patient (or the patient’s guardian). 2.18.3  Meaning of contribute to a multidisciplinary care plan   In items 729 and 731: contribute to a multidisciplinary care plan, for a patient, includes the following:  (a) preparing part of a multidisciplinary care plan and adding a copy of that part of the plan to the patient’s medical records;  (b) preparing amendments to part of a multidisciplinary care plan and adding a copy of the amendments to the patient’s medical records;  (c) giving advice to a person who prepares part of a multidisciplinary care plan and recording in writing, on the patient’s medical records, any advice provided to the person;  (d) giving advice to a person who reviews part of a multidisciplinary care plan and recording in writing, on the patient’s medical records, any advice provided to the person. 2.18.4  Meaning of coordinating the development of team care arrangements  (1) In item 723: coordinating the development of team care arrangements means a process by which a general practitioner:  (a) in consultation with at least 2 collaborating providers, each of whom provides a different kind of treatment or service, and one of whom may be another medical practitioner, makes arrangements for the multidisciplinary care of the patient; and  (b) prepares a document that describes the following:  (i) treatment and service goals for the patient;  (ii) treatment and services that collaborating providers will provide to the patient;  (iii) actions to be taken by the patient;  (iv) arrangements to review the matters mentioned in subparagraphs (i), (ii) and (iii) by a day mentioned in the document; and  (c) undertakes all of the following activities:  (i) explains the steps involved in the development of the arrangements to the patient and the patient’s carer (if any, and if the practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient agrees);  (ii) discusses with the patient the collaborating providers who will contribute to the development of team care arrangements, and provide treatment and services to the patient under those arrangements;  (iii) records the patient’s agreement to the development of team care arrangements;  (iv) gives the collaborating provider a copy of those parts of the document that relate to the collaborating provider’s treatment of the patient’s condition;  (v) offers a copy of the document to the patient and the patient’s carer (if any, and if the practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient agrees);  (vi) adds a copy of the document to the patient’s medical records. 2.18.5  Meaning of coordinating a review of team care arrangements  (1) In item 732: coordinating a review of team care arrangements means a process by which a general practitioner:  (a) in consultation with at least 2 collaborating providers, each of whom provides a different kind of treatment or service, and one of whom may be another medical practitioner, reviews the matters mentioned in:  (i) paragraph (b) of the definition of coordinating the development of team care arrangements in subclause 2.18.4(1); and  (ii) paragraph (a) of the definition of preparing a GP management plan in clause 2.18.7;   as applicable; and  (b) if different arrangements need to be made—makes amendments to the plan, or to the document mentioned in paragraph (b) of the definition of coordinating the development of team care arrangements in subclause 2.18.4(1), that:  (i) state the new arrangements; and  (ii) provide for the review of the amended plan or document by a date stated in the plan or document; and  (c) explains the steps involved in the review to the patient and the patient’s carer (if any, and if the practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient agrees); and  (d) records the patient’s agreement to the review of team care arrangements or the plan; and  (e) gives the collaborating provider a copy of those parts of the amended document, or the amended plan, that relate to the collaborating provider’s treatment of the patient’s condition; and  (f) offers a copy of the amended document, or plan, to the patient and the patient’s carer (if any, and if the practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient agrees); and  (g) adds a copy of the amended document or plan to the patient’s medical records. 2.18.6  Meaning of multidisciplinary care plan  (1) In items 729 and 731: multidisciplinary care plan, for a patient, means a written plan that:  (a) is prepared for the patient by:  (i) a general practitioner, in consultation with 2 other collaborating providers, each of whom provides a different kind of treatment or service to the patient, and one of whom may be another medical practitioner; or  (ii) a collaborating provider (other than a general practitioner), in consultation with at least 2 other collaborating providers, each of whom provides a different kind of treatment or service to the patient; and  (b) describes, at least, treatment and services to be provided to the patient by the collaborating providers.  (2) For this clause, a collaborating provider is a person, including a medical practitioner, who: 2.18.7  Meaning of preparing a GP management plan   In item 721: preparing a GP management plan, for a patient, means a process by which a general practitioner:  (a) prepares a written plan for the patient that describes:  (i) the patient’s condition and associated health care needs; and  (ii) management goals with which the patient agrees; and  (iii) actions to be taken by the patient; and  (iv) treatment and services the patient is likely to need; and  (v) arrangements for providing the treatment and services mentioned in subparagraph (a)(iv); and  (vi) arrangements to review the plan by a day mentioned in the plan; and  (b) explains to the patient and the patient’s carer (if any, and if the practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient agrees) the steps involved in preparing the plan; and  (c) records the plan; and  (d) records the patient’s agreement to the preparation of the plan; and  (e) offers a copy of the plan to the patient and the patient’s carer (if any, and if the practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient agrees); and  (f) adds a copy of the plan to the patient’s medical records. 2.18.8  Meaning of reviewing a GP management plan   In item 732: reviewing a GP management plan means a process by which a general practitioner:  (a) reviews the matters mentioned in paragraph (a) of the definition of preparing a GP management plan in clause 2.18.7; and  (b) if different arrangements need to be made—makes amendments to the plan that:  (i) state the new arrangements; and  (ii) provide for a further review of the amended plan by a date stated in the plan; and  (c) explains to the patient and the patient’s carer (if any, and if the practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient agrees) the steps involved in the review; and  (d) records the patient’s agreement to the review of the plan; and  (e) if amendments are made to the plan:  (i) offers a copy of the amended plan to the patient and the patient’s carer (if any, and if the practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient agrees); and  (ii) adds a copy of the amended plan to the patient’s medical records. 2.18.9  Application of items 721, 723, 729, 731 and 732  (1) An item of the table mentioned in column 1 of table 2.18.9 applies only to a service for a patient who:  (a) suffers from at least one medical condition that:  (i) has been (or is likely to be) present for at least 6 months; or  (ii) is terminal; and  (b) is described in column 2 of table 2.18.9.   - Table 2.18.9—Application of items 721, 723, 729, 731 and 732 - Item Column 1Items of the table Column 2Description of patient - 1 721 and 732 (if the service is for preparing a GP management plan or reviewing a GP management plan) The patient:(a) is a private in‑patient of a hospital; or(b) is not a public in‑patient of a hospital or a care recipient in a residential aged care facility - 2 723 and 732 (if the service is for the creation or review of team care arrangements) The patient:(a) requires ongoing care from at least 3 collaborating providers, each of whom provides a different kind of treatment or service to the patient, and at least one of whom is a medical practitioner; and(b) either:(i) is a private in‑patient of a hospital; or(ii) is not a public in‑patient of a hospital or a care recipient in a residential aged care facility - 3 729 The patient:(a) requires ongoing care from at least 3 collaborating providers, each of whom provides a different kind of treatment or service to the patient, and at least one of whom is a medical practitioner; and(b) is not a care recipient in a residential aged care facility - 4 731 The patient:(a) requires ongoing care from at least 3 collaborating providers, each of whom provides a different kind of treatment or service to the patient, and at least one of whom is a medical practitioner; and(b) is a care recipient in a residential aged care facility 2.18.10  Application of items 721, 723 and 732   Items 721, 723 and 732 apply only to a service provided in the course of personal attendance by a single general practitioner on a single patient. 2.18.11  Application of items in relation to items 721, 723 and 732   The following items do not apply to a service mentioned in the item that is provided by a general practitioner, if the service is provided on the same day for the same patient for whom the practitioner provides a service mentioned in item 721, 723 or 732:  (a) items 3, 4, 23, 24, 36, 37, 44, 47, 52, 53, 54, 57, 58, 59, 60 and 65;  (b) items 585, 588, 591, 594, 599 and 600;  (c) items 5000, 5003, 5020, 5023, 5040, 5043, 5060 and 5063;  (d) items 5200, 5203, 5207, 5208, 5220, 5223, 5227 and 5228. 2.18.12  Limitation on items 721, 723, 729, 731 and 732  (1) This clause applies to the performances of services for a patient for whom exceptional circumstances do not exist.  (2) Items 721, 723, 729, 731 and 732 apply in the circumstances mentioned in table 2.18.12.   - Table 2.18.12—Limitation on items 721, 723, 729, 731 and 732 - Item Column 1Item of the table Column 2Circumstances - 1 721 (a) In the 3 months before performance of the service, being a service to which item 729, 731 or 732 (for reviewing a GP management plan) applies but had not been performed for the patient; and(b) the service is not performed more than once in a 12 month period; and(c) the service is not performed by a general practitioner:(i) who is a recognised specialist in palliative medicine; and(ii) who is treating a palliative patient that has been referred to the general practitioner; and(iii) to which an item in Subgroup 3 or 4 of Group A24 applies because of the treatment of the palliative patient by the general practitioner - 2 723 (a) In the 3 months before performance of the service, being a service to which item 732 (for coordinating a review of team care arrangements, a multi‑disciplinary community care plan or a multi‑disciplinary discharge care plan) applies but had not been performed for the patient; and(b) the service is performed not more than once in a 12 month period; and(c) the service is not performed by a general practitioner:(i) who is a recognised specialist in palliative medicine; and(ii) who is treating a palliative patient that has been referred to the general practitioner; and(iii) to which an item in Subgroup 3 or 4 of Group A24 applies because of the treatment of the palliative patient by the general practitioner - 3 729 (a) either:(i) in the 3 months before performance of the service, being a service to which item 731 or 732 applies but had not been performed for the patient; or(ii) in the 12 months before performance of the service, being a service that has not been performed for the patient:(A) by the general practitioner who performs the service to which item 729 would, but for this item, apply; and(B) for which a payment has been made under item 721 or 723; and(b) the service is performed not more than once in a 3 month period - 4 731 (a) In the 3 months before performance of the service, being a service to which item 721, 723, 729 or 732 applies but had not been performed for the patient; and(b) the service is performed not more than once in a 3 month period - 5 732 Each service may be performed:(a) once in a 3 month period; and(b) on the same day; but(c) may not be performed by a general practitioner:(i) who is a recognised specialist in palliative medicine; and(ii) who is treating a palliative patient that has been referred to the general practitioner; and(iii) to which an item in Subgroup 3 or 4 of Group A24 applies because of the treatment of the palliative patient by the general practitioner  (3) In this clause: exceptional circumstances, for a patient, means there has been a significant change in the patient’s clinical condition or care circumstances that necessitates the performance of the service for the patient.   - Group A15—GP management plans, team care arrangements and multidisciplinary care plans and case conferences - Subgroup 1—GP management plans, team care arrangements and multidisciplinary care plans - 721 Attendance by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or consultant physician), for preparation of a GP management plan for a patient (other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 735 to 758 apply) 144.25 - 723 Attendance by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or consultant physician), to coordinate the development of team care arrangements for a patient (other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 735 to 758 apply) 114.30 - 729 Contribution by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or consultant physician), to a multidisciplinary care plan prepared by another provider or a review of a multidisciplinary care plan prepared by another provider (other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 735 to 758 apply) 70.40 - 731 Contribution by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or consultant physician), to:(a) a multidisciplinary care plan for a patient in a residential aged care facility, prepared by that facility, or to a review of such a plan prepared by such a facility; or(b) a multidisciplinary care plan prepared for a patient by another provider before the patient is discharged from a hospital, or to a review of such a plan prepared by another provider(other than a service associated with a service to which items 735 to 758 apply) 70.40 - 732 Attendance by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or consultant physician) to review or coordinate a review of:(a) a GP management plan prepared by a general practitioner (or an associated general practitioner) to which item 721 applies; or(b) team care arrangements which have been coordinated by the general practitioner (or an associated general practitioner) to which item 723 applies 72.05 Subdivision C—Subgroup 2 of Group A15 2.18.13  Meaning of multidisciplinary discharge case conference   In items 735, 739, 743, 747, 750 and 758: multidisciplinary discharge case conference means a multidisciplinary case conference carried out for a patient before the patient is discharged from a hospital. 2.18.14  Meaning of multidisciplinary case conference in a residential aged care facility   In items 735, 739, 743, 747, 750 and 758: multidisciplinary case conference in a residential aged care facility means a multidisciplinary case conference carried out for a care recipient in a residential aged care facility. 2.18.15  Meaning of organise and coordinate   In items 735, 739, 743, 820, 822, 823, 825, 826, 828, 830, 832, 834, 835, 837, 838, 855, 857, 858, 861, 864 and 866:  (f) recording the activities mentioned in the definition of multidisciplinary case conference in clause 1.1.3 and putting a copy of that record in the patient’s medical records;  (g) offering the patient and the patient’s carer (if any and if the practitioner considers appropriate and the patient agrees), and giving each other member of the team, a summary of the conference;  (h) discussing the outcomes of the conference with the patient and the patient’s carer (if any and if the practitioner considers appropriate and the patient agrees). 2.18.16  Meaning of participate   In items 747, 750, 758, 825, 826, 828, 835, 837 and 838:  (vi) recording the matters mentioned in the definition of multidisciplinary case conference in clause 1.1.3 and putting a copy of that record in the patient’s medical records. 2.18.17  Meaning of coordinating   In item 880: coordinating, for a case conference, means undertaking all of the following activities:  (a) coordinating and facilitating the case conference;  (b) resolving any disagreement or conflict to enable the members of the case conference team giving care and service to the patient to agree on the outcomes to be achieved;  (c) identifying tasks that need to be undertaken to achieve these outcomes, and allocating those tasks to members of the case conference team;  (d) recording the input of each member and the outcome of the case conference. 2.18.18  Meaning of case conference team   In item 880: case conference team:  (a) includes a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of geriatric or rehabilitation medicine; and  (b) includes at least 2 other allied health professionals, each of whom provides a different kind of care or service to the patient and is not a medical practitioner or family carer of the patient; and  (c) may include the patient, a family carer of the patient or a medical practitioner. Example: For paragraph (b), persons who may be included in a team are the following: (a) dieticians; (b) mental health workers; (c) occupational therapists; (d) pharmacists; (e) physiotherapists; (f) podiatrists; (g) psychologists; (h) social workers; (i) speech pathologists. 2.18.19  Application of item 880  (1) Item 880 applies if:  (a) the attendance is by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the specialty of geriatric medicine or rehabilitation medicine; and  (b) the attendance is on a patient who:  (i) is an admitted patient of a hospital; and  (ii) is not a care recipient in a residential aged care facility; and  (iii) is being provided with one of the following types of specialist care:  (A) geriatric evaluation and management;  (B) rehabilitation care.  (2) In this clause: geriatric evaluation and management means care provided to a patient with a disability or psychosocial problem for the purpose of maximising the patient’s health status or optimising the patient’s living arrangements. rehabilitation care means care provided to a patient with an impairment or disability for the purpose of improving the patient’s functional status.   - Group A15—GP management plans, team care arrangements and multidisciplinary care plans and case conferences - Subgroup 2—Case conferences - 735 Attendance by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or consultant physician), as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to organise and coordinate:(a) a community case conference; or(b) a multidisciplinary case conference in a residential aged care facility; or(c) a multidisciplinary discharge case conference;if the conference lasts for at least 15 minutes, but for less than 20 minutes (other than a service associated with a service to which items 721 to 732 apply) 70.65 - 739 Attendance by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or consultant physician), as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to organise and coordinate:(a) a community case conference; or(b) a multidisciplinary case conference in a residential aged care facility; or(c) a multidisciplinary discharge case conference;if the conference lasts for at least 20 minutes, but for less than 40 minutes (other than a service associated with a service to which items 721 to 732 apply) 120.95 - 743 Attendance by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or consultant physician), as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to organise and coordinate:(a) a community case conference; or(b) a multidisciplinary case conference in a residential aged care facility; or(c) a multidisciplinary discharge case conference;if the conference lasts for at least 40 minutes (other than a service associated with a service to which items 721 to 732 apply) 201.65 - 747 Attendance by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or consultant physician), as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to participate in:(a) a community case conference; or(b) a multidisciplinary case conference in a residential aged care facility; or(c) a multidisciplinary discharge case conference;if the conference lasts for at least 15 minutes, but for less than 20 minutes (other than a service associated with a service to which items 721 to 732 apply) 51.90 - 750 Attendance by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or consultant physician), as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to participate in:(a) a community case conference; or(b) a multidisciplinary case conference in a residential aged care facility; or(c) a multidisciplinary discharge case conference;if the conference lasts for at least 20 minutes, but for less than 40 minutes (other than a service associated with a service to which items 721 to 732 apply) 89.00 - 758 Attendance by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or consultant physician), as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to participate in:(a) a community case conference; or(b) a multidisciplinary case conference in a residential aged care facility; or(c) a multidisciplinary discharge case conference;if the conference lasts for at least 40 minutes (other than a service associated with a service to which items 721 to 732 apply) 148.20 - 820 Attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a case conference team, to organise and coordinate a community case conference of at least 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes, with a multidisciplinary team of at least 3 other formal care providers of different disciplines 141.20 - 822 Attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a case conference team, to organise and coordinate a community case conference of at least 30 minutes but less than 45 minutes, with a multidisciplinary team of at least 3 other formal care providers of different disciplines 211.85 - 823 Attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a case conference team, to organise and coordinate a community case conference of at least 45 minutes, with a multidisciplinary team of at least 3 other formal care providers of different disciplines 282.30 - 825 Attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to participate in a community case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 101.40 - 826 Attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to participate in a community case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 30 minutes but less than 45 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 161.70 - 828 Attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to participate in a community case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 45 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 222.05 - 830 Attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a case conference team, to organise and coordinate a discharge case conference of at least 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes, with a multidisciplinary team of at least 3 other formal care providers of different disciplines 141.20 - 832 Attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a case conference team, to organise and coordinate a discharge case conference of at least 30 minutes but less than 45 minutes, with a multidisciplinary team of at least 3 other formal care providers of different disciplines 211.85 - 834 Attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a case conference team, to organise and coordinate a discharge case conference of at least 45 minutes, with a multidisciplinary team of at least 3 other formal care providers of different disciplines 282.30 - 835 Attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a case conference team, to participate in a discharge case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes, with a multidisciplinary team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines 101.40 - 837 Attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a case conference team, to participate in a discharge case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 30 minutes but less than 45 minutes, with a multidisciplinary team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines 161.70 - 838 Attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a case conference team, to participate in a discharge case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 45 minutes, with a multidisciplinary team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines 222.05 - 855 Attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to organise and coordinate a community case conference of at least 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 141.20 - 857 Attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to organise and coordinate a community case conference of at least 30 minutes but less than 45 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 211.85 - 858 Attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to organise and coordinate a community case conference of at least 45 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 282.30 - 861 Attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry, as a member of a case conference team, to organise and coordinate a discharge case conference of at least 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes, with a multidisciplinary team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines 141.20 - 864 Attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry, as a member of a case conference team, to organise and coordinate a discharge case conference of at least 30 minutes but less than 45 minutes, with a multidisciplinary team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines 211.85 - 866 Attendance by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of psychiatry, as a member of a case conference team, to organise and coordinate a discharge case conference of at least 45 minutes, with a multidisciplinary team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines 282.30 - 871 Attendance by a general practitioner, specialist or consultant physician, as a member of a case conference team, to lead and coordinate a multidisciplinary case conference on a patient with cancer to develop a multidisciplinary treatment plan, if the case conference is of at least 10 minutes, with a multidisciplinary team of at least 3 other medical practitioners from different areas of medical practice (which may include general practice), and, in addition, allied health providers 81.50 - 872 Attendance by a general practitioner, specialist or consultant physician, as a member of a case conference team, to participate in a multidisciplinary case conference on a patient with cancer to develop a multidisciplinary treatment plan, if the case conference is of at least 10 minutes, with a multidisciplinary team of at least 4 medical practitioners from different areas of medical practice (which may include general practice), and, in addition, allied health providers 37.95 - 880 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of geriatric or rehabilitation medicine, as a member of a case conference team, to coordinate a case conference of at least 10 minutes but less than 30 minutes—for any particular patient, one attendance only in a 7 day period (other than attendance on the same day as an attendance for which item 832, 834, 835, 837 or 838 was applicable in relation to the patient) (H) 49.40 Division 2.19—Group A17: Domiciliary and residential medication management reviews 2.19.1  Meaning of living in a community setting   In item 900: living in a community setting: a patient is living in a community setting if the patient is not an in‑patient of a hospital or a care recipient in a residential aged care facility. 2.19.2  Meaning of residential medication management review  (1) In item 903: residential medication management review means a collaborative service provided by a general practitioner and a pharmacist to review the medication management needs of a permanent resident of a residential aged care facility.  (2) A general practitioner’s involvement in a residential medication management review includes all of the following:  (a) discussing the proposed review with the resident and seeking the resident’s consent to the review;  (b) collaborating with the reviewing pharmacist about the pharmacist’s involvement in the review;  (c) providing input from the resident’s most recent comprehensive medical assessment or, if such an assessment has not been undertaken, providing relevant clinical information for the review and for the resident’s records;  (d) subject to subclause (4), participating in a post‑review discussion (either face‑to‑face or by telephone) with the pharmacist to discuss the outcomes of the review including:  (i) the findings of the review; and  (ii) medication management strategies; and  (iii) means to ensure that the strategies are implemented and reviewed, including any issues for implementation and follow‑up;  (e) developing or revising the resident’s medication management plan after discussion with the reviewing pharmacist, and finalising the plan after discussion with the resident.  (3) A general practitioner’s involvement in a residential medication management review also includes:  (a) offering a copy of the medication management plan to the resident (or the resident’s carer or representative if appropriate); and  (b) providing copies of the plan for the resident’s records and for the nursing staff of the residential aged care facility; and  (c) discussing the plan with nursing staff if necessary.  (4) A post‑review discussion is not required if:  (a) there are no recommended changes to the resident’s medication management arising out of the review; or  (b) any changes are minor in nature and do not require immediate discussion; or  (c) the pharmacist and general practitioner agree that issues arising out of the review should be considered in a case conference. 2.19.3  Application of items 900 and 903   Items 900 and 903 apply only to a service provided in the course of personal attendance by a single general practitioner on a single patient.   - Group A17—Domiciliary medication management review - 900 Participation by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or consultant physician) in a Domiciliary Medication Management Review (DMMR) for a patient living in a community setting, in which the general practitioner, with the patient’s consent:(a) assesses the patient as:(i) having a chronic medical condition or a complex medication regimen; and(ii) not having their therapeutic goals met; and(b) following that assessment:(i) refers the patient to a community pharmacy or an accredited pharmacist for the DMMR; and(ii) provides relevant clinical information required for the DMMR; and(c) discusses with the reviewing pharmacist the results of the DMMR including suggested medication management strategies; and(d) develops a written medication management plan following discussion with the patient; and(e) provides the written medication management plan to a community pharmacy chosen by the patientFor any particular patient—applicable not more than once in each 12 month period, except if there has been a significant change in the patient’s condition or medication regimen requiring a new DMMR 154.80 - 903 Participation by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or consultant physician) in a residential medication management review (RMMR) for a patient who is a permanent resident of a residential aged care facility—other than an RMMR for a resident in relation to whom, in the preceding 12 months, this item has applied, unless there has been a significant change in the resident’s medical condition or medication management plan requiring a new RMMR 106.00 Division 2.20—Group A30: Medical practitioner video conferencing consultation 2.20.1  Application of items  (1) An item in Group A30 may be claimed if:  (a) the service described in the item is undertaken in association with a service described in an item mentioned in sub‑clause (2); and  (b) no other service described in an item in Group A30 is provided to the patient on the same occasion; and  (c) the medical practitioner providing clinical support to the patient is a general practitioner, specialist or consultant physician.  (2) For the purposes of subclause (1), the items are 99, 112, 113, 114, 149, 288, 384, 389, 2799, 2820, 3003, 3015, 6004, 6016, 13210, 16399 and 17609. 2.20.2  Application of items 2125, 2138, 2179 and 2220   For items 2125, 2138, 2179 and 2220, professional attendance may be provided by the medical practitioner at consulting rooms in the residential care facility where the patient is a care recipient. 2.20.3  Meaning of amount under clause 2.20.3   An amount under clause 2.20.3, for an item mentioned in column 1 of table 2.20.3, means the sum of:  (a) the fee for the item mentioned in column 2 of the table; and  (b) the fee for the item mentioned in:  (i) if the medical practitioner attends no more than 6 patients in a single attendance—the amount mentioned in column 3 of the table, divided by the number of patients attended; or  (ii) if the medical practitioner attends more than 6 patients in a single attendance—the amount mentioned in column 4 of the table.   - Table 2.20.3—Amount under clause 2.20.3 - Item Column 1Item of the table Column 2Fee Column 3Amount if not more than 6 patients (to be divided by the number of patients) ($) Column 4Amount per patient if more than 6 patients ($) - 1 2122 The fee for item 2100 25.95 2.00 - 2 2125 The fee for item 2100 46.70 3.30 - 3 2137 The fee for item 2126 25.95 2.00 - 4 2138 The fee for item 2126 46.70 3.30 - 5 2147 The fee for item 2143 25.95 2.00 - 6 2179 The fee for item 2143 46.70 3.30 - 7 2199 The fee for item 2195 25.95 2.00 - 8 2220 The fee for item 2195 46.70 3.30 2.20.4  Limitation of items   Items 2100, 2122, 2126, 2137, 2143, 2147, 2195 and 2199 do not apply if the patient or the specialist or consultant physician mentioned in paragraph (a) of the item travels to a place to satisfy the requirement:  (a) for items 2100, 2126, 2143 and 2195—in sub‑subparagraph (c)(i)(B) of the item; and  (b) for items 2122, 2137, 2147 and 2199—in subparagraph (d)(ii) of the item.   - Group A30—Medical Practitioner video conferencing consultation - Subgroup 1—Video conferencing consultation attendance at consulting rooms, home visit or other institution - 2100 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of at least 5 minutes in duration (whether or not continuous) by a medical practitioner providing clinical support to a patient who:(a) is participating in a video conferencing consultation with a specialist or consultant physician; and(b) is not an admitted patient; and(c) either:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist or physician mentioned in paragraph (a); or(ii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service: for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies 22.90 - 2122 Professional attendance not in consulting rooms of at least 5 minutes in duration (whether or not continuous) by a medical practitioner providing clinical support to a patient who:(a) is participating in a video conferencing consultation with a specialist or consultant physician; and(b) is not an admitted patient; and(c) is not a care recipient in a residential care service; and(d) is located both:(i) within a telehealth eligible area; and(ii) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist or physician mentioned in paragraph (a);for an attendance on one or more patients at one place on one occasion—each patient Amount under table 2.20.3 - 2126 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of less than 20 minutes in duration (whether or not continuous) by a medical practitioner providing clinical support to a patient who:(a) is participating in a video conferencing consultation with a specialist or consultant physician; and(b) is not an admitted patient; and(c) either:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist or physician mentioned in paragraph (a); or(ii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies 49.95 - 2137 Professional attendance not in consulting rooms of less than 20 minutes in duration (whether or not continuous) by a medical practitioner providing clinical support to a patient who:(a) is participating in a video conferencing consultation with a specialist or consultant physician; and(b) is not an admitted patient; and(c) is not a care recipient in a residential care service; and(d) is located both:(i) within a telehealth eligible area; and(ii) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist or physician mentioned in paragraph (a);for an attendance on one or more patients at one place on one occasion—each patient Amount under table 2.20.3 - 2143 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of at least 20 minutes in duration (whether or not continuous) by a medical practitioner providing clinical support to a patient who:(a) is participating in a video conferencing consultation with a specialist or consultant physician; and(b) is not an admitted patient; and(c) either:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist or physician mentioned in paragraph (a); or(ii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service: for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies 96.85 - 2147 Professional attendance not in consulting rooms of at least 20 minutes in duration (whether or not continuous) by a medical practitioner providing clinical support to a patient who:(a) is participating in a video conferencing consultation with a specialist or consultant physician; and(b) is not an admitted patient; and(c) is not a care recipient in a residential care service; and(d) is located both:(i) within a telehealth eligible area; and(ii) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist or physician mentioned in paragraph (a);for an attendance on one or more patients at one place on one occasion—each patient Amount under table 2.20.3 - 2195 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of at least 40 minutes in duration (whether or not continuous) by a medical practitioner providing clinical support to a patient who:(a) is participating in a video conferencing consultation with a specialist or consultant physician; and(b) is not an admitted patient; and(c) either:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist or physician mentioned in paragraph (a); or(ii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies 142.50 - 2199 Professional attendance not in consulting rooms of at least 40 minutes in duration (whether or not continuous) by a medical practitioner providing clinical support to a patient who:(a) is participating in a video conferencing consultation with a specialist or consultant physician; and(b) is not an admitted patient; and(c) is not a care recipient in a residential care service; and(d) is located both:(i) within a telehealth eligible area; and(ii) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist or physician mentioned in paragraph (a);for an attendance on one or more patients at one place on one occasion—each patient Amount under table 2.20.3 - Subgroup 2—Video conferencing consultation attendance at a residential aged care service - 2125 Professional attendance of at least 5 minutes in duration (whether or not continuous) by a medical practitioner providing clinical support to a patient who:(a) is participating in a video conferencing consultation with a specialist or consultant physician; and(b) is a care recipient in a residential care service; and(c) is not a resident of a self‑contained unit;for an attendance on one or more patients at one place on one occasion—each patient Amount under table 2.20.3 - 2138 Professional attendance of less than 20 minutes in duration (whether or not continuous) by a medical practitioner providing clinical support to a patient who:(a) is participating in a video conferencing consultation with a specialist or consultant physician; and(b) is a care recipient in a residential care service; and(c) is not a resident of a self‑contained unit;for an attendance on one or more patients at one place on one occasion—each patient Amount under table 2.20.3 - 2179 Professional attendance of at least 20 minutes in duration (whether or not continuous) by a medical practitioner providing clinical support to a patient who:(a) is participating in a video conferencing consultation with a specialist or consultant physician; and(b) is a care recipient in a residential care service; and(c) is not a resident of a self‑contained unit;for an attendance on one or more patients at one place on one occasion—each patient Amount under table 2.20.3 - 2220 Professional attendance of at least 40 minutes in duration (whether or not continuous) by a medical practitioner providing clinical support to a patient who:(a) is participating in a video conferencing consultation with a specialist or consultant physician; and(b) is a care recipient in a residential care service; and(c) is not a resident of a self‑contained unit;for an attendance on one or more patients at one place on one occasion—each patient Amount under table 2.20.3 Division 2.21—Groups A18 (General practitioner attendances associated with PIP payments) and A19 (Other non‑referral attendances associated with PIP payments to which no other item applies) 2.21.1  Application of Subgroup 2 of Groups A18 and A19  (1) An item in Subgroup 2 of Group A18 or A19 does not apply to a service that is provided to a patient who has already been provided, in the previous 11 months, with another service mentioned in that Subgroup.  (2) For an item in Subgroup 2 of Group A18 or A19, a professional attendance completes the minimum requirements for a cycle of care of a patient with established diabetes mellitus if the attendance completes a series of attendances that involve, over a period of at least 11 months and up to 13 months, (the current cycle), the following:  (a) at least one assessment of the patient’s diabetes control, by measuring the patient’s HbA1c;  (b) subject to subclause (3), if the patient has not had a comprehensive eye examination in the cycle of care ending immediately before the current cycle—at least one comprehensive eye examination;  (c) measurement of the patient’s weight and height, and calculation of the patient’s BMI;  (d) 2 further measurements of the patient’s weight with each measurement being taken at least 5 months after the previous measurement;  (e) 2 measurements of the patient’s blood pressure, taken at least 5 months but not more than 7 months apart;  (f) subject to subclause (3), 2 examinations of the patient’s feet, carried out at least 5 months but not more than 7 months apart;  (g) at least one measurement of the patient’s total cholesterol, triglycerides and HDL cholesterol;  (h) at least one test of the patient’s microalbuminuria;  (i) at least one measurement of the patient’s estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR);  (j) provision to the patient of self‑management education regarding diabetes;  (k) a review of the patient’s diet, and provision to the patient of information about appropriate dietary choices;  (l) a review of the patient’s level of physical activity, and provision to the patient of information about the appropriate level of physical activity;  (m) checking the patient’s tobacco smoking activity, and, if relevant, encouraging the patient to stop smoking;  (n) a review of the patient’s medication.  (3) For a patient with established diabetes mellitus who has a condition that is mentioned in table 2.21.1, the minimum requirements of a cycle of care for the patient in relation to paragraphs (2)(b) and (f) may be completed as set out in that table.   - Table 2.21.1—Minimum requirements of a cycle of care - Column 1 Column 2 - Item Patient’s condition How minimum requirements completed - 1 A patient who is blind Without an eye examination - 2 A patient who has sight in only one eye Examination of that eye - 3 A patient who does not have any feet Without a foot examination - 4 A patient who has only one foot Examination of that foot 2.21.2  Application of Subgroup 3 of Groups A18 and A19  (1) An item in Subgroup 3 of Group A18 or A19 does not apply to a service that:  (a) is provided to a patient who has already been provided, in the previous 12 months, with another service mentioned in Subgroup 3 of Group A18 or A19; and  (b) is not clinically indicated.  (2) For an item in Subgroup 3 of Group A18 or A19, a professional attendance completes the minimum requirements of the Asthma Cycle of Care if the attendance completes a series of attendances that involves:  (a) documented diagnosis and documented assessment of level of asthma control and severity of asthma; and  (b) at least 2 asthma‑related consultations within 12 months (at least one of which (the review consultation) is a consultation that was planned at a previous consultation and includes the review mentioned in subparagraph (iv)) that involve the following for a patient with moderate to severe asthma:  (i) a review of the patient’s use of and access to asthma related medication and devices;  (A) provision to the patient of a written asthma action plan; or  (B) if the patient is unable to use a written asthma action plan—discussion with the patient about an alternative method of providing an asthma action plan, and documentation of the discussion in the patient’s medical records;  (iii) provision of asthma self‑management education to the patient;  (iv) at the review consultation:  (A) a review of the patient’s written or documented asthma action plan; and  (B) if necessary, adjustment of that plan.   - Group A18—General practitioner attendances associated with Practice Incentives Program (PIP) payments - Subgroup 1—Collection of a cervical screening specimen from an unscreened or significantly underscreened person - 2497 Professional attendance at consulting rooms by a general practitioner:(a) involving taking a short patient history and, if required, limited examination and management; and(b) at which a specimen for a cervical screening service is collected from the patient;if the patient is at least 24 years and 9 months of age but is less than 75 years of age and has not been provided with a cervical screening service or a cervical smear service in the last 4 years. 16.95 - 2501 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at consulting rooms, lasting less than 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, and at which a specimen for a cervical screening service is collected from the patient, if the patient is at least 24 years and 9 months of age but is less than 75 years of age and has not been provided with a cervical screening service or a cervical smear service in the last 4 years 37.05 - 2503 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at a place other than consulting rooms, lasting less than 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, and at which a specimen for a cervical screening service is collected from the patient, if the patient is at least 24 years and 9 months of age but is less than 75 years of age and has not been provided with a cervical screening service or a cervical smear service in the last 4 years Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 2504 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at consulting rooms, lasting at least 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a detailed patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, and at which a specimen for a cervical screening service is collected from the patient, if the patient is at least 24 years and 9 months of age but is less than 75 years of age and has not been provided with a cervical screening service or a cervical smear service in the last 4 years 71.70 - 2506 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at a place other than consulting rooms, lasting at least 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a detailed patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, and at which a specimen for a cervical screening service is collected from the patient, if the patient is at least 24 years and 9 months of age but is less than 75 years of age and has not been provided with a cervical screening service or a cervical smear service in the last 4 years Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 2507 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at consulting rooms, lasting at least 40 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking an extensive patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, and at which a specimen for a cervical screening service is collected from the patient, if the patient is at least 24 years and 9 months of age but is less than 75 years of age and has not been provided with a cervical screening service or a cervical smear service in the last 4 years 105.55 - 2509 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at a place other than consulting rooms, lasting at least 40 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking an extensive patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, and at which a specimen for a cervical screening service is collected from the patient, if the patient is at least 24 years and 9 months of age but is less than 75 years of age and has not been provided with a cervical screening service or a cervical smear service in the last 4 years Amount under clause 2.1.1 - Subgroup 2—Completion of a cycle of care for patients with established diabetes mellitus - 2517 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at consulting rooms, lasting less than 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, and completes the minimum requirements of a cycle of care for a patient with established diabetes mellitus 37.05 - 2518 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at a place other than consulting rooms, lasting less than 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, and completes the minimum requirements of a cycle of care for a patient with established diabetes mellitus Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 2521 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at consulting rooms, lasting at least 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a detailed patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, and that completes the minimum requirements of a cycle of care for a patient with established diabetes mellitus 71.70 - 2522 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at a place other than consulting rooms, lasting at least 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a detailed patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, and that completes the minimum requirements of a cycle of care for a patient with established diabetes mellitus Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 2525 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at consulting rooms, lasting at least 40 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking an extensive patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, and that completes the minimum requirements of a cycle of care for a patient with established diabetes mellitus 105.55 - 2526 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at a place other than consulting rooms, lasting at least 40 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking an extensive patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, and that completes the minimum requirements of a cycle of care for a patient with established diabetes mellitus Amount under clause 2.1.1 - Subgroup 3—Completion of the Asthma Cycle of Care - 2546 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at consulting rooms, lasting less than 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, and that completes the minimum requirements of the Asthma Cycle of Care 37.05 - 2547 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at a place other than consulting rooms, lasting less than 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, and that completes the minimum requirements of the Asthma Cycle of Care Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 2552 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at consulting rooms, lasting at least 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a detailed patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, and that completes the minimum requirements of the Asthma Cycle of Care 71.70 - 2553 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at a place other than consulting rooms, lasting at least 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a detailed patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, and that completes the minimum requirements of the Asthma Cycle of Care Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 2558 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at consulting rooms, lasting at least 40 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking an extensive patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, and that completes the minimum requirements of the Asthma Cycle of Care 105.55 - 2559 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at a place other than consulting rooms, lasting at least 40 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking an extensive patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation, and that completes the minimum requirements of the Asthma Cycle of Care Amount under clause 2.1.1   - Group A19—Other non‑referred attendances associated with Practice Incentives Program (PIP) payments to which no other item applies - Subgroup 1—Collection of a cervical screening specimen from an unscreened or significantly underscreened person - 2598 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of less than 5 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who practices in general practice (other than a general practitioner) at which a specimen for a cervical screening service is collected from the patient, if the patient is at least 24 years and 9 months of age but is less than 75 years of age and has not been provided with a cervical screening service or a cervical smear service in the last 4 years 11.00 - 2600 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of more than 5, but not more than 25 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who practises in general practice (other than a general practitioner), at which a specimen for a cervical screening service is collected from the patient, if the patient is at least 24 years and 9 months of age but is less than 75 years of age and has not been provided with a cervical screening service or a cervical smear service in the last 4 years 21.00 - 2603 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of more than 25 minutes, but not more than 45 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who practises in general practice (other than a general practitioner), at which a specimen for a cervical screening service is collected from the patient, if the patient is at least 24 years and 9 months of age but is less than 75 years of age and has not been provided with a cervical screening service or a cervical smear service in the last 4 years 38.00 - 2606 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of more than 45 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who practises in general practice (other than a general practitioner), at which a specimen for a cervical screening service is collected from the patient, if the patient is at least 24 years and 9 months of age but is less than 75 years of age and has not been provided with a cervical screening service or a cervical smear service in the last 4 years 61.00 - 2610 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms of more than 5 minutes, but not more than 25 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who practises in general practice (other than a general practitioner), at which a specimen for a cervical screening service is collected from the patient, if the patient is at least 24 years and 9 months of age but is less than 75 years of age and has not been provided with a cervical screening service or a cervical smear service in the last 4 years Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 2613 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms of more than 25 minutes, but not more than 45 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who practises in general practice (other than a general practitioner), at which a specimen for a cervical screening service is collected from the patient, if the patient is at least 24 years and 9 months of age but is less than 75 years of age and has not been provided with a cervical screening service or a cervical smear service in the last 4 years Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 2616 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms of more than 45 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who practises in general practice (other than a general practitioner), at which a specimen for a cervical screening service is collected from the patient, if the patient is at least 24 years and 9 months of age but is less than 75 years of age and has not been provided with a cervical screening service or a cervical smear service in the last 4 years Amount under clause 2.1.1 - Subgroup 2—Completion of a cycle of care for patients with established diabetes mellitus - 2620 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of more than 5 minutes, but not more than 25 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who practises in general practice (other than a general practitioner), that completes the minimum requirements for a cycle of care of a patient with established diabetes mellitus 21.00 - 2622 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of more than 25 minutes, but not more than 45 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who practises in general practice (other than a general practitioner), that completes the requirements for a cycle of care of a patient with established diabetes mellitus 38.00 - 2624 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of more than 45 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who practises in general practice (other than a general practitioner), that completes the minimum requirements for a cycle of care of a patient with established diabetes mellitus 61.00 - 2631 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms of more than 5 minutes, but not more than 25 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who practises in general practice (other than a general practitioner), that completes the minimum requirements for a cycle of care of a patient with established diabetes mellitus Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 2633 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms of more than 25 minutes but not more than 45 minutes, in duration by a medical practitioner who practises in general practice (other than a general practitioner), that completes the minimum requirements for a cycle of care of a patient with established diabetes mellitus Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 2635 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms of more than 45 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who practises in general practice (other than a general practitioner), that completes the minimum requirements for a cycle of care of a patient with established diabetes mellitus Amount under clause 2.1.1 - Subgroup 3—Completion of the Asthma Cycle of Care - 2664 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of more than 5 minutes, but not more than 25 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who practises in general practice (other than a general practitioner), that completes the minimum requirements of the Asthma Cycle of Care 21.00 - 2666 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of more than 25 minutes, but not more than 45 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who practises in general practice (other than a general practitioner), that completes the minimum requirements of the Asthma Cycle of Care 38.00 - 2668 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of more than 45 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who practises in general practice (other than a general practitioner), that completes the minimum requirements of the Asthma Cycle of Care 61.00 - 2673 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms of more than 5 minutes, but not more than 25 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who practises in general practice (other than a general practitioner), that completes the minimum requirements of the Asthma Cycle of Care Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 2675 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms of more than 25 minutes, but not more than 45 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who practises in general practice (other than a general practitioner), that completes the minimum requirements of the Asthma Cycle of Care Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 2677 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms of more than 45 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who practises in general practice (other than a general practitioner), that completes the minimum requirements of the Asthma Cycle of Care Amount under clause 2.1.1 Division 2.22—Group A20: Mental health care 2.22.1  Definitions focussed psychological strategies means any of the following mental health care management strategies which have been derived from evidence‑based psychological therapies:  (a) psycho‑education;  (b) cognitive‑behavioural therapy which involves cognitive or behavioural interventions;  (c) relaxation strategies;  (d) skills training;  (e) interpersonal therapy. mental disorder means a significant impairment of any or all of an individual’s cognitive, affective and relational abilities that:  (a) may require medical intervention; and  (b) may be a recognised, medically diagnosable illness or disorder; and  (c) is not dementia, delirium, tobacco use disorder or mental retardation. Note: In relation to this definition, attention is drawn to the Diagnostic and Management Guidelines for Mental Disorders in Primary Care (ICD‑10, Chapter 5, Primary Care Version), developed by the World Health Organisation and published in 1996. outcome measurement tool means a tool used to monitor changes in a patient’s health that occur in response to treatment received by the patient. 2.22.2  Meaning of amount under clause 2.22.2   In items 2723 and 2727: amount under clause 2.22.2, for an item mentioned in column 1 of table 2.22.2, means the sum of:  (i) if not more than 6 patients are attended at a single attendance—the amount mentioned in column 3 for the item, divided by the number of patients attended; or  (ii) if more than 6 patients are attended at a single attendance—the amount mentioned in column 4 for the item.   - Table 2.22.2—Amount under clause 2.22.2 - Item Column 1Item of the table Column 2Fee Column 3Amount if not more than 6 patients (to be divided by the number of patients) ($) Column 4Amount if more than 6 patients ($) - 1 2723 The fee for item 2721 25.95 2.00 - 2 2727 The fee for item 2725 25.95 2.00 2.22.3  Meaning of preparation of a GP mental health treatment plan  (1) In the table: preparation of a GP mental health treatment plan, for a patient, means each of the following:  (a) preparation of a written plan by a general practitioner for the patient that includes:  (i) an assessment of the patient’s mental disorder, including administration of an outcome measurement tool (except if considered clinically inappropriate); and  (ii) formulation of the mental disorder, including provisional diagnosis or diagnosis; and  (iii) treatment goals with which the patient agrees; and  (iv) any actions to be taken by the patient; and  (v) a plan for either or both of the following:  (A) crisis intervention;  (B) relapse prevention; and  (vi) referral and treatment options for the patient; and  (vii) arrangements for providing the referral and treatment options mentioned in subparagraph (vi); and  (viii) arrangements to review the plan;  (b) explaining to the patient and the patient’s carer (if any, and if the practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient agrees) the steps involved in preparing the plan;  (c) recording the plan;  (d) recording the patient’s agreement to the preparation of the plan;  (e) offering the patient and the patient’s carer (if any, and if the practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient agrees):  (i) a copy of the plan; and  (ii) suitable education about the mental disorder;  (f) adding a copy of the plan to the patient’s medical records.  (2) In subparagraph (1)(a)(vi): referral and treatment options, for a patient, includes:  (a) support services for the patient; and  (b) psychiatric services for the patient; and  (c) subject to the applicable limitations:  (i) psychological therapies provided to the patient by a clinical psychologist (items 80000 to 80020); and  (ii) focussed psychological strategies services provided to the patient by a general practitioner mentioned in paragraph 2.22.7(1)(b) to provide those services (items 2721 to 2727); and  (iii) focussed psychological strategies services provided to the patient by an allied mental health professional (items 80100 to 80170). Note: For items 80000 to 80020 and 80100 to 80170, see the determination about allied health services under subsection 3C(1) of the Act. 2.22.4  Meaning of review of a GP mental health treatment plan review of a GP mental health treatment plan means a process by which a general practitioner:  (a) reviews the matters mentioned in paragraph (a) of the definition of preparation of a GP mental health treatment plan in subclause 2.22.3(1); and  (b) checks, reinforces and expands any education given under the plan; and  (c) if appropriate and if not previously provided—prepares a plan for either or both of the following:  (i) crisis intervention;  (ii) relapse prevention;  (d) re‑administers the outcome measurement tool used in the assessment mentioned in subparagraph (a)(i) of the definition of preparation of a GP mental health treatment plan in subclause 2.22.3(1) (except if considered clinically inappropriate); and  (e) if different arrangements need to be made—makes amendments to the plan that state those new arrangements; and  (f) explains to the patient and the patient’s carer (if any, and if the practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient agrees) the steps involved in the review of the plan; and  (g) records the patient’s agreement to the review of the plan; and  (h) if amendments are made to the plan:  (i) offers a copy of the amended plan to the patient and the patient’s carer (if any, and if the practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient agrees); and  (ii) adds a copy of the amended plan to the patient’s medical records. 2.22.5  Meaning of associated general practitioner   In item 2712: associated general practitioner means a general practitioner (not including a specialist or consultant physician) who, if not engaged in the same general practice as the general practitioner mentioned in that item, performs the service mentioned in the item at the request of the patient (or the patient’s guardian). 2.22.6  Application of Subgroup 1 of Group A20  (1) Items 2700, 2701, 2712, 2713, 2715 and 2717 apply only to a patient with a mental disorder.  (2) Items 2700, 2701, 2712, 2715 and 2717 apply only to:  (a) a patient in the community; and  (b) a private in‑patient (including a private in‑patient who is a resident of an aged care facility) being discharged from hospital; and  (c) a service provided in the course of personal attendance by a single general practitioner on a single patient.  (3) Unless exceptional circumstances exist, items 2700, 2701, 2715 and 2717 cannot be claimed:  (a) with a service to which items 735 to 758, or item 2713 apply; or  (b) more than once in a 12 month period from the provision of any of the items for a particular patient; or  (c) within 3 months following the provision of a service to which item 2712, or item 2719 of the Health Insurance (Review of GP Mental Health Treatment Plan) Determination 2011 (as in force on 29 February 2012), applies; or  (d) more than once in a 12 month period from the provision of a service to which item 2702 or 2710 of the Health Insurance (General Medical Services Table) Regulations 2010 (as in force on 31 October 2011) applies for the patient.  (4) Item 2712 applies only if one of the following services has been provided to the patient:  (a) the preparation of a GP mental health treatment plan under:  (i) items 2700, 2701, 2715 and 2717; or  (ii) items 2702 and 2710 of the Health Insurance (General Medical Services Table) Regulations 2010 (as in force on 31 October 2011);  (b) a review of a GP mental health treatment plan under item 2712, or item 2719 of the Health Insurance (Review of GP Mental Health Treatment Plan) Determination 2011 (as in force on 29 February 2012);  (c) a psychiatrist assessment and management plan under item 291.  (5) Item 2712 does not apply:  (a) to a service to which items 735 to 758, or item 2713 apply; or  (b) unless exceptional circumstances exist for the provision of the service:  (i) more than once in a 3 month period; or  (ii) within 4 weeks following the preparation of a GP mental health treatment plan (item 2700, 2701, 2715 or 2717); or  (c) unless exceptional circumstances exist for the provision of the service to a patient within 3 months after the patient is provided a service to which item 2719 of the Health Insurance (Review of GP Mental Health Treatment Plan) Determination 2011 (as in force on 29 February 2012) applies.  (6) Item 2713 applies only:  (a) to a surgery consultation; and  (b) to an attendance of at least 20 minutes in duration.  (7) Item 2713 does not apply in association with a service to which item 2700, 2701, 2715, 2717 or 2712 applies.  (8) Items 2715 and 2717 apply only if the general practitioner providing the service has successfully completed mental health skills training accredited by the General Practice Mental Health Standards Collaboration. Note: The General Practice Mental Health Standards Collaboration operates under the auspices of the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners.  (9) In this clause: exceptional circumstances means a significant change in:  (a) the patient’s clinical condition; or  (b) the patient’s care circumstances. 2.22.7  Focussed psychological strategies  (1) An item in Subgroup 2 of Group A20 applies to a service which:  (a) is clinically indicated under a GP mental health treatment plan or a psychiatrist assessment and management plan; and  (b) is provided by a general practitioner:  (i) whose name is entered in the register maintained by the Chief Executive Medicare under section 33 of the Human Services (Medicare) Regulations 2017; and  (ii) who is identified in the register as a medical practitioner who can provide services to which Subgroup 2 of Group A20 applies; and  (iii) who meets any training and skills requirements, as determined by the General Practice Mental Health Standards Collaboration for providing services to which Subgroup 2 of Group A20 applies.  (2) An item in Subgroup 2 of Group A20 does not apply to:  (a) a service which:  (i) is provided to a patient who, in a calendar year, has already been provided with 6 services to which any of the items in Subgroup 2 applies; and  (ii) is provided before the medical practitioner managing the GP mental health treatment plan or the psychiatrist assessment and management plan has conducted a patient review and recorded in the patient’s records a recommendation that the patient have additional sessions of focussed psychological strategies in the same calendar year; or  (b) a service which:  (i) for the period from 1 March 2012 to 31 December 2012—is provided to a patient who has already been provided, in the calendar year, with 10 (or if exceptional circumstances exist—16) other services to which any of the items in Subgroup 2, or items 80000 to 80015, 80100 to 80115, 80125 to 80140 or 80150 to 80165 apply; and  (ii) for each subsequent calendar year—is provided to a patient who has already been provided, in the calendar year, with 10 other services to which any of the items in Subgroup 2, or items 80000 to 80015, 80100 to 80115, 80125 to 80140 or 80150 to 80165 apply. Note: For items 80000 to 80015, 80100 to 80115, 80125 to 80140 and 80150 to 80165, see the determination about allied health services under subsection 3C(1) of the Act.   - Group A20—Mental health care - Subgroup 1—GP mental health treatment plans - 2700 Professional attendance, by a general practitioner who has not undertaken mental health skills training (and not including a specialist or consultant physician), of at least 20 minutes but less than 40 minutes in duration for the preparation of a GP mental health treatment plan for a patient 71.70 - 2701 Professional attendance, by a general practitioner who has not undertaken mental health skills training (and not including a specialist or consultant physician), of at least 40 minutes in duration for the preparation of a GP mental health treatment plan for a patient 105.55 - 2712 Professional attendance by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or consultant physician) to review a GP mental health treatment plan which he or she, or an associated general practitioner has prepared, or to review a Psychiatrist Assessment and Management Plan 71.70 - 2713 Professional attendance by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or consultant physician) in relation to a mental disorder and of at least 20 minutes in duration, involving taking relevant history and identifying the presenting problem (to the extent not previously recorded), providing treatment and advice and, if appropriate, referral for other services or treatments, and documenting the outcomes of the consultation 71.70 - 2715 Professional attendance, by a general practitioner who has undertaken mental health skills training (but not including a specialist or consultant physician), of at least 20 minutes but less than 40 minutes in duration for the preparation of a GP mental health treatment plan for a patient 91.05 - 2717 Professional attendance, by a general practitioner who has undertaken mental health skills training (but not including a specialist or consultant physician), of at least 40 minutes in duration for the preparation of a GP mental health treatment plan for a patient 134.10 - Subgroup 2—Focussed psychological strategies - 2721 Professional attendance at consulting rooms by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or a consultant physician), for providing focussed psychological strategies for assessed mental disorders by a medical practitioner registered with the Chief Executive Medicare as meeting the credentialling requirements for provision of this service, and lasting at least 30 minutes, but less than 40 minutes 92.75 - 2723 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or a consultant physician), for providing focussed psychological strategies for assessed mental disorders by a medical practitioner registered with the Chief Executive Medicare as meeting the credentialling requirements for provision of this service, and lasting at least 30 minutes, but less than 40 minutes Amount under clause 2.22.2 - 2725 Professional attendance at consulting rooms by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or a consultant physician), for providing focussed psychological strategies for assessed mental disorders by a medical practitioner registered with the Chief Executive Medicare as meeting the credentialling requirements for provision of this service, and lasting at least 40 minutes 132.75 - 2727 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or a consultant physician), for providing focussed psychological strategies for assessed mental disorders by a medical practitioner registered with the Chief Executive Medicare as meeting the credentialling requirements for provision of this service, and lasting at least 40 minutes Amount under clause 2.22.2 Division 2.23—Group A24: Palliative and pain medicine 2.23.1  Meaning of organise and coordinate   In the items in Subgroups 2 and 4 of Group A24:  (f) recording the activities mentioned in the definition of multidisciplinary case conference in clause 1.1.3 and putting a copy of that record in the patient’s medical records;  (g) offering the patient and the patient’s carer (if any and if the practitioner considers appropriate and the patient agrees), and giving each other member of the team, a summary of the conference;  (h) discussing the outcomes of the conference with the patient and the patient’s carer (if any and if the practitioner considers appropriate and the patient agrees). 2.23.2  Meaning of participate   In items 2958, 2972, 2974, 2992, 2996, 3000, 3051, 3055, 3062, 3083, 3088 and 3093:  (a) if the conference is a community case conference—is at the request of the person who organises and coordinates the conference; and  (vi) recording the activities mentioned in the definition of multidisciplinary case conference in clause 1.1.3 and putting a copy of that record in the patient’s medical records; but  (c) if the conference is a community case conference—does not include organising and coordinating the conference. 2.23.3  Application of Group A24  (1) Subgroups 1 and 2 of Group A24 apply only if the attendance is by a medical practitioner who is recognised as a specialist, or consultant physician, in the specialty of pain medicine for the purposes of the Act.  (2) Subgroups 3 and 4 of Group A24 apply only if the attendance is by a medical practitioner who is recognised as a specialist, or consultant physician, in the specialty of palliative medicine for the purposes of the Act. 2.23.4  Limitation on items   The items in Subgroups 2 and 4 of Group A24 may only apply to a patient 5 times in a 12 month period. 2.23.5  Limitation of items   Items 2799, 2820, 3003 and 3015 do not apply if the patient, specialist or physician travels to a place to satisfy the requirement in:  (a) for items 2799 and 3003—sub‑subparagraph(c)(i)(B) of the item; and  (b) for items 2820 and 3015—sub‑subparagraph (d)(i)(B) of the item.   - Group A24—Palliative and pain medicine - Subgroup 1—Pain medicine attendances - 2799 Initial professional attendance of 10 minutes or less in duration on a patient by a specialist or consultant physician practising in his or her specialty of pain medicine if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(c) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist or physician; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies; and(d) no other initial consultation has taken place for a single course of treatment 114.90 - 2801 Professional attendance at consulting rooms or hospital by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of pain medicine following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—initial attendance in a single course of treatment 153.15 - 2806 Professional attendance at consulting rooms or hospital by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of pain medicine following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—each attendance (other than a service to which item 2814 applies) after the first in a single course of treatment 76.65 - 2814 Professional attendance at consulting rooms or hospital by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of pain medicine following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—each minor attendance after the first attendance in a single course of treatment 43.65 - 2820 Professional attendance on a patient by a specialist or consultant physician practising in his or her specialty of pain medicine if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) the attendance is for a service:(i) provided with item 2801 lasting more than 10 minutes; or(ii) provided with item 2806 or 2814; and(c) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(d) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist or physician; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies 50% of the fee for item 2801, 2806 or 2814 - 2824 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of pain medicine following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—initial attendance in a single course of treatment 185.85 - 2832 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of pain medicine following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—each attendance (other than a service to which item 2840 applies) after the first in a single course of treatment 112.40 - 2840 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of pain medicine following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—each minor attendance after the first attendance in a single course of treatment 80.95 - Subgroup 2—Pain medicine case conferences - 2946 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of pain medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to organise and coordinate a community case conference of at least 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes 141.20 - 2949 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of pain medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to organise and coordinate a community case conference of at least 30 minutes but less than 45 minutes 211.85 - 2954 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of pain medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to organise and coordinate a community case conference of at least 45 minutes 282.30 - 2958 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of pain medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to participate in a community case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes 101.40 - 2972 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of pain medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to participate in a community case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 30 minutes but less than 45 minutes 161.70 - 2974 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of pain medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to participate in a community case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 45 minutes 222.05 - 2978 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of pain medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to organise and coordinate a discharge case conference of at least 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes, before the patient is discharged from a hospital (H) 141.20 - 2984 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of pain medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to organise and coordinate a discharge case conference of at least 30 minutes but less than 45 minutes, before the patient is discharged from a hospital (H) 211.85 - 2988 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of pain medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to organise and coordinate a discharge case conference of at least 45 minutes, before the patient is discharged from a hospital (H) 282.30 - 2992 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of pain medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to participate in a discharge case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes, before the patient is discharged from a hospital (H) 101.40 - 2996 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of pain medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to participate in a discharge case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 30 minutes but less than 45 minutes, before the patient is discharged from a hospital (H) 161.70 - 3000 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of pain medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to participate in a discharge case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 45 minutes, before the patient is discharged from a hospital (H) 222.05 - Subgroup 3—Palliative medicine attendances - 3003 Initial professional attendance of 10 minutes or less in duration on a patient by a specialist or consultant physician practising in his or her specialty of palliative medicine if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(c) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist or physician; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies; and(d) no other initial consultation has taken place for a single course of treatment 114.90 - 3005 Professional attendance at consulting rooms or hospital by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of palliative medicine following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—initial attendance in a single course of treatment 153.15 - 3010 Professional attendance at consulting rooms or hospital by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of palliative medicine following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—each attendance (other than a service to which item 3014 applies) after the first in a single course of treatment 76.65 - 3014 Professional attendance at consulting rooms or hospital by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of palliative medicine following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—each minor attendance after the first attendance in a single course of treatment 43.65 - 3015 Professional attendance on a patient by a specialist or consultant physician practising in his or her specialty of palliative medicine if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) the attendance is for a service:(i) provided with item 3005 lasting more than 10 minutes; or(ii) provided with item 3010 or 3014; and(c) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(d) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist or physician; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies 50% of the fee for item 3005, 3010 or 3014 - 3018 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of palliative medicine following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—initial attendance in a single course of treatment 185.85 - 3023 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of palliative medicine following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—each attendance (other than a service to which item 3028 applies) after the first in a single course of treatment 112.40 - 3028 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms or hospital by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of palliative medicine following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—each minor attendance after the first attendance in a single course of treatment 80.95 - Subgroup 4—Palliative medicine case conferences - 3032 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of palliative medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to organise and coordinate a community case conference of at least 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes 141.20 - 3040 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of palliative medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to organise and coordinate a community case conference of at least 30 minutes but less than 45 minutes 211.85 - 3044 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of palliative medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to organise and coordinate a community case conference of at least 45 minutes 282.30 - 3051 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of palliative medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to participate in a community case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes 101.40 - 3055 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of palliative medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to participate in a community case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 30 minutes but less than 45 minutes, with a multidisciplinary team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines 161.70 - 3062 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of palliative medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to participate in a community case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 45 minutes 222.05 - 3069 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of palliative medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to organise and coordinate a discharge case conference of at least 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes, before the patient is discharged from a hospital (H) 141.20 - 3074 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of palliative medicine, as a member of a case conference team, to organise and coordinate a discharge case conference of at least 30 minutes but less than 45 minutes, before the patient is discharged from a hospital (H) 211.85 - 3078 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of palliative medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to organise and coordinate a discharge case conference of at least 45 minutes, before the patient is discharged from a hospital (H) 282.30 - 3083 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of palliative medicine, as a member of a case conference team, to participate in a discharge case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes, before the patient is discharged from a hospital (H) 101.40 - 3088 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of palliative medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to participate in a discharge case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 30 minutes but less than 45 minutes, before the patient is discharged from a hospital (H) 161.70 - 3093 Attendance by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty of palliative medicine, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team, to participate in a discharge case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 45 minutes, before the patient is discharged from a hospital (H) 222.05 Division 2.24—Group A31: Addiction medicine 2.24.1  Meaning of organise and coordinate   In items 6029 to 6042:  (f) recording the activities mentioned in the definition of multidisciplinary case conference in clause 1.1.3 and putting a copy of that record in the patient’s medical records;  (g) offering the patient and the patient’s carer (if any and if the practitioner considers appropriate and the patient agrees), and giving each other member of the team, a summary of the conference;  (h) discussing the outcomes of the conference with the patient and the patient’s carer (if any and if the practitioner considers appropriate and the patient agrees). 2.24.2  Meaning of participate   In items 6035 to 6042:  (vi) recording the activities mentioned in the definition of multidisciplinary case conference in clause 1.1.3 and putting a copy of that record in the patient’s medical records. 2.24.3  Limitation of items 6025 and 6026  (1) Item 6025 does not apply if the patient or addiction medicine specialist travels to a place to satisfy the requirement in sub‑subparagraph (c)(i)(B) of the item.  (2) Item 6026 does not apply if the patient or addiction medicine specialist travels to a place to satisfy the requirement in sub‑subparagraph (d)(i)(B) of the item. 2.24.4  Application of item 6028   Item 6028 applies only to a service provided in the course of a personal attendance by a single addiction medicine specialist.   - Group A31—Addiction medicine - Subgroup 1—Addiction medicine attendances - 6018 Professional attendance by an addiction medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner, if the attendance:(a) includes a comprehensive assessment; and(b) is the first or only time in a single course of treatment that a comprehensive assessment is provided 153.15 - 6019 Professional attendance by an addiction medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner, if the attendance is a patient assessment:(a) before or after a comprehensive assessment under item 6018 in a single course of treatment; or(b) that follows an initial assessment under item 6023 in a single course of treatment; or(c) that follows a review under item 6024 in a single course of treatment 76.65 - 6023 Professional attendance by an addiction medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of at least 45 minutes for an initial assessment of a patient with at least 2 morbidities, following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner, if:(a) an assessment is undertaken that covers:(i) a comprehensive history, including psychosocial history and medication review; and(ii) a comprehensive multi or detailed single organ system assessment; and(iii) the formulation of differential diagnoses; and(b) an addiction medicine specialist treatment and management plan of significant complexity that includes the following is prepared and provided to the referring practitioner:(i) an opinion on diagnosis and risk assessment;(ii) treatment options and decisions;(iii) medication recommendations; and(c) an attendance on the patient to which item 104, 105, 110, 116, 119, 132, 133, 6018 or 6019 applies did not take place on the same day by the same addiction medicine specialist; and(d) neither this item nor item 132 has applied to an attendance on the patient in the preceding 12 months by the same addiction medicine specialist 267.85 - 6024 Professional attendance by an addiction medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of at least 20 minutes, after the first attendance in a single course of treatment for a review of a patient with at least 2 morbidities if:(a) a review is undertaken that covers:(i) review of initial presenting problems and results of diagnostic investigations; and(ii) review of responses to treatment and medication plans initiated at time of initial consultation; and(iii) comprehensive multi or detailed single organ system assessment; and(iv) review of original and differential diagnoses; and(b) the modified addiction medicine specialist treatment and management plan is provided to the referring practitioner, which involves, if appropriate:(i) a revised opinion on diagnosis and risk assessment; and(ii) treatment options and decisions; and(iii) revised medication recommendations; and(c) an attendance on the patient to which item 104, 105, 110, 116, 119, 132, 133, 6018 or 6019 applies did not take place on the same day by the same addiction medicine specialist; and(d) item 6023 applied to an attendance claimed in the preceding 12 months; and(e) the attendance under this item is claimed by the same addiction medicine specialist who claimed item 6023 or by a locum tenens; and(f) this item has not applied more than twice in any 12 month period 134.10 - 6025 Initial professional attendance of 10 minutes or less, on a patient by an addiction medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(c) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 km by road from the addiction medicine specialist; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies; and(d) no other initial consultation has taken place for a single course of treatment 114.90 - 6026 Professional attendance on a patient by an addiction medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) the attendance is for a service:(i) provided with item 6018 or 6019 and lasting more than 10 minutes; or(ii) provided with item 6023 or 6024; and(c) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(d) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 km by road from the addiction medicine specialist; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19 (2) of the Act applies 50% of the fee for item 6018, 6019, 6023 or 6024 - Subgroup 2—Group therapy - 6028 Group therapy (including any associated consultation with a patient taking place on the same occasion and relating to the condition for which group therapy is conducted) of not less than 1 hour, given under the continuous direct supervision of an addiction medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty for a group of 2 to 9 unrelated patients, or a family group of more than 2 patients, each of whom is referred to the addiction medicine specialist by a referring practitioner—for each patient 50.05 - Subgroup 3—Addiction medicine case conferences - 6029 Attendance by an addiction medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to organise and coordinate a community case conference of less than 15 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 43.35 - 6031 Attendance by an addiction medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to organise and coordinate a community case conference of at least 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 76.65 - 6032 Attendance by an addiction medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to organise and coordinate a community case conference of at least 30 minutes but less than 45 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 115.00 - 6034 Attendance by an addiction medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to organise and coordinate the multidisciplinary case conference of at least 45 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 153.15 - 6035 Attendance by an addiction medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to participate in a community case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of less than 15 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 34.65 - 6037 Attendance by an addiction medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to participate in a community case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 61.30 - 6038 Attendance by an addiction medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to participate in a community case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 30 minutes but less than 45 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 92.00 - 6042 Attendance by an addiction medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to participate in a community case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 45 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 122.55 Division 2.25—Group A32: Sexual health medicine 2.25.1  Meaning of organise and coordinate   In items 6064 to 6075:  (f) recording the activities mentioned in the definition of multidisciplinary case conference in clause 1.1.3 and putting a copy of that record in the patient’s medical records;  (g) offering the patient and the patient’s carer (if any and if the practitioner considers appropriate and the patient agrees), and giving each other member of the team, a summary of the conference;  (h) discussing the outcomes of the conference with the patient and the patient’s carer (if any and if the practitioner considers appropriate and the patient agrees). 2.25.2  Meaning of participate   In items 6071 to 6075:  (vi) recording the activities mentioned in the definition of multidisciplinary case conference in clause 1.1.3 and putting a copy of that record in the patient’s medical records. 2.25.3  Limitation of items 6059 and 6060  (1) Item 6059 does not apply if the patient or sexual health medicine specialist travels to a place to satisfy the requirement in sub‑subparagraph (c)(i)(B) of the item.  (2) Item 6060 does not apply if the patient or sexual health medicine specialist travels to a place to satisfy the requirement in sub‑subparagraph (d)(i)(B) of the item.   - Group A32—Sexual health medicine - Subgroup 1—Sexual health medicine attendances - 6051 Professional attendance by a sexual health medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner, if the attendance:(a) includes a comprehensive assessment; and(b) is the first or only time in a single course of treatment that a comprehensive assessment is provided 153.15 - 6052 Professional attendance by a sexual health medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner, if the attendance is a patient assessment:(a) before or after a comprehensive assessment under item 6051 in a single course of treatment; or(b) that follows an initial assessment under item 6057 in a single course of treatment; or(c) that follows a review under item 6058 in a single course of treatment 76.65 - 6057 Professional attendance by a sexual health medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of at least 45 minutes for an initial assessment of a patient with at least 2 morbidities, following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner, if:(a) an assessment is undertaken that covers:(i) a comprehensive history, including psychosocial history and medication review; and(ii) a comprehensive multi or detailed single organ system assessment; and(iii) the formulation of differential diagnoses; and(b) a sexual health medicine specialist treatment and management plan of significant complexity that includes the following is prepared and provided to the referring practitioner:(i) an opinion on diagnosis and risk assessment;(ii) treatment options and decisions;(iii) medication recommendations; and(c) an attendance on the patient to which item 104, 105, 110, 116, 119, 132, 133, 6051 or 6052 applies did not take place on the same day by the same sexual health medicine specialist; and(d) neither this item nor item 132 has applied to an attendance on the patient in the preceding 12 months by the same sexual health medicine specialist 267.85 - 6058 Professional attendance by a sexual health medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of at least 20 minutes, after the first attendance in a single course of treatment for a review of a patient with at least 2 morbidities if:(a) a review is undertaken that covers:(i) review of initial presenting problems and results of diagnostic investigations; and(ii) review of responses to treatment and medication plans initiated at time of initial consultation; and(iii) comprehensive multi or detailed single organ system assessment; and(iv) review of original and differential diagnoses; and(b) the modified sexual health medicine specialist treatment and management plan is provided to the referring practitioner, which involves, if appropriate:(i) a revised opinion on diagnosis and risk assessment; and(ii) treatment options and decisions; and(iii) revised medication recommendations; and(c) an attendance on the patient, being an attendance to which item 104, 105, 110, 116, 119, 132, 133, 6051 or 6052 applies did not take place on the same day by the same sexual health medicine specialist; and(d) item 6057 applied to an attendance claimed in the preceding 12 months; and(e) the attendance under this item is claimed by the same sexual health medicine specialist who claimed item 6057 or by a locum tenens; and(f) this item has not applied more than twice in any 12 month period 134.10 - 6059 Initial professional attendance of 10 minutes or less, on a patient by a sexual health medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(c) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 km by road from the sexual health medicine specialist; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies; and(d) no other initial consultation has taken place for a single course of treatment 114.90 - 6060 Professional attendance on a patient by a sexual health medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) the attendance is for a service:(i) provided with item 6051 or 6052 and lasting more than 10 minutes; or(ii) provided with item 6057 or 6058; and(c) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(d) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 km by road from the sexual health medicine specialist; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19 (2) of the Act applies 50% of the fee for item 6051, 6052, 6057 or 6058 - Subgroup 2—Home visits - 6062 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms or a hospital by a sexual health medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—initial attendance in a single course of treatment 185.85 - 6063 Professional attendance at a place other than consulting rooms or a hospital by a sexual health medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty following referral of the patient to him or her by a referring practitioner—each attendance after the attendance under item 6062 in a single course of treatment 112.40 - Subgroup 3—Sexual health medicine case conferences - 6064 Attendance by a sexual health medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to organise and coordinate a community case conference of less than 15 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 43.35 - 6065 Attendance by a sexual health medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to organise and coordinate a community case conference of at least 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 76.65 - 6067 Attendance by a sexual health medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to organise and coordinate a community case conference of at least 30 minutes but less than 45 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 115.00 - 6068 Attendance by a sexual health medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to organise and coordinate a community case conference of at least 45 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 153.15 - 6071 Attendance by a sexual health medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to participate in a community case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of less than 15 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 34.65 - 6072 Attendance by a sexual health medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to participate in a community case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 61.30 - 6074 Attendance by a sexual health medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to participate in a community case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 30 minutes but less than 45 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 92.00 - 6075 Attendance by a sexual health medicine specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, as a member of a multidisciplinary case conference team of at least 2 other formal care providers of different disciplines, to participate in a community case conference (other than to organise and coordinate the conference) of at least 45 minutes, with the multidisciplinary case conference team 122.55 Division 2.26—Group A27: Pregnancy support counselling 2.26.1  Application of item 4001  (1) A service to which item 4001 applies must not be provided by a general practitioner who has a direct pecuniary interest in a health service that has as its primary purpose the provision of services for pregnancy termination.  (2) Item 4001 does not apply if a patient has already been provided, for the same pregnancy, with 3 services to which that item or item 81000, 81005 or 81010 applies. Note: For items 81000, 81005 and 81010, see the determination about allied health services under subsection 3C(1) of the Act.  (3) In item 4001: non‑directive pregnancy support counselling means counselling provided by a general practitioner to a person in which:  (a) information and issues relating to pregnancy are discussed; and  (b) the general practitioner does not impose his or her views or values about what the person should or should not do in relation to the pregnancy.  (4) A service to which item 4001 applies may be used to address any pregnancy‑related issue.   - Group A27—Pregnancy support counselling - 4001 Professional attendance of at least 20 minutes in duration at consulting rooms by a general practitioner (not including a specialist or consultant physician) who is registered with the Chief Executive Medicare as meeting the credentialing requirements for provision of this service for the purpose of providing non‑directive pregnancy support counselling to a person who:(a) is currently pregnant; or(b) has been pregnant in the 12 months preceding the provision of the first service to which this item or item 81000, 81005 or 81010 applies in relation to that pregnancyNote: For items 81000, 81005 and 81010, see the determination about allied health services under subsection 3C(1) of the Act. 76.60 Division 2.27—Group A22: General practitioner after‑hours attendances to which no other item applies 2.27.1  Application of Group A22  (1) Items 5000, 5020, 5040 and 5060 apply only to a professional attendance that is provided:  (a) on a public holiday; or  (b) on a Sunday; or  (c) before 8 am, or after 1 pm, on a Saturday; or  (d) before 8 am, or after 8 pm, on a day other than a day mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (c).  (2) Items 5003, 5010, 5023, 5028, 5043, 5049, 5063 and 5067 apply only to a professional attendance that is provided in an after‑hours period.   - Group A22—General practitioner after‑hours attendances to which no other item applies - 5000 Professional attendance at consulting rooms (other than a service to which another item applies) by a general practitioner for an obvious problem characterised by the straightforward nature of the task that requires a short patient history and, if required, limited examination and management—each attendance 29.00 - 5003 Professional attendance by a general practitioner (other than attendance at consulting rooms, a hospital or a residential aged care facility or a service to which another item in the table applies) that requires a short patient history and, if necessary, limited examination and management—an attendance on one or more patients on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 5010 Professional attendance (other than a service to which another item applies) at a residential aged care facility (other than a professional attendance at a self‑contained unit) or professional attendance at consulting rooms situated within such a complex, if the patient is accommodated in a residential aged care facility (other than accommodation in a self‑contained unit) by a general practitioner for an obvious problem characterised by the straightforward nature of the task that requires a short patient history and, if required, limited examination and management—an attendance on one or more patients at one residential aged care facility on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 5020 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at consulting rooms (other than a service to which another item in the table applies), lasting less than 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—each attendance 49.00 - 5023 Professional attendance by a general practitioner (other than attendance at consulting rooms, a hospital or a residential aged care facility or a service to which another item in the table applies), lasting less than 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—an attendance on one or more patients on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 5028 Professional attendance by a general practitioner (other than a service to which another item in the table applies), at a residential aged care facility to residents of the facility, lasting less than 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—an attendance on one or more patients at one residential aged care facility on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 5040 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at consulting rooms (other than a service to which another item in the table applies), lasting at least 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a detailed patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—each attendance 83.95 - 5043 Professional attendance by a general practitioner (other than attendance at consulting rooms, a hospital or a residential aged care facility or a service to which another item in the table applies), lasting at least 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a detailed patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—an attendance on one or more patients on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 5049 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at a residential aged care facility to residents of the facility (other than a service to which another item in the table applies), lasting at least 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a detailed patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—an attendance on one or more patients at one residential aged care facility on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 5060 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at consulting rooms (other than a service to which another item in the table applies), lasting at least 40 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking an extensive patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—each attendance 117.75 - 5063 Professional attendance by a general practitioner (other than attendance at consulting rooms, a hospital or a residential aged care facility or a service to which another item in the table applies), lasting at least 40 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking an extensive patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—an attendance on one or more patients on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 5067 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at a residential aged care facility to residents of the facility (other than a service to which another item in the table applies), lasting at least 40 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking an extensive patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—an attendance on one or more patients at one residential aged care facility on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 Division 2.28—Group A23: Other non‑referred after‑hours attendances to which no other item applies 2.28.1  Application of Group A23  (1) Items 5200, 5203, 5207 and 5208 apply only to a professional attendance that is provided:  (a) on a public holiday; or  (b) on a Sunday; or  (c) before 8 am, or after 1 pm, on a Saturday; or  (d) before 8 am, or after 8 pm, on a day other than a day mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (c).  (2) Items 5220 to 5267 apply only to a professional attendance that is provided in an after‑hours period.   - Group A23—Other non‑referred after‑hours attendances to which no other item applies - 5200 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of not more than 5 minutes in duration (other than a service to which another item applies) by a medical practitioner (other than a general practitioner)—each attendance 21.00 - 5203 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of more than 5 minutes in duration but not more than 25 minutes in duration (other than a service to which another item applies) by a medical practitioner (other than a general practitioner)—each attendance 31.00 - 5207 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of more than 25 minutes in duration but not more than 45 minutes in duration (other than a service to which another item applies) by a medical practitioner (other than a general practitioner)—each attendance 48.00 - 5208 Professional attendance at consulting rooms of more than 45 minutes in duration (other than a service to which another item applies) by a medical practitioner (other than a general practitioner)—each attendance 71.00 - 5220 Professional attendance by a medical practitioner who is not a general practitioner (other than attendance at consulting rooms, a hospital or a residential aged care facility or a service to which another item in the table applies), lasting not more than 5 minutes—an attendance on one or more patients on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 5223 Professional attendance by a medical practitioner who is not a general practitioner (other than attendance at consulting rooms, a hospital or a residential aged care facility or a service to which another item in the table applies), lasting more than 5 minutes, but not more than 25 minutes—an attendance on one or more patients on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 5227 Professional attendance by a medical practitioner who is not a general practitioner (other than attendance at consulting rooms, a hospital or a residential aged care facility or a service to which another item in the table applies), lasting more than 25 minutes, but not more than 45 minutes—an attendance on one or more patients on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 5228 Professional attendance by a medical practitioner who is not a general practitioner (other than attendance at consulting rooms, a hospital or a residential aged care facility or a service to which another item in the table applies), lasting more than 45 minutes—an attendance on one or more patients on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 5260 Professional attendance (other than a service to which another item applies) at a residential aged care facility (other than a professional attendance at a self‑contained unit) or professional attendance at consulting rooms situated within such a complex if the patient is accommodated in the residential aged care facility (other than accommodation in a self‑contained unit) of not more than 5 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner (other than a general practitioner)—an attendance on one or more patients at one residential aged care facility on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 5263 Professional attendance (other than a service to which another item applies) at a residential aged care facility (other than a professional attendance at a self‑contained unit) or professional attendance at consulting rooms situated within such a complex if the patient is accommodated in the residential aged care facility (other than accommodation in a self‑contained unit) of more than 5 minutes in duration but not more than 25 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner (other than a general practitioner)—an attendance on one or more patients at one residential aged care facility on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 5265 Professional attendance (other than a service to which another item applies) at a residential aged care facility (other than a professional attendance at a self‑contained unit) or professional attendance at consulting rooms situated within such a complex if the patient is accommodated in the residential aged care facility (other than accommodation in a self‑contained unit) of more than 25 minutes in duration but not more than 45 minutes by a medical practitioner (other than a general practitioner)—an attendance on one or more patients at one residential aged care facility on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 - 5267 Professional attendance (other than a service to which another item applies) at a residential aged care facility (other than a professional attendance at a self‑contained unit) or professional attendance at consulting rooms situated within such a complex if the patient is accommodated in the residential aged care facility (other than accommodation in a self‑contained unit) of more than 45 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner (other than a general practitioner)—an attendance on one or more patients at one residential aged care facility on one occasion—each patient Amount under clause 2.1.1 Division 2.29—Group A26: Neurosurgery attendances to which no other item applies 2.29.1  Limitation of items 6004 and 6016   Items 6004 and 6016 do not apply if the patient or specialist travels to a place to satisfy the requirement in:  (a) for item 6004—sub‑subparagraph (c)(i)(B) of the item; and  (b) for item 6016—sub‑subparagraph (d)(i)(B) of the item.   - Group A26—Neurosurgery attendances to which no other item applies - 6004 Initial professional attendance of 10 minutes or less in duration on a patient by a specialist practising in his or her specialty of neurosurgery if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(c) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies; and(d) no other initial consultation has taken place for a single course of treatment 98.65 - 6007 Professional attendance by a specialist in the practice of neurosurgery following referral of the patient to him or her—an attendance (other than a second or subsequent attendance in a single course of treatment) at consulting rooms or hospital 131.55 - 6009 Professional attendance by a specialist in the practice of neurosurgery following referral of the patient to him or her—a minor attendance after the first in a single course of treatment at consulting rooms or hospital 43.65 - 6011 Professional attendance by a specialist in the practice of neurosurgery following referral of the patient to him or her—an attendance after the first in a single course of treatment, involving an extensive and comprehensive examination, arranging any necessary investigations in relation to one or more complex problems and of more than 15 minutes in duration but not more than 30 minutes in duration at consulting rooms or hospital 86.85 - 6013 Professional attendance by a specialist in the practice of neurosurgery following referral of the patient to him or her—an attendance after the first in a single course of treatment, involving a detailed and comprehensive examination, arranging any necessary investigations in relation to one or more complex problems and of more than 30 minutes in duration but not more than 45 minutes in duration at consulting rooms or hospital 120.30 - 6015 Professional attendance by a specialist in the practice of neurosurgery following referral of the patient to him or her—an attendance after the first in a single course of treatment, involving an exhaustive and comprehensive examination, arranging any necessary investigations in relation to one or more complex problems and of more than 45 minutes in duration at consulting rooms or hospital 153.15 - 6016 Professional attendance on a patient by a specialist practising in his or her specialty of neurosurgery if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) the attendance is for a service:(i) provided with item 6007 lasting more than 10 minutes; or(ii) provided with item 6009, 6011, 6013 or 6015; and(c) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(d) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies 50% of the fee for item 6007, 6009, 6011, 6013 or 6015 Division 2.30—Group A9: Contact lenses 2.30.1  Application of item 10809   Item 10809 does not apply if the patient’s requirement for contact lenses is only for any of the following reasons:  (a) because the patient does not want to wear spectacles for reasons of appearance;  (b) because the patient wants contact lenses for work or sporting purposes;  (c) because the patient has difficulty in using, or cannot use, spectacles for psychological reasons.   - Group A9—Contact lenses - 10801 Attendance for the investigation and evaluation of a patient for the fitting of contact lenses, with keratometry and testing with trial lenses and the issue of a prescription—one service in any period of 36 months—patient with myopia of 5.0 dioptres or greater (spherical equivalent) in one eye 123.45 - 10802 Attendance for the investigation and evaluation of a patient for the fitting of contact lenses, with keratometry and testing with trial lenses and the issue of a prescription—one service in any period of 36 months—patient with manifest hyperopia of 5.0 dioptres or greater (spherical equivalent) in one eye 123.45 - 10803 Attendance for the investigation and evaluation of a patient for the fitting of contact lenses, with keratometry and testing with trial lenses and the issue of a prescription—one service in any period of 36 months—patient with astigmatism of 3.0 dioptres or greater in one eye 123.45 - 10804 Attendance for the investigation and evaluation of a patient for the fitting of contact lenses, with keratometry and testing with trial lenses and the issue of a prescription—one service in any period of 36 months—patient with irregular astigmatism in either eye, being a condition the existence of which has been confirmed by keratometric observation, if the maximum visual acuity obtainable with spectacle correction is worse than 0.3 logMAR (6/12) and if that corrected acuity would be improved by an additional 0.1 logMAR by the use of a contact lens 123.45 - 10805 Attendance for the investigation and evaluation of a patient for the fitting of contact lenses, with keratometry and testing with trial lenses and the issue of a prescription—one service in any period of 36 months—patient with anisometropia of 3.0 dioptres or greater (difference between spherical equivalents) 123.45 - 10806 Attendance for the investigation and evaluation of a patient for the fitting of contact lenses, with keratometry and testing with trial lenses and the issue of a prescription—one service in any period of 36 months—patient with corrected visual acuity of 0.7 logMAR (6/30) or worse in both eyes and for whom a contact lens is prescribed as part of a telescopic system 123.45 - 10807 Attendance for the investigation and evaluation of a patient for the fitting of contact lenses, with keratometry and testing with trial lenses and the issue of a prescription—one service in any period of 36 months—patient for whom a wholly or segmentally opaque contact lens is prescribed for the alleviation of dazzle, distortion or diplopia caused by pathological mydriasis, aniridia, coloboma of the iris, pupillary malformation or distortion, significant ocular deformity or corneal opacity—whether congenital, traumatic or surgical in origin 123.45 - 10808 Attendance for the investigation and evaluation of a patient for the fitting of contact lenses, with keratometry and testing with trial lenses and the issue of a prescription—one service in any period of 36 months—patient who, because of physical deformity, are unable to wear spectacles 123.45 - 10809 Attendance for the investigation and evaluation of a patient for the fitting of contact lenses, with keratometry and testing with trial lenses and the issue of a prescription—one service in any period of 36 months—patient with a medical or optical condition (other than myopia, hyperopia, astigmatism, anisometropia or a condition to which item 10806, 10807 or 10808 applies) requiring the use of a contact lens for correction, if the condition is specified on the patient’s account 123.45 - 10816 Attendance for the refitting of contact lenses with keratometry and testing with trial lenses and the issue of a prescription, if the patient requires a change in contact lens material or basic lens parameters, other than simple power change, because of a structural or functional change in the eye or an allergic response within 36 months after the fitting of a contact lens to which items 10801 to 10809 apply 123.45 Division 2.30A—Group A35: Non‑referred attendance at a residential aged care facility 2.30A.1  Fee in relation to the first patient during each attendance at a residential aged care facility  (1) For the first patient attended during one attendance by a general practitioner at one residential aged care facility on one occasion, the fee for the medical service described in whichever of items 90020, 90035, 90043 or 90051 applies is the amount listed in the item plus $55.  (2) For the first patient attended during one attendance by a medical practitioner at one residential aged care facility on one occasion, the fee for the medical service described in whichever of items 90092, 90093, 90095 or 90096 applies is the amount listed in the item plus $40.   - Group A35—Non‑referred attendance at a residential aged care facility - 90020 Professional attendance (other than a service to which another item applies) at a residential aged care facility (other than a professional attendance at a self‑contained unit) or professional attendance at consulting rooms situated within such a complex if the patient is accommodated in a residential aged care facility (other than accommodation in a self‑contained unit) by a general practitioner for an obvious problem characterised by the straightforward nature of the task that requires a short patient history and, if required, limited examination and management—an attendance on one or more patients at one residential aged care facility on one occasion—each patient (subject to clause 2.30A.1) 17.20 - 90035 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at a residential aged care facility to residents of the facility (other than a service to which another item applies), lasting less than 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—an attendance on one or more patients at one residential aged care facility on one occasion—each patient (subject to clause 2.30A.1) 37.60 - 90043 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at a residential aged care facility to residents of the facility (other than a service to which another item applies), lasting at least 20 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking a detailed patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—an attendance on one or more patients at one residential aged care facility on one occasion—each patient (subject to clause 2.30A.1) 72.80 - 90051 Professional attendance by a general practitioner at a residential aged care facility to residents of the facility (other than a service to which another item applies), lasting at least 40 minutes and including any of the following that are clinically relevant:(a) taking an extensive patient history;(b) performing a clinical examination;(c) arranging any necessary investigation;(d) implementing a management plan;(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—an attendance on one or more patients at one residential aged care facility on one occasion—each patient (subject to clause 2.30A.1) 107.15 - 90092 Professional attendance (other than a service to which any other item applies) at a residential aged care facility (other than a professional attendance at a self‑contained unit) or professional attendance at consulting rooms situated within such a complex where the patient is accommodated in the residential aged care facility (that is not accommodation in a self‑contained unit) of not more than 5 minutes in duration—an attendance on one or more patients at one residential aged care facility on one occasion—each patient (subject to clause 2.30A.1), by:(a) a medical practitioner (who is not a general practitioner); or(b) a general practitioner to whom clause 2.3.1 applies 8.50 - 90093 Professional attendance (other than a service to which any other item applies) at a residential aged care facility (other than a professional attendance at a self‑contained unit) or professional attendance at consulting rooms situated within such a complex where the patient is accommodated in the residential aged care facility (that is not accommodation in a self‑contained unit) of more than 5 minutes in duration but not more than 25 minutes—an attendance on one or more patients at one residential aged care facility on one occasion—each patient (subject to clause 2.30A.1), by:(a) a medical practitioner (who is not a general practitioner); or(b) a general practitioner to whom clause 2.3.1 applies 16.00 - 90095 Professional attendance (other than a service to which any other item applies) at a residential aged care facility (other than a professional attendance at a self‑contained unit) or professional attendance at consulting rooms situated within such a complex where the patient is accommodated in the residential aged care facility (that is not accommodation in a self‑contained unit) of more than 25 minutes in duration but not more than 45 minutes—an attendance on one or more patients at one residential aged care facility on one occasion—each patient (subject to clause 2.30A.1), by:(a) a medical practitioner (who is not a general practitioner); or(b) a general practitioner to whom clause 2.3.1 applies 35.50 - 90096 Professional attendance (other than a service to which any other item applies) at a residential aged care facility (other than a professional attendance at a self‑contained unit) or professional attendance at consulting rooms situated within such a complex where the patient is accommodated in the residential aged care facility (that is not accommodation in a self‑contained unit) of more than 45 minutes in duration—an attendance on one or more patients at one residential aged care facility on one occasion—each patient (subject to clause 2.30A.1), by:(a) a medical practitioner (who is not a general practitioner); or(b) a general practitioner to whom clause 2.3.1 applies 57.50 Division 2.31—Miscellaneous services Division 2.32—Group M12: Services provided by a practice nurse, an Aboriginal health worker or an Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioner on behalf of a medical practitioner 2.32.1  Definitions for item 10997   In item 10997: GP management plan means a plan under item 721 or 732 (for coordination of a review of a GP management plan under item 721). multidisciplinary care plan means a plan under item 729 or 731. person with a chronic disease means a person who has a care plan under item 721, 723, 729, 731 or 732. 2.32.2  Application of item 10988  (1) Item 10988 applies to an immunisation provided to a person by an Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioner only if:  (a) the Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioner is appropriately qualified and trained to provide immunisations to persons; and  (b) the medical practitioner under whose supervision the immunisation is provided retains responsibility for the health, safety and clinical outcomes of the person.  (2) If the cost of the vaccine supplied in connection with a service described in item 10988 is not subsidised by the Commonwealth or a State, the service is taken not to include the supply of that vaccine. 2.32.3  Application of item 10989   Item 10989 applies to an Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioner if:  (a) the health practitioner is appropriately qualified and trained to treat wounds; and  (b) a medical practitioner under whose supervision the health practitioner provides the treatment has conducted an initial assessment of the person; and  (c) the health practitioner has been instructed by the medical practitioner about the treatment of the wound; and  (d) the medical practitioner retains responsibility for the health, safety and clinical outcomes of the person. 2.32.4  Limitation of item 10983   Item 10983 does not apply if the patient or the specialist or consultant physician mentioned in paragraph (a) of the item travels to a place to satisfy the requirement in sub‑subparagraph (c)(i)(B) of the item.   - Group M12—Services provided by a practice nurse, an Aboriginal health worker or an Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioner on behalf of a medical practitioner - Subgroup 1—Video conferencing consultation support service provided by a practice nurse, an Aboriginal health worker or an Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioner on behalf of a medical practitioner - 10983 Attendance by a practice nurse, an Aboriginal health worker or an Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioner on behalf of, and under the supervision of, a medical practitioner, to provide clinical support to a patient who:(a) is participating in a video conferencing consultation with a specialist, consultant physician or psychiatrist; and(b) is not an admitted patient; and(c) either:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist, physician or psychiatrist mentioned in paragraph (a); or(ii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies 32.40 - Subgroup 2—Video conferencing consultation support service provided at a residential care service, on behalf of a medical practitioner - 10984 Attendance by a practice nurse, an Aboriginal health worker or an Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioner on behalf of, and under the supervision of, a medical practitioner, to provide clinical support to a patient who:(a) is participating in a video conferencing consultation with a specialist, consultant physician or psychiatrist; and(b) is a care recipient in a residential care service; and(c) is not a resident of a self‑contained unit 32.40 - Subgroup 3—Services provided by a practice nurse or an Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioner on behalf of a medical practitioner - 10987 Follow‑up service, to a maximum of 10 services per patient in a calendar year, provided by a practice nurse or an Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioner, on behalf of a medical practitioner, for an Indigenous person who has received a health check if:(a) the service is provided on behalf of and under the supervision of a medical practitioner; and(b) the person is not an admitted patient of a hospital; and(c) the service is consistent with the needs identified through the health assessment 24.00 - 10988 Immunisation provided to a person by an Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioner if:(a) the immunisation is provided on behalf of, and under the supervision of, a medical practitioner; and(b) the person is not an admitted patient of a hospital 12.00 - 10989 Treatment of a person’s wound (other than normal aftercare) provided by an Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioner if:(a) the treatment is provided on behalf of, and under the supervision of, a medical practitioner; and(b) the person is not an admitted patient of a hospital 12.00 - 10997 Service provided by a practice nurse or an Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioner to a person with a chronic disease, to a maximum of 5 services for each patient in a calendar year, if:(a) the service is provided on behalf of and under the supervision of a medical practitioner; and(b) the person is not an admitted patient of a hospital; and(c) the person has a GP management plan, team care arrangements or multidisciplinary care plan in place and the service is consistent with the plan or arrangements 12.00 Division 2.33—Group M1: Management of bulk‑billed services 2.33.1  Definitions for Division 2.33 ASGC means the July 2010 edition of the Australian Standard Geographical Classification (ASGC) (ABS catalogue number 1216.0), published by the Australian Statistician, as existing on 1 July 2018. bulk‑billed: a medical service is bulk‑billed if:  (a) a medicare benefit is payable to a person in relation to the service; and  (b) under an agreement entered into under section 20A of the Act:  (i) the person assigns to the medical practitioner by whom, or on whose behalf, the service is provided, his or her right to the payment of the medicare benefit; and  (ii) the medical practitioner accepts the assignment in full payment of his or her fee for the service provided. Commonwealth concession card holder means a person who is a concessional beneficiary within the meaning given by subsection 84(1) of the National Health Act 1953. eligible area means:  (a) a regional, rural or remote area; or  (b) Tasmania; or  (c) a geographical area included in any of the following SSD spatial units:  (i) Beaudesert Shire Part A;  (ii) Belconnen;  (iii) Darwin City;  (iv) Eastern Outer Melbourne;  (v) East Metropolitan Perth;  (vi) Frankston City;  (vii) Gosford‑Wyong;  (viii) Greater Geelong City Part A;  (ix) Gungahlin‑Hall;  (x) Ipswich City (Part in BSD);  (xi) Litchfield Shire;  (xii) Melton‑Wyndham;  (xiii) Mornington Peninsula Shire;  (xiv) Newcastle;  (xv) North Canberra;  (xvi) Palmerston‑East Arm;  (xvii) Pine Rivers Shire;  (xviii) Queanbeyan;  (xix) South Canberra;  (xx) South Eastern Outer Melbourne;  (xxi) Southern Adelaide;  (xxii) South West Metropolitan Perth;  (xxiii) Thuringowa City Part A;  (xxiv) Townsville City Part A;  (xxv) Tuggeranong;  (xxvi) Weston Creek‑Stromlo;  (xxvii) Woden Valley;  (xxviii) Yarra Ranges Shire Part A; or  (d) the geographical area included in the SLA spatial unit of Palm Island (AC). practice location, for the provision of a medical service, means the place of practice in relation to which the medical practitioner by whom, or on whose behalf, the service is provided, has been allocated a provider number by the Chief Executive Medicare. SLA means a Statistical Local Area specified in the ASGC. SSD means a Statistical Subdivision specified in the ASGC. unreferred service means a medical service provided to a person by, or on behalf of, a medical practitioner, being a service that has not been referred to that practitioner by another medical practitioner or person with referring rights. 2.33.2  Application of items 10990, 10991 and 10992  (1) If the medical service described in item 10991 is provided to a person, either that item or 10990, but not both those items, applies to the service.  (2) If the medical service described in item 10992 is provided to a person, either that item or 10990, but not both those items, applies to the service.  (3) If item 10990, 10991 or 10992 applies to a medical service, the fee mentioned in that item applies in addition to the fee mentioned in another item in the table that applies to the service.   - Group M1—Management of bulk‑billed services - 10990 A medical service to which an item in the table (other than this item or item 10991 or 10992) applies if:(a) the service is an unreferred service; and(b) the service is provided to a person who is under the age of 16 or is a Commonwealth concession card holder; and(c) the person is not an admitted patient of a hospital; and(d) the service is bulk‑billed in relation to the fees for:(i) this item; and(ii) the other item in the table applying to the service 7.40 - 10991 A medical service to which an item in the table (other than this item or item 10990 or 10992) applies if:(a) the service is an unreferred service; and(b) the service is provided to a person who is under the age of 16 or is a Commonwealth concession card holder; and(c) the person is not an admitted patient of a hospital; and(d) the service is bulk‑billed in relation to the fees for:(i) this item; and(ii) the other item in the table applying to the service; and(e) the service is provided at, or from, a practice location in an eligible area 11.15 - 10992 A medical service to which:(aa) item 585, 588, 591, 594, 599, 600, 5003, 5010, 5023, 5028, 5043, 5049, 5063, 5067, 5220, 5223, 5227, 5228, 5260, 5263, 5265 or 5267 of the table applies; or(ab) item 761, 763, 766, 769, 772, 776, 788 or 789 of a Schedule (within the meaning of the Health Insurance (Section 3C General Medical Services – Other Medical Practitioner) Determination 2018) applies;if:(a) the service is an unreferred service; and(b) the service is provided to a person who is under the age of 16 or is a Commonwealth concession card holder; and(c) the person is not an admitted patient of a hospital; and(d) the service is not provided in consulting rooms; and(e) the service is provided in an eligible area; and(f) the service is provided by, or on behalf of, a medical practitioner whose practice location is not in an eligible area; and(g) the service is bulk‑billed in relation to the fees for:(i) this item; and(ii) the other item in the table applying to the service 11.15 Division 2.34—Diagnostic procedures and investigations Division 2.35—Group D1: Miscellaneous diagnostic procedures and investigations 2.35.1  Meaning of report report means a report prepared by a medical practitioner. 2.35.2  Meaning of qualified sleep medicine practitioner  (1) In items 12213 and 12217: qualified sleep medicine practitioner means a qualified adult sleep medicine practitioner or a qualified paediatric sleep medicine practitioner.  (2) In items 12210 and 12215:  (a) means a qualified paediatric sleep medicine practitioner; and  (b) does not include a qualified adult sleep medicine practitioner.  (3) In items 12203, 12204, 12205, 12207, 12208 and 12250:  (a) means a qualified adult sleep medicine practitioner; and  (b) does not include a qualified paediatric sleep medicine practitioner.  (4) A person is a qualified adult sleep medicine practitioner or a qualified paediatric sleep medicine practitioner if:  (a) the person has been assessed by the Credentialling Subcommittee or the Appeal Committee as having had, before 1 March 1999, sufficient training and experience in the relevant field of sleep medicine to be competent in independent clinical assessment and management of patients with respiratory sleep disorders and in reporting sleep studies; or  (b) the person:  (i) has been assessed by the Credentialling Subcommittee or the Appeal Committee as having had, before 1 March 1999, substantial training or experience in adult sleep medicine, but requiring further specified training or experience in the relevant field of sleep medicine to be competent in independent clinical assessment and management of patients with respiratory sleep disorders and in reporting sleep studies; and  (A) the period of 2 years immediately following that assessment has not expired; or  (B) the person has been assessed by the Credentialling Subcommittee as having satisfactorily finished the further training or gained the further experience specified for that person; or  (c) the person has attained Level I or Level II of the relevant Advanced Training Program of the Thoracic Society of Australia and New Zealand and the Australasian Sleep Association, after having completed at least 12 months core training, including clinical practice in the relevant field of sleep medicine and in reporting sleep studies; or  (d) the Advisory Committee has recognised the person, in writing, as having training equivalent to the training mentioned in paragraph (c).  (5) In this clause: Advisory Committee means the Specialist Advisory Committee in Thoracic and Sleep Medicine of the Royal Australasian College of Physicians. Appeal Committee means the Appeal Committee of the Royal Australasian College of Physicians. Credentialling Subcommittee means the Credentialling Subcommittee of the Advisory Committee. relevant Advanced Training Program means:  (a) for an assessment for qualification as a qualified adult sleep medicine practitioner—the Advanced Training Program in Adult Sleep Medicine; or  (b) for an assessment for qualification as a qualified paediatric sleep medicine practitioner—the Advanced Training Program in Paediatric Sleep Medicine. relevant field of sleep medicine means:  (a) for an assessment for qualification as a qualified adult sleep medicine practitioner—adult sleep medicine; or  (b) for an assessment for qualification as a qualified paediatric sleep medicine practitioner—paediatric sleep medicine. 2.35.2A  Meaning of Berlin Questionnaire Berlin Questionnaire means the questionnaire adapted from Table 2 in Using the Berlin Questionnaire to identify patients at risk for the sleep apnea syndrome, Netzer, et al, as published in the Annals of Internal Medicine, 1999 Oct 5;131(7):486‑91, as existing on 1 November 2018. 2.35.2B  Meaning of Epworth Sleepiness Scale Epworth Sleepiness Scale means the Epworth Sleepiness Scale, developed by M.W. Johns, as existing on 1 November 2018. Note: The Epworth Sleepiness Scale could in 2018 be viewed on the Epworth Sleepiness Scale website (http://www.epworthsleepinessscale.com). 2.35.2C  Meaning of OSA50 OSA50 means the OSA50 screening questionnaire, developed by the Adelaide Institute for Sleep Health, as existing on 1 November 2018. 2.35.2D  Meaning of STOP‑Bang STOP‑Bang means the STOP‑Bang Questionnaire, developed by Frances Chung MBBS, FRCPC, as existing on 1 November 2018. Note: The STOP‑Bang Questionnaire could in 2018 be viewed on the Official STOP‑Bang Tool Website (http://www.stopbang.ca). 2.35.3  Application of item 11801   Item 11801 does not apply to a service mentioned in the item if the service is undertaken in association with a service mentioned in item 11800, 11810, 11820, 11823, 11830 or 11833. 2.35.4  Application of items 12306 to 12322  (1) Items 12306 to 12322 apply to a service for a patient only as set out in this clause.  (2) Subject to subclause (4), the items apply to a service that is provided by a specialist or consultant physician to whom the patient has been referred by another medical practitioner.  (3) Subject to subclause (4), the items also apply to a service that is provided as follows:  (a) a person (the radiation licence holder) who holds a radiation licence under a law of a State or Territory performs the service (other than interpretation and reporting) under the supervision of a specialist or consultant physician;  (b) the specialist or consultant physician performs the interpretation and reporting for the service;  (c) the radiation licence authorises the radiation licence holder to undertake the activities involved in performing the service (other than interpretation and reporting);  (d) the patient has been referred to the specialist or consultant physician by another medical practitioner;  (e) for items 12320 and 12322—if the service is performed using quantitative computed tomography:  (i) the radiation licence holder is registered as a medical radiation practitioner under a law of a State or Territory; and  (ii) the specialist or consultant physician is available to monitor and influence the conduct and diagnostic quality of the examination and, if necessary, to attend on the patient personally.  (4) Items 12312 and 12315 apply to a service for a patient only if:  (a) the patient has a condition mentioned in the item to which the service relates; and  (b) the performing of the service will contribute to the management of that condition.   - Group D1—Miscellaneous diagnostic procedures and investigations - Subgroup 1—Neurology - 11000 Electroencephalography, other than a service:(a) associated with a service to which item 11003, 11006 or 11009 applies; or(b) involving quantitative topographic mapping using neurometrics or similar devices (Anaes.) 123.10 - 11003 Electroencephalography, prolonged recording of at least 3 hours in duration, other than a service:(a) associated with a service to which item 11000, 11004, 11005, 11006 or 11009 applies; or(b) involving quantitative topographic mapping using neurometrics or similar devices 325.70 - 11004 Electroencephalography, ambulatory or video, prolonged recording of at least 3 hours in duration up to 24 hours in duration, recording on the first day, other than a service:(a) associated with a service to which item 11000, 11003, 11005, 11006 or 11009 applies; or(b) involving quantitative topographic mapping using neurometrics or similar devices 325.70 - 11005 Electroencephalography, ambulatory or video, prolonged recording of at least 3 hours in duration up to 24 hours in duration, recording on each day after the first day, other than a service:(a) associated with a service to which item 11000, 11003, 11004, 11006 or 11009 applies; or(b) involving quantitative topographic mapping using neurometrics or similar devices 325.70 - 11006 Electroencephalography, temporosphenoidal, other than a service involving quantitative topographic mapping using neurometrics or similar devices 167.00 - 11009 Electrocorticography 227.75 - 11012 Neuromuscular electrodiagnosis—conduction studies on one nerve or electromyography of one or more muscles using concentric needle electrodes or both these examinations (other than a service associated with a service to which item 11015 or 11018 applies) 112.00 - 11015 Neuromuscular electrodiagnosis—conduction studies on 2 or 3 nerves with or without electromyography (other than a service associated with a service to which item 11012 or 11018 applies) 149.90 - 11018 Neuromuscular electrodiagnosis—conduction studies on 4 or more nerves with or without electromyography or recordings from single fibres of nerves and muscles or both of these examinations (other than a service associated with a service to which item 11012 or 11015 applies) 223.95 - 11021 Neuromuscular electrodiagnosis—repetitive stimulation for study of neuromuscular conduction or electromyography with quantitative computerised analysis or both of these examinations 149.90 - 11024 Central nervous system evoked responses, investigation of, by computerised averaging techniques, other than a service involving quantitative topographic mapping of event‑related potentials or involving multifocal multichannel objective perimetry—one or 2 studies 113.85 - 11027 Central nervous system evoked responses, investigation of, by computerised averaging techniques, other than a service involving quantitative topographic mapping of event‑related potentials or involving multifocal multichannel objective perimetry—3 or more studies 168.90 - Subgroup 2—Ophthalmology - 11200 Provocative test or tests for open angle glaucoma, including water drinking 40.80 - 11204 Electroretinography of one or both eyes by computerised averaging techniques, including 3 or more studies performed according to current professional guidelines or standards, performed by or on behalf of a specialist or consultant physician in the practice of his or her speciality 108.25 - 11205 Electrooculography of one or both eyes performed according to current professional guidelines or standards, performed by or on behalf of a specialist or consultant physician in the practice of his or her speciality 108.25 - 11210 Pattern electroretinography of one or both eyes by computerised averaging techniques, including 3 or more studies performed according to current professional guidelines or standards 108.25 - 11211 Dark adaptometry of one or both eyes with a quantitative estimation of threshold in log lumens at 45 minutes of dark adaptations 108.25 - 11215 Retinal angiography, multiple exposures, of one eye with intravenous dye injection 123.00 - 11218 Retinal angiography, multiple exposures of both eyes with intravenous dye injection 151.95 - 11220 Optical coherence tomography, to a maximum of one service per eye per lifetime, for the assessment of the need for treatment following provision of pharmaceutical benefits scheme‑subsidised ocriplasmin 40.00 - 11221 Full quantitative computerised perimetry (automated absolute static threshold), other than a service involving multifocal multichannel objective perimetry, performed by or on behalf of a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, if indicated by the presence of relevant ocular disease or suspected pathology of the visual pathways or brain with assessment and report, bilateral—to a maximum of 3 examinations (including examinations to which item 11224 applies) in any 12 month period 67.75 - 11224 Full quantitative computerised perimetry (automated absolute static threshold), other than a service involving multifocal multichannel objective perimetry, performed by or on behalf of a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, if indicated by the presence of relevant ocular disease or suspected pathology of the visual pathways or brain with assessment and report, unilateral—to a maximum of 3 examinations (including examinations to which item 11221 applies) in any 12 month period 40.85 - 11235 Examination of the eye by impression cytology of cornea for the investigation of ocular surface dysplasia, including the collection of cells, processing and all cytological examinations and preparation of report 122.75 - 11237 Ocular contents, simultaneous ultrasonic echography by both unidimensional and bidimensional techniques, for the diagnosis, monitoring or measurement of choroidal and ciliary body melanomas, retinoblastoma or suspicious naevi or simulating lesions, one eye, other than a service associated with a service to which an item in Group I1 of the diagnostic imaging services table applies 81.45 - 11240 Orbital contents, unidimensional ultrasonic echography or partial coherence interferometry of, for the measurement of one eye before lens surgery on that eye, other than a service associated with a service to which an item in Group I1 of the diagnostic imaging services table applies 81.45 - 11241 Orbital contents, unidimensional ultrasonic echography or partial coherence interferometry of, for bilateral eye measurement before lens surgery on both eyes, other than a service associated with a service to which an item in Group I1 of the diagnostic imaging services table applies 103.65 - 11242 Orbital contents, unidimensional ultrasonic echography or partial coherence interferometry of, for the measurement of an eye previously measured and on which lens surgery has been performed, and if further lens surgery is contemplated in that eye, other than a service associated with a service to which an item in Group I1 of the diagnostic imaging services table applies 80.10 - 11243 Orbital contents, unidimensional ultrasonic echography or partial coherence interferometry of, for the measurement of a second eye if:(a) surgery for the first eye has resulted in more than one dioptre of error; or(b) more than 3 years have elapsed since the surgery for the first eye;other than a service associated with a service to which an item in Group I1 of the diagnostic imaging services table applies 80.10 - 11244 Orbital contents, diagnostic B‑scan of, by a specialist practising in his or her specialty of ophthalmology, not being a service associated with a service to which an item in Group I1 of the diagnostic imaging services table applies 77.00 - Subgroup 3—Otolaryngology - 11300 Brain stem evoked response audiometry (Anaes.) 192.45 - 11303 Electrocochleography, extratympanic method, one or both ears 192.45 - 11304 Electrocochleography, transtympanic membrane insertion technique, one or both ears 316.95 - 11306 Non‑determinate audiometry 21.90 - 11309 Audiogram, air conduction 26.30 - 11312 Audiogram, air and bone conduction or air conduction and speech discrimination 37.15 - 11315 Audiogram, air and bone conduction and speech 49.20 - 11318 Audiogram, air and bone conduction and speech, with other cochlear tests 60.75 - 11324 Impedance audiogram involving tympanometry and measurement of static compliance and acoustic reflex performed by, or on behalf of, a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, if the patient is referred by a medical practitioner—other than a service associated with a service to which item 11309, 11312, 11315 or 11318 applies 32.85 - 11327 Impedance audiogram involving tympanometry and measurement of static compliance and acoustic reflex performed by, or on behalf of, a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, if the patient is referred by a medical practitioner—being a service associated with a service to which item 11309, 11312, 11315 or 11318 applies 19.75 - 11330 Impedance audiogram if the patient is not referred by a medical practitioner—one examination in any 4 week period 7.90 - 11332 Oto‑acoustic emission audiometry for the detection of permanent congenital hearing impairment, performed by or on behalf of a specialist or consultant physician, on an infant or child in circumstances in which:(a) the patient is referred to a specialist or consultant physician by a medical practitioner; and(b) the specialist or consultant physician has given an opinion that excludes middle ear pathology for the patient; and(c) the patient is at risk due to one or more of the following factors:(i) admission to a neonatal intensive care unit;(ii) family history of hearing impairment;(iii) intra‑uterine or perinatal infection (either suspected or confirmed);(iv) birthweight less than 1.5 kg;(v) craniofacial deformity;(vi) birth asphyxia;(vii) chromosomal abnormality, including Down Syndrome;(viii) exchange transfusion 58.55 - 11333 Caloric test of labyrinth or labyrinths 44.60 - 11336 Simultaneous bithermal caloric test of labyrinths 44.60 - 11339 Electronystagmography 44.60 - Subgroup 4—Respiratory - 11503 Complex measurement of properties of the respiratory system, including the lungs and respiratory muscles, that is performed:(a) in a respiratory laboratory; and(b) under the supervision of a consultant respiratory physician who is responsible for staff training, supervision, quality assurance and the issuing of written reports on tests performed; and(c) using any of the following tests:(i) measurement of absolute lung volumes by any method;(ii) measurement of carbon monoxide diffusing capacity by any method;(iii) measurement of airway or pulmonary resistance by any method;(iv) inhalation provocation testing, including pre‑provocation spirometry and the construction of a dose response curve, using a recognised direct or indirect bronchoprovocation agent and post‑bronchodilator spirometry;(v) provocation testing involving sequential measurement of lung function at baseline and after exposure to specific sensitising agents, including drugs, or occupational asthma triggers;(vi) spirometry performed before and after simple exercise testing undertaken as a provocation test for the investigation of asthma, in premises equipped with resuscitation equipment and personnel trained in Advanced Life Support;(vii) measurement of the strength of inspiratory and expiratory muscles at multiple lung volumes;(viii) simulated altitude test involving exposure to hypoxic gas mixtures and oxygen saturation at rest and/or during exercise with or without an observation of the effect of supplemental oxygen;(ix) calculation of pulmonary or cardiac shunt by measurement of arterial oxygen partial pressure and haemoglobin concentration following the breathing of an inspired oxygen concentration of 100% for a duration of 15 minutes or greater;(x) if the measurement is for the purpose of determining eligibility for pulmonary arterial hypertension medications subsidised under the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme or eligibility for the provision of portable oxygen—functional exercise test by any method (including 6 minute walk test and shuttle walk test);each occasion at which one or more tests are performedNot applicable to a service performed in association with a spirometry or sleep study service to which item 11505, 11506, 11507, 11508, 11512, 12203, 12204, 12205, 12207, 12208, 12210, 12213, 12215, 12217 or 12250 appliesNot applicable to a service to which item 11507 applies 138.65 - 11505 Measurement of spirometry, that:(a) involves a permanently recorded tracing, performed before and after inhalation of a bronchodilator; and(b) is performed to confirm diagnosis of:(i) asthma; or(ii) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD); or(iii) another cause of airflow limitation;each occasion at which 3 or more recordings are madeApplicable only once in any 12 month period 41.10 - 11506 Measurement of spirometry, that:(a) involves a permanently recorded tracing, performed before and after inhalation of a bronchodilator; and(b) is performed to:(i) confirm diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD); or(ii) assess acute exacerbations of asthma; or(iii) monitor asthma and COPD; or(iv) assess other causes of obstructive lung disease or the presence of restrictive lung disease;each occasion at which recordings are made 20.55 - 11507 Measurement of spirometry:(a) that includes continuous measurement of the relationship between flow and volume during expiration or during expiration and inspiration, performed before and after inhalation of a bronchodilator; and(b) fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) concentration in exhaled breath;if:(c) the measurement is performed:(i) under the supervision of a specialist or consultant physician; and(ii) with continuous attendance by a respiratory scientist; and(iii) in a respiratory laboratory equipped to perform complex lung function tests; and(d) a permanently recorded tracing and written report is provided; and(e) 3 or more spirometry recordings are performed unless difficult to achieve for clinical reasons;each occasion at which one or more such tests are performedNot applicable to a service associated with a service to which item 11503, 11512 or 22018 applies 100.20 - 11508 Maximal symptom‑limited incremental exercise test using a calibrated cycle ergometer or treadmill, if:(a) the test is performed for the evaluation of:(i) breathlessness of uncertain cause from tests performed at rest; or(ii) breathlessness out of proportion with impairment due to known conditions; or(iii) functional status and prognosis in a patient with significant cardiac or pulmonary disease for whom complex procedures such as organ transplantation are considered; or(iv) anaesthetic and peri‑operative risks in a patient undergoing major surgery who is assessed as substantially above average risk after standard evaluation; and(b) the test has been requested by a specialist or consultant physician following professional attendance on the patient by the specialist or consultant physician; and(c) a respiratory scientist and a medical practitioner are in constant attendance during the test; and(d) the test is performed in a respiratory laboratory equipped with airway management and defibrillator equipment; and(e) there is continuous measurement of at least the following:(i) work rate;(ii) pulse oximetry;(iii) respired oxygen and carbon dioxide partial pressures and respired volumes;(iv) ECG;(v) heart rate and blood pressure; and(f) interpretation and preparation of a permanent report is provided by a consultant respiratory physician who is also responsible for the supervision of technical staff and quality assurance 290.80 - 11512 Measurement of spirometry:(a) that includes continuous measurement of the relationship between flow and volume during expiration or during expiration and inspiration, performed before and after inhalation of a bronchodilator; and(b) that is performed with a respiratory scientist in continuous attendance; and(c) that is performed in a respiratory laboratory equipped to perform complex lung function tests; and(d) that is performed under the supervision of a consultant physician practising respiratory medicine who is responsible for staff training, supervision, quality assurance and the issuing of written reports; and(e) for which a permanently recorded tracing and written report is provided; and(f) for which 3 or more spirometry recordings are performed;each occasion at which one or more such tests are performedNot applicable for a service associated with a service to which item 11503, 11507 or 22018 applies 61.75 - Subgroup 5—Vascular - 11600 Central venous, pulmonary arterial, systemic arterial or cardiac intracavity blood pressure monitoring by indwelling catheter—once per day for each type of pressure for a patient, other than a service:(a) associated with the management of general anaesthesia; and(b) to which item 13876 applies 69.30 - 11602 Investigation of venous reflux or obstruction in one or more limbs at rest by CW Doppler or pulsed Doppler involving examination at multiple sites along each limb using intermittent limb compression or Valsalva manoeuvres, or both, to detect prograde and retrograde flow, other than a service associated with a service to which item 32500 applies—hard copy trace and written report, the report component of which must be performed by a medical practitioner, maximum of 2 examinations in a 12 month period, not to be used in conjunction with sclerotherapy 57.75 - 11604 Investigation of chronic venous disease in the upper and lower extremities, one or more limbs, by plethysmography (excluding photoplethysmography)—examination, hard copy trace and written report, not being a service associated with a service to which item 32500 applies 75.70 - 11605 Investigation of complex chronic lower limb reflux or obstruction, in one or more limbs, by infrared photoplethysmography, during and following exercise to determine surgical intervention or the conservative management of deep venous thrombotic disease—hard copy trace, calculation of 90% recovery time and written report, not being a service associated with a service to which item 32500 applies 75.70 - 11610 Measurement of ankle—brachial indices and arterial waveform analysis, measurement of posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis (or toe) and brachial arterial pressures bilaterally using Doppler or plethysmographic techniques, the calculation of ankle (or toe) brachial systolic pressure indices and assessment of arterial waveforms for the evaluation of lower extremity arterial disease—examination, hard copy trace and report 63.75 - 11611 Measurement of wrist—brachial indices and arterial waveform analysis, measurement of radial and ulnar (or finger) and brachial arterial pressures bilaterally using Doppler or plethysmographic techniques, the calculation of the wrist (or finger) brachial systolic pressure indices and assessment of arterial waveforms for the evaluation of upper extremity arterial disease—examination, hard copy trace and report 63.75 - 11612 Exercise study for the evaluation of lower extremity arterial disease, measurement of posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis (or toe) and brachial arterial pressures bilaterally using Doppler or plethysmographic techniques, the calculation of ankle (or toe) brachial systolic pressure indices for the evaluation of lower extremity arterial disease at rest and following exercise using a treadmill or bicycle ergometer or other such equipment, if the exercise workload is quantifiably documented—examination and report 112.40 - 11614 Transcranial doppler, examination of the intracranial arterial circulation using CW Doppler or pulsed Doppler with hard copy recording of waveforms, examination and report, other than a service associated with a service to which item 55229 or 55280 of the diagnostic imaging services table applies 75.70 - 11615 Measurement of digital temperature, one or more digits, (unilateral or bilateral) and report, with hard copy recording of temperature before and for 10 minutes or more after cold stress testing 75.90 - 11627 Pulmonary artery pressure monitoring during open heart surgery, in a person under 12 years of age 228.65 - Subgroup 6—Cardiovascular - 11700 Twelve‑lead electrocardiography, tracing and report 31.25 - 11701 Twelve‑lead electrocardiography, report only if the tracing has been forwarded to another medical practitioner, not in association with a consultation on the same occasion 15.55 - 11702 Twelve‑lead electrocardiography, tracing only 15.55 - 11708 Continuous ECG recording of ambulatory patient for 12 or more hours (including resting ECG and the recording of parameters), not in association with ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, involving microprocessor based analysis equipment, interpretation and report of recordings by a specialist physician or consultant physicianNot being a service to which item 11709 appliesThe changing of a tape or batteries does not constitute a separate service. If a recording is analysed and reported on and a decision is made to undertake a further period of monitoring, the second episode is regarded as a separate service 127.90 - 11709 Continuous ECG recording (Holter) of ambulatory patient for 12 or more hours (including resting ECG and the recording of parameters), not in association with ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, utilising a system capable of superimposition and full disclosure printout of at least 12 hours of recorded ECG data, microprocessor based scanning analysis, with interpretation and report by a specialist physician or consultant physicianThe changing of a tape or batteries does not constitute a separate service. If a recording is analysed and reported on and a decision is made to undertake a further period of monitoring, the second episode is regarded as a separate service 167.45 - 11710 Ambulatory ECG monitoring, patient activated, single or multiple event recording, utilising a looping memory recording device which is connected continuously to the patient for 12 hours or more and is capable of recording for at least 20 seconds before each activation and for 15 seconds after each activation, including transmission, analysis, interpretation and report—applicable once in any 4 week period 51.90 - 11711 Ambulatory ECG monitoring for 12 hours or more, patient activated, single or multiple event recording, utilising a memory recording device which is capable of recording for at least 30 seconds after each activation, including transmission, analysis, interpretation and report—applicable once in any 4 week period 28.30 - 11712 Multi channel ECG monitoring and recording during exercise (motorised treadmill or cycle ergometer capable of quantifying external workload in watts) or pharmacological stress, involving the continuous attendance of a medical practitioner for not less than 20 minutes, with resting ECG, and with or without continuous blood pressure monitoring and the recording of other parameters, on premises equipped with mechanical respirator and defibrillator 152.15 - 11713 Signal averaged ECG recording involving not more than 300 beats, using at least 3 leads with data acquisition at not less than 1000Hz of at least 100 QRS complexes, including analysis, interpretation and report of recording by a specialist physician or consultant physician 69.75 - 11715 Blood dye—dilution indicator test 120.75 - 11718 Implanted pacemaker testing involving electrocardiography, measurement of rate, width and amplitude of stimulus, including reprogramming when required, other than a service associated with a service to which item 11700, 11719, 11720, 11721, 11725 or 11726 applies 34.75 - 11719 Implanted pacemaker (including cardiac resynchronisation pacemaker) remote monitoring involving reviews (without patient attendance) of arrhythmias, lead and device parameters, if at least one remote review is provided in a 12 month periodApplicable once in any 12 month period 66.85 - 11720 Implanted pacemaker testing, with patient attendance, following detection of abnormality by remote monitoring involving electrocardiography, measurement of rate, width and amplitude of stimulus, including reprogramming when required, not being a service associated with a service to which item 11718 or 11721 applies 66.85 - 11721 Implanted pacemaker testing of atrioventricular (AV) sequential, rate responsive, or antitachycardia pacemakers, including reprogramming when required, other than a service associated with a service to which item 11700, 11718, 11719, 11720, 11725 or 11726 applies 69.75 - 11722 Implanted ECG loop recording for the investigation of recurrent unexplained syncope if:(a) a diagnosis has not been achieved through all other available cardiac investigations; and(b) a neurogenic cause is not suspected; and(c) the patient to whom the service is provided does not have a structural heart defect associated with a high risk of sudden cardiac death;including reprogramming when required, retrieval of stored data, analysis, interpretation and report, other than a service to which item 38285 applies 34.75 - 11724 Upright tilt table testing for the investigation of syncope of suspected cardiothoracic origin, including blood pressure monitoring, continuous ECG monitoring and the recording of the parameters, and involving an established intravenous line and the continuous attendance of a specialist or consultant physician—on premises equipped with a mechanical respirator and defibrillator 168.90 - 11725 Implanted defibrillator (including cardiac resynchronisation defibrillator) remote monitoring involving reviews (without patient attendance) of arrhythmias, lead and device parameters, if at least 2 remote reviews are provided in a 12 month periodApplicable once in any 12 month period 189.50 - 11726 Implanted defibrillator testing, with patient attendance, following detection of abnormality by remote monitoring involving electrocardiography, measurement of rate, width and amplitude of stimulus, not being a service associated with a service to which item 11727 applies 94.75 - 11727 Implanted defibrillator testing involving electrocardiography, assessment of pacing and sensing thresholds for pacing and defibrillation electrodes, download and interpretation of stored events and electrograms, including programming when required, other than a service associated with a service to which item 11700, 11718, 11719, 11720, 11721, 11725 or 11726 applies 94.75 - 11728 Implanted loop recording for the investigation of atrial fibrillation if the patient to whom the service is provided has been diagnosed as having had an embolic stroke of undetermined source, including reprogramming when required, retrieval of stored data, analysis, interpretation and report, other than a service to which item 38288 appliesFor any particular patient—applicable not more than 4 times in any 12 months 34.75 - Subgroup 7—Gastroenterology and colorectal - 11800 Oesophageal motility test, manometric 174.45 - 11801 Clinical assessment of gastro‑oesophageal reflux disease that involves 48‑hour catheter‑free wireless ambulatory oesophageal pH monitoring, including administration of the device and associated endoscopy procedure for placement, analysis and interpretation of the data and all attendances for providing the service, if:(a) a catheter‑based ambulatory oesophageal pH monitoring:(i) has been attempted on the patient but failed due to clinical complications; or(ii) is not clinically appropriate for the patient due to anatomical reasons (nasopharyngeal anatomy) preventing the use of catheter‑based pH monitoring; and(b) the service is performed by a specialist or consultant physician with endoscopic training that is recognised by the Conjoint Committee for the Recognition of Training in Gastrointestinal Endoscopy (Anaes.) 263.00 - 11810 Clinical assessment of gastro‑oesophageal reflux disease involving 24‑hour pH monitoring, including analysis, interpretation and report and including any associated consultation 174.45 - 11820 Capsule endoscopy to investigate an episode of obscure gastrointestinal bleeding, using a capsule endoscopy device (including administration of the capsule, associated endoscopy procedure if required for placement, imaging, image reading and interpretation, and all attendances for providing the service on the day the capsule is administered) if:(a) the service is provided to a patient who:(i) has overt gastrointestinal bleeding; or(ii) has gastrointestinal bleeding that is recurrent or persistent, and iron deficiency anaemia that is not due to coeliac disease, and, if the patient also has menorrhagia, has had the menorrhagia considered and managed; and(b) an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and a colonoscopy have been performed on the patient and have not identified the cause of the bleeding; and(c) the service has not been provided to the same patient on more than 2 occasions in the preceding 12 months; and(d) the service is performed by a specialist or consultant physician with endoscopic training that is recognised by the Conjoint Committee for the Recognition of Training in Gastrointestinal Endoscopy; and(e) the service is not associated with a service to which item 30680, 30682, 30684 or 30686 applies 1,229.35 - 11823 Capsule endoscopy to conduct small bowel surveillance of a patient diagnosed with Peutz‑Jeghers Syndrome, using a capsule endoscopy device approved by the Therapeutic Goods Administration (including administration of the capsule, imaging, image reading and interpretation, and all attendances for providing the service on the day the capsule is administered) if:(a) the service is performed by a specialist or consultant physician with endoscopic training that is recognised by the Conjoint Committee for the Recognition of Training in Gastrointestinal Endoscopy; and(b) the item is performed only once in any 2 year period; and(c) the service is not associated with balloon enteroscopy 1,229.35 - 11830 Diagnosis of abnormalities of the pelvic floor involving anal manometry or measurement of anorectal sensation or measurement of the rectosphincteric reflex 186.80 - 11833 Diagnosis of abnormalities of the pelvic floor and sphincter muscles involving electromyography or measurement of pudendal and spinal nerve motor latency 249.75 - Subgroup 8—Genito‑urinary physiological investigations - 11900 Urine flow study including peak urine flow measurement, other than a service associated with a service to which item 11919 applies 27.55 - 11903 Cystometrography, other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 11012 to 11027, 11912, 11915, 11919, 11921 and 36800 or an item in Group I3 of the diagnostic imaging services table applies 111.10 - 11906 Urethral pressure profilometry, other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 11012 to 11027, 11909, 11919, 11921 and 36800 or an item in Group I3 of the diagnostic imaging services table applies 111.10 - 11909 Urethral pressure profilometry with simultaneous measurement of urethral sphincter electromyography, other than a service associated with a service to which item 11906, 11915, 11919, 36800 or an item in Group I3 of the diagnostic imaging services table applies 165.15 - 11912 Cystometrography with simultaneous measurement of rectal pressure, other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 11012 to 11027, 11903, 11915, 11919, 11921 and 36800 or an item in Group I3 of the diagnostic imaging services table applies (Anaes.) 165.15 - 11915 Cystometrography with simultaneous measurement of urethral sphincter electromyography, other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 11012 to 11027, 11903, 11909, 11912, 11919, 11921 and 36800 or an item in Group I3 of the diagnostic imaging services table applies (Anaes.) 165.15 - 11917 Cystometrography in conjunction with ultrasound of one or more components of the urinary tract, with measurement of any one or more of urine flow rate, urethral pressure profile, rectal pressure, urethral sphincter electromyography; including all imaging associated with cystometrography, other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 11012 to 11027, 11900 to 11915, 11919, 11921 and 36800 applies (Anaes.) 428.35 - 11919 Cystometrography in conjunction with contrast micturating cystourethrography, with measurement of any one or more of urine flow rate, urethral pressure profile, rectal pressure, urethral sphincter electromyography; including all imaging associated with cystometrography, other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 11012 to 11027, 11900 to 11917, 11921 and 36800 applies (Anaes.) 428.35 - 11921 Bladder washout test for localisation of urinary infection—not including bacterial counts for organisms in specimens 75.05 - Subgroup 9—Allergy testing - 12000 Skin prick testing for aeroallergens by a specialist or consultant physician in the practice of the specialist or consultant physician’s specialty, including all allergens tested on the same day, not being a service associated with a service to which item 12001, 12002, 12005, 12012, 12017, 12021, 12022 or 12024 applies 38.95 - 12001 Skin prick testing for aeroallergens, including all allergens tested on the same day, not being a service associated with a service to which item 12000, 12002, 12005, 12012, 12017, 12021, 12022 or 12024 applies.Applicable only once in any 12 month period 38.95 - 12002 Repeat skin prick testing of a patient for aeroallergens, including all allergens tested on the same day, if:(a) further testing for aeroallergens is indicated in the same 12 month period to which item 12001 applies to a service for the patient; and(b) the service is not associated with a service to which item 12000, 12001, 12005, 12012, 12017, 12021, 12022 or 12024 appliesApplicable only once in any 12 month period 38.95 - 12003 Skin prick testing for food and latex allergens, including all allergens tested on the same day, not being a service associated with a service to which item 12012, 12017, 12021, 12022 or 12024 applies 38.95 - 12004 Skin testing for medication allergens (antibiotics or non‑general anaesthetics agents) and venoms (including prick testing and intradermal testing with a number of dilutions), including all allergens tested on the same day, not being a service associated with a service to which item 12012, 12017, 12021, 12022 or 12024 applies 58.85 - 12005 Skin testing:(a) performed by or on behalf of a specialist or consultant physician in the practice of the specialist or consultant physician’s specialty; and(b) for agents used in the perioperative period (including prick testing and intradermal testing with a number of dilutions), to investigate anaphylaxis in a patient with a history of prior anaphylactic reaction or cardiovascular collapse associated with the administration of an anaesthetic; and(c) including all allergens tested on the same day; and(d) not being a service associated with a service to which item 12000, 12001, 12002, 12003, 12012, 12017, 12021, 12022 or 12024 applies 79.20 - 12012 Epicutaneous patch testing in the investigation of allergic dermatitis using not more than 25 allergens 20.80 - 12017 Epicutaneous patch testing in the investigation of allergic dermatitis using more than 25 allergens but not more than 50 allergens 70.30 - 12021 Epicutaneous patch testing in the investigation of allergic dermatitis, performed by or on behalf of a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty, using more than 50 allergens but not more than 75 allergens 115.50 - 12022 Epicutaneous patch testing in the investigation of allergic dermatitis, performed by or on behalf of a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty, using more than 75 allergens but not more than 100 allergens 135.65 - 12024 Epicutaneous patch testing in the investigation of allergic dermatitis, performed by or on behalf of a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty, using more than 100 allergens 154.50 - Subgroup 10—Other diagnostic procedures and investigations - 12200 Collection of specimen of sweat by iontophoresis 37.20 - 12201 Administration, by a specialist or consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty, of thyrotropin alfa‑rch (recombinant human thyroid‑stimulating hormone), and arranging services to which items 61426 and 66650 apply, for the detection of recurrent well‑differentiated thyroid cancer in a patient if:(a) the patient has had a total thyroidectomy and one ablative dose of radioactive iodine; and(b) the patient is maintained on thyroid hormone therapy; and(c) the patient is at risk of recurrence; and(d) on at least one previous whole body scan or serum thyroglobulin test when withdrawn from thyroid hormone therapy, the patient did not have evidence of well‑differentiated thyroid cancer; and(e) either:(i) withdrawal from thyroid hormone therapy resulted in severe psychiatric disturbances when hypothyroid; or(ii) withdrawal is medically contra‑indicated because the patient has:(A) unstable coronary artery disease; or(B) hypopituitarism; or(C) a high risk of relapse or exacerbation of a previous severe psychiatric illness;Applicable once only in a 12 month period 2,392.90 - 12203 Overnight diagnostic assessment of sleep, for a period of at least 8 hours duration, for a patient aged 18 years or more, to confirm diagnosis of a sleep disorder, if:(a) either:(i) the patient has been referred by a medical practitioner to a qualified sleep medicine practitioner or a consultant respiratory physician who has determined that the patient has a high probability for symptomatic, moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnoea based on a STOP‑Bang score of 4 or more, an OSA50 score of 5 or more or a high risk score on the Berlin Questionnaire, and an Epworth Sleepiness Scale score of 8 or more; or(ii) following professional attendance on the patient (either face‑to‑face or by video conference) by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner or a consultant respiratory physician, the qualified sleep medicine practitioner or consultant respiratory physician determines that assessment is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of a sleep disorder; and(b) the overnight diagnostic assessment is performed to investigate:(i) suspected obstructive sleep apnoea syndrome where the patient is assessed as not suitable for an unattended sleep study; or(ii) suspected central sleep apnoea syndrome; or(iii) suspected sleep hypoventilation syndrome; or(iv) suspected sleep‑related breathing disorders in association with non‑respiratory co‑morbid conditions including heart failure, significant cardiac arrhythmias, neurological disease, acromegaly or hypothyroidism; or(v) unexplained hypersomnolence which is not attributed to inadequate sleep hygiene or environmental factors; or(vi) suspected parasomnia or seizure disorder where clinical diagnosis cannot be established on clinical features alone (including associated atypical features, vigilance behaviours or failure to respond to conventional therapy); or(vii) suspected sleep related movement disorder, where the diagnosis of restless legs syndrome is not evident on clinical assessment; and(c) a sleep technician is in continuous attendance under the supervision of a qualified sleep medicine practitioner; and(d) there is continuous monitoring and recording, performed in accordance with current professional guidelines, of the following measures:(i) airflow;(ii) continuous EMG;(iii) anterior tibial EMG;(iv) continuous ECG;(v) continuous EEG;(vi) EOG;(vii) oxygen saturation;(viii) respiratory movement (chest and abdomen);(ix) position; and(e) polygraphic records are:(i) analysed (for assessment of sleep stage, arousals, respiratory events, cardiac abnormalities and limb movements) with manual scoring, or manual correction of computerised scoring in epochs of not more than 1 minute; and(ii) stored for interpretation and preparation of report; and(f) interpretation and preparation of a permanent report is provided by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner with personal direct review of raw data from the original recording of polygraphic data from the patient; and(g) the overnight diagnostic assessment is not provided to the patient on the same occasion that a service mentioned in any of items 11000 to 11005, 11503, 11700 to 11709, 11713 or 12250 is provided to the patientApplicable only once in any 12 month period 588.00 - 12204 Overnight assessment of positive airway pressure, for a period of at least 8 hours duration, for a patient aged 18 years or more, if:(a) the necessity for an intervention sleep study is determined by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner or consultant respiratory physician where a diagnosis of a sleep‑related breathing disorder has been made; and(b) the patient has not undergone positive airway pressure therapy in the previous 6 months; and(c) following professional attendance on the patient by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner or a consultant respiratory physician (either face‑to‑face or by video conference), the qualified sleep medicine practitioner or consultant respiratory physician establishes that the sleep‑related breathing disorder is responsible for the patient’s symptoms; and(d) a sleep technician is in continuous attendance under the supervision of a qualified sleep medicine practitioner; and(e) there is continuous monitoring and recording, performed in accordance with current professional guidelines, of the following measures:(i) airflow;(ii) continuous EMG;(iii) anterior tibial EMG;(iv) continuous ECG;(v) continuous EEG;(vi) EOG;(vii) oxygen saturation;(viii) respiratory movement;(ix) position; and(f) polygraphic records are:(i) analysed (for assessment of sleep stage, arousals, respiratory events, cardiac abnormalities and limb movements) with manual scoring, or manual correction of computerised scoring in epochs of not more than 1 minute; and(ii) stored for interpretation and preparation of a report; and(g) interpretation and preparation of a permanent report is provided by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner with personal direct review of raw data from the original recording of polygraphic data from the patient; and(h) the overnight assessment is not provided to the patient on the same occasion that a service mentioned in any of items 11000 to 11005, 11503, 11700 to 11709, 11713 or 12250 is provided to the patientApplicable only once in any 12 month period 588.00 - 12205 Follow‑up study for a patient aged 18 years or more with a sleep‑related breathing disorder, following professional attendance on the patient by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner or consultant respiratory physician, if:(a) either:(i) there has been a recurrence of symptoms not explained by known or identifiable factors such as inadequate usage of treatment, sleep duration or significant recent illness; or(ii) there has been a significant change in weight or changes in co‑morbid conditions that could affect sleep‑related breathing disorders and other means of assessing treatment efficacy (including review of data stored by a therapy device used by the patient) are unavailable, or have been equivocal; and(b) a sleep technician is in continuous attendance under the supervision of a qualified sleep medicine practitioner; and(c) there is continuous monitoring and recording, performed in accordance with current professional guidelines, of the following measures:(i) airflow;(ii) continuous EMG;(iii) anterior tibial EMG;(iv) continuous ECG;(v) continuous EEG;(vi) EOG;(vii) oxygen saturation;(viii) respiratory movement (chest and abdomen);(ix) position; and(d) polygraphic records are:(i) analysed (for assessment of sleep stage, arousals, respiratory events, cardiac abnormalities and limb movements) with manual scoring, or manual correction of computerised scoring in epochs of not more than 1 minute; and(ii) stored for interpretation and preparation of report; and(e) interpretation and preparation of a permanent report is provided by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner with personal direct review of raw data from the original recording of polygraphic data from the patient; and(f) the follow‑up study is not provided to the patient on the same occasion that a service mentioned in any of items 11000 to 11005, 11503, 11700 to 11709, 11713 or 12250 is provided to the patientApplicable only once in any 12 month period 588.00 - 12207 Overnight investigation, for a patient aged 18 years or more, for a sleep‑related breathing disorder, following professional attendance by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner or a consultant respiratory physician (either face‑to‑face or by video conference), if:(a) the patient is referred by a medical practitioner; and(b) the necessity for the investigation is determined by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner before the investigation; and(c) there is continuous monitoring and recording, in accordance with current professional guidelines, of the following measures:(i) airflow;(ii) continuous EMG;(iii) anterior tibial EMG;(iv) continuous ECG;(v) continuous EEG;(vi) EOG;(vii) oxygen saturation;(viii) respiratory movement (chest and abdomen)(ix) position; and(d) a sleep technician is in continuous attendance under the supervision of a qualified sleep medicine practitioner; and(e) polygraphic records are:(i) analysed (for assessment of sleep stage, arousals, respiratory events and assessment of clinically significant alterations in heart rate and limb movement) with manual scoring, or manual correction of computerised scoring in epochs of not more than 1 minute; and(ii) stored for interpretation and preparation of report; and(f) interpretation and preparation of a permanent report is provided by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner with personal direct review of raw data from the original recording of polygraphic data from the patient; and(g) the investigation is not provided to the patient on the same occasion that a service mentioned in any of items 11000 to 11005, 11503, 11700 to 11709, 11713 or 12250 is provided to the patient; and(h) previous studies have demonstrated failure of continuous positive airway pressure or oxygen; and(i) if the patient has severe cardio‑respiratory failure—a further investigation is indicated in the same 12 month period to which items 12204 and 12205 apply to a service for the patient, for the adjustment or testing, or both, of the effectiveness of a positive pressure ventilatory support device (other than continuous positive airway pressure) in sleepApplicable only once in any 12 month period 588.00 - 12208 Overnight investigation for sleep apnoea for a period of at least 8 hours duration, for a patient aged 18 years or more, if:(a) a qualified sleep medicine practitioner or consultant respiratory physician has determined that the investigation is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of a sleep disorder; and(b) a sleep technician is in continuous attendance under the supervision of a qualified sleep medicine practitioner; and(c) there is continuous monitoring and recording, in accordance with current professional guidelines, of the following measures:(i) airflow;(ii) continuous EMG;(iii) anterior tibial EMG;(iv) continuous ECG;(v) continuous EEG;(vi) EOG;(vii) oxygen saturation;(viii) respiratory movement (chest and abdomen);(ix) position; and(d) polygraphic records are:(i) analysed (for assessment of sleep stage, arousals, respiratory events, cardiac abnormalities and limb movements) with manual scoring, or manual correction of computerised scoring in epochs of not more than 1 minute; and(ii) stored for interpretation and preparation of report; and(e) interpretation and preparation of a permanent report is provided by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner with personal direct review of raw data from the original recording of polygraphic data from the patient; and(f) a further investigation is indicated in the same 12 month period to which item 12203 applies to a service for the patient because insufficient sleep was acquired, as evidenced by a sleep efficiency of 25% or less, during the previous investigation to which that item applied; and(g) the investigation is not provided to the patient on the same occasion that a service mentioned in any of items 11000 to 11005, 11503, 11700 to 11709, 11713 or 12250 is provided to the patientApplicable only once in any 12 month period 588.00 - 12210 Overnight paediatric investigation, for a period of at least 8 hours in duration, for a patient less than 12 years of age, if:(a) the patient is referred by a medical practitioner; and(b) the necessity for the investigation is determined by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner before the investigation; and(c) there is continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation and breathing using a multi‑channel polygraph, and recordings of the following are made, in accordance with current professional guidelines:(i) airflow;(ii) continuous EMG;(iii) ECG;(iv) EEG (with a minimum of 4 EEG leads or, in selected investigations, a minimum of 6 EEG leads);(v) EOG;(vi) oxygen saturation;(vii) respiratory movement of rib and abdomen (whether movement of rib is recorded separately from, or together with, movement of abdomen);(viii) measurement of carbon dioxide (either end‑tidal or transcutaneous); and(d) a sleep technician, or registered nurse with sleep technology training, is in continuous attendance under the supervision of a qualified sleep medicine practitioner; and(e) polygraphic records are:(i) analysed (for assessment of sleep stage, and maturation of sleep indices, arousals, respiratory events and assessment of clinically significant alterations in heart rate and body movement) with manual scoring, or manual correction of computerised scoring in epochs of not more than 1 minute; and(ii) stored for interpretation and preparation of report; and(f) interpretation and report are provided by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner based on reviewing the direct original recording of polygraphic data from the patientFor each particular patient—applicable only in relation to each of the first 3 occasions the investigation is performed in any 12 month period 701.85 - 12213 Overnight paediatric investigation, for a period of at least 8 hours in duration, for a patient aged at least 12 years but less than 18 years, if:(a) the patient is referred by a medical practitioner; and(b) the necessity for the investigation is determined by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner before the investigation; and(c) there is continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation and breathing using a multi‑channel polygraph, and recordings of the following are made, in accordance with current professional guidelines:(i) airflow;(ii) continuous EMG;(iii) ECG;(iv) EEG (with a minimum of 4 EEG leads or, in selected investigations, a minimum of 6 EEG leads);(v) EOG;(vi) oxygen saturation;(vii) respiratory movement of rib and abdomen (whether movement of rib is recorded separately from, or together with, movement of abdomen);(viii) measurement of carbon dioxide (either end‑tidal or transcutaneous); and(d) a sleep technician, or registered nurse with sleep technology training, is in continuous attendance under the supervision of a qualified sleep medicine practitioner; and(e) polygraphic records are:(i) analysed (for assessment of sleep stage, and maturation of sleep indices, arousals, respiratory events and assessment of clinically significant alterations in heart rate and body movement) with manual scoring, or manual correction of computerised scoring in epochs of not more than 1 minute; and(ii) stored for interpretation and preparation of report; and(f) interpretation and report are provided by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner based on reviewing the direct original recording of polygraphic data from the patientFor each particular patient—applicable only in relation to each of the first 3 occasions the investigation is performed in any 12 month period 632.30 - 12215 Overnight paediatric investigation, for a period of at least 8 hours in duration, for a patient less than 12 years of age, if:(a) the patient is referred by a medical practitioner; and(b) the necessity for the investigation is determined by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner before the investigation; and(c) there is continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation and breathing using a multi‑channel polygraph, and recordings of the following are made, in accordance with current professional guidelines:(i) airflow;(ii) continuous EMG;(iii) ECG;(iv) EEG (with a minimum of 4 EEG leads or, in selected investigations, a minimum of 6 EEG leads);(v) EOG;(vi) oxygen saturation;(vii) respiratory movement of rib and abdomen (whether movement of rib is recorded separately from, or together with, movement of abdomen);(viii) measurement of carbon dioxide (either end‑tidal or transcutaneous); and(d) a sleep technician, or registered nurse with sleep technology training, is in continuous attendance under the supervision of a qualified sleep medicine practitioner; and(e) polygraphic records are:(i) analysed (for assessment of sleep stage, and maturation of sleep indices, arousals, respiratory events and assessment of clinically significant alterations in heart rate and body movement) with manual scoring, or manual correction of computerised scoring in epochs of not more than 1 minute; and(ii) stored for interpretation and preparation of report; and(f) interpretation and report are provided by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner based on reviewing the direct original recording of polygraphic data from the patient; and(g) a further investigation is indicated in the same 12 month period to which item 12210 applies to a service for the patient, for a patient using Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) or non‑invasive or invasive ventilation, or supplemental oxygen, in either or both of the following circumstances:(i) there is ongoing hypoxia or hypoventilation on the third study to which item 12210 applied for the patient, and further titration of respiratory support is needed to optimise therapy;(ii) there is clear and significant change in clinical status (for example lung function or functional status) or an intervening treatment that may affect ventilation in the period since the third study to which item 12210 applied for the patient, and repeat study is therefore required to determine the need for or the adequacy of respiratory supportApplicable only once in the same 12 month period to which item 12210 applies 701.85 - 12217 Overnight paediatric investigation for a period of at least 8 hours in duration for a patient aged at least 12 years but less than 18 years, if:(a) the patient is referred by a medical practitioner; and(b) the necessity for the investigation is determined by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner before the investigation; and(c) there is continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation and breathing using a multi‑channel polygraph, and recordings of the following are made, in accordance with current professional guidelines:(i) airflow;(ii) continuous EMG;(iii) ECG;(iv) EEG (with a minimum of 4 EEG leads or, in selected investigations, a minimum of 6 EEG leads);(v) EOG;(vi) oxygen saturation;(vii) respiratory movement of rib and abdomen (whether movement of rib is recorded separately from, or together with, movement of abdomen);(viii) measurement of carbon dioxide (either end‑tidal or transcutaneous); and(d) a sleep technician, or registered nurse with sleep technology training, is in continuous attendance under the supervision of a qualified sleep medicine practitioner; and(e) polygraphic records are:(i) analysed (for assessment of sleep stage, and maturation of sleep indices, arousals, respiratory events and assessment of clinically significant alterations in heart rate and body movement) with manual scoring, or manual correction of computerised scoring in epochs of not more than 1 minute; and(ii) stored for interpretation and preparation of report; and(f) interpretation and report are provided by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner based on reviewing the direct original recording of polygraphic data from the patient; and(g) a further investigation is indicated in the same 12 month period to which item 12213 applies to a service for the patient, for a patient using Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) or non‑invasive or invasive ventilation, or supplemental oxygen, in either or both of the following circumstances:(i) there is ongoing hypoxia or hypoventilation on the third study to which item 12213 applied for the patient, and further titration is needed to optimise therapy;(ii) there is clear and significant change in clinical status (for example lung function or functional status) or an intervening treatment that may affect ventilation in the period since the third study to which item 12213 applied for the patient, and repeat study is therefore required to determine the need for or the adequacy of respiratory supportApplicable only once in the same 12 month period to which item 12213 applies 632.30 - 12250 Overnight investigation of sleep for a period of at least 8 hours of a patient aged 18 years or more to confirm diagnosis of obstructive sleep apnoea, if:(a) either:(i) the patient has been referred by a medical practitioner to a qualified sleep medicine practitioner or a consultant respiratory physician who has determined that the patient has a high probability for symptomatic, moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnoea based on a STOP‑Bang score of 4 or more, an OSA50 score of 5 or more or a high risk score on the Berlin Questionnaire, and an Epworth Sleepiness Scale score of 8 or more; or(ii) following professional attendance on the patient (either face‑to‑face or by video conference) by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner or a consultant respiratory physician, the qualified sleep medicine practitioner or consultant respiratory physician determines that investigation is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of obstructive sleep apnoea; and(b) during a period of sleep, there is continuous monitoring and recording, performed in accordance with current professional guidelines, of the following measures:(i) airflow;(ii) continuous EMG;(iii) continuous ECG;(iv) continuous EEG;(v) EOG;(vi) oxygen saturation;(vii) respiratory effort; and(c) the investigation is performed under the supervision of a qualified sleep medicine practitioner; and(d) either:(i) the equipment is applied to the patient by a sleep technician; or(ii) if this is not possible—the reason it is not possible for the sleep technician to apply the equipment to the patient is documented and the patient is given instructions on how to apply the equipment by a sleep technician supported by written instructions; and(e) polygraphic records are:(i) analysed (for assessment of sleep stage, arousals, respiratory events and cardiac abnormalities) with manual scoring, or manual correction of computerised scoring in epochs of not more than 1 minute; and(ii) stored for interpretation and preparation of report; and(f) interpretation and preparation of a permanent report is provided by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner with personal direct review of raw data from the original recording of polygraphic data from the patient; and(g) the investigation is not provided to the patient on the same occasion that a service mentioned in any of items 11000 to 11005, 11503, 11700 to 11709, 11713 and 12203 is provided to the patientApplicable only once in any 12 month period 335.30 - 12306 Bone densitometry, using dual energy X‑ray absorptiometry, involving the measurement of 2 or more sites (including interpretation and reporting), for:(a) confirmation of a presumptive diagnosis of low bone mineral density made on the basis of one or more fractures occurring after minimal trauma; or(b) monitoring of low bone mineral density proven by bone densitometry at least 12 months previously;other than a service associated with a service to which item 12312, 12315 or 12321 appliesFor any particular patient, once only in a 24 month period 102.40 - 12312 Bone densitometry, using dual energy X‑ray absorptiometry, involving the measurement of 2 or more sites (including interpretation and reporting) for diagnosis and monitoring of bone loss associated with one or more of the following:(a) prolonged glucocorticoid therapy;(b) any condition associated with excess glucocorticoid secretion;(c) male hypogonadism;(d) female hypogonadism lasting more than 6 months before the age of 45;other than a service associated with a service to which item 12306, 12315 or 12321 appliesFor any particular patient, once only in a 12 month period 102.40 - 12315 Bone densitometry, using dual energy X‑ray absorptiometry, involving the measurement of 2 or more sites (including interpretation and reporting) for diagnosis and monitoring of bone loss associated with one or more of the following conditions:(a) primary hyperparathyroidism;(b) chronic liver disease;(c) chronic renal disease;(d) any proven malabsorptive disorder;(e) rheumatoid arthritis;(f) any condition associated with thyroxine excess;other than a service associated with a service to which item 12306, 12312 or 12321 appliesFor any particular patient, once only in a 24 month period 102.40 - 12320 Bone densitometry, using dual energy X‑ray absorptiometry or quantitative computed tomography, involving the measurement of 2 or more sites (including interpretation and reporting) for the measurement of bone mineral density, if:(a) the patient is 70 years of age or over; and(b) either:(i) the patient has not previously had bone densitometry; or(ii) the t‑score for the patient’s bone mineral density is ‑1.5 or more;other than a service associated with a service to which item 12306, 12312, 12315, 12321 or 12322 appliesFor any particular patient, once only in a 5 year period 102.40 - 12321 Bone densitometry, using dual energy X‑ray absorptiometry, involving the measurement of 2 or more sites at least 12 months after a significant change in therapy (including interpretation and reporting), for:(a) established low bone mineral density; or(b) confirming a presumptive diagnosis of low bone mineral density made on the basis of one or more fractures occurring after minimal trauma;other than a service associated with a service to which item 12306, 12312 or 12315 appliesFor any particular patient, once only in a 12 month period 102.40 - 12322 Bone densitometry, using dual energy X‑ray absorptiometry or quantitative computed tomography, involving the measurement of 2 or more sites (including interpretation and reporting) for measurement of bone mineral density, if:(a) the patient is 70 years of age or over; and(b) the t‑score for the patient’s bone mineral density is less than ‑1.5 but more than ‑2.5;other than a service associated with a service to which item 12306, 12312, 12315, 12320 or 12321 appliesFor any particular patient, once only in a 2 year period 102.40 - 12325 Assessment of visual acuity and bilateral retinal photography with a non‑mydriatic retinal camera, including analysis and reporting of the images for initial or repeat assessment for presence or absence of diabetic retinopathy, in a patient with medically diagnosed diabetes, if:(a) the patient is of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander descent; and(b) the assessment is performed by the medical practitioner (other than an optometrist or ophthalmologist) providing the primary glycaemic management of the patient’s diabetes; and(c) this item and item 12326 have not applied to the patient in the preceding 12 months; and(d) the patient does not have:(i) an existing diagnosis of diabetic retinopathy; or(ii) visual acuity of less than 6/12 in either eye; or(iii) a difference of more than 2 lines of vision between the 2 eyes at the time of presentation 50.00 - 12326 Assessment of visual acuity and bilateral retinal photography with a non‑mydriatic retinal camera, including analysis and reporting of the images for initial or repeat assessment for presence or absence of diabetic retinopathy, in a patient with medically diagnosed diabetes, if:(a) the assessment is performed by the medical practitioner (other than an optometrist or ophthalmologist) providing the primary glycaemic management of the patient’s diabetes; and(b) this item and item 12325 have not applied to the patient in the preceding 24 months; and(c) the patient does not have:(i) an existing diagnosis of diabetic retinopathy; or(ii) visual acuity of less than 6/12 in either eye; or(iii) a difference of more than 2 lines of vision between the 2 eyes at the time of presentation 50.00 Division 2.36—Group D2: Nuclear medicine (non‑imaging) 2.36.1  Application of Group D2   An item in Group D2 does not apply to a service described in the item if the service is provided at the same time as, or in connection with, the service described in item 12250.   - Group D2—Nuclear medicine (non‑imaging) - 12500 Blood volume estimation 216.65 - 12503 Erythrocyte radioactive uptake survival time test or iron kinetic test 424.75 - 12506 Gastrointestinal blood loss estimation involving examination of stool specimens 303.30 - 12509 Gastrointestinal protein loss 216.65 - 12512 Radioactive B12 absorption test—one isotope 105.05 - 12515 Radioactive B12 absorption test—2 isotopes 229.85 - 12518 Thyroid uptake (using probe) 105.05 - 12521 Perchlorate discharge study 126.65 - 12524 Renal function test (without imaging procedure) 158.35 - 12527 Renal function test (with imaging and at least 2 blood samples) 84.95 - 12530 Whole body count—other than a service associated with a service to which another item applies 126.65 - 12533 Carbon‑labelled urea breath test using oral C‑13 or C‑14 urea, performed by a specialist or consultant physician, including the measurement of exhaled 13CO2 or 14CO2, for either:(a) the confirmation of Helicobactor pylori colonisation; or(b) the monitoring of the success of eradication of Helicobactor pylori in patients with peptic ulcer disease;(other than a service associated with a service to which item 66900 applies) 84.65 Division 2.37—Group T1: Miscellaneous therapeutic procedures 2.37.1  Meaning of comprehensive hyperbaric medicine facility   In items 13015, 13020, 13025 and 13030: comprehensive hyperbaric medicine facility means a separate hospital area that, on a 24‑hour basis:  (a) is equipped and staffed so that it is capable of providing to a patient:  (i) hyperbaric oxygen therapy at a treatment pressure of at least 2.8 atmospheric pressure absolute (180 kilopascal gauge pressure); and  (ii) mechanical ventilation and invasive cardiovascular monitoring within a monoplace or multiplace chamber for the duration of the hyperbaric treatment; and  (b) is under the direction of at least one medical practitioner who is rostered, and immediately available, to the facility during the facility’s ordinary working hours if the practitioner:  (i) is a specialist with training in diving and hyperbaric medicine; or  (ii) holds a Diploma of Diving and Hyperbaric Medicine of the South Pacific Underwater Medicine Society; and  (c) is staffed by:  (i) at least one medical practitioner with training in diving and hyperbaric medicine who is present in the facility and immediately available at all times when patients are being treated at the facility; and  (ii) at least one registered nurse with specific training in hyperbaric patient care to the published standards of the Hyperbaric Technicians and Nurses Association, who is present during hyperbaric oxygen therapy; and  (d) has admission and discharge policies in operation. 2.37.2  Meaning of embryology laboratory services   In items 13200, 13201 and 13206: embryology laboratory services includes:  (a) egg recovery from aspirated follicular fluid; and  (b) semen preparation; and  (c) insemination; and  (d) monitoring of fertilisation and embryo development; and  (e) preparation of gametes or embryos for transfer or freezing. 2.37.3  Meaning of treatment cycle   In clause 2.37.4 and items 13200 to 13209, 13215 and 13218: treatment cycle, for a patient, means a series of treatments for the patient that:  (a) begins:  (i) if treatment with superovulatory drugs is given—on the day on which that treatment begins; or  (ii) if treatment with superovulatory drugs is not given—on the first day of a menstrual cycle of the patient; and  (b) ends:  (i) if a service mentioned in item 13212, 13215 or 13221 is provided in connection with the series of treatments—on the day after the day on which the last of those services is provided; or  (ii) in any other case—not more than 30 days after the day mentioned in subparagraph (a)(i) or (ii). 2.37.4  Items provided as part of treatment cycle relating to assisted reproductive services not to apply  (1) This clause applies if:  (a) a service to which an item (the first item) in Subgroup 3 of Group T1 applies is provided to a patient during a treatment cycle; and  (b) a service mentioned in an item (the second item) (other than an item in Subgroup 3 of Group T1) is provided to the patient during the same treatment cycle; and  (c) the service mentioned in the second item is associated with the service to which the first item applies.  (2) The second item does not apply to the service mentioned in that item. 2.37.5  Application of items 13020 to 14245   Items 13020 to 14245 do not apply to a service mentioned in the item if the service is provided at the same time as, or in connection with, the provision of a pain pump for post‑surgical pain management. 2.37.6  Limitation on item 13104   Item 13104 is not applicable to a patient more than 12 times in a 12 month period. 2.37.7  Items relating to assisted reproductive services not to apply in certain pregnancy‑related circumstances   Items 13200 to 13221 do not apply to a service provided in relation to a patient’s pregnancy, or intended pregnancy, that is, at the time of the service, the subject of an agreement, or arrangement, under which the patient makes provision for transfer to another person of the guardianship of, or custodial rights to, a child born as a result of the pregnancy. 2.37.8  Application of items 14227 to 14242   Items 14227 to 14242 apply to a service in relation to a patient only if:  (a) the patient has:  (i) chronic spasticity of cerebral origin; or  (ii) chronic spasticity caused by multiple sclerosis, spinal cord injury or spinal cord disease; and  (b) oral antispastic agents have failed or have caused the patient to experience unacceptable side effects; and  (c) an authority has been given by the Chief Executive Medicare to provide the service to the patient. 2.37.9  Application of item 14245  (1) Item 14245 applies only to a service provided by a medical practitioner who is registered by the Chief Executive Medicare to participate in the arrangements made, under paragraph 100(1)(b) of the National Health Act 1953, for providing an adequate pharmaceutical service for persons requiring treatment with an immunomodulating agent.  (2) Item 14245 applies once per day. 2.37.10  Limitation of item 13210   Item 13210 does not apply if the patient or specialist travels to a place to satisfy the requirement in sub‑subparagraph (d)(i)(B) of the item.   - Group T1—Miscellaneous therapeutic procedures - Subgroup 1—Hyperbaric oxygen therapy - 13015 Hyperbaric oxygen therapy, for treatment of localised non‑neurological soft tissue radiation injuries excluding radiation‑induced soft tissue lymphoedema of the arm after treatment for breast cancer, performed in a comprehensive hyperbaric medicine facility under the supervision of a medical practitioner qualified in hyperbaric medicine, for a period in the hyperbaric chamber of at least 1 hour 30 minutes and not more than 3 hours, including any associated attendance 254.75 - 13020 Hyperbaric oxygen therapy, for treatment of decompression illness, gas gangrene, air or gas embolism, diabetic wounds (including diabetic gangrene and diabetic foot ulcers) or necrotising soft tissue infections (including necrotising fasciitis or Fournier’s gangrene), or for the prevention and treatment of osteoradionecrosis, performed in a comprehensive hyperbaric medicine facility, under the supervision of a medical practitioner qualified in hyperbaric medicine, for a period in the hyperbaric chamber of at least 1 hour 30 minutes and not more than 3 hours, including any associated attendance 258.85 - 13025 Hyperbaric oxygen therapy, for treatment of decompression illness, air or gas embolism, performed in a comprehensive hyperbaric medicine facility, under the supervision of a medical practitioner qualified in hyperbaric medicine, for a period in the hyperbaric chamber greater than 3 hours, including any associated attendance—per hour (or part of an hour) 115.70 - 13030 Hyperbaric oxygen therapy performed in a comprehensive hyperbaric medicine facility, if the medical practitioner is pressurised in the hyperbaric chamber for the purpose of providing continuous life‑saving emergency treatment, including any associated attendance—per hour (or part of an hour) 163.45 - Subgroup 2—Dialysis - 13100 Supervision in hospital by a medical specialist of—haemodialysis, haemofiltration, haemoperfusion or peritoneal dialysis, including all professional attendances, if the total attendance time on the patient by the supervising medical specialist exceeds 45 minutes in one day 136.65 - 13103 Supervision in hospital by a medical specialist of—haemodialysis, haemofiltration, haemoperfusion or peritoneal dialysis, including all professional attendances, if the total attendance time on the patient by the supervising medical specialist does not exceed 45 minutes in one day 71.20 - 13104 Planning and management of home dialysis (haemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis) for a patient with end‑stage renal disease and supervision of the patient on self‑administered dialysis, if the attendance is by a consultant physician in the practice of his or her specialty of renal medicine 147.95 - 13105 Haemodialysis for a patient with end‑stage renal disease if:(a) the service is provided by a registered nurse, an Aboriginal health worker or an Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioner on behalf of a medical practitioner; and(b) the service is supervised by the medical practitioner (either in person or remotely); and(c) the patient’s care is managed by a nephrologist; and(d) the patient is treated or reviewed by the nephrologist every 3 to 6 months (either in person or remotely); and(e) the patient is not an admitted patient of a hospital; and(f) the service is provided in a Modified Monash 7 area 592.00 - 13106 Declotting of an arteriovenous shunt 121.35 - 13109 Indwelling peritoneal catheter (Tenckhoff or similar) for dialysis—insertion and fixation of (Anaes.) 227.75 - 13110 Indwelling peritoneal catheter (Tenckhoff or similar) for dialysis—removal of (including catheter cuffs) (Anaes.) 228.50 - Subgroup 3—Assisted reproductive services - 13200 Assisted reproductive technologies superovulated treatment cycle proceeding to oocyte retrieval, involving the use of drugs to induce superovulation and including quantitative estimation of hormones, ultrasound examinations, all treatment counselling and embryology laboratory services but excluding artificial insemination, transfer of frozen embryos or donated embryos or ova or a service to which item 13201, 13202, 13203, 13206 or 13218 applies, being services rendered during one treatment cycle—initial cycle in a single calendar year 3,110.75 - 13201 Assisted reproductive technologies superovulated treatment cycle proceeding to oocyte retrieval, involving the use of drugs to induce superovulation and including quantitative estimation of hormones, ultrasound examinations, all treatment counselling and embryology laboratory services but excluding artificial insemination, transfer of frozen embryos or donated embryos or ova or a service to which item 13200, 13202, 13203, 13206 or 13218 applies, being services rendered during one treatment cycle—each cycle after the first in a single calendar year 2,909.75 - 13202 Assisted reproductive technologies superovulated treatment cycle that is cancelled before oocyte retrieval, involving the use of drugs to induce superovulation and including quantitative estimation of hormones and ultrasound examinations, but excluding artificial insemination, transfer of frozen embryos or donated embryos or ova or a service to which item 13200, 13201, 13203, 13206 or 13218 applies, being services rendered during one treatment cycle 465.55 - 13203 Ovulation monitoring services for artificial insemination, including quantitative estimation of hormones and ultrasound examinations, being services rendered during one treatment cycle but excluding a service to which item 13200, 13201, 13202, 13206, 13212, 13215 or 13218 applies 486.75 - 13206 Assisted reproductive technologies treatment cycle using the natural cycle or oral medication only to induce oocyte growth and development, including quantitative estimation of hormones, ultrasound examinations, all treatment counselling and embryology laboratory services but excluding artificial insemination, frozen embryo transfer, donated embryos or ova or treatment involving the use of injectable drugs to induce superovulation, being services rendered during one treatment cycle—only if rendered in conjunction with a service to which item 13212 applies 465.55 - 13209 Planning and management of a referred patient by a specialist for the purpose of treatment by assisted reproductive technologies or for artificial insemination—applicable once during a treatment cycle 84.70 - 13210 Professional attendance on a patient by a specialist practising in his or her specialty if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) item 13209 applies to the attendance; and(c) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(d) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies 50% of the fee for item 13209 - 13212 Oocyte retrieval for the purpose of assisted reproductive technologies—only if rendered in connection with a service to which item 13200, 13201 or 13206 applies (Anaes.) 354.45 - 13215 Transfer of embryos or both ova and sperm to the uterus or fallopian tubes, excluding artificial insemination—only if rendered in connection with a service to which item 13200, 13201, 13206 or 13218 applies, being services rendered in one treatment cycle (Anaes.) 111.10 - 13218 Preparation of frozen or donated embryos or donated oocytes for transfer to the uterus or fallopian tubes, by any means and including quantitative estimation of hormones and all treatment counselling but excluding artificial insemination services rendered in one treatment cycle and excluding a service to which item 13200, 13201, 13202, 13203, 13206 or 13212 applies (Anaes.) 793.55 - 13221 Preparation of semen for the purpose of artificial insemination—only if rendered in connection with a service to which item 13203 applies 50.80 - 13251 Intracytoplasmic sperm injection for the purpose of assisted reproductive technologies, for male factor infertility, excluding a service to which item 13203 or 13218 applies 417.95 - 13290 Semen, collection of, from a patient with spinal injuries or medically induced impotence, for the purposes of analysis, storage or assisted reproduction, by a medical practitioner using a vibrator or electro‑ejaculation device including catheterisation and drainage of bladder if required 204.25 - 13292 Semen, collection of, from a patient with spinal injuries or medically induced impotence, for the purposes of analysis, storage or assisted reproduction, by a medical practitioner using a vibrator or electro‑ejaculation device including catheterisation and drainage of bladder if required, under general anaesthetic (H) (Anaes.) 408.70 - Subgroup 4—Paediatric and neonatal - 13300 Umbilical or scalp vein catheterisation in a neonate with or without infusion or cannulation of a vein 56.95 - 13303 Umbilical artery catheterisation with or without infusion 84.40 - 13306 Blood transfusion with venesection and complete replacement of blood, including collection from donor 334.10 - 13309 Blood transfusion with venesection and complete replacement of blood, using blood already collected 284.85 - 13312 Blood for pathology test, collection of, by femoral or external jugular vein puncture in infants 28.45 - 13318 Central vein catheterisation by open exposure, in a person under 12 years of age (Anaes.) 227.45 - 13319 Central vein catheterisation in a neonate via peripheral vein (Anaes.) 227.45 - Subgroup 5—Cardiovascular - 13400 Restoration of cardiac rhythm by electrical stimulation (cardioversion), other than in the course of cardiac surgery (Anaes.) 96.80 - Subgroup 6—Gastroenterology - 13506 Gastro‑oesophageal balloon intubation for control of bleeding from gastric oesophageal varices 184.50 - Subgroup 8—Haematology - 13700 Harvesting of homologous (including allogeneic) or autologous bone marrow for the purpose of transplantation (Anaes.) 333.25 - 13703 Transfusion of blood including collection from donor 119.50 - 13706 Transfusion of blood or bone marrow already collected 83.35 - 13709 Collection of blood for autologous transfusion or when homologous blood is required for immediate transfusion in emergency situation 48.45 - 13750 Therapeutic haemapheresis for the removal of plasma or cellular (or both) elements of blood, utilising continuous or intermittent flow techniques, including morphological tests for cell counts and viability studies, if performed; continuous monitoring of vital signs, fluid balance, blood volume and other parameters with continuous registered nurse attendance under the supervision of a consultant physician, other than a service associated with a service to which item 13755 applies—each day 136.65 - 13755 Donor haemapheresis for the collection of blood products for transfusion, utilising continuous or intermittent flow techniques, including morphological tests for cell counts and viability studies; continuous monitoring of vital signs, fluid balance, blood volume and other parameters; with continuous registered nurse attendance under the supervision of a consultant physician—other than a service associated with a service to which item 13750 applies—each day 136.65 - 13757 Therapeutic venesection for the management of haemochromatosis, polycythemia vera or porphyria cutanea tarda 72.95 - 13760 In vitro processing (and cryopreservation) of bone marrow or peripheral blood for autologous stem cell transplantation as an adjunct to high dose chemotherapy for:(a) chemosensitive intermediate or high grade non‑Hodgkin lymphoma at high risk of relapse following first line chemotherapy; or(b) Hodgkin disease which has relapsed following, or is refractory to, chemotherapy; or(c) acute myelogenous leukaemia in first remission, if suitable genotypically matched sibling donor is not available for allogenic bone marrow transplant; or(d) multiple myeloma in remission (complete or partial) following standard dose chemotherapy; or(e) small round cell sarcomas; or(f) primitive neuroectodermal tumour; or(g) germ cell tumours which have relapsed following, or are refractory to, chemotherapy; or(h) germ cell tumours which have had an incomplete response to first line therapy;performed under the supervision of a consultant physician—each day 762.60 - Subgroup 9—Procedures associated with intensive care and cardiopulmonary support - 13815 Central vein catheterisation by percutaneous or open exposure other than a service to which item 13318 applies (Anaes.) 85.25 - 13818 Right heart balloon catheter, insertion of, including pulmonary wedge pressure and cardiac output measurement (Anaes.) 113.70 - 13830 Intracranial pressure, monitoring of, by intraventricular or subdural catheter, subarachnoid bolt or similar, by a specialist or consultant physician—each day 75.35 - 13839 Arterial puncture and collection of blood for diagnostic purposes 23.05 - 13842 Intra‑arterial cannulation for the purpose of taking multiple arterial blood samples for blood gas analysis 69.30 - 13847 Counterpulsation by intra‑aortic balloon management, on first day, including initial and subsequent consultations and monitoring of parameters (Anaes.) 156.10 - 13848 Counterpulsation by intra‑aortic balloon‑management on each day after the first, including associated consultations and monitoring of parameters 131.05 - 13851 Circulatory support device, management of, on first day 493.65 - 13854 Circulatory support device, management of, on each day after the first 114.85 - 13857 Airway access and initiation of mechanical ventilation (other than initiation of ventilation in the context of an anaesthetic for surgery), outside of an intensive care unit, for the purpose of subsequent ventilatory support in an intensive care unit 146.40 - Subgroup 10—Management and procedures undertaken in an intensive care unit - 13870 Management of a patient in an intensive care unit by a specialist or consultant physician who is immediately available and exclusively rostered to intensive care, including initial and subsequent attendances, electrocardiographic monitoring, arterial sampling, bladder catheterisation and blood sampling—management on the first day (H) 362.10 - 13873 Management of a patient in an intensive care unit by a specialist or consultant physician who is immediately available and exclusively rostered to intensive care, including all attendances, electrocardiographic monitoring, arterial sampling, bladder catheterisation and blood sampling—management on each day after the first day (H) 268.60 - 13876 Central venous pressure, pulmonary arterial pressure, systemic arterial pressure or cardiac intracavity pressure—once per day for each type of pressure for a patient:(a) when managed for the patient by a specialist or consultant physician who:(i) is immediately available to care for the patient; and(ii) is exclusively rostered to intensive care; and(b) when the patient is continuously monitored by indwelling catheter in an intensive care unit (H) 76.90 - 13881 Airway access and initiation of mechanical ventilation in an intensive care unit by a specialist or consultant physician to enable subsequent ventilatory support—not in association with any anaesthetic service (H) 146.40 - 13882 Ventilatory support in an intensive care unit, management of a patient:(a) by:(i) invasive means; or(ii) non‑invasive means, if the only alternative to non‑invasive ventilatory support is invasive ventilatory support; and(b) by a specialist or consultant physician who is immediately available and exclusively rostered to intensive care;each day (H) 115.25 - 13885 Continuous arterio venous or veno venous haemofiltration, management by a specialist or consultant physician who is immediately available and exclusively rostered to intensive care—on the first day (H) 153.65 - 13888 Continuous arterio venous or veno venous haemofiltration, management by a specialist or consultant physician who is immediately available and exclusively rostered to intensive care—on each day after the first day (H) 76.90 - Subgroup 11—Chemotherapeutic procedures - 13915 Cytotoxic chemotherapy, administration of, either by intravenous push technique (directly into a vein, or a butterfly needle, or the side‑arm of an infusion) or by intravenous infusion of not more than 1 hour in duration, other than a service associated with photodynamic therapy with verteporfin or a service to administer drugs used immediately before, or during, microwave (UHF radiowave) cancer therapy—for any particular patient, once only on the same day 65.05 - 13918 Cytotoxic chemotherapy, administration of, by intravenous infusion of more than 1 hour in duration but not more than 6 hours in duration—for any particular patient, once only on the same day 97.95 - 13921 Cytotoxic chemotherapy, administration of, by intravenous infusion of more than 6 hours in duration—for the first day of treatment 110.80 - 13924 Cytotoxic chemotherapy, administration of, by intravenous infusion of more than 6 hours in duration—on each day after the first in the same continuous treatment episode 65.25 - 13927 Cytotoxic chemotherapy, administration of, either by intra‑arterial push technique (directly into an artery, a butterfly needle or the side‑arm of an infusion) or by intra‑arterial infusion of not more than 1 hour in duration—for any particular patient, once only on the same day 84.40 - 13930 Cytotoxic chemotherapy, administration of, by intra‑arterial infusion of more than 1 hour in duration but not more than 6 hours in duration—for any particular patient, once only on the same day 117.80 - 13933 Cytotoxic chemotherapy, administration of, by intra‑arterial infusion of more than 6 hours in duration—for the first day of treatment 130.70 - 13936 Cytotoxic chemotherapy, administration of, by intra‑arterial infusion of more than 6 hours in duration—on each day after the first in the same continuous treatment episode 85.15 - 13939 Implanted pump or reservoir, loading of, with a cytotoxic agent or agents, other than a service associated with a service to which item 13915, 13918, 13921, 13924, 13927, 13930, 13933, 13936 or 13945 applies 97.95 - 13942 Ambulatory drug delivery device, loading of, with a cytotoxic agent or agents for the infusion of the agent or agents via the intravenous, intra‑arterial or spinal routes, other than a service associated with a service to which item 13915, 13918, 13921, 13924, 13927, 13930, 13933, 13936 or 13945 applies 65.25 - 13945 Long‑term implanted drug delivery device for cytotoxic chemotherapy, accessing of 52.50 - 13948 Cytotoxic agent, instillation of, into a body cavity 65.25 - Subgroup 12—Dermatology - 14050 UVA or UVB phototherapy administered in a whole body cabinet or hand and foot cabinet including associated consultations other than the initial consultation, if treatment is initiated and supervised by a specialist in the specialty of dermatologyApplicable not more than 150 times in a 12 month period 52.75 - 14100 Laser photocoagulation using laser radiation in the treatment of vascular abnormalities of the head or neck, including any associated consultation, if:(a) the abnormality is visible from 3 metres; and(b) photographic evidence demonstrating the need for this service is documented in the patient notes;to a maximum of 4 sessions (including any sessions to which this item or any of items 14106 to 14118 apply) in any 12 month period (Anaes.) 152.50 - 14106 Laser photocoagulation using laser radiation in the treatment of vascular malformations, infantile haemangiomas, café‑au‑lait macules and naevi of Ota, other than melanocytic naevi (common moles), if the abnormality is visible from 3 metres, including any associated consultation, up to a maximum of 6 sessions (including any sessions to which this item or any of items 14100 to 14118 apply) in any 12 month period—area of treatment less than 150 cm2 (Anaes.) 160.15 - 14115 Laser photocoagulation using laser radiation in the treatment of vascular malformations, infantile haemangiomas, café‑au‑lait macules and naevi of Ota, other than melanocytic naevi (common moles), including any associated consultation, up to a maximum of 6 sessions (including any sessions to which this item or any of items 14100 to 14118 apply) in any 12 month period—area of treatment 150 cm2 to 300 cm2 (Anaes.) 256.50 - 14118 Laser photocoagulation using laser radiation in the treatment of vascular malformations, infantile haemangiomas, café‑au‑lait macules and naevi of Ota, other than melanocytic naevi (common moles), including any associated consultation, up to a maximum of 6 sessions (including any sessions to which this item or any of items 14100 to 14115 apply) in any 12 month period—area of treatment more than 300 cm2 (Anaes.) 325.75 - 14124 Laser photocoagulation using laser radiation in the treatment of vascular malformations, infantile haemangiomas, café‑au‑lait macules and naevi of Ota, other than melanocytic naevi (common moles), including any associated consultation, if:(a) a seventh or subsequent session (including any sessions to which this item or any of items 14100 to 14118 apply) is indicated in a 12 month period commencing on the day of the first session; and(b) photographic evidence demonstrating the need for this service is documented in the patient notes(Anaes.) 152.50 - Subgroup 13—Other therapeutic procedures - 14200 Gastric lavage in the treatment of ingested poison 59.80 - 14201 Poly‑L‑lactic acid, one or more injections of, for the initial session only, for the treatment of severe facial lipoatrophy caused by antiretroviral therapy, if prescribed in accordance with section 85 of the National Health Act 1953—once per patient 236.85 - 14202 Poly‑L‑lactic acid, one or more injections of (subsequent sessions), for the continuation of treatment of severe facial lipoatrophy caused by antiretroviral therapy, if prescribed in accordance with section 85 of the National Health Act 1953 119.90 - 14203 Hormone or living tissue implantation, by direct implantation involving incision and suture (Anaes.) 51.15 - 14206 Hormone or living tissue implantation—by cannula 35.60 - 14209 Intra‑arterial infusion or retrograde intravenous perfusion of a sympatholytic agent 88.70 - 14212 Intussusception, management of fluid or gas reduction for (Anaes.) 185.30 - 14218 Implanted infusion pump, refilling of reservoir with a therapeutic agent or agents for infusion to the subarachnoid or epidural space, with or without re—programming a programmable pump, for the management of chronic intractable pain 97.95 - 14221 Long—term implanted device for delivery of therapeutic agents, accessing of, other than a service associated with a service to which item 13945 applies 52.50 - 14224 Electroconvulsive therapy, with or without the use of stimulus dosing techniques, including any electroencephalographic monitoring and associated consultation (Anaes.) 70.35 - 14227 Implanted infusion pump, refilling of reservoir with baclofen for infusion to the subarachnoid or epidural space, with or without re‑programming a programmable pump, for the management of severe chronic spasticity 97.95 - 14230 Intrathecal or epidural spinal catheter, insertion or replacement of, and connection to a subcutaneous implanted infusion pump, for the management of severe chronic spasticity with baclofen (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 298.05 - 14233 Infusion pump, subcutaneous implantation or replacement of, and:(a) connection to an intrathecal or epidural spinal catheter; and(b) filling of reservoir with baclofen;with or without programming the pump, for the management of severe chronic spasticity (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 361.90 - 14236 All of the following:(a) infusion pump, subcutaneous implantation of;(b) intrathecal or epidural spinal catheter, insertion of;(c) connection of pump to catheter;(d) filling of reservoir with baclofen;with or without programming the pump, for the management of severe chronic spasticity (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 659.95 - 14239 Either:(a) subcutaneously implanted infusion pump, removal of; or(b) intrathecal or epidural spinal catheter, removal or repositioning of;for the management of severe chronic spasticity (H) (Anaes.) 159.40 - 14242 Subcutaneous reservoir and spinal catheter, insertion of, for the management of severe chronic spasticity (H) (Anaes.) 473.65 - 14245 Immunomodulating agent, administration of, by intravenous infusion for at least 2 hours in duration 97.95 Division 2.38—Group T2: Radiation oncology 2.38.1  Meaning of amount under clause 2.38.1   In an item of the table mentioned in column 1 of table 2.38.1: amount under clause 2.38.1 means the sum of:  (b) the amount mentioned in column 3 for each field separately treated in excess of one.   - Table 2.38.1—Amount under clause 2.38.1 - Item Column 1Item of the table Column 2Fee Column 3Amount for each field separately treated in excess of one ($) - 1 15003 The fee for item 15000 17.10 - 2 15009 The fee for item 15006 18.55 - 3 15103 The fee for item 15100 18.80 - 4 15109 The fee for item 15106 22.70 - 5 15115 The fee for item 15112 47.30 - 6 15214 The fee for item 15211 31.90 - 7 15230 The fee for item 15215 37.95 - 8 15233 The fee for item 15218 37.95 - 9 15236 The fee for item 15221 37.95 - 10 15239 The fee for item 15224 37.95 - 11 15242 The fee for item 15227 37.95 - 12 15260 The fee for item 15245 37.95 - 13 15263 The fee for item 15248 37.95 - 14 15266 The fee for item 15251 37.95 - 15 15269 The fee for item 15254 37.95 - 16 15272 The fee for item 15257 37.95 2.38.2  Meaning of approved site   In item 15338: approved site, for radiation oncology, means a site at which radiation oncology may be performed lawfully under the law of the State or Territory in which the site is located. 2.38.3  Meaning of IGRT   In items 15275 and 15715: IGRT means image‑guided radiation therapy, being a process in which frequent 2 and 3‑dimensional imaging is captured as close as possible to the time of treatment by using x‑rays and scans (similar to CT scans) before and during radiotherapy treatment, in order to show the size, shape and position of a cancer as well as the surrounding tissues and bones. 2.38.4  Meaning of IMRT   In items 15275, 15555, 15565 and 15715: IMRT means intensity‑modulated radiation therapy, being a form of external beam radiation therapy that uses high energy megavoltage x‑rays to allow the radiation dose to conform more closely to the shape of a tumour by changing the intensity of the radiation beam. 2.38.5  Application of Group T2   Items 15000 to 15900 do not apply to a service described in the item if the service is provided at the same time as, or in connection with, the provision of a pain pump for post‑surgical pain management. 2.38.6  Application of items 15215 to 15272   Items 15215 to 15272 do not apply to a service if the service is undertaken to implement an IMRT dosimetry plan prepared in accordance with item 15565. 2.38.7  Application of items 15556, 15559 and 15562   A service mentioned in item 15556, 15559 or 15562 applies only if:  (a) each gross tumour target, clinical target, planning target and organ at risk specified in the prescription is rendered as a volume; and  (b) each organ at risk is nominated as a planning dose goal or constraint; and  (c) each organ at risk is specified in the prescription as a dose goal or constraint; and  (d) dose volume histograms are generated, approved and recorded with the plan; and  (e) a CT image volume dataset is required for the relevant region to be planned and treated; and  (f) the CT image is required to be suitable for the generation of quality digitally reconstructed radiographic images.   - Group T2—Radiation oncology - Subgroup 1—Superficial - 15000 Radiotherapy, superficial (including treatment with x‑rays, radium rays or other radioactive substances), other than a service to which another item in this Group applies—each attendance at which fractionated treatment is given—one field 42.55 - 15003 Radiotherapy, superficial (including treatment with x‑rays, radium rays or other radioactive substances), other than a service to which another item in this Group applies—each attendance at which fractionated treatment is given—2 or more fields up to a maximum of 5 additional fields Amount under clause 2.38.1 - 15006 Radiotherapy, superficial—attendance at which a single dose technique is applied—one field 94.35 - 15009 Radiotherapy, superficial—attendance at which a single dose technique is applied—2 or more fields up to a maximum of 5 additional fields Amount under clause 2.38.1 - 15012 Radiotherapy, superficial—each attendance at which treatment is given to an eye 53.45 - Subgroup 2—Orthovoltage - 15100 Radiotherapy, deep or orthovoltage—each attendance at which fractionated treatment is given at 3 or more treatments per week—one field 47.70 - 15103 Radiotherapy, deep or orthovoltage—each attendance at which fractionated treatment is given at 3 or more treatments per week—2 or more fields up to a maximum of 5 additional fields (rotational therapy being 3 fields) Amount under clause 2.38.1 - 15106 Radiotherapy, deep or orthovoltage—each attendance at which fractionated treatment is given at 2 treatments per week or less frequently—one field 56.30 - 15109 Radiotherapy, deep or orthovoltage—each attendance at which fractionated treatment is given at 2 treatments per week or less frequently—2 or more fields up to a maximum of 5 additional fields (rotational therapy being 3 fields) Amount under clause 2.38.1 - 15112 Radiotherapy, deep or orthovoltage—attendance at which a single dose technique is applied—one field 120.25 - 15115 Radiotherapy, deep or orthovoltage—attendance at which a single dose technique is applied—2 or more fields up to a maximum of 5 additional fields (rotational therapy being 3 fields) Amount under clause 2.38.1 - Subgroup 3—Megavoltage - 15211 Radiation oncology treatment, using cobalt unit or caesium teletherapy unit—each attendance at which treatment is given—one field 54.70 - 15214 Radiation oncology treatment, using cobalt unit or caesium teletherapy unit—each attendance at which treatment is given—2 or more fields up to a maximum of 5 additional fields (rotational therapy being 3 fields) Amount under clause 2.38.1 - 15215 Radiation oncology treatment, using a single photon energy linear accelerator, with or without electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—one field—treatment delivered to primary site (lung) 59.65 - 15218 Radiation oncology treatment, using a single photon energy linear accelerator, with or without electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—one field—treatment delivered to primary site (prostate) 59.65 - 15221 Radiation oncology treatment, using a single photon energy linear accelerator, with or without electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—one field—treatment delivered to primary site (breast) 59.65 - 15224 Radiation oncology treatment, using a single photon energy linear accelerator, with or without electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—one field—treatment delivered to primary site for diseases or conditions not covered by item 15215, 15218 or 15221 59.65 - 15227 Radiation oncology treatment, using a single photon energy linear accelerator, with or without electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—one field—treatment delivered to secondary site 59.65 - 15230 Radiation oncology treatment, using a single photon energy linear accelerator, with or without electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—2 or more fields up to a maximum of 5 additional fields (rotational therapy being 3 fields)—treatment delivered to primary site (lung) Amount under clause 2.38.1 - 15233 Radiation oncology treatment, using a single photon energy linear accelerator, with or without electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—2 or more fields up to a maximum of 5 additional fields (rotational therapy being 3 fields)—treatment delivered to primary site (prostate) Amount under clause 2.38.1 - 15236 Radiation oncology treatment, using a single photon energy linear accelerator, with or without electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—2 or more fields up to a maximum of 5 additional fields (rotational therapy being 3 fields)—treatment delivered to primary site (breast) Amount under clause 2.38.1 - 15239 Radiation oncology treatment, using a single photon energy linear accelerator, with or without electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—2 or more fields up to a maximum of 5 additional fields (rotational therapy being 3 fields)—treatment delivered to primary site for diseases or conditions not covered by item 15230, 15233 or 15236 Amount under clause 2.38.1 - 15242 Radiation oncology treatment, using a single photon energy linear accelerator, with or without electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—2 or more fields up to a maximum of 5 additional fields (rotational therapy being 3 fields)—treatment delivered to secondary site Amount under clause 2.38.1 - 15245 Radiation oncology treatment, using a dual photon energy linear accelerator with a minimum higher energy of at least 10MV photons, with electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—one field—treatment delivered to primary site (lung) 59.65 - 15248 Radiation oncology treatment, using a dual photon energy linear accelerator with a minimum higher energy of at least 10MV photons, with electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—one field—treatment delivered to primary site (prostate) 59.65 - 15251 Radiation oncology treatment, using a dual photon energy linear accelerator with a minimum higher energy of at least 10MV photons, with electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—one field—treatment delivered to primary site (breast) 59.65 - 15254 Radiation oncology treatment, using a dual photon energy linear accelerator with a minimum higher energy of at least 10MV photons, with electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—one field—treatment delivered to primary site for diseases or conditions not covered by item 15245, 15248 or 15251 59.65 - 15257 Radiation oncology treatment, using a dual photon energy linear accelerator with a minimum higher energy of at least 10MV photons, with electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—one field—treatment delivered to secondary site 59.65 - 15260 Radiation oncology treatment, using a dual photon energy linear accelerator with a minimum higher energy of at least 10MV photons, with electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—2 or more fields up to a maximum of 5 additional fields (rotational therapy being 3 fields)—treatment delivered to primary site (lung) Amount under clause 2.38.1 - 15263 Radiation oncology treatment, using a dual photon energy linear accelerator with a minimum higher energy of at least 10MV photons, with electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—2 or more fields up to a maximum of 5 additional fields (rotational therapy being 3 fields)—treatment delivered to primary site (prostate) Amount under clause 2.38.1 - 15266 Radiation oncology treatment, using a dual photon energy linear accelerator with a minimum higher energy of at least 10MV photons, with electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—2 or more fields up to a maximum of 5 additional fields (rotational therapy being 3 fields)—treatment delivered to primary site (breast) Amount under clause 2.38.1 - 15269 Radiation oncology treatment, using a dual photon energy linear accelerator with a minimum higher energy of at least 10MV photons, with electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—2 or more fields up to a maximum of 5 additional fields (rotational therapy being 3 fields)—treatment delivered to primary site for diseases or conditions not covered by item 15260, 15263 or 15266 Amount under clause 2.38.1 - 15272 Radiation oncology treatment, using a dual photon energy linear accelerator with a minimum higher energy of at least 10MV photons, with electron facilities—each attendance at which treatment is given—2 or more fields up to a maximum of 5 additional fields (rotational therapy being 3 fields)—treatment delivered to secondary site Amount under clause 2.38.1 - 15275 Radiation oncology treatment with IGRT imaging undertaken:(a) to implement an IMRT dosimetry plan prepared in accordance with item 15565; and(b) utilising an intensity‑modulated treatment delivery mode (delivered by a fixed or dynamic gantry linear accelerator or by a helical non C‑arm based linear accelerator), once only at each attendance at which treatment is given 182.90 - Subgroup 4—Brachytherapy - 15303 Intrauterine treatment alone using radioactive sealed sources having a half‑life greater than 115 days using manual afterloading techniques (Anaes.) 357.00 - 15304 Intrauterine treatment alone using radioactive sealed sources having a half‑life greater than 115 days using automatic afterloading techniques (Anaes.) 357.00 - 15307 Intrauterine treatment alone using radioactive sealed sources having a half‑life of less than 115 days including iodine, gold, iridium or tantalum using manual afterloading techniques (Anaes.) 676.80 - 15308 Intrauterine treatment alone using radioactive sealed sources having a half‑life of less than 115 days including iodine, gold, iridium or tantalum using automatic afterloading techniques (Anaes.) 676.80 - 15311 Intravaginal treatment alone using radioactive sealed sources having a half‑life greater than 115 days using manual afterloading techniques (Anaes.) 333.20 - 15312 Intravaginal treatment alone using radioactive sealed sources having a half‑life greater than 115 days using automatic afterloading techniques (Anaes.) 330.80 - 15315 Intravaginal treatment alone using radioactive sealed sources having a half‑life of less than 115 days including iodine, gold, iridium or tantalum using manual afterloading techniques (Anaes.) 654.25 - 15316 Intravaginal treatment alone using radioactive sealed sources having a half‑life of less than 115 days including iodine, gold, iridium or tantalum using automatic afterloading techniques (Anaes.) 654.25 - 15319 Combined intrauterine and intravaginal treatment using radioactive sealed sources having a half‑life greater than 115 days using manual afterloading techniques (Anaes.) 406.05 - 15320 Combined intrauterine and intravaginal treatment using radioactive sealed sources having a half‑life greater than 115 days using automatic afterloading techniques (Anaes.) 406.05 - 15323 Combined intrauterine and intravaginal treatment using radioactive sealed sources having a half‑life of less than 115 days including iodine, gold, iridium, or tantalum using manual afterloading techniques (Anaes.) 722.00 - 15324 Combined intrauterine and intravaginal treatment using radioactive sealed sources having a half‑life of less than 115 days including iodine, gold, iridium, or tantalum using automatic afterloading techniques (Anaes.) 722.00 - 15327 Implantation of a sealed radioactive source (having a half‑life of less than 115 days including iodine, gold, iridium or tantalum) to a region, under general anaesthesia, or epidural or spinal (intrathecal) nerve block, requiring surgical exposure and using manual afterloading techniques (Anaes.) 785.45 - 15328 Implantation of a sealed radioactive source (having a half‑life of less than 115 days including iodine, gold, iridium or tantalum) to a region, under general anaesthesia, or epidural or spinal (intrathecal) nerve block, requiring surgical exposure and using automatic afterloading techniques (Anaes.) 785.45 - 15331 Implantation of a sealed radioactive source (having a half‑life of less than 115 days including iodine, gold, iridium or tantalum) to a site (including the tongue, mouth, salivary gland, axilla, subcutaneous sites), if the volume treated involves multiple planes but does not require surgical exposure and using manual afterloading techniques (Anaes.) 745.80 - 15332 Implantation of a sealed radioactive source (having a half‑life of less than 115 days including iodine, gold, iridium or tantalum) to a site (including the tongue, mouth, salivary gland, axilla, subcutaneous sites), if the volume treated involves multiple planes but does not require surgical exposure and using automatic afterloading techniques (Anaes.) 745.80 - 15335 Implantation of a sealed radioactive source (having a half‑life of less than 115 days including iodine, gold, iridium or tantalum) to a site if the volume treated involves only a single plane but does not require surgical exposure and using manual afterloading techniques (Anaes.) 676.80 - 15336 Implantation of a sealed radioactive source (having a half‑life of less than 115 days including iodine, gold, iridium or tantalum) to a site if the volume treated involves only a single plane but does not require surgical exposure and using automatic afterloading techniques (Anaes.) 676.80 - 15338 Prostate, radioactive seed implantation of, radiation oncology component, using transrectal ultrasound guidance, for localised prostatic malignancy at clinical stage T1 (clinically inapparent tumour that is not palpable or visible by imaging) or clinical stage T2 (tumour confined within prostate), with a Gleason score of not more than 7 and a prostate specific antigen (PSA) of 10ng/ml or less at the time of diagnosis, if the procedure is performed by an oncologist at an approved site in association with a urologist 935.60 - 15339 Removal of a sealed radioactive source under general anaesthesia, or under epidural or spinal nerve block (Anaes.) 76.20 - 15342 Construction and application of a radioactive mould using a sealed source having a half‑life of greater than 115 days, to treat intracavity, intraoral or intranasal site 190.30 - 15345 Construction and application of a radioactive mould using a sealed source having a half‑life of less than 115 days including iodine, gold, iridium or tantalum to treat intracavity, intraoral or intranasal sites 507.80 - 15348 Subsequent applications of radioactive mould referred to in item 15342 or 15345—each attendance 58.40 - 15351 Construction with or without initial application of a radioactive mould not exceeding 5 cm in diameter to an external surface 116.60 - 15354 Construction and first application of a radioactive mould more than 5 cm in diameter to an external surface 141.50 - 15357 Attendance upon a patient to apply a radioactive mould constructed for application to an external surface of the patient other than an attendance which is the first attendance to apply the mould—each attendance 40.05 - Subgroup 5—Computerised planning - 15500 Radiation field setting using a simulator or isocentric x‑ray or megavoltage machine or CT of a single area for treatment by a single field or parallel opposed fields (other than a service associated with a service to which item 15509 applies) 242.65 - 15503 Radiation field setting using a simulator or isocentric x‑ray or megavoltage machine or CT of a single area, if views in more than one plane are required for treatment by multiple fields, or of 2 areas (other than a service associated with a service to which item 15512 applies) 311.55 - 15506 Radiation field setting using a simulator or isocentric x‑ray or megavoltage machine or CT of 3 or more areas, or of total body or half body irradiation, or of mantle therapy or inverted Y fields, or of irregularly shaped fields using multiple blocks, or of off‑axis fields or several joined fields (other than a service associated with a service to which item 15515 applies) 465.30 - 15509 Radiation field setting using a diagnostic x‑ray unit of a single area for treatment by a single field or parallel opposed fields (other than a service associated with a service to which item 15500 applies) 210.30 - 15512 Radiation field setting using a diagnostic x‑ray unit of a single area, if views in more than one plane are required for treatment by multiple fields, or of 2 areas (other than a service associated with a service to which item 15503 applies) 271.10 - 15513 Radiation source localisation using a simulator or x‑ray machine or CT of a single area, if views in more than one plane are required, for brachytherapy treatment planning for Iodine 125 seed implantation of localised prostate cancer, being a service associated with a service to which item 15338 applies 306.55 - 15515 Radiation field setting using a diagnostic x‑ray unit of 3 or more areas, or of total body or half body irradiation, or of mantle therapy or inverted Y fields, or of irregularly shaped fields using multiple blocks, or of off‑axis fields or several joined fields (other than a service associated with a service to which item 15506 applies) 392.50 - 15518 Radiation Dosimetry by a CT interfacing planning computer for megavoltage or teletherapy radiotherapy by a single field or parallel opposed fields to one area with up to 2 shielding blocks 77.00 - 15521 Radiation Dosimetry by a CT interfacing planning computer for megavoltage or teletherapy radiotherapy to a single area by 3 or more fields, or by a single field or parallel opposed fields to 2 areas, or if wedges are used 339.90 - 15524 Radiation Dosimetry by a CT interfacing planning computer for megavoltage or teletherapy radiotherapy to 3 or more areas, or by mantle fields or inverted Y fields or tangential fields or irregularly shaped fields using multiple blocks, or off‑axis fields, or several joined fields 637.35 - 15527 Radiation Dosimetry by a non‑CT interfacing planning computer for megavoltage or teletherapy radiotherapy by a single field or parallel opposed fields to one area with up to 2 shielding blocks 78.95 - 15530 Radiation Dosimetry by a non‑CT interfacing planning computer for megavoltage or teletherapy radiotherapy to a single area by 3 or more fields, or by a single field or parallel opposed fields to 2 areas, or if wedges are used 352.15 - 15533 Radiation Dosimetry by a non‑CT interfacing planning computer for megavoltage or teletherapy radiotherapy to 3 or more areas, or by mantle fields or inverted Y fields, or tangential fields or irregularly shaped fields using multiple blocks, or off‑axis fields, or several joined fields 667.70 - 15536 Brachytherapy planning, computerised Radiation Dosimetry 266.90 - 15539 Brachytherapy planning, computerised radiation dosimetry for Iodine 125 seed implantation of localised prostate cancer, being a service associated with a service to which item 15338 applies 627.30 - 15550 Simulation for 3 dimensional conformal radiotherapy without intravenous contrast medium if:(a) treatment set up and technique specifications are in preparation for 3 dimensional conformal radiotherapy dose planning; and(b) patient set up and immobilisation techniques are suitable for reliable CT image volume data acquisition and 3 dimensional conformal radiotherapy treatment; and(c) a high‑quality CT image volume dataset is required for the relevant region of interest to be planned and treated; and(d) the image set up is required to be suitable for the generation of quality digitally reconstructed radiographic images 658.60 - 15553 Simulation for 3 dimensional conformal radiotherapy, including pre and post intravenous contrast medium if:(a) treatment set up and technique specifications are in preparation for 3 dimensional conformal radiotherapy dose planning; and(b) patient set up and immobilisation techniques are suitable for reliable CT image volume data acquisition and 3 dimensional conformal radiotherapy treatment; and(c) a high‑quality CT image volume dataset is required for the relevant region of interest to be planned and treated; and(d) the image set up is required to be suitable for the generation of quality digitally reconstructed radiographic images 710.55 - 15555 Simulation for IMRT, with or without intravenous contrast medium, if:(a) treatment set‑up and technique specifications are in preparation for IMRT dose planning; and(b) patient set‑up and immobilisation techniques are suitable for reliable CT image volume data acquisition and IMRT; and(c) a high‑quality CT image volume dataset is acquired for the relevant region of interest to be planned and treated; and(d) the image set is suitable for the generation of quality digitally reconstructed radiographic images 710.55 - 15556 Dosimetry for 3 dimensional conformal radiotherapy of level one complexity if the dosimetry is for a single phase 3 dimensional conformal treatment plan using a CT image volume dataset, with one gross tumour volume or clinical target volume, one planning target volume and one organ at risk specified in the prescription 664.40 - 15559 Dosimetry for 3 dimensional conformal radiotherapy of level 2 complexity if:(a) the dosimetry is for a 2 phase 3 dimensional conformal treatment plan using one or more CT image volume datasets, with at least one gross tumour volume, 2 planning target volumes and one organ at risk specified in the prescription; or(b) the dosimetry is for a single phase 3 dimensional conformal treatment plan using one or more CT image volume datasets, with at least one gross tumour volume, one planning target volume and 2 organ at risk dose goals or constraints specified in the prescription; or(c) image fusion with a secondary CT, MRI or PET image volume dataset is used to define target volumes and organs at risk as mentioned in item 15556 866.55 - 15562 Dosimetry for 3 dimensional conformal radiotherapy of level 3 complexity if:(a) the dosimetry is for a 3 phase 3 dimensional conformal treatment plan using one or more CT image volume datasets, with at least one gross tumour volume, 3 planning target volumes and one organ at risk specified in the prescription; or(b) the dosimetry is for a 2 phase 3 dimensional conformal treatment plan using one or more CT image volume datasets, with:(i) at least one gross tumour volume specified in the prescription; and(ii) 2 planning target volumes or 2 organ at risk dose goals or constraints specified in the prescription; or(c) the dosimetry is for a single phase 3 dimensional conformal treatment plan using one or more CT image volume datasets, with at least one gross tumour volume, one planning target volume and 3 organ at risk dose goals or constraints specified in the prescription; or(d) image fusion with a secondary CT, MRI or PET image volume dataset is used to define target volume and organs at risk as mentioned in item 15559 1,120.75 - 15565 Preparation of an IMRT dosimetry plan, which uses one or more CT image volume datasets, if:(a) in preparing the IMRT dosimetry plan:(i) the differential between target dose and normal tissue dose is maximised, based on a review and assessment by a radiation oncologist; and(ii) all gross tumour targets, clinical targets, planning targets and organs at risk are rendered as volumes as defined in the prescription; and(iii) organs at risk are nominated as planning dose goals or constraints and the prescription specifies the organs at risk as dose goals or constraints; and(iv) dose calculations and dose volume histograms are generated in an inverse planned process, using a specialised calculation algorithm, with prescription and plan details approved and recorded in the plan; and(v) a CT image volume dataset is used for the relevant region to be planned and treated; and(vi) the CT images are suitable for the generation of quality digitally reconstructed radiographic images; and(b) the final IMRT dosimetry plan is validated by the radiation therapist and the medical physicist, using robust quality assurance processes that include:(i) determination of the accuracy of the dose fluence delivered by the multi‑leaf collimator and gantry position (static or dynamic); and(ii) ensuring that the plan is deliverable, data transfer is acceptable and validation checks are completed on a linear accelerator; and(iii) validating the accuracy of the derived IMRT dosimetry plan; and(c) the final IMRT dosimetry plan is approved by the radiation oncologist prior to delivery 3,313.85 - Subgroup 6—Stereotactic radiosurgery - 15600 Stereotactic radiosurgery, including all radiation oncology consultations, planning, simulation, dosimetry and treatment 1,702.30 - Subgroup 7—Radiation oncology treatment verification - 15700 Radiation oncology treatment verification with single projection acquisition (with single or double exposures), if:(a) the service is prescribed and reviewed by a radiation oncologist; and(b) the service is not associated with item 15705 or 15710;—each attendance at which treatment is verified 45.95 - 15705 Radiation oncology treatment verification with multiple projection acquisition, if:(a) the service is prescribed and reviewed by a radiation oncologist; and(b) the service is not associated with item 15700 or item 15710;—each attendance at which treatment involving 3 fields or more is verified 76.60 - 15710 Radiation oncology treatment verification with volumetric acquisition, if:(a) the service is prescribed and reviewed by a radiation oncologist; and(b) the service is not associated with item 15700 or item 15705;—each attendance at which treatment involving 3 fields or more is verified 76.60 - 15715 Radiation oncology treatment verification of planar or volumetric IGRT for IMRT, involving the use of at least 2 planar image views or projections or 1 volumetric image set to facilitate a 3‑dimensional adjustment to radiation treatment field positioning, if:(a) the treatment technique is classified as IMRT; and(b) the margins applied to volumes (clinical target volume or planning target volume) are tailored or reduced to minimise treatment related exposure of healthy or normal tissues; and(c) the decisions made using acquired images are based on action algorithms and are given effect immediately prior to or during treatment delivery by qualified and trained staff considering complex competing factors and using software‑driven modelling programs; and(d) the radiation treatment field positioning requires accuracy levels of less than 5mm (curative cases) or up to 10mm (palliative cases) to ensure accurate dose delivery to the target; and(e) the image decisions and actions are documented in the patient’s record; and(f) the radiation oncologist is responsible for supervising the process, including specifying the type and frequency of imaging, tolerance and action levels to be incorporated in the process, reviewing the trend analysis and any reports and relevant images during the treatment course and specifying action protocols as required; and(g) when treatment adjustments are inadequate to satisfy treatment protocol requirements, replanning is required; and(h) the imaging infrastructure (hardware and software) is linked to the treatment unit and networked to an image database, enabling both on‑line and off‑line reviews 76.60 - Subgroup 8—Brachytherapy planning and verification - 15800 Brachytherapy treatment verification—maximum of one only for each attendance 96.30 - 15850 Radiation source localisation using a simulator, x‑ray machine, CT or ultrasound of a single area, if views in more than one plane are required, for brachytherapy treatment planning, not being a service to which item 15513 applies. 199.50 - Subgroup 10—Intraoperative radiotherapy - 15900 Breast, malignant tumour, targeted intraoperative radiotherapy, using an intrabeam device, delivered at the time of breast‑conserving surgery (partial mastectomy or lumpectomy) for a patient who:(a) is 45 years of age or over; and(b) has a T1 or small T2 (less than or equal to 3cm in diameter) primary tumour; and(c) has a histologic grade 1 or 2 tumour; and(d) has an oestrogen‑receptor positive tumour; and(e) has a node negative malignancy; and(f) is suitable for wide local excision of a primary invasive ductal carcinoma that was diagnosed as unifocal on conventional examination and imaging; and(g) has no contra‑indications to breast irradiation(H) 250.00 Division 2.39—Group T3: Therapeutic nuclear medicine 2.39.1  Application of Group T3   An item in Group T3 does not apply to a service mentioned in the item if the service is provided at the same time as, or in connection with, the provision of a pain pump for post‑surgical pain management.   - Group T3—Therapeutic nuclear medicine - 16003 Intra‑cavitary administration of a therapeutic dose of Yttrium 90 (not including preliminary paracentesis and other than a service to which item 35404, 35406 or 35408 applies or a service associated with selective internal radiation therapy) (Anaes.) 650.50 - 16006 Administration of a therapeutic dose of Iodine 131 for thyroid cancer by single dose technique 499.85 - 16009 Administration of a therapeutic dose of Iodine 131 for thyrotoxicosis by single dose technique 341.15 - 16012 Intravenous administration of a therapeutic dose of Phosphorous 32 295.15 - 16015 Administration of Strontium 89 for painful bony metastases from carcinoma of the prostate, if hormone therapy has failed and either:(a) the disease is poorly controlled by conventional radiotherapy; or(b) conventional radiotherapy is inappropriate, due to the wide distribution of sites of bone pain 4,085.70 - 16018 Administration of 153 Sm‑lexidronam for the relief of bone pain due to skeletal metastases (as indicated by a positive bone scan), if hormonal therapy or chemotherapy have failed, and:(a) the disease is poorly controlled by conventional radiotherapy; or(b) conventional radiotherapy is inappropriate, due to the wide distribution of sites of bone pain 2,442.45 Division 2.40—Group T4: Obstetrics 2.40.1  Definitions for item 16400   In item 16400: nurse means a person:  (a) who is registered under a law of a State or Territory as a registered nurse or enrolled nurse; and  (b) who is employed by, or whose services are otherwise retained by, a medical practitioner or a practice operated by a medical practitioner. practice location has the same meaning as in clause 2.33.1. 2.40.2  Meaning of midwife in items 16400 and 16408   In items 16400 and 16408: midwife means a person:  (a) who is registered under a law of a State or Territory as a midwife; and  (b) who is employed by, or whose services are otherwise retained by, a medical practitioner or a practice operated by a medical practitioner. 2.40.3  Application of Group T4   An item in Group T4 does not apply to a service mentioned in the item if the service is provided at the same time as, or in connection with, the provision of a pain pump for post‑surgical pain management. 2.40.4  Application of item 16400  (1) Item 16400 applies to an antenatal service provided to a patient by a midwife, nurse or Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioner only if:  (a) the midwife, nurse or Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioner has the appropriate training and skills to perform an antenatal service; and  (b) the medical practitioner under whose supervision the antenatal service is provided retains responsibility for clinical outcomes and for the health and safety of the patient; and  (c) the midwife, nurse or Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioner complies with relevant legislative or regulatory requirements regarding the provision of the antenatal service in the State or Territory where the service is provided.  (2) Item 16400 does not apply in conjunction with another antenatal attendance item for the same patient, on the same day by the same practitioner.  (3) Item 16400 does not apply in conjunction with items 10990, 10991 or 10992.  (4) For any particular patient, item 16400 applies not more than 10 times in a 9 month period. 2.40.5  Limitation of item 16399   Item 16399 does not apply if the patient or specialist travels to a place to satisfy the requirement in sub‑subparagraph (d)(i)(B) of the item.   - Group T4—Obstetrics - 16399 Professional attendance on a patient by a specialist practising in his or her specialty of obstetrics if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) item 16401, 16404, 16406, 16500, 16590 or 16591 applies to the attendance; and(c) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(d) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies 50% of the fee for item 16401, 16404, 16406, 16500, 16590 or 16591 - 16400 Antenatal service provided by a midwife, nurse or an Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practitioner, to a maximum of 10 services per pregnancy, if:(a) the service is provided on behalf of, and under the supervision of, a medical practitioner; and(b) the service is provided at, or from, a practice location in a regional, rural or remote area; and(c) the service is not performed in conjunction with another antenatal attendance item in Group T4 for the same patient on the same day by the same practitioner; and(d) the service is not provided for an admitted patient of a hospital or approved day facility 27.25 - 16401 Professional attendance at consulting rooms or a hospital by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of obstetrics after referral of the patient to him or her—each attendance, other than a second or subsequent attendance in a single course of treatment 85.55 - 16404 Professional attendance at consulting rooms or a hospital by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of obstetrics after referral of the patient to him or her—each attendance after the first attendance in a single course of treatment 43.00 - 16406 Antenatal professional attendance by an obstetrician or general practitioner, as part of a single course of treatment when the patient is referred by a participating midwifeApplicable once for a pregnancy 133.95 - 16407 Postnatal professional attendance (other than a service to which any other item applies) if the attendance:(a) is by an obstetrician or general practitioner; and(b) is in hospital or at consulting rooms; and(c) is between 4 and 8 weeks after the birth; and(d) lasts at least 20 minutes; and(e) includes a mental health assessment (including screening for drug and alcohol use and domestic violence) of the patient; and(f) is for a pregnancy in relation to which a service to which item 82140 applies is not providedApplicable once for a pregnancy 71.70 - 16408 Postnatal attendance (other than attendance at consulting rooms, a hospital or a residential aged care facility or a service to which any other item applies) if the attendance:(a) is by:(i) a midwife (on behalf of and under the supervision of the medical practitioner who attended the birth); or(ii) an obstetrician; or(iii) a general practitioner; and(b) is between 1 week and 4 weeks after the birth; and(c) lasts at least 20 minutes; and(d) is for a patient who was privately admitted for the birth; and(e) is for a pregnancy in relation to which a service to which item 82130, 82135 or 82140 applies is not providedApplicable once for a pregnancy 53.40 - 16500 Antenatal attendance 47.15 - 16501 External cephalic version for breech presentation, after 36 weeks, if no contraindication exists, in a unit with facilities for caesarean section, including pre and post version CTG, with or without tocolysis, other than a service to which items 55718 to 55728 and 55768 to 55774 apply—chargeable whether or not the version is successful and limited to a maximum of 2 ECVs per pregnancy 140.55 - 16502 Polyhydramnios, unstable lie, multiple pregnancy, pregnancy complicated by diabetes or anaemia, threatened premature labour treated by bed rest only or oral medication, requiring admission to hospital—each attendance that is not a routine antenatal attendance, to a maximum of one visit per day 47.15 - 16505 Threatened abortion, threatened miscarriage or hyperemesis gravidarum, requiring admission to hospital, treatment of—each attendance that is not a routine antenatal attendance 47.15 - 16508 Pregnancy complicated by acute intercurrent infection, fetal growth restriction, threatened premature labour with ruptured membranes or threatened premature labour treated by intravenous therapy, requiring admission to hospital—each professional attendance (other than a service to which item 16533 applies) that is not a routine antenatal attendance, to a maximum of one visit per day 47.15 - 16509 Pre‑eclampsia, eclampsia or antepartum haemorrhage, treatment of—each professional attendance (other than a service to which item 16534 applies) that is not a routine antenatal attendance 47.15 - 16511 Cervix, purse string ligation of (Anaes.) 219.95 - 16512 Cervix, removal of purse string ligature of (Anaes.) 63.50 - 16514 Antenatal cardiotocography in the management of high risk pregnancy (not during the course of the confinement) 36.65 - 16515 Management of vaginal birth as an independent procedure, if the patient’s care has been transferred by another medical practitioner for management of the birth and the attending medical practitioner has not provided antenatal care to the patient, including all attendances related to the birth (Anaes.) 630.85 - 16518 Management of labour, incomplete, if the patient’s care has been transferred to another medical practitioner for completion of the birth (Anaes.) 450.65 - 16519 Management of labour and birth by any means (including Caesarean section) including post‑partum care for 5 days (Anaes.) 693.95 - 16520 Caesarean section and post‑operative care for 7 days, if the patient’s care has been transferred by another medical practitioner for management of the confinement and the attending medical practitioner has not provided any of the antenatal care (Anaes.) 630.85 - 16522 Management of labour and birth, or birth alone, (including caesarean section), on or after 23 weeks gestation, if in the course of antenatal supervision or intrapartum management one or more of the following conditions is present, including postnatal care for 7 days:(a) fetal loss;(b) multiple pregnancy;(c) antepartum haemorrhage that is:(i) of greater than 200 ml; or(ii) associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation;(d) placenta praevia on ultrasound in the third trimester with the placenta within 2 cm of the internal cervical os;(e) baby with a birth weight less than or equal to 2,500 g;(f) trial of vaginal birth in a patient with uterine scar if there has been a planned vaginal birth after caesarean section;(g) trial of vaginal breech birth if there has been a planned vaginal breech birth;(h) prolonged labour greater than 12 hours with partogram evidence of abnormal cervimetric progress as evidenced by cervical dilatation at less than 1 cm/hr in the active phase of labour (after 3 cm cervical dilatation and effacement until full dilatation of the cervix);(i) acute fetal compromise evidenced by:(i) scalp pH less than 7.15; or(ii) scalp lactate greater than 4.0;(j) acute fetal compromise evidenced by at least one of the following significant cardiotocograph abnormalities:(i) prolonged bradycardia (less than 100 bpm for more than 2 minutes);(ii) absent baseline variability (less than 3 bpm);(iii) sinusoidal pattern;(iv) complicated variable decelerations with reduced (3 to 5 bpm) or absent baseline variability;(v) late decelerations;(k) pregnancy induced hypertension of at least 140/90 mm Hg associated with:(i) at least 2+ proteinuria on urinalysis; or(ii) protein‑creatinine ratio greater than 30 mg/mmol; or(iii) platelet count less than 150 x 109/L; or(iv) uric acid greater than 0.36 mmol/L;(l) gestational diabetes mellitus requiring at least daily blood glucose monitoring;(m) mental health disorder (whether arising prior to pregnancy, during pregnancy or postpartum) that is demonstrated by:(i) the patient requiring hospitalisation; or(ii) the patient receiving ongoing care by a psychologist or psychiatrist to treat the symptoms of a mental health disorder; or(iii) the patient having a GP mental health treatment plan; or(iv) the patient having a management plan prepared in accordance with item 291;(n) disclosure or evidence of domestic violence;(o) any of the following conditions either diagnosed pre‑pregnancy or evident at the first antenatal visit before 20 weeks gestation:(i) pre‑existing hypertension requiring antihypertensive medication prior to pregnancy;(ii) cardiac disease (co‑managed with a specialist physician and with echocardiographic evidence of myocardial dysfunction);(iii) previous renal or liver transplant;(iv) renal dialysis;(v) chronic liver disease with documented oesophageal varices;(vi) renal insufficiency in early pregnancy (serum creatinine greater than 110 mmol/L);(vii) neurological disorder that confines the patient to a wheelchair throughout pregnancy;(viii) maternal height of less than 148 cm;(ix) a body mass index greater than or equal to 40;(x) pre‑existing diabetes mellitus on medication prior to pregnancy;(xi) thyrotoxicosis requiring medication;(xii) previous thrombosis or thromboembolism requiring anticoagulant therapy through pregnancy and the early puerperium;(xiii) thrombocytopenia with platelet count of less than 100,000 prior to 20 weeks gestation;(xiv) HIV, hepatitis B or hepatitis C carrier status positive;(xv) red cell or platelet iso‑immunisation;(xvi) cancer with metastatic disease;(xvii) illicit drug misuse during pregnancy(H) (Anaes.) 1,629.35 - 16527 Management of vaginal birth, if the patient’s care has been transferred by a participating midwife for management of the birth, including all attendances related to the birth (Anaes.)Applicable once for a pregnancy 630.85 - 16528 Caesarean section and post‑operative care for 7 days, if the patient’s care has been transferred by a participating midwife for management of the birth (Anaes.)Applicable once for a pregnancy 630.85 - 16530 Management of pregnancy loss, from 14 weeks to 15 weeks and 6 days gestation, other than a service to which item 16531, 35640 or 35643 applies (Anaes.) 384.35 - 16531 Management of pregnancy loss, from 16 weeks to 22 weeks and 6 days gestation, other than a service to which item 16530, 35640 or 35643 applies (Anaes.) (H) 768.70 - 16533 Pregnancy complicated by acute intercurrent infection, fetal growth restriction, threatened premature labour with ruptured membranes or threatened premature labour treated by intravenous therapy, requiring admission to hospital—each professional attendance lasting at least 40 minutes that is not a routine antenatal attendance, to a maximum of 3 services per pregnancy (H) 105.55 - 16534 Pre‑eclampsia, eclampsia or antepartum haemorrhage, treatment of—each professional attendance lasting at least 40 minutes that is not a routine antenatal attendance, to a maximum of 3 services per pregnancy (H) 105.55 - 16564 Evacuation of retained products of conception (placenta, membranes or mole) as a complication of confinement, with or without curettage of the uterus, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 218.00 - 16567 Management of postpartum haemorrhage by special measures such as packing of uterus, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 318.80 - 16570 Acute inversion of the uterus, vaginal correction of, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 416.05 - 16571 Cervix, repair of extensive laceration or lacerations (Anaes.) 318.80 - 16573 Third degree tear, involving anal sphincter muscles and rectal mucosa, repair of, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 259.80 - 16590 Planning and management, by a practitioner, of a pregnancy if:(a) the practitioner intends to take primary responsibility for management of the pregnancy and any complications, and to be available for the birth; and(b) the patient intends to be privately admitted for the birth; and(c) the pregnancy has progressed beyond 28 weeks gestation; and(d) the practitioner has maternity privileges at a hospital or birth centre; and(e) the service includes a mental health assessment (including screening for drug and alcohol use and domestic violence) of the patient; and(f) a service to which item 16591 applies is not provided in relation to the same pregnancyApplicable once for a pregnancy 372.75 - 16591 Planning and management, by a practitioner, of a pregnancy if:(a) the pregnancy has progressed beyond 28 weeks gestation; and(b) the service includes a mental health assessment (including screening for drug and alcohol use and domestic violence) of the patient; and(c) a service to which item 16590 applies is not provided in relation to the same pregnancyApplicable once for a pregnancy 142.65 - 16600 Amniocentesis, diagnostic 63.50 - 16603 Chorionic villus sampling, by any route 121.85 - 16606 Fetal blood sampling, using interventional techniques from umbilical cord or fetus, including fetal neuromuscular blockade and amniocentesis (Anaes.) 243.25 - 16609 Fetal intravascular blood transfusion, using blood already collected, including neuromuscular blockade, amniocentesis and fetal blood sampling (Anaes.) 496.00 - 16612 Fetal intraperitoneal blood transfusion, using blood already collected, including neuromuscular blockade, amniocentesis and fetal blood sampling—not performed in conjunction with a service described in item 16609 (Anaes.) 390.25 - 16615 Fetal intraperitoneal blood transfusion, using blood already collected, including neuromuscular blockade, amniocentesis and fetal blood sampling—performed in conjunction with a service described in item 16609 (Anaes.) 207.85 - 16618 Amniocentesis, therapeutic, when indicated because of polyhydramnios with at least 500 ml being aspirated 207.85 - 16621 Amnioinfusion, for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes in the presence of severe oligohydramnios 207.85 - 16624 Fetal fluid filled cavity, drainage of 299.10 - 16627 Feto‑amniotic shunt, insertion of, into fetal fluid filled cavity, including neuromuscular blockade and amniocentesis 608.95 Division 2.41—Group T6: Examination by anaesthetist 2.41.1  Application of Group T6   An item in Group T6 does not apply to a service mentioned in the item if the service is provided at the same time as, or in connection with, the provision of a pain pump for post‑surgical pain management. 2.41.2  Limitation of item 17609   Item 17609 does not apply if the patient or specialist travels to a place to satisfy the requirement in sub‑subparagraph (d)(i)(B) of the item.   - Group T6—Examination by anaesthetist - 17609 Professional attendance on a patient by a specialist practising in his or her specialty of anaesthesia if:(a) the attendance is by video conference; and(b) item 17610, 17615, 17620, 17625, 17640, 17645, 17650 or 17655 applies to the attendance; and(c) the patient is not an admitted patient; and(d) the patient:(i) is located both:(A) within a telehealth eligible area; and(B) at the time of the attendance—at least 15 kms by road from the specialist; or(ii) is a care recipient in a residential care service; or(iii) is a patient of:(A) an Aboriginal Medical Service; or(B) an Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Service; for which a direction made under subsection 19(2) of the Act applies 50% of the fee for item 17610, 17615, 17620, 17640, 17645, 17650 or 17655 - 17610 Professional attendance by a medical practitioner in the practice of anaesthesia for a brief consultation involving a targeted history and limited examination, including the cardio‑respiratory system, of not more than 15 minutes in duration (other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 2801 to 3000 apply) 43.65 - 17615 Professional attendance by a medical practitioner in the practice of anaesthesia for a consultation on a patient undergoing advanced surgery or who has complex medical problems, involving a selective history and an extensive examination of multiple systems and the formulation of a written patient management plan documented in the patient notes, and of more than 15 minutes in duration and not more than 30 minutes in duration (other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 2801 to 3000 apply) 86.85 - 17620 Professional attendance by a medical practitioner in the practice of anaesthesia for a consultation on a patient undergoing advanced surgery or who has complex medical problems involving a detailed history and comprehensive examination of multiple systems, and the formulation of a written patient management plan documented in the patient notes, and of more than 30 minutes in duration and not more than 45 minutes in duration (other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 2801 to 3000 apply) 120.30 - 17625 Professional attendance by a medical practitioner in the practice of anaesthesia for a consultation on a patient undergoing advanced surgery or who has complex medical problems involving an exhaustive history and comprehensive examination of multiple systems, the formulation of a written patient management plan following discussion with relevant health care professionals and/or the patient, involving medical planning of high complexity documented in the patient notes, and of more than 45 minutes in duration (other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 2801 to 3000 apply) 153.15 - 17640 Professional attendance by a specialist anaesthetist in the practice of anaesthesia, if the patient is referred to him or her—a brief consultation involving a short history, a limited examination, and of not more than 15 minutes in duration (other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 2801 to 3000 apply) 43.65 - 17645 Professional attendance by a specialist anaesthetist in the practice of anaesthesia, if the patient is referred to him or her—a consultation involving a selective history and examination of multiple systems, the formulation of a written patient management plan, and of more than 15 minutes in duration and not more than 30 minutes in duration (other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 2801 to 3000 apply) 86.85 - 17650 Professional attendance by a specialist anaesthetist in the practice of anaesthesia, if the patient is referred to him or her—a consultation involving a detailed history and comprehensive examination of multiple systems, and the formulation of a written patient management plan, and of more than 30 minutes in duration and not more than 45 minutes in duration (other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 2801 to 3000 apply) 120.30 - 17655 Professional attendance by a specialist anaesthetist in the practice of anaesthesia, if the patient is referred to him or her—a consultation involving an exhaustive history and comprehensive examination of multiple systems, and the formulation of a written patient management plan following discussion with relevant health care professionals or the patient, involving medical planning of high complexity, and of more than 45 minutes in duration (other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 2801 to 3000 apply) 153.15 - 17680 Professional attendance by a medical practitioner in the practice of anaesthesia—a consultation immediately before the institution of a major regional blockade in a patient in labour, if no previous anaesthesia consultation has occurred (other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 2801 to 3000 apply) 86.85 - 17690 A medical service in association with an item in the range 17615 to 17625 if:(a) the service is provided to a patient before an admitted patient episode of care involving anaesthesia; and(b) the service is not provided to an admitted patient of a hospital or day‑hospital facility; and(c) the service is not provided on the day of admission to hospital for the subsequent episode of care involving anaesthesia services; and(d) the service is of more than 15 minutes in duration;(other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 2801 to 3000 apply) 40.15 Division 2.42—Group T7: Regional or field nerve blocks 2.42.1  Meaning of amount under clause 2.42.1  (1) In item 18219: amount under clause 2.42.1 means the sum of:  (a) the fee for item 18216; and  (b) $19.00 for each additional period of 15 minutes, and part of a period of 15 minutes, of continuous attendance beyond the first hour of attendance.  (2) In item 18227: amount under clause 2.42.1 means the sum of:  (a) the fee for item 18226; and  (b) $28.60 for each additional period of 15 minutes, and part of a period of 15 minutes, of continuous attendance beyond the first hour of attendance. 2.42.2  Application of Group T7   An item in Group T7 does not apply to a service mentioned in the item if the service is provided at the same time as, or in connection with, the provision of a pain pump for post‑surgical pain management.   - Group T7—Regional or field nerve blocks - 18213 Intravenous regional anaesthesia of limb by retrograde perfusion 88.65 - 18216 Intrathecal or epidural infusion of a therapeutic substance, initial injection or commencement of, including up to 1 hour of continuous attendance by the medical practitioner (Anaes.) 189.90 - 18219 Intrathecal or epidural infusion of a therapeutic substance, initial injection or commencement of, if continuous attendance by the medical practitioner extends beyond the first hour (Anaes.) Amount under clause 2.42.1 - 18222 Infusion of a therapeutic substance to maintain regional anaesthesia or analgesia, subsequent injection or revision of, if the period of continuous medical practitioner attendance is 15 minutes or less 37.65 - 18225 Infusion of a therapeutic substance to maintain regional anaesthesia or analgesia, subsequent injection or revision of, if the period of continuous medical practitioner attendance is more than 15 minutes 50.05 - 18226 Intrathecal or epidural infusion of a therapeutic substance, initial injection or commencement of, including up to 1 hour of continuous attendance by the medical practitioner—for a patient in labour, if the service is provided between 8 pm to 8 am on any weekday, or on a Saturday, Sunday or public holiday 284.80 - 18227 Intrathecal or epidural infusion of a therapeutic substance, initial injection or commencement of, if continuous attendance by a medical practitioner extends beyond the first hour—for a patient in labour, if the service is provided between 8 pm to 8 am on any weekday, or on a Saturday, Sunday or public holiday Amount under clause 2.42.1 - 18228 Interpleural block, initial injection or commencement of infusion of a therapeutic substance 62.50 - 18230 Intrathecal or epidural injection of neurolytic substance (Anaes.) 238.45 - 18232 Intrathecal or epidural injection of substance other than anaesthetic, contrast or neurolytic solutions, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 189.90 - 18233 Epidural injection of blood for blood patch (Anaes.) 189.90 - 18234 Trigeminal nerve, primary division of, injection of an anaesthetic agent (Anaes.) 124.85 - 18236 Trigeminal nerve, peripheral branch of, injection of an anaesthetic agent (Anaes.) 62.50 - 18238 Facial nerve, injection of an anaesthetic agent, other than a service associated with a service to which item 18240 applies 37.65 - 18240 Retrobulbar or peribulbar injection of an anaesthetic agent 93.60 - 18242 Greater occipital nerve, injection of an anaesthetic agent (Anaes.) 37.65 - 18244 Vagus nerve, injection of an anaesthetic agent 100.80 - 18248 Phrenic nerve, injection of an anaesthetic agent 88.65 - 18250 Spinal accessory nerve, injection of an anaesthetic agent 62.50 - 18252 Cervical plexus, injection of an anaesthetic agent 100.80 - 18254 Brachial plexus, injection of an anaesthetic agent 100.80 - 18256 Suprascapular nerve, injection of an anaesthetic agent 62.50 - 18258 Intercostal nerve (single), injection of an anaesthetic agent 62.50 - 18260 Intercostal nerves (multiple), injection of an anaesthetic agent 88.65 - 18262 Ilio‑inguinal, iliohypogastric or genitofemoral nerves, one or more of, injection of an anaesthetic agent (Anaes.) 62.50 - 18264 Pudendal nerve or dorsal nerve (or both), injection of an anaesthetic agent 100.80 - 18266 Ulnar, radial or median nerve, main trunk of, one or more of, injection of an anaesthetic agent, not being associated with a brachial plexus block 62.50 - 18268 Obturator nerve, injection of an anaesthetic agent 88.65 - 18270 Femoral nerve, injection of an anaesthetic agent 88.65 - 18272 Saphenous, sural, popliteal or posterior tibial nerve, main trunk of, one or more of, injection of an anaesthetic agent 62.50 - 18274 Paravertebral, cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral or coccygeal nerves, injection of an anaesthetic agent, (single vertebral level) 88.65 - 18276 Paravertebral nerves, injection of an anaesthetic agent, (multiple levels) 124.85 - 18278 Sciatic nerve, injection of an anaesthetic agent 88.65 - 18280 Sphenopalatine ganglion, injection of an anaesthetic agent (Anaes.) 124.85 - 18282 Carotid sinus, injection of an anaesthetic agent, as an independent percutaneous procedure 100.80 - 18284 Stellate ganglion, injection of an anaesthetic agent (cervical sympathetic block) (Anaes.) 147.65 - 18286 Lumbar or thoracic nerves, injection of an anaesthetic agent (paravertebral sympathetic block) (Anaes.) 147.65 - 18288 Coeliac plexus or splanchnic nerves, injection of an anaesthetic agent (Anaes.) 147.65 - 18290 Cranial nerve other than trigeminal, destruction by a neurolytic agent, other than a service associated with the injection of botulinum toxin (Anaes.) 249.75 - 18292 Nerve branch, destruction by a neurolytic agent, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies or a service associated with the injection of botulinum toxin except a service to which item 18354 applies (Anaes.) 124.85 - 18294 Coeliac plexus or splanchnic nerves, destruction by a neurolytic agent (Anaes.) 176.00 - 18296 Lumbar sympathetic chain, destruction by a neurolytic agent (Anaes.) 150.55 - 18298 Cervical or thoracic sympathetic chain, destruction by a neurolytic agent (Anaes.) 176.00 Division 2.43—Group T11: Botulinum toxin 2.43.1  Supply of botulinum toxin  (1) A service mentioned in any of items 18350 to 18379 does not include the supply of the botulinum toxin to which the service relates.  (2) Items 18350 to 18354, 18361, 18362 and 18369 to 18379 do not apply to an injection of botulinum toxin if the botulinum toxin is not supplied under the pharmaceutical benefits scheme. 2.43.2  Limitation of certain items  (1) A service mentioned in item 18360 or 18365 is applicable to the first 4 treatments, not exceeding 2 for each limb, on any one day.  (2) Items 18360, 18365, 18366 and 18368 apply only to a service provided by a specialist or consultant physician in the practice of his or her speciality.   - Group T11—Botulinum toxin - 18350 Botulinum Toxin Type A Purified Neurotoxin Complex (Botox), injection of, for the treatment of hemifacial spasm in a patient who is at least 12 years of age, including all such injections on any one day 124.85 - 18351 Clostridium Botulinum Type A Toxin‑Haemagglutin Complex (Dysport), injection of, for the treatment of hemifacial spasm in a patient who is at least 18 years of age, including all such injections on any one day 124.85 - 18353 Botulinum Toxin Type A Purified Neurotoxin Complex (Botox) or Clostridium Botulinum Type A Toxin‑Haemagglutin Complex (Dysport) or IncobotulinumtoxinA (Xeomin), injection of, for the treatment of cervical dystonia (spasmodic torticollis), including all such injections on any one day 249.75 - 18354 Botulinum Toxin Type A Purified Neurotoxin Complex (Botox) or Clostridium Botulinum Type A Toxin‑Haemagglutin Complex (Dysport), injection of, for the treatment of dynamic equinus foot deformity (including equinovarus and equinovulgus) due to spasticity in an ambulant cerebral palsy patient, if:(a) the patient is at least 2 years of age; and(b) the treatment is for all or any of the muscles subserving one functional activity and supplied by one motor nerve, with a maximum of 4 sets of injections for the patient on any one day (with a maximum of 2 sets of injections for each lower limb), including all injections per set (Anaes.) 124.85 - 18360 Botulinum Toxin Type A Purified Neurotoxin Complex (Botox) or Clostridium Botulinum Type A Toxin Haemagglutinin Complex (Dysport), injection of, for the treatment of moderate to severe focal spasticity if:(a) the patient is at least 18 years of age; and(b) the spasticity is associated with a previously diagnosed neurological disorder; and(c) the treatment is provided as:(i) second line therapy when standard treatment for the condition has failed; or(ii) an adjunct to physical therapy; and(d) the treatment is for all or any of the muscles subserving one functional activity and supplied by one motor nerve, with a maximum of 4 sets of injections for the patient on any one day (with a maximum of 2 sets of injections for each limb), including all injections per set; and(e) the treatment is not provided on the same occasion as a service mentioned in item 18365 124.85 - 18361 Botulinum Toxin Type A Purified Neurotoxin Complex (Botox), injection of, for the treatment of moderate to severe upper limb spasticity due to cerebral palsy if:(a) the patient is at least 2 years of age; and(b) for a patient who is at least 18 years of age—before the patient turned 18, the patient had commenced treatment for the spasticity with botulinum toxin supplied under the pharmaceutical benefits scheme; and(c) the treatment is for all or any of the muscles subserving one functional activity and supplied by one motor nerve, with a maximum of 4 sets of injections for the patient on any one day (with a maximum of 2 sets of injections for each upper limb), including all injections per set (Anaes.) 124.85 - 18362 Botulinum Toxin Type A Purified Neurotoxin Complex (Botox), injection of, for the treatment of severe primary axillary hyperhidrosis, including all such injections on any one day, if:(a) the patient is at least 12 years of age; and(b) the patient has been intolerant of, or has not responded to, topical aluminium chloride hexahydrate; and(c) the patient has not had treatment with botulinum toxin within the immediately preceding 4 months; and(d) if the patient has had treatment with botulinum toxin within the previous 12 months—the patient had treatment on no more than 2 separate occasions (Anaes.) 246.70 - 18365 Botulinum Toxin Type A Purified Neurotoxin Complex (Botox) or Clostridium Botulinum Type A Toxin‑Haemagglutin Complex (Dysport) or IncobotulinumtoxinA (Xeomin), injection of, for the treatment of moderate to severe spasticity of the upper limb following a stroke, if:(a) the patient is at least 18 years of age; and(b) treatment is provided as:(i) second line therapy when standard treatment for the condition has failed; or(ii) an adjunct to physical therapy; and(c) the patient does not have established severe contracture in the limb that is to be treated; and(d) the treatment is for all or any of the muscles subserving one functional activity and supplied by one motor nerve, with a maximum of 4 sets of injections for the patient on any one day (with a maximum of 2 sets of injections for each upper limb), including all injections per set; and(e) for a patient who has received treatment on 2 previous separate occasions—the patient has responded to the treatment 124.85 - 18366 Botulinum Toxin Type A Purified Neurotoxin Complex (Botox), injection of, for the treatment of strabismus, including all such injections on any one day and associated electromyography (Anaes.) 156.40 - 18368 Botulinum Toxin Type A Purified Neurotoxin Complex (Botox), injection of, for the treatment of spasmodic dysphonia, including all such injections on any one day 267.05 - 18369 Clostridium Botulinum Type A Toxin‑Haemagglutin Complex (Dysport) or IncobotulinumtoxinA (Xeomin), injection of, for the treatment of unilateral blepharospasm in a patient who is at least 18 years of age, including all such injections on any one day (Anaes.) 45.05 - 18370 Botulinum Toxin Type A Purified Neurotoxin Complex (Botox), injection of, for unilateral blepharospasm in a patient who is at least 12 years of age, including all such injections on any one day (Anaes.) 45.05 - 18372 Botulinum Toxin Type A Purified Neurotoxin Complex (Botox), injection of, for the treatment of bilateral blepharospasm, in a patient who is at least 12 years of age, including all such injections on any one day (Anaes.) 124.85 - 18374 Clostridium Botulinum Type A Toxin‑Haemagglutin Complex (Dysport) or IncobotulinumtoxinA (Xeomin), injection of, for the treatment of bilateral blepharospasm in a patient who is at least 18 years of age, including all such injections on any one day (Anaes.) 124.85 - 18375 Botulinum Toxin Type A Purified Neurotoxin Complex (Botox), intravesial injection of, with cystoscopy, for the treatment of urinary incontinence, including all such injections on any one day, if:(a) the urinary incontinence is due to neurogenic detrusor overactivity as demonstrated by urodynamic study of a patient with:(i) multiple sclerosis; or(ii) spinal cord injury; or(iii) for a patient who is at least 18 years of age—spina bifida; and(b) the patient has urinary incontinence that is inadequately controlled by anti‑cholinergic therapy, as manifested by having experienced at least 14 episodes of urinary incontinence per week before commencement of treatment; and(c) the patient is willing and able to self‑catheterise; and(d) the treatment is not provided on the same occasion as a service mentioned in item 104, 105, 110, 116, 119, 11900 or 11919For each patient—applicable not more than once except if the patient achieves at least a 50% reduction in urinary incontinence episodes from baseline at any time during the period of 6 to 12 weeks after first treatment(H) (Anaes.) 229.85 - 18377 Botulinum Toxin Type A Purified Neurotoxin Complex (Botox), injection of, for the treatment of chronic migraine, including all injections in one day, if:(a) the patient is at least 18 years of age; and(b) the patient has experienced an inadequate response, intolerance or contraindication to at least 3 prophylactic migraine medications before commencement of treatment with botulinum toxin, as manifested by an average of 15 or more headache days per month, with at least 8 days of migraine, over a period of at least 6 months, before commencement of treatment with botulinum toxinFor each patient—applicable not more than twice except if the patient achieves and maintains at least a 50% reduction in the number of headache days per month from baseline after 2 treatment cycles (each of 12 weeks duration) 124.85 - 18379 Botulinum Toxin Type A Purified Neurotoxin Complex (Botox), intravesial injection of, with cystoscopy, for the treatment of urinary incontinence, including all such injections on any one day, if:(a) the urinary incontinence is due to idiopathic overactive bladder in a patient; and(b) the patient is at least 18 years of age; and(c) the patient has urinary incontinence that is inadequately controlled by at least 2 alternative anti‑cholinergic agents, as manifested by having experienced at least 14 episodes of urinary incontinence per week before commencement of treatment with botulinum toxin; and(d) the patient is willing and able to self‑catheterise; and(e) treatment is not provided on the same occasion as a service mentioned in item 104, 105, 110, 116, 119, 11900 or 11919For each patient—applicable not more than once except if the patient achieves at least a 50% reduction in urinary incontinence episodes from baseline at any time during the period of 6 to 12 weeks after first treatment(H) (Anaes.) 229.85 Division 2.44—Group T10: Anaesthesia performed in connection with certain services (Relative Value Guide) 2.44.1  Meaning of amount under clause 2.44.1  (1) In item 25025:  (a) the fee mentioned in any of items 20100 to 21997 or 22900 for the initiation of the management of anaesthesia in association with which the anaesthesia is performed; and  (b) the fee mentioned in the item in the range 23010 to 24136 that applies to the anaesthesia; and  (c) if any of items 25000 to 25015 applies to the anaesthesia—the fee mentioned in the item; and  (d) if a service mentioned in any of items 22001 to 22051 is performed in association with the anaesthesia—the fee mentioned in the item.  (2) In item 25030:  (a) the fee mentioned in the item in the range 25200 to 25205 that applies to the assistance; and  (b) the fee mentioned in the item in the range 23010 to 24136 that applies to the assistance; and  (c) if any of items 25000 to 25015 applies to the anaesthesia—the fee mentioned in the item; and  (d) if a service mentioned in any of items 22001 to 22051 is performed in association with the assistance—the fee mentioned in the item.  (3) In item 25050:  (a) the fee mentioned in item 22060; and  (b) the fee mentioned in the item in the range 23010 to 24136 that applies to the perfusion; and  (c) if any of items 25000 to 25015 apply to the perfusion—the fee mentioned in the item; and  (d) if a service mentioned in any of items 22001 to 22051 or 22065 to 22075 is performed in association with the perfusion—the fee mentioned in the item. 2.44.2  Meaning of amount under clause 2.44.2 amount under clause 2.44.2 means the sum of:  (a) $99.00; and  (b) the fee mentioned in the item in the range 23010 to 24136 that applies to the assistance; and  (c) if any of the items 25000 to 25020 applies to the assistance—the fee mentioned in the item; and  (d) if a service mentioned in an item in the range 22001 to 22051 applies to the assistance—the fee mentioned in the item. 2.44.3  Meaning of complex paediatric case   In item 25205: complex paediatric case means a case that involves one or more of the following services:  (a) invasive monitoring, either intravascular or transoesophageal;  (b) organ transplantation;  (c) craniofacial surgery;  (d) major tumour resection;  (e) separation of conjoint twins. 2.44.4  Meaning of service time   In Subgroups 21, 24, 25 and 26 of Group T10: service time means:  (a) for the management of anaesthesia on a patient by an anaesthetist—the period that:  (i) starts when the anaesthetist commences exclusive and continuous care of the patient for anaesthesia; and  (ii) ends when the anaesthetist places the patient safely under the supervision of other personnel; and  (b) for perfusion performed on a patient under anaesthesia—the period that:  (i) starts when the anaesthetic commences; and  (ii) ends with the closure of the chest of the patient; and  (c) for assistance given by an assistant anaesthetist in the management of anaesthesia performed on a patient—the period when the assistant anaesthetist is actively attending on the patient. 2.44.5  Application of Group T10  (1) An item in Group T10 does not apply to a service mentioned in the item if the service is provided at the same time as, or in connection with, the provision of a pain pump for post‑surgical pain management.  (2) Items 20100 to 21990 (other than item 21965), 22060, 23010 to 24136, 25200 and 25205 apply to a service only if the service is provided in connection with a service that:  (a) is a professional service within the meaning of subsection 3(1) of the Act; and  (b) is mentioned in an item that includes, in its description, “(Anaes.)”.  (3) Items 22900 and 22905 apply to a service only if the service is provided in connection with a dental service (other than a dental service that is a prescribed medical service under paragraph (b) of the definition of professional service in subsection 3(1) of the Act).  (4) An item in Group T10 does not apply to a service mentioned in the item if the service is claimed in association with a service to which item 55026 or 55054 of the diagnostic imaging services table applies. 2.44.6  Application of Subgroup 21 of Group T10  (1) Items 23010 to 24136 apply to perfusion.  (2) Items 23010 to 24136 apply to assistance only as a component of item 25200 or 25205 and for the purpose of calculating the amount of fee for that item. 2.44.7  Services mentioned in Subgroups 21 to 25 of Group T10   In Subgroups 21 to 25 of Group T10: anaesthesia means the management of anaesthesia performed in association with a service to which any of items 20100 to 21997, 22900 and 22905 applies. assistance means assistance:  (a) in the management of anaesthesia; and  (b) to which item 25200 or 25205 applies. perfusion means perfusion to which item 22060 applies. 2.44.8  Application of Subgroups 22 and 23 of Group T10  (1) Items 25000 to 25020 apply to anaesthesia in addition to any other item that applies to anaesthesia.  (2) Items 25000 to 25020 apply to perfusion in addition to any other item that applies to perfusion.  (3) Items 25000 to 25020 apply:  (a) to assistance only as a component of item 25200 or 25205; and  (b) for calculating the amount of fee for the item. 2.44.9  Application of Subgroups 24 and 25 of Group T10   Items 25025 to 25050 apply to anaesthesia, assistance or perfusion in addition to any other item that applies to the service.   - Group T10—Anaesthesia performed in connection with certain services (Relative Value Guide) - Subgroup 1—Head - 20100 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the skin, subcutaneous tissue, muscles, salivary glands or superficial vessels of the head, including biopsy, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 99.00 - 20102 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for plastic repair of cleft lip 118.80 - 20104 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for electroconvulsive therapy 79.20 - 20120 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on external, middle or inner ear, including biopsy, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 99.00 - 20124 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for otoscopy 79.20 - 20140 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on eye, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 99.00 - 20142 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for lens surgery 118.80 - 20143 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for retinal surgery 118.80 - 20144 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for corneal transplant 158.40 - 20145 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for vitrectomy 158.40 - 20146 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for biopsy of conjunctiva 99.00 - 20147 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for squint repair 118.80 - 20148 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for ophthalmoscopy 79.20 - 20160 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on nose or accessory sinuses, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 118.80 - 20162 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for radical surgery on the nose and accessory sinuses 138.60 - 20164 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for biopsy of soft tissue of the nose and accessory sinuses 79.20 - 20170 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for intraoral procedures, including biopsy, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 118.80 - 20172 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for repair of cleft palate 138.60 - 20174 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for excision of retropharyngeal tumour 178.20 - 20176 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for radical intraoral surgery 198.00 - 20190 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on facial bones, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 99.00 - 20192 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for extensive surgery on facial bones (including prognathism and extensive facial bone reconstruction) 198.00 - 20210 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for intracranial procedures, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 297.00 - 20212 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for subdural taps 99.00 - 20214 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for burr holes of the cranium 178.20 - 20216 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for intracranial vascular procedures, including those for aneurysms or arterio‑venous abnormalities 396.00 - 20220 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for spinal fluid shunt procedures 198.00 - 20222 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for ablation of an intracranial nerve 118.80 - 20225 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for all cranial bone procedures 237.60 - 20230 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for microvascular free tissue flap surgery involving the head or face 237.60 - Subgroup 2—Neck - 20300 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the skin or subcutaneous tissue of the neck, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 99.00 - 20305 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for incision and drainage of large haematoma, large abscess, cellulitis or similar lesion or epiglottitis, causing life threatening airway obstruction 297.00 - 20320 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on oesophagus, thyroid, larynx, trachea, lymphatic system, muscles, nerves or other deep tissues of the neck, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 118.80 - 20321 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for laryngectomy, hemi laryngectomy, laryngopharyngectomy or pharyngectomy 198.00 - 20330 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for laser surgery to the airway (excluding nose and mouth) 158.40 - 20350 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on major vessels of neck, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 198.00 - 20352 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for simple ligation of major vessels of neck 99.00 - 20355 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for microvascular free tissue flap surgery involving the neck 237.60 - Subgroup 3—Thorax - 20400 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the skin or subcutaneous tissue of the anterior part of the chest, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 59.40 - 20401 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the breast, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 79.20 - 20402 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for reconstructive procedures on breast 99.00 - 20403 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for removal of breast lump or for breast segmentectomy, if axillary node dissection is performed 99.00 - 20404 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for mastectomy 118.80 - 20405 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for reconstructive procedures on the breast using myocutaneous flaps 158.40 - 20406 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for radical or modified radical procedures on breast with internal mammary node dissection 257.40 - 20410 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for electrical conversion of arrhythmias 99.00 - 20420 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the skin or subcutaneous tissue of the posterior part of the chest, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 99.00 - 20440 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for percutaneous bone marrow biopsy of the sternum 79.20 - 20450 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on clavicle, scapula or sternum, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 99.00 - 20452 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for radical surgery on clavicle, scapula or sternum 118.80 - 20470 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for partial rib resection, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 118.80 - 20472 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for thoracoplasty 198.00 - 20474 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for radical procedures on chest wall 257.40 - 20475 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for microvascular free tissue flap surgery involving the anterior or posterior thorax 198.00 - Subgroup 4—Intrathoracic - 20500 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for open procedures on the oesophagus 297.00 - 20520 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for all closed chest procedures (including rigid oesophagoscopy or bronchoscopy), other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 118.80 - 20522 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for needle biopsy of pleura 79.20 - 20524 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for pneumocentesis 79.20 - 20526 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for thoracoscopy 198.00 - 20528 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for mediastinoscopy 158.40 - 20540 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for thoracotomy procedures involving lungs, pleura, diaphragm, or mediastinum, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 257.40 - 20542 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for pulmonary decortication 297.00 - 20546 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for pulmonary resection with thoracoplasty 297.00 - 20548 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for intrathoracic repair of trauma to trachea and bronchi 297.00 - 20560 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for:(a) open procedures on the heart, pericardium or great vessels of the chest; or(b) percutaneous insertion of a valvular prosthesis 396.00 - Subgroup 5—Spine and spinal cord - 20600 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on cervical spine or spinal cord, or both, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 198.00 - 20604 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for posterior cervical laminectomy with the patient in the sitting position 257.40 - 20620 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on thoracic spine or spinal cord, or both, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 198.00 - 20622 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for thoracolumbar sympathectomy 257.40 - 20630 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures in lumbar region, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 158.40 - 20632 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for lumbar sympathectomy 138.60 - 20634 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for chemonucleolysis 198.00 - 20670 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for extensive spine or spinal cord procedures, or both 257.40 - 20680 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for manipulation of spine when performed in the operating theatre of a hospital 59.40 - 20690 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for percutaneous spinal procedures, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 99.00 - Subgroup 6—Upper abdomen - 20700 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the skin or subcutaneous tissue of the upper anterior abdominal wall, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 59.40 - 20702 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for percutaneous liver biopsy 79.20 - 20703 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the nerves, muscles, tendons and fascia of the upper abdominal wall, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 79.20 - 20704 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for microvascular free tissue flap surgery involving the anterior or posterior upper abdomen 198.00 - 20705 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for diagnostic laparoscopy procedures 118.80 - 20706 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for laparoscopic procedures in the upper abdomen, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 138.60 - 20730 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the skin or subcutaneous tissue of the upper posterior abdominal wall, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 99.00 - 20740 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for upper gastrointestinal endoscopic procedures 99.00 - 20745 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for upper gastrointestinal endoscopic procedures in association with acute gastrointestinal haemorrhage 118.80 - 20750 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for hernia repairs in upper abdomen, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 79.20 - 20752 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for repair of incisional hernia or wound dehiscence, or both 118.80 - 20754 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on an omphalocele 138.60 - 20756 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for transabdominal repair of diaphragmatic hernia 178.20 - 20770 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on major upper abdominal blood vessels 297.00 - 20790 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures within the peritoneal cavity in upper abdomen including cholecystectomy, gastrectomy, laparoscopic nephrectomy or bowel shunts 158.40 - 20791 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for bariatric surgery in a patient with clinically severe obesity 198.00 - 20792 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for partial hepatectomy (excluding liver biopsy) 257.40 - 20793 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for extended or trisegmental hepatectomy 297.00 - 20794 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for pancreatectomy, partial or total 237.60 - 20798 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for neuro endocrine tumour removal in the upper abdomen 198.00 - 20799 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for percutaneous procedures on an intra‑abdominal organ in the upper abdomen 118.80 - Subgroup 7—Lower abdomen - 20800 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the skin or subcutaneous tissue of the lower anterior abdominal walls, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 59.40 - 20802 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for lipectomy of the lower abdomen 99.00 - 20803 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the nerves, muscles, tendons and fascia of the lower abdominal wall, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 79.20 - 20804 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for microvascular free tissue flap surgery involving the anterior or posterior lower abdomen 198.00 - 20805 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for diagnostic laparoscopic procedures 118.80 - 20806 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for laparoscopic procedures in the lower abdomen 138.60 - 20810 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for lower intestinal endoscopic procedures 79.20 - 20815 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy to urinary tract 118.80 - 20820 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the skin, its derivatives or subcutaneous tissue of the lower posterior abdominal wall 99.00 - 20830 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for hernia repairs in lower abdomen, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 79.20 - 20832 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for repair of incisional herniae or wound dehiscence, or both, of the lower abdomen 118.80 - 20840 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for all procedures within the peritoneal cavity in lower abdomen, including appendicectomy, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 118.80 - 20841 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for bowel resection, including laparoscopic bowel resection, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 158.40 - 20842 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for amniocentesis 79.20 - 20844 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for abdominoperineal resection, including pull through procedures, ultra low anterior resection and formation of bowel reservoir 198.00 - 20845 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for radical prostatectomy 198.00 - 20846 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for radical hysterectomy 198.00 - 20847 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for ovarian malignancy 198.00 - 20848 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for pelvic exenteration 198.00 - 20850 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for caesarean section 237.60 - 20855 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for caesarean hysterectomy or hysterectomy within 24 hours of birth 297.00 - 20860 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for extraperitoneal procedures in lower abdomen, including those on the urinary tract, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 118.80 - 20862 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for renal procedures, including upper one‑third of ureter 138.60 - 20863 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for nephrectomy 198.00 - 20864 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for total cystectomy 198.00 - 20866 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for adrenalectomy 198.00 - 20867 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for neuro endocrine tumour removal in the lower abdomen 198.00 - 20868 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for renal transplantation (donor or recipient) 198.00 - 20880 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on major lower abdominal vessels, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 297.00 - 20882 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for inferior vena cava ligation 198.00 - 20884 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for percutaneous umbrella insertion 99.00 - 20886 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for percutaneous procedures on an intra‑abdominal organ in the lower abdomen 118.80 - Subgroup 8—Perineum - 20900 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the skin or subcutaneous tissue of the perineum, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 59.40 - 20902 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for anorectal procedures (including endoscopy or biopsy, or both) 79.20 - 20904 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for radical perineal procedures, including radical perineal prostatectomy or radical vulvectomy 138.60 - 20905 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for microvascular free tissue flap surgery involving the perineum 198.00 - 20906 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for vulvectomy 79.20 - 20910 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for transurethral procedures (including urethrocyctoscopy), other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 79.20 - 20911 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for endoscopic ureteroscopic surgery including laser procedures 99.00 - 20912 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for transurethral resection of bladder tumour or tumours 99.00 - 20914 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for transurethral resection of prostate 138.60 - 20916 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for bleeding post‑transurethral resection 138.60 - 20920 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on external genitalia, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 79.20 - 20924 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on undescended testis, unilateral or bilateral 79.20 - 20926 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for radical orchidectomy, inguinal approach 79.20 - 20928 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for radical orchidectomy, abdominal approach 118.80 - 20930 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for orchiopexy, unilateral or bilateral 79.20 - 20932 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for complete amputation of penis 79.20 - 20934 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for complete amputation of penis with bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy 118.80 - 20936 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for complete amputation of penis with bilateral inguinal and iliac lymphadenectomy 158.40 - 20938 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for insertion of penile prosthesis 79.20 - 20940 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for per vagina and vaginal procedures (including biopsy of vagina, cervix or endometrium), other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 79.20 - 20942 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for vaginal procedures (including repair operations and urinary incontinence procedures) 99.00 - 20943 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for transvaginal assisted reproductive services 79.20 - 20944 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for vaginal hysterectomy 118.80 - 20946 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for vaginal birth 158.40 - 20948 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for purse string ligation of cervix, or removal of purse string ligature, or removal of purse string ligature 79.20 - 20950 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for culdoscopy 99.00 - 20952 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for hysteroscopy 79.20 - 20953 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for endometrial ablation or resection in association with hysteroscopy 99.00 - 20954 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for correction of inverted uterus 198.00 - 20956 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for evacuation of retained products of conception, as a complication of confinement 79.20 - 20958 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for manual removal of retained placenta or for repair of vaginal or perineal tear following birth 99.00 - 20960 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for vaginal procedures in the management of post partum haemorrhage, if the blood loss is greater than 500 mls 138.60 - Subgroup 9—Pelvis (except hip) - 21100 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the skin or subcutaneous tissue of the anterior pelvic region (anterior to iliac crest), except external genitalia 59.40 - 21110 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the skin, its derivatives or subcutaneous tissue of the pelvic region (posterior to iliac crest), except perineum 99.00 - 21112 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for percutaneous bone marrow biopsy of the anterior iliac crest 79.20 - 21114 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for percutaneous bone marrow biopsy of the posterior iliac crest 99.00 - 21116 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for percutaneous bone marrow harvesting from the pelvis 118.80 - 21120 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the bony pelvis 118.80 - 21130 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for body cast application or revision, when performed in the operating theatre of a hospital 59.40 - 21140 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for interpelviabdominal (hindquarter) amputation 297.00 - 21150 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for radical procedures for tumour of the pelvis, except hindquarter amputation 198.00 - 21155 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for microvascular free tissue flap surgery involving the anterior or posterior pelvis 198.00 - 21160 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for closed procedures involving symphysis pubis or sacroiliac joint, when performed in the operating theatre of a hospital 79.20 - 21170 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for open procedures involving symphysis pubis or sacroiliac joint 158.40 - Subgroup 10—Upper leg (except knee) - 21195 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the skins or subcutaneous tissue of the upper leg 59.40 - 21199 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on nerves, muscles, tendons, fascia or bursae of the upper leg 79.20 - 21200 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for closed procedures involving hip joint, when performed in the operating theatre of a hospital 79.20 - 21202 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for arthroscopic procedures of the hip joint 79.20 - 21210 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for open procedures involving hip joint, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 118.80 - 21212 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for hip disarticulation 198.00 - 21214 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for total hip replacement or revision 198.00 - 21216 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for bilateral total hip replacement 277.20 - 21220 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for closed procedures involving upper two‑thirds of femur, when performed in the operating theatre of a hospital 79.20 - 21230 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for open procedures involving upper two‑thirds of femur, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 118.80 - 21232 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for above knee amputation 99.00 - 21234 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for radical resection of the upper two‑thirds of femur 158.40 - 21260 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures involving veins of upper leg, including exploration 79.20 - 21270 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures involving arteries of upper leg, including bypass graft, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 158.40 - 21272 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for femoral artery ligation 79.20 - 21274 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for femoral artery embolectomy 118.80 - 21275 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for microvascular free tissue flap surgery involving the upper leg 198.00 - 21280 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for microsurgical reimplantation of upper leg 297.00 - Subgroup 11—Knee and popliteal area - 21300 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the skin or subcutaneous tissue of the knee or popliteal area, or both 59.40 - 21321 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on nerves, muscles, tendons, fascia or bursae of knee or popliteal area, or both 79.20 - 21340 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for closed procedures on lower one‑third of femur, when performed in the operating theatre of a hospital 79.20 - 21360 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for open procedures on lower one‑third of femur 99.00 - 21380 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for closed procedures on knee joint when performed in the operating theatre of a hospital 59.40 - 21382 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for arthroscopic procedures of knee joint 79.20 - 21390 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for closed procedures on upper ends of tibia, fibula or patella, or any of them, when performed in the operating theatre of a hospital 59.40 - 21392 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for open procedures on upper ends of tibia, fibula or patella, or any of them 79.20 - 21400 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for open procedures on knee joint, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 79.20 - 21402 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for knee replacement 138.60 - 21403 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for bilateral knee replacement 198.00 - 21404 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for disarticulation of knee 99.00 - 21420 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for cast application, removal or repair, involving knee joint, undertaken in a hospital 59.40 - 21430 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on veins of knee or popliteal area, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 79.20 - 21432 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for repair of arteriovenous fistula of knee or popliteal area 99.00 - 21440 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on arteries of knee or popliteal area, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 158.40 - 21445 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for microvascular free tissue flap surgery involving the knee or popliteal area 198.00 - Subgroup 12—Lower leg (below knee) - 21460 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the skin or subcutaneous tissue of lower leg, ankle or foot 59.40 - 21461 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on nerves, muscles, tendons or fascia of lower leg, ankle or foot, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 79.20 - 21462 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for all closed procedures on lower leg, ankle or foot 59.40 - 21464 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for arthroscopic procedure of ankle joint 79.20 - 21472 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for repair of Achilles tendon 99.00 - 21474 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for gastrocnemius recession 99.00 - 21480 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for open procedures on bones of lower leg, ankle or foot, including amputation, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 79.20 - 21482 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for radical resection of bone involving lower leg, ankle or foot 99.00 - 21484 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for osteotomy or osteoplasty of tibia or fibula 99.00 - 21486 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for total ankle replacement 138.60 - 21490 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for lower leg cast application, removal or repair, undertaken in a hospital 59.40 - 21500 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on arteries of lower leg, including bypass graft, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 158.40 - 21502 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for embolectomy of the lower leg 118.80 - 21520 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on veins of lower leg, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 79.20 - 21522 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for venous thrombectomy of the lower leg 99.00 - 21530 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for microsurgical reimplantation of lower leg, ankle or foot 297.00 - 21532 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for microsurgical reimplantation of toe 158.40 - 21535 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for microvascular free tissue flap surgery involving the lower leg 198.00 - Subgroup 13—Shoulder and axilla - 21600 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the skin or subcutaneous tissue of the shoulder or axilla 59.40 - 21610 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on nerves, muscles, tendons, fascia or bursae of shoulder or axilla, including axillary dissection 99.00 - 21620 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for closed procedures on humeral head and neck, sternoclavicular joint, acromioclavicular joint or shoulder joint, when performed in the operating theatre of a hospital 79.20 - 21622 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for arthroscopic procedures of shoulder joint 99.00 - 21630 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for open procedures on humeral head and neck, sternoclavicular joint, acromioclavicular joint or shoulder joint, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 99.00 - 21632 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for radical resection involving humeral head and neck, sternoclavicular joint, acromioclavicular joint or shoulder joint 118.80 - 21634 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for shoulder disarticulation 178.20 - 21636 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for interthoracoscapular (forequarter) amputation 297.00 - 21638 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for total shoulder replacement 198.00 - 21650 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on arteries of shoulder or axilla, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 158.40 - 21652 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures for axillary‑brachial aneurysm 198.00 - 21654 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for bypass graft of arteries of shoulder or axilla 158.40 - 21656 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for axillary‑femoral bypass graft 198.00 - 21670 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on veins of shoulder or axilla 79.20 - 21680 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for shoulder cast application, removal or repair, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies, when undertaken in a hospital 59.40 - 21682 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for shoulder spica application, when undertaken in a hospital 79.20 - 21685 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for microvascular free tissue flap surgery involving the shoulder or axilla 198.00 - Subgroup 14—Upper arm and elbow - 21700 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the skin or subcutaneous tissue of the upper arm or elbow 59.40 - 21710 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on nerves, muscles, tendons, fascia or bursae of upper arm or elbow, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 79.20 - 21712 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for open tenotomy of the upper arm or elbow 99.00 - 21714 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for tenoplasty of the upper arm or elbow 99.00 - 21716 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for tenodesis for rupture of long tendon of biceps 99.00 - 21730 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for closed procedures on the upper arm or elbow, when performed in the operating theatre of a hospital 59.40 - 21732 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for arthroscopic procedures of elbow joint 79.20 - 21740 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for open procedures on the upper arm or elbow, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 99.00 - 21756 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for radical procedures on the upper arm or elbow 118.80 - 21760 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for total elbow replacement 138.60 - 21770 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on arteries of upper arm, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 158.40 - 21772 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for embolectomy of arteries of the upper arm 118.80 - 21780 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on veins of upper arm, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 79.20 - 21785 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for microvascular free tissue flap surgery involving the upper arm or elbow 198.00 - 21790 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for microsurgical reimplantation of upper arm 297.00 - Subgroup 15—Forearm wrist and hand - 21800 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the skin or subcutaneous tissue of the forearm, wrist or hand 59.40 - 21810 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the nerves, muscles, tendons, fascia, or bursae of the forearm, wrist or hand 79.20 - 21820 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for closed procedures on the radius, ulna, wrist, or hand bones, when performed in the operating theatre of a hospital 59.40 - 21830 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for open procedures on the radius, ulna, wrist, or hand bones, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 79.20 - 21832 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for total wrist replacement 138.60 - 21834 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for arthroscopic procedures of the wrist joint 79.20 - 21840 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the arteries of forearm, wrist or hand, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 158.40 - 21842 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for embolectomy of artery of forearm, wrist or hand 118.80 - 21850 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures on the veins of forearm, wrist or hand, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies 79.20 - 21860 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for forearm, wrist, or hand cast application, removal or repair, when undertaken in a hospital 59.40 - 21865 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for microvascular free tissue flap surgery involving the forearm, wrist or hand 198.00 - 21870 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for microsurgical reimplantation of forearm, wrist or hand 297.00 - 21872 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for microsurgical reimplantation of a finger 158.40 - Subgroup 16—Anaesthesia for burns - 21878 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for excision or debridement of burns, with or without skin grafting, if the area of burn involves not more than 3% of total body surface 59.40 - 21879 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for excision or debridement of burns, with or without skin grafting, if the area of burn involves more than 3% but less than 10% of total body surface 99.00 - 21880 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for excision or debridement of burns, with or without skin grafting, if the area of burn involves 10% or more but less than 20% of total body surface 138.60 - 21881 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for excision or debridement of burns, with or without skin grafting, if the area of burn involves 20% or more but less than 30% of total body surface 178.20 - 21882 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for excision or debridement of burns, with or without skin grafting, if the area of burn involves 30% or more but less than 40% of total body surface 217.80 - 21883 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for excision or debridement of burns, with or without skin grafting, if the area of burn involves 40% or more but less than 50% of total body surface 257.40 - 21884 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for excision or debridement of burns, with or without skin grafting, if the area of burn involves 50% or more but less than 60% of total body surface 297.00 - 21885 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for excision or debridement of burns, with or without skin grafting, if the area of burn involves 60% or more but less than 70% of total body surface 336.60 - 21886 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for excision or debridement of burns, with or without skin grafting, if the area of burn involves 70% or more but less than 80% of total body surface 376.20 - 21887 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for excision or debridement of burns, with or without skin grafting, if the area of burn involves 80% or more of total body surface 415.80 - Subgroup 17—Anaesthesia for radiological or other diagnostic or therapeutic procedures - 21900 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for injection procedure for hysterosalpingography 59.40 - 21906 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for injection procedure for myelography—lumbar or thoracic 99.00 - 21908 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for injection procedure for myelography—cervical 118.80 - 21910 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for injection procedure for myelography—posterior fossa 178.20 - 21912 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for injection procedure for discography—lumbar or thoracic 99.00 - 21914 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for injection procedure for discography—cervical 118.80 - 21915 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for peripheral arteriogram 99.00 - 21916 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for arteriograms—cerebral, carotid or vertebral 99.00 - 21918 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for retrograde arteriogram—brachial or femoral 99.00 - 21922 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for computerised axial tomography scanning, magnetic resonance scanning or digital subtraction angiography scanning 138.60 - 21925 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for retrograde cystography, retrograde urethrography or retrograde cystourethrography 79.20 - 21926 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for fluoroscopy 99.00 - 21927 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for barium enema or other opaque study of the small bowel 99.00 - 21930 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for bronchography 118.80 - 21935 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for phlebography 99.00 - 21936 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for heart—2 dimensional real time transoesophageal examination 118.80 - 21939 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for peripheral venous cannulation 59.40 - 21941 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for cardiac catheterisation (including coronary arteriography, ventriculography, cardiac mapping or insertion of automatic defibrillator or transvenous pacemaker) 138.60 - 21942 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for cardiac electrophysiological procedures including radio frequency ablation 198.00 - 21943 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for central vein catheterisation or insertion of right heart balloon catheter (via jugular, subclavian or femoral vein) by percutaneous or open exposure 99.00 - 21945 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for lumbar puncture, cisternal puncture or epidural injection 99.00 - 21949 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for harvesting of bone marrow for the purpose of transplantation 99.00 - 21952 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for muscle biopsy for malignant hyperpyrexia 198.00 - 21955 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for electroencephalography 99.00 - 21959 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for brain stem evoked response audiometry 99.00 - 21962 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for electrocochleography by extratympanic method or transtympanic membrane insertion method 99.00 - 21965 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia as a therapeutic procedure if there is a clinical need for anaesthesia, not for headache of any etiology 99.00 - 21969 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia during hyperbaric therapy, if the medical practitioner is not confined in the chamber (including the administration of oxygen) 158.40 - 21970 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia during hyperbaric therapy, if the medical practitioner is confined in the chamber (including the administration of oxygen) 297.00 - 21973 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for brachytherapy using radioactive sealed sources 99.00 - 21976 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for therapeutic nuclear medicine 99.00 - 21980 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for radiotherapy 99.00 - Subgroup 18—Miscellaneous - 21990 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia, being a service to which another item in this Subgroup or in Subgroups 1 to 17 or 20 would have applied if the procedure in connection with which the service is provided had not been discontinued 59.40 - 21992 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia performed on a person under the age of 10 years in connection with a procedure covered by an item that does not include the word “(Anaes.)” 79.20 - 21997 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia in connection with a procedure covered by an item that does not include the word “(Anaes.)”, other than a service to which item 21965 or 21992 applies, if there is a clinical need for anaesthesia 79.20 - Subgroup 19—Therapeutic and diagnostic services performed in connection with the management of anaesthesia - 22001 Collection of blood for autologous transfusion or when homologous blood is required for immediate transfusion in an emergency situation, when performed in association with the management of anaesthesia 59.40 - 22002 Administration of blood or bone marrow already collected, when performed in association with the management of anaesthesia 79.20 - 22007 Endotracheal intubation with flexible fibreoptic scope associated with difficult airway, when performed in association with the management of anaesthesia 79.20 - 22008 Double lumen endobronchial tube or bronchial blocker, insertion of, when performed in association with the management of anaesthesia 79.20 - 22012 Central venous, pulmonary arterial, systemic arterial or cardiac intracavity blood pressure monitoring by indwelling catheter—once per day for each type of pressure for a patient:(a) when performed in association with the management of anaesthesia for the patient; and(b) other than a service to which item 13876 applies 59.40 - 22014 Central venous, pulmonary arterial, systemic arterial or cardiac intracavity blood pressure monitoring by indwelling catheter—once per day for each type of pressure for a patient:(a) when performed in association with the management of anaesthesia for the patient; and(b) relating to another discrete operation on the same day for the patient; and(c) other than a service to which item 13876 applies 59.40 - 22015 Right heart balloon catheter, insertion of, including pulmonary wedge pressure and cardiac output measurement, when performed in association with the management of anaesthesia 118.80 - 22018 Measurement of the mechanical or gas exchange function of the respiratory system, using measurements of parameters that incorporate serial arterial blood gas analysis and include at least 2 of the following parameters:(a) pressure;(b) volume;(c) flow;(d) gas concentration in inspired or expired air;(e) alveolar gas or blood;performed in association with the management of anaesthesia, and for which a written record of the results is prepared, other than a service associated with a service to which item 11503 applies 138.60 - 22020 Central vein catheterisation by percutaneous or open exposure, other than a service to which item 13318 applies, when performed in association with the management of anaesthesia 79.20 - 22025 Intraarterial cannulation when performed in association with the management of anaesthesia 79.20 - 22031 Intrathecal or epidural injection (initial) of a therapeutic substance, with or without insertion of a catheter, in association with anaesthesia and surgery, for post operative pain management, other than a service associated with a service to which item 22036 applies 99.00 - 22036 Intrathecal or epidural injection (subsequent) of a therapeutic substance, using an in‑situ catheter, in association with anaesthesia and surgery, for post operative pain, other than a service associated with a service to which item 22031 applies 59.40 - 22040 Introduction of a regional or field nerve block peri‑operatively performed in the induction room, theatre or recovery room, for the control of post operative pain, via the femoral or sciatic nerves, in conjunction with hip, knee, ankle or foot surgery 39.60 - 22045 Introduction of a regional or field nerve block peri‑operatively performed in the induction room, theatre or recovery room, for the control of post operative pain, via the femoral and sciatic nerves, in conjunction with hip, knee, ankle or foot surgery 59.40 - 22050 Introduction of a regional of field nerve block peri‑operatively performed in the induction room, theatre or recovery room, for the control of post operative pain, via the brachial plexus in conjunction with shoulder surgery 39.60 - 22051 Intra‑operative transoesophageal echocardiography—monitoring in real time the structure and function of the heart chambers, valves and surrounding structures, including assessment of blood flow, with appropriate permanent recording during procedures on the heart, pericardium or great vessels of the chest, other than a service associated with a service to which item 55130, 55135 or 21936 applies 178.20 - 22055 Perfusion of limb or organ using heart‑lung machine or equivalent, other than a service associated with anaesthesia to which an item in Subgroup 21 applies 237.60 - 22060 Whole body perfusion, cardiac bypass, if the heart‑lung machine or equivalent is continuously operated by a medical perfusionist, other than a service associated with anaesthesia to which an item in Subgroup 21 applies 396.00 - 22065 Induced controlled hypothermia—total body, that is:(a) a service to which item 22060 applies; and(b) not a service associated with anaesthesia, to which an item in Subgroup 21 applies 99.00 - 22070 Cardioplegia, blood or crystalloid, administration by any route, that is:(a) a service to which item 22060 applies; and(b) not a service associated with a service to which an item in Subgroup 21 applies 198.00 - 22075 Deep hypothermic circulatory arrest, with core temperature less than 22°c, including management of retrograde cerebral perfusion (if performed), other than a service associated with anaesthesia to which an item in Subgroup 21 applies 297.00 - Subgroup 20—Management of anaesthesia in connection with a dental service - 22900 Initiation of the management by a medical practitioner of anaesthesia for extraction of tooth or teeth, with or without incision of soft tissue or removal of bone 118.80 - 22905 Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for restorative dental work 118.80 - Subgroup 21—Anaesthesia, perfusion and assistance at anaesthesia (time component) - 23010 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is not more than 15 minutes 19.80 - 23021 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 15 minutes but not more than 20 minutes 39.60 - 23022 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 20 minutes but not more than 25 minutes 39.60 - 23023 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 25 minutes but not more than 30 minutes 39.60 - 23031 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 30 minutes but not more than 35 minutes 59.40 - 23032 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 35 minutes but not more than 40 minutes 59.40 - 23033 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 40 minutes but not more than 45 minutes 59.40 - 23041 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 45 minutes but not more than 50 minutes 79.20 - 23042 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 50 minutes but not more than 55 minutes 79.20 - 23043 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 55 minutes but not more than 1 hour 79.20 - 23051 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 1:01 hours but not more than 1:05 hours 99.00 - 23052 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 1:05 hours but not more than 1:10 hours 99.00 - 23053 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 1:10 hours but not more than 1:15 hours 99.00 - 23061 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 1:15 hours but not more than 1:20 hours 118.80 - 23062 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 1:20 hours but not more than 1:25 hours 118.80 - 23063 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 1:25 hours but not more than 1:30 hours 118.80 - 23071 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 1:30 hours but not more than 1:35 hours 138.60 - 23072 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 1:35 hours but not more than 1:40 hours 138.60 - 23073 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 1:40 hours but not more than 1:45 hours 138.60 - 23081 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 1:45 hours but not more than 1:50 hours 158.40 - 23082 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 1:50 hours but not more than 1:55 hours 158.40 - 23083 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 1:55 hours but not more than 2:00 hours 158.40 - 23091 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 2:00 hours but not more than 2:10 hours 178.20 - 23101 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 2:10 hours but not more than 2:20 hours 198.00 - 23111 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 2:20 hours but not more than 2:30 hours 217.80 - 23112 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 2:30 hours but not more than 2:40 hours 237.60 - 23113 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 2:40 hours but not more than 2:50 hours 257.40 - 23114 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 2:50 hours but not more than 3:00 hours 277.20 - 23115 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 3:00 hours but not more than 3:10 hours 297.00 - 23116 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 3:10 hours but not more than 3:20 hours 316.80 - 23117 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 3:20 hours but not more than 3:30 hours 336.60 - 23118 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 3:30 hours but not more than 3:40 hours 356.40 - 23119 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 3:40 hours but not more than 3:50 hours 376.20 - 23121 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 3:50 hours but not more than 4:00 hours 396.00 - 23170 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 4:00 hours but not more than 4:10 hours 415.80 - 23180 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 4:10 hours but not more than 4:20 hours 435.60 - 23190 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 4:20 hours but not more than 4:30 hours 455.40 - 23200 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 4:30 hours but not more than 4:40 hours 475.20 - 23210 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 4:40 hours but not more than 4:50 hours 495.00 - 23220 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 4:50 hours but not more than 5:00 hours 514.80 - 23230 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 5:00 hours but not more than 5:10 hours 534.60 - 23240 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 5:10 hours but not more than 5:20 hours 554.40 - 23250 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 5:20 hours but not more than 5:30 hours 574.20 - 23260 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 5:30 hours but not more than 5:40 hours 594.00 - 23270 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 5:40 hours but not more than 5:50 hours 613.80 - 23280 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 5:50 hours but not more than 6:00 hours 633.60 - 23290 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 6:00 hours but not more than 6:10 hours 653.40 - 23300 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 6:10 hours but not more than 6:20 hours 673.20 - 23310 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 6:20 hours but not more than 6:30 hours 693.00 - 23320 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 6:30 hours but not more than 6:40 hours 712.80 - 23330 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 6:40 hours but not more than 6:50 hours 732.60 - 23340 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 6:50 hours but not more than 7:00 hours 752.40 - 23350 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 7:00 hours but not more than 7:10 hours 772.20 - 23360 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 7:10 hours but not more than 7:20 hours 792.00 - 23370 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 7:20 hours but not more than 7:30 hours 811.80 - 23380 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 7:30 hours but not more than 7:40 hours 831.60 - 23390 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 7:40 hours but not more than 7:50 hours 851.40 - 23400 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 7:50 hours but not more than 8:00 hours 871.20 - 23410 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 8:00 hours but not more than 8:10 hours 891.00 - 23420 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 8:10 hours but not more than 8:20 hours 910.80 - 23430 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 8:20 hours but not more than 8:30 hours 930.60 - 23440 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 8:30 hours but not more than 8:40 hours 950.40 - 23450 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 8:40 hours but not more than 8:50 hours 970.20 - 23460 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 8:50 hours but not more than 9:00 hours 990.00 - 23470 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 9:00 hours but not more than 9:10 hours 1,009.80 - 23480 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 9:10 hours but not more than 9:20 hours 1,029.60 - 23490 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 9:20 hours but not more than 9:30 hours 1,049.40 - 23500 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 9:30 hours but not more than 9:40 hours 1,069.20 - 23510 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 9:40 hours but not more than 9:50 hours 1,089.00 - 23520 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 9:50 hours but not more than 10:00 hours 1,108.80 - 23530 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 10:00 hours but not more than 10:10 hours 1,128.60 - 23540 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 10:10 hours but not more than 10:20 hours 1,148.40 - 23550 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 10:20 hours but not more than 10:30 hours 1,168.20 - 23560 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 10:30 hours but not more than 10:40 hours 1,188.00 - 23570 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 10:40 hours but not more than 10:50 hours 1,207.80 - 23580 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 10:50 hours but not more than 11:00 hours 1,227.60 - 23590 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 11:00 hours but not more than 11:10 hours 1,247.40 - 23600 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 11:10 hours but not more than 11:20 hours 1,267.20 - 23610 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 11:20 hours but not more than 11:30 hours 1,287.00 - 23620 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 11:30 hours but not more than 11:40 hours 1,306.80 - 23630 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 11:40 hours but not more than 11:50 hours 1,326.60 - 23640 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 11:50 hours but not more than 12:00 hours 1,346.40 - 23650 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 12:00 hours but not more than 12:10 hours 1,366.20 - 23660 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 12:10 hours but not more than 12:20 hours 1,386.00 - 23670 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 12:20 hours but not more than 12:30 hours 1,405.80 - 23680 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 12:30 hours but not more than 12:40 hours 1,425.60 - 23690 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 12:40 hours but not more than 12:50 hours 1,445.40 - 23700 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 12:50 hours but not more than 13:00 hours 1,465.20 - 23710 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 13:00 hours but not more than 13:10 hours 1,485.00 - 23720 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 13:10 hours but not more than 13:20 hours 1,504.80 - 23730 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 13:20 hours but not more than 13:30 hours 1,524.60 - 23740 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 13:30 hours but not more than 13:40 hours 1,544.40 - 23750 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 13:40 hours but not more than 13:50 hours 1,564.20 - 23760 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 13:50 hours but not more than 14:00 hours 1,584.00 - 23770 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 14:00 hours but not more than 14:10 hours 1,603.80 - 23780 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 14:10 hours but not more than 14:20 hours 1,623.60 - 23790 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 14:20 hours but not more than 14:30 hours 1,643.40 - 23800 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 14:30 hours but not more than 14:40 hours 1,663.20 - 23810 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 14:40 hours but not more than 14:50 hours 1,683.00 - 23820 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 14:50 hours but not more than 15:00 hours 1,702.80 - 23830 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 15:00 hours but not more than 15:10 hours 1,722.60 - 23840 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 15:10 hours but not more than 15:20 hours 1,742.40 - 23850 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 15:20 hours but not more than 15:30 hours 1,762.20 - 23860 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 15:30 hours but not more than 15:40 hours 1,782.00 - 23870 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than15:40 hours but not more than 15:50 hours 1,801.80 - 23880 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 15:50 hours but not more than 16:00 hours 1,821.60 - 23890 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 16:00 hours but not more than 16:10 hours 1,841.40 - 23900 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 16:10 hours but not more than 16:20 hours 1,861.20 - 23910 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 16:20 hours but not more than 16:30 hours 1,881.00 - 23920 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 16:30 hours but not more than 16:40 hours 1,900.80 - 23930 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 16:40 hours but not more than 16:50 hours 1,920.60 - 23940 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 16:50 hours but not more than 17:00 hours 1,940.40 - 23950 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 17:00 hours but not more than 17:10 hours 1,960.20 - 23960 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 17:10 hours but not more than 17:20 hours 1,980.00 - 23970 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 17:20 hours but not more than 17:30 hours 1,999.80 - 23980 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 17:30 hours but not more than 17:40 hours 2,019.60 - 23990 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 17:40 hours but not more than 17:50 hours 2,039.40 - 24100 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 17:50 hours but not more than 18:00 hours 2,059.20 - 24101 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 18:00 hours but not more than 18:10 hours 2,079.00 - 24102 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 18:10 hours but not more than 18:20 hours 2,098.80 - 24103 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 18:20 hours but not more than 18:30 hours 2,118.60 - 24104 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 18:30 hours but not more than 18:40 hours 2,138.40 - 24105 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 18:40 hours but not more than 18:50 hours 2,158.20 - 24106 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 18:50 hours but not more than 19:00 hours 2,178.00 - 24107 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 19:00 hours but not more than 19:10 hours 2,197.80 - 24108 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 19:10 hours but not more than 19:20 hours 2,217.60 - 24109 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 19:20 hours but not more than 19:30 hours 2,237.40 - 24110 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 19:30 hours but not more than 19:40 hours 2,257.20 - 24111 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 19:40 hours but not more than 19:50 hours 2,277.00 - 24112 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 19:50 hours but not more than 20:00 hours 2,296.80 - 24113 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 20:00 hours but not more than 20:10 hours 2,316.60 - 24114 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 20:10 hours but not more than 20:20 hours 2,336.40 - 24115 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 20:20 hours but not more than 20:30 hours 2,356.20 - 24116 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 20:30 hours but not more than 20:40 hours 2,376.00 - 24117 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 20:40 hours but not more than 20:50 hours 2,395.80 - 24118 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 20:50 hours but not more than 21:00 hours 2,415.60 - 24119 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 21:00 hours but not more than 21:10 hours 2,435.40 - 24120 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 21:10 hours but not more than 21:20 hours 2,455.20 - 24121 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 21:20 hours but not more than 21:30 hours 2,475.00 - 24122 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 21:30 hours but not more than 21:40 hours 2,494.80 - 24123 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 21:40 hours but not more than 21:50 hours 2,514.60 - 24124 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 21:50 hours but not more than 22:00 hours 2,534.40 - 24125 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 22:00 hours but not more than 22:10 hours 2,554.20 - 24126 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 22:10 hours but not more than 22:20 hours 2,574.00 - 24127 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 22:20 hours but not more than 22:30 hours 2,593.80 - 24128 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 22:30 hours but not more than 22:40 hours 2,613.60 - 24129 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 22:40 hours but not more than 22:50 hours 2,633.40 - 24130 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 22:50 hours but not more than 23:00 hours 2,653.20 - 24131 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 23:00 hours but not more than 23:10 hours 2,673.00 - 24132 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 23:10 hours but not more than 23:20 hours 2,692.80 - 24133 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 23:20 hours but not more than 23:30 hours 2,712.60 - 24134 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 23:30 hours but not more than 23:40 hours 2,732.40 - 24135 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 23:40 hours but not more than 23:50 hours 2,752.20 - 24136 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 23:50 hours but not more than 24:00 hours 2,772.00 - Subgroup 22—Anaesthesia, perfusion and assistance at anaesthesia (modifying components—physical status) - 25000 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance in the management of anaesthesia, if the patient has severe systemic disease (equivalent to ASA physical status indicator 3) 19.80 - 25005 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance in the management of anaesthesia, if the patient has severe systemic disease which is a constant threat to life (equivalent to ASA physical status indicator 4) 39.60 - 25010 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance in the management of anaesthesia, if the patient is not expected to survive for 24 hours, with or without the associated operation (equivalent to ASA physical status indicator 5) 59.40 - Subgroup 23—Anaesthesia, perfusion and assistance at anaesthesia (modifying components—other) - 25015 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance in the management of anaesthesia, if the patient’s age is less than 12 months or is 70 years or more 19.80 - 25020 Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance in the management of anaesthesia, if the patient requires immediate treatment without which there would be significant threat to life or body part—other than a service associated with a service to which item 25025, 25030 or 25050 applies 39.60 - Subgroup 24—Anaesthesia and assistance at anaesthesia (after hours emergency modifier) - 25025 Anaesthesia, if the patient requires immediate treatment without which there would be significant threat to life or body part and if more than 50% of the service time occurs between 8 pm to 8 am on any weekday, or on a Saturday, Sunday or public holiday Amount under clause 2.44.1 - 25030 Assistance in the management of anaesthesia, if the patient requires immediate treatment without which there would be significant threat to life or body part and if more than 50% of the service time occurs between 8 pm to 8 am on any weekday, or on a Saturday, Sunday or public holiday Amount under clause 2.44.1 - Subgroup 25—Perfusion (after hours emergency modifier) - 25050 Perfusion, if the patient requires immediate treatment without which there would be significant threat to life or body part and if more than 50% of the service time occurs between 8 pm to 8 am on any weekday, or on a Saturday, Sunday or public holiday Amount under clause 2.44.1 - Subgroup 26—Assistance at anaesthesia - 25200 Assistance in the management of anaesthesia requiring continuous anaesthesia on a patient in imminent danger of death requiring continuous life saving emergency treatment, to the exclusion of attendance on all other patients Amount under clause 2.44.2 - 25205 Assistance in the management of elective anaesthesia, if:(a) the patient has complex airway problems; or(b) the patient is a neonate or a complex paediatric case; or(c) there is anticipated to be massive blood loss (greater than 50% of blood volume) during the procedure; or(d) the patient is critically ill, with multiple organ failure; or(e) the service time of the management of anaesthesia exceeds 6 hours and the assistance is provided to the exclusion of attendance on all other patients Amount under clause 2.44.2 Division 2.45—Group T8: Surgical operations 2.45.1  Meaning of approved site   In items 37220 and 37227: approved site, for radiation oncology, means a site at which radiation oncology may be performed lawfully under the law of the State or Territory in which the site is located. 2.45.2  Application of Group T8   An item in Group T8 does not apply to a service mentioned in the item if the service is provided at the same time as, or in connection with, the provision of a pain pump for post‑surgical pain management. Subdivision B—Subgroup 1 of Group T8 2.45.3  Meaning of amount under clause 2.45.3   In item 30001: amount under clause 2.45.3 means 50% of the fee that would normally apply for a surgical procedure if the surgical procedure had not been discontinued before completion. 2.45.4  Meaning of amount under clause 2.45.4   In item 31340: amount under clause 2.45.4, for the excision of muscle, bone or cartilage in association with the excision of a malignant tumour of skin under another item, means 75% of the fee payable under that other item. 2.45.5  Meaning of qualified surgeon   In items 31539 and 31545: qualified surgeon: a medical practitioner is a qualified surgeon if:  (a) he or she is a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of surgery; and  (b) the Chief Executive Medicare has received a written notice from the Royal Australasian College of Surgeons stating that the person meets the skills requirements for providing services to which the items apply. 2.45.6  Meaning of qualified radiologist   In item 31542: qualified radiologist: a medical practitioner is a qualified radiologist if:  (a) he or she is a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty of radiology; and  (b) the Chief Executive Medicare has received a written notice from the Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Radiologists stating that the person meets the skills requirements for providing services to which the item applies. 2.45.7  Histopathological proof of malignancy in certain cases for purposes of certain items relating to surgical procedures   For items 30196 to 30202, the requirement for histopathological proof of malignancy is satisfied if:  (a) multiple lesions are removed from a single anatomical region; and  (b) a single lesion from that region is histologically tested and proven positive for malignancy. 2.45.8  Application of items 30299 and 30300   A service described in item 30299 or 30300 applies only if pre‑operative lymphoscinitigraphy is used because the patient is allergic to lymphotrophic dye. 2.45.9  Application of items 30440, 30451, 30492 and 30495   A service described in item 30440, 30451, 30492 or 30495 does not include imaging. Note: The imaging services associated with these services are described in the diagnostic imaging services table. 2.45.10  Application of items 30688, 30690, 30692 and 30694   Item 30688, 30690, 30692 or 30694 applies to a service only if the provider makes a record of the findings of the ultrasound imaging in the patient’s notes. 2.45.11  Application of item 35412  (1) Intra‑operative imaging is taken to be part of the service associated with the coiling of an aneurysm and cannot be charged in addition to item 35412.  (2) Pre‑operative diagnostic imaging, including aftercare, under item 60009, 60010, 60072, 60073, 60075, 60076, 60078 or 60079 of the diagnostic imaging services table may be separately claimed. 2.45.12  Application of items 31569, 31572, 31575, 31578, 31581, 31587 and 31590  (1) A service mentioned in item 31569, 31572, 31575, 31578, 31581, 31587 or 31590 may only be claimed once for a patient for the same occasion.  (2) If 2 or more services mentioned in item 31569, 31572, 31575, 31578, 31581, 31587 or 31590 are performed in conjunction on a patient on the same occasion, only one of the services may be claimed for the patient for the occasion.   - Subgroup 1—General - 30001 Operative procedure, being a service to which an item in this Group would have applied had the procedure not been discontinued on medical grounds Amount under clause 2.45.3 - 30003 Localised burns, dressing of, (not involving grafting)—each attendance at which the procedure is performed, including any associated consultation 36.30 - 30006 Extensive burns, dressing of, without anaesthesia (not involving grafting)—each attendance at which the procedure is performed, including any associated consultation 46.50 - 30010 Localised burns, dressing of, under general anaesthesia (not involving grafting) (H) (Anaes.) 73.90 - 30014 Extensive burns, dressing of, under general anaesthesia (not involving grafting) (H) (Anaes.) 155.40 - 30017 Burns, excision of, under general anaesthesia, involving not more than 10% of body surface, if grafting is not carried out during the same operation (Anaes.) (Assist.) 326.05 - 30020 Burns, excision of, under general anaesthesia, involving more than 10% of body surface, if grafting is not carried out during the same operation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 635.00 - 30023 Wound of soft tissue, traumatic, deep or extensively contaminated, debridement of, under general anaesthesia, or regional or field nerve block, including suturing of the wound if carried out (Anaes.) (Assist.) 326.05 - 30024 Wound of soft tissue, debridement of an extensively infected post‑surgical incision or Fournier’s gangrene, under general anaesthesia, or regional or field nerve block, including suturing of the wound if carried out (Anaes.) (Assist.) 326.05 - 30026 Skin and subcutaneous tissue or mucous membrane, repair of wound of, other than wound closure at time of surgery, not on face or neck, small (not more than 7 cm long), superficial, other than a service to which another item in Group T4 applies (Anaes.) 52.20 - 30029 Skin and subcutaneous tissue or mucous membrane, repair of wound of, other than wound closure at time of surgery, not on face or neck, small (not more than 7 cm in length), involving deeper tissue, other than a service to which another item in Group T4 applies (Anaes.) 90.00 - 30032 Skin and subcutaneous tissue or mucous membrane, repair of wound of, other than wound closure at time of surgery, on face or neck, small (not more than 7 cm long), superficial (Anaes.) 82.50 - 30035 Skin and subcutaneous tissue or mucous membrane, repair of wound of, other than wound closure at time of surgery, on face or neck, small (not more than 7 cm long), involving deeper tissue (Anaes.) 117.55 - 30038 Skin and subcutaneous tissue or mucous membrane, repair of wound of, other than wound closure at time of surgery, not on face or neck, large (more than 7 cm long), superficial, other than a service to which another item in Group T4 applies (Anaes.) 90.00 - 30042 Skin and subcutaneous tissue or mucous membrane, repair of wound of, other than wound closure at time of surgery, other than on face or neck, large (more than 7 cm long), involving deeper tissue, other than a service to which another item in Group T4 applies (Anaes.) 185.60 - 30045 Skin and subcutaneous tissue or mucous membrane, repair of wound of, other than wound closure at time of surgery, on face or neck, large (more than 7 cm long), superficial (Anaes.) 117.55 - 30049 Skin and subcutaneous tissue or mucous membrane, repair of wound of, other than wound closure at time of surgery, on face or neck, large (more than 7 cm long), involving deeper tissue (Anaes.) 185.60 - 30052 Full thickness laceration of ear, eyelid, nose or lip, repair of, with accurate apposition of each layer of tissue (Anaes.) (Assist.) 254.00 - 30055 Wounds, dressing of, under general anaesthesia, with or without removal of sutures, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 73.90 - 30058 Post‑operative haemorrhage, control of, under general anaesthesia, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 144.35 - 30061 Superficial foreign body, removal of, (including from cornea or sclera) as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 23.50 - 30062 Etonogestrel subcutaneous implant, removal of, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 60.75 - 30064 Subcutaneous foreign body, removal of, requiring incision and exploration, including closure of wound if performed, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 109.90 - 30068 Foreign body in muscle, tendon or other deep tissue, removal of, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) (Assist.) 276.80 - 30071 Diagnostic biopsy of skin, as an independent procedure, if the biopsy specimen is sent for pathological examination (Anaes.) 52.20 - 30072 Diagnostic biopsy of mucous membrane, as an independent procedure, if the biopsy specimen is sent for pathological examination (Anaes.) 52.20 - 30075 Diagnostic biopsy of lymph gland, muscle or other deep tissue or organ, as an independent procedure, if the biopsy specimen is sent for pathological examination (Anaes.) 149.75 - 30078 Diagnostic drill biopsy of lymph gland, deep tissue or organ, as an independent procedure, if the biopsy specimen is sent for pathological examination (Anaes.) 48.45 - 30081 Diagnostic biopsy of bone marrow by trephine using an open approach, if the biopsy specimen is sent for pathological examination (Anaes.) 109.90 - 30084 Diagnostic biopsy of bone marrow by trephine using a percutaneous approach, if the biopsy specimen is sent for pathological examination (Anaes.) 58.80 - 30087 Diagnostic biopsy of bone marrow by aspiration or punch biopsy of synovial membrane, if the biopsy specimen is sent for pathological examination (Anaes.) 29.45 - 30090 Diagnostic biopsy of pleura, percutaneous, if the biopsy specimen is sent for pathological examination—one or more biopsies on any one occasion (Anaes.) 128.55 - 30093 Diagnostic needle biopsy of vertebra, if the biopsy specimen is sent for pathological examination (Anaes.) 171.55 - 30094 Diagnostic percutaneous aspiration biopsy of deep organ using interventional techniques (but not including imaging) if the biopsy specimen is sent for pathological examination (Anaes.) 189.40 - 30096 Diagnostic scalene node biopsy, by open procedure, if the specimen excised is sent for pathological examination (Anaes.) 183.90 - 30097 Personal performance of a Synacthen Stimulation Test, including associated consultation, by a medical practitioner with resuscitation training and access to facilities where life support procedures can be implemented, if:(a) serum cortisol at 8.30 am to 9.30 am on any day in the preceding month has been measured at greater than 100 nmol/L but less than 400 nmol/L; or(b) the patient is acutely unwell and adrenal insufficiency is suspected 97.15 - 30099 Sinus, excision of, involving superficial tissue only (Anaes.) 90.00 - 30103 Sinus, excision of, involving muscle and deep tissue (Anaes.) 183.90 - 30104 Pre‑auricular sinus, excision of, on a person 10 years of age or over (Anaes.) 126.90 - 30105 Pre‑auricular sinus, excision of, on a person under 10 years of age (Anaes.) 164.95 - 30107 Ganglion or small bursa, excision of, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 219.95 - 30111 Bursa (large), including olecranon, calcaneum or patella, excision of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 371.50 - 30114 Bursa, semimembranosus (Baker’s cyst), excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 371.50 - 30165 Lipectomy, wedge excision of abdominal apron that is a direct consequence of significant weight loss, not being a service associated with a service to which item 30168, 30171, 30172, 30176, 30177, 30179, 45530, 45564 or 45565 applies, if:(a) there is intertrigo or another skin condition that risks loss of skin integrity and has failed 3 months of conventional (or non‑surgical) treatment; and(b) the abdominal apron interferes with the activities of daily living; and(c) the weight has been stable for at least 6 months following significant weight loss prior to the lipectomy(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 454.85 - 30168 Lipectomy, wedge excision of redundant non‑abdominal skin and fat that is a direct consequence of significant weight loss, not being a service associated with a service to which item 30165, 30171, 30172, 30176, 30177, 30179, 45530, 45564 or 45565 applies, if:(a) there is intertrigo or another skin condition that risks loss of skin integrity and has failed 3 months of conventional (or non‑surgical) treatment; and(b) the redundant skin and fat interferes with the activities of daily living; and(c) the weight has been stable for at least 6 months following significant weight loss prior to the lipectomy; and(d) the procedure involves 1 excision only(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 454.85 - 30171 Lipectomy, wedge excision of redundant non‑abdominal skin and fat that is a direct consequence of significant weight loss, not being a service associated with a service to which item 30165, 30168, 30172, 30176, 30177, 30179, 45530, 45564 or 45565 applies, if:(a) there is intertrigo or another skin condition that risks loss of skin integrity and has failed 3 months of conventional (or non‑surgical) treatment; and(b) the redundant skin and fat interferes with the activities of daily living; and(c) the weight has been stable for at least 6 months following significant weight loss prior to the lipectomy; and(d) the procedure involves 2 excisions only(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 691.75 - 30172 Lipectomy, wedge excision of redundant non‑abdominal skin and fat that is a direct consequence of significant weight loss, not being a service associated with a service to which item 30165, 30168, 30171, 30176, 30177, 30179, 45530, 45564 or 45565 applies, if:(a) there is intertrigo or another skin condition that risks loss of skin integrity and has failed 3 months of conventional (or non‑surgical) treatment; and(b) the redundant skin and fat interferes with the activities of daily living; and(c) the weight has been stable for at least 6 months following significant weight loss prior to the lipectomy; and(d) the procedure involves 3 or more excisions(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 691.75 - 30176 Lipectomy, radical abdominoplasty (Pitanguy type or similar), with excision of skin and subcutaneous tissue, repair of musculoaponeurotic layer and transposition of umbilicus, not being a service associated with a service to which item 30165, 30168, 30171, 30172, 30177, 30179, 45530, 45564 or 45565 applies, if the patient has previously had a massive intra‑abdominal or pelvic tumour surgically removed(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 985.70 - 30177 Lipectomy, excision of skin and subcutaneous tissue associated with redundant abdominal skin and fat that is a direct consequence of significant weight loss, in conjunction with a radical abdominoplasty (Pitanguy type or similar), with or without repair of musculoaponeurotic layer and transposition of umbilicus, not being a service associated with a service to which item 30165, 30168, 30171, 30172, 30176, 30179, 45530, 45564 or 45565 applies, if:(a) there is intertrigo or another skin condition that risks loss of skin integrity and has failed 3 months of conventional (or non‑surgical) treatment; and(b) the redundant skin and fat interferes with the activities of daily living; and(c) the weight has been stable for at least 6 months following significant weight loss prior to the lipectomy(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 985.70 - 30179 Circumferential lipectomy, as an independent procedure, to correct circumferential excess of redundant skin and fat that is a direct consequence of significant weight loss, with or without a radical abdominoplasty (Pitanguy type or similar), not being a service associated with a service to which item 30165, 30168, 30171, 30172, 30176, 30177, 45530, 45564 or 45565 applies, if:(a) the circumferential excess of redundant skin and fat is complicated by intertrigo or another skin condition that risks loss of skin integrity and has failed 3 months of conventional (or non‑surgical) treatment; and(b) the circumferential excess of redundant skin and fat interferes with the activities of daily living; and(c) the weight has been stable for at least 6 months following significant weight loss prior to the lipectomy(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,213.15 - 30180 Axillary hyperhidrosis, partial excision for (Anaes.) 136.50 - 30183 Axillary hyperhidrosis, total excision of sweat gland bearing area (Anaes.) 246.50 - 30187 Palmar or plantar warts, removal of, by carbon dioxide laser or erbium laser, requiring admission to a hospital, or when performed by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty (5 or more warts) (Anaes.) 256.95 - 30189 Warts or molluscum contagiosum (one or more), removal of, by any method (other than by chemical means), if undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 147.30 - 30190 Angiofibromas, trichoepitheliomas or other severely disfiguring tumours of the face or neck (excluding melanocytic naevi, sebaceous hyperplasia, dermatosis papulosa nigra, Campbell De Morgan angiomas and seborrheic or viral warts), suitable for laser ablation as confirmed by the opinion of a specialist in the specialty of dermatology—removal of, by carbon dioxide laser or erbium laser ablation, including associated resurfacing (10 or more tumours) (Anaes.) 397.75 - 30191 Angiofibromas, trichoepithelioma, epidermal naevi, xanthelasma, pyogenic granuloma, genital angiokeratomas, hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia and other severely disfiguring or recurrently bleeding tumours (excluding melanocytic naevi, sebaceous hyperplasia, dermatosis papulosa nigra, Campbell De Morgan angiomas and seborrheic or viral warts), treatment of, with carbon dioxide/erbium or other appropriate laser (or curettage and fine point diathermy for pyogenic granuloma only), if confirmed by the opinion of a specialist in the specialty of dermatology, one or more lesions. 63.50 - 30192 Premalignant skin lesions (including solar keratoses), treatment of, by ablative technique (10 or more lesions) (Anaes.) 39.55 - 30196 Malignant neoplasm of skin or mucous membrane that has been:(a) proven by histopathology; or(b) confirmed by the opinion of a specialist in the specialty of dermatology where a specimen has been submitted for histologic confirmation;removal of, by serial curettage, or carbon dioxide laser or erbium laser excision‑ablation, including any associated cryotherapy or diathermy (Anaes.) 126.30 - 30202 Malignant neoplasm of skin or mucous membrane proven by histopathology or confirmed by the opinion of a specialist in the specialty of dermatology—removal of, by liquid nitrogen cryotherapy using repeat freeze‑thaw cycles 48.35 - 30207 Skin lesions, multiple injections with glucocorticoid preparations (Anaes.) 44.60 - 30210 Keloid and other skin lesions, extensive, multiple injections of glucocorticoid preparations, if undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital on a patient less than 16 years of age (H) (Anaes.) 162.95 - 30216 Haematoma, aspiration of (Anaes.) 27.35 - 30219 Haematoma, furuncle, small abscess or similar lesion not requiring admission to a hospital, incision with drainage of, excluding after‑care 27.35 - 30223 Large haematoma, large abscess, carbuncle, cellulitis or similar lesion, incision with drainage of, excluding after‑care (H) (Anaes.) 162.95 - 30224 Percutaneous drainage of deep abscess using interventional techniques—but not including imaging (Anaes.) 237.60 - 30225 Abscess drainage tube, exchange of using interventional techniques—but not including imaging (Anaes.) 267.65 - 30226 Muscle, excision of (limited) or fasciotomy (Anaes.) 149.75 - 30229 Muscle, excision of (extensive) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 272.95 - 30232 Muscle, ruptured, repair of (limited), not associated with external wound (Anaes.) 223.60 - 30235 Muscle, ruptured, repair of (extensive), not associated with external wound (Anaes.) (Assist.) 295.70 - 30238 Fascia, deep, repair of, for herniated muscle (Anaes.) 149.75 - 30241 Bone tumour, innocent, excision of, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 356.35 - 30244 Styloid process of temporal bone, removal of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 356.35 - 30246 Parotid duct, repair of, using micro‑surgical techniques (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 689.80 - 30247 Parotid gland, total extirpation of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 739.35 - 30250 Parotid gland, total extirpation of with preservation of facial nerve (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,251.10 - 30251 Recurrent parotid tumour, excision of, with preservation of facial nerve (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,921.75 - 30253 Parotid gland, superficial lobectomy of, with exposure of facial nerve (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 834.05 - 30255 Submandibular ducts, relocation of, for surgical control of drooling (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,110.65 - 30256 Submandibular gland, extirpation of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 445.40 - 30259 Sublingual gland, extirpation of (Anaes.) 198.50 - 30262 Salivary gland, dilatation or diathermy of duct (Anaes.) 58.80 - 30266 Salivary gland, removal of calculus from duct or meatotomy or marsupialisation, one or more such procedures (Anaes.) 149.75 - 30269 Salivary gland, repair of cutaneous fistula of (Anaes.) 149.75 - 30272 Tongue, partial excision of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 295.70 - 30275 Radical excision of intra‑oral tumour involving resection of mandible and lymph glands of neck (commando‑type operation) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,762.75 - 30278 Tongue tie, repair of, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 46.50 - 30281 Tongue tie, mandibular frenulum or maxillary frenulum, repair of, in a person aged 2 years and over, under general anaesthesia (Anaes.) 119.50 - 30283 Ranula or mucous cyst of mouth, removal of (Anaes.) 204.70 - 30286 Branchial cyst, removal of, on a person 10 years of age or over (Anaes.) (Assist.) 397.85 - 30287 Branchial cyst, removal of, on a person under 10 years of age (Anaes.) (Assist.) 517.20 - 30289 Branchial fistula, removal of, on a person 10 years of age or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 502.25 - 30293 Cervical oesophagostomy, or closure of cervical oesophagostomy with or without plastic repair (Anaes.) (Assist.) 445.40 - 30294 Cervical oesophagectomy with tracheostomy and oesophagostomy, with or without plastic reconstruction, or laryngopharyngectomy with tracheostomy and plastic reconstruction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,762.75 - 30296 Thyroidectomy, total (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,023.70 - 30297 Thyroidectomy following previous thyroid surgery (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,023.70 - 30299 Sentinel lymph node biopsy, or biopsies, for breast cancer:(a) involving dissection in a level one axilla; and(b) using preoperative lymphoscintigraphy and lymphotropic dye injection;other than a service to which item 30300, 30302 or 30303 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 637.45 - 30300 Sentinel lymph node biopsy, or biopsies, for breast cancer:(a) involving dissection in a level 2 or 3 axilla; and(b) using preoperative lymphoscintigraphy and lymphotropic dye injection;other than a service to which item 30299, 30302 or 30303 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 764.90 - 30302 Sentinel lymph node biopsy, or biopsies, for breast cancer:(a) involving dissection in a level one axilla; and(b) using lymphotropic dye injection;other than a service to which item 30299, 30300 or 30303 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 509.95 - 30303 Sentinel lymph node biopsy, or biopsies, for breast cancer:(a) involving dissection in a level 2 or 3 axilla; and(b) using lymphotropic dye injection;other than a service to which item 30299, 30300 or 30302 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 611.85 - 30306 Total hemithyroidectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 798.65 - 30310 Partial or subtotal thyroidectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 798.65 - 30314 Thyroglossal cyst or fistula or both, radical removal of, including thyroglossal duct and portion of hyoid bone, on a person 10 years of age or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 457.40 - 30315 Minimally invasive parathyroidectomy. Removal of one or more parathyroid adenoma through a small cervical incision for an image localised adenoma, including thymectomy.Applicable only once per occasion on which the service is provided.Not applicable to a service performed in association with a service to which item 30317, 30318 or 30320 applies.(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,139.90 - 30317 Redo parathyroidectomy. Cervical re‑exploration for persistent or recurrent hyperparathyroidism, including thymectomy and cervical exploration of the mediastinum.Applicable only once per occasion on which the service is provided.Not applicable to a service performed in association with a service to which item 30315, 30318 or 30320 applies.(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,364.90 - 30318 Open parathyroidectomy, exploration and removal of one or more adenoma or hyperplastic glands via a cervical incision including thymectomy and cervical exploration of the mediastinum (when performed).Applicable only once per occasion on which the service is provided.Not applicable to a service performed in association with a service to which item 30315, 30317 or 30320 applies.(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,139.90 - 30320 Removal of a mediastinal parathyroid adenoma via sternotomy or mediastinal thorascopic approach.Applicable only once per occasion on which the service is provided.Not applicable to a service performed in association with a service to which item 30315, 30317 or 30318 applies.(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,364.90 - 30323 Excision of phaeochromocytoma or extra‑adrenal paraganglioma via endoscopic or open approach (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,364.90 - 30324 Excision of an adrenocortical tumour or hyperplasia via endoscopic or open approach (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,364.90 - 30326 Thyroglossal cyst or fistula or both, radical removal of, including thyroglossal duct and portion of hyoid bone, on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 594.60 - 30329 Lymph glands of groin, limited excision of (Anaes.) 246.95 - 30330 Lymph glands of groin, radical excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 718.75 - 30332 Lymph nodes of axilla, limited excision of (sampling) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 346.75 - 30335 Lymph nodes of axilla, complete excision of, to level I (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 866.85 - 30336 Lymph nodes of axilla, complete excision of, to level II or III (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,040.25 - 30373 Laparotomy (exploratory), including associated biopsies, if no other intra‑abdominal procedure is performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 483.25 - 30375 Caecostomy, enterostomy, colostomy, enterotomy, colotomy, cholecystostomy, gastrostomy, gastrotomy, reduction of intussusception, removal of Meckel’s diverticulum, suture of perforated peptic ulcer, simple repair of ruptured viscus, reduction of volvulus, pyloroplasty or drainage of pancreas, on a person 10 years of age or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 521.25 - 30376 Laparotomy involving division of peritoneal adhesions (if no other intra‑abdominal procedure is performed), on a person 10 years of age or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 521.25 - 30378 Laparotomy involving division of adhesions in association with another intra‑abdominal procedure if the time taken to divide the adhesions is between 45 minutes and 2 hours, on a person 10 years of age or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 523.70 - 30379 Laparotomy with division of extensive adhesions (duration greater than 2 hours) with or without insertion of long intestinal tube (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 928.15 - 30382 Enterocutaneous fistula, radical repair of, involving extensive dissection and resection of bowel (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,306.90 - 30384 Laparotomy for grading of lymphoma, including splenectomy, liver biopsies, lymph node biopsies and oophoropexy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,099.40 - 30385 Laparotomy for control of post‑operative haemorrhage, if no other procedure is performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 563.30 - 30387 Laparotomy involving operation on abdominal viscera (including pelvic viscera), other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 635.00 - 30388 Laparotomy for trauma involving 3 or more organs (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,597.55 - 30390 Laparoscopy, diagnostic, on a person 10 years of age or over, other than a service associated with another laparoscopic procedure (H) (Anaes.) 219.95 - 30391 Laparoscopy, with biopsy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 284.35 - 30392 Radical or debulking operation for advanced intra‑abdominal malignancy, with or without omentectomy, as an independent procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 674.50 - 30393 Laparoscopic division of adhesions in association with another intra‑abdominal procedure if the time taken to divide the adhesions exceeds 45 minutes (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 523.70 - 30394 Laparotomy for drainage of subphrenic abscess, pelvic abscess, appendiceal abscess, ruptured appendix or for peritonitis from any cause, with or without appendicectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 492.85 - 30396 Laparotomy for gross intra peritoneal sepsis requiring debridement of fibrin, with or without removal of foreign material or enteric contents, with lavage of the entire peritoneal cavity via a major abdominal incision with or without closure of abdomen and with or without mesh or zipper insertion (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,016.55 - 30397 Laparostomy, via wound previously made and left open or closed with zipper, involving change of dressings or packs, and with or without drainage of loculated collections (H) (Anaes.) 232.35 - 30399 Laparostomy, final closure of wound made at previous operation, after removal of dressings or packs and removal of mesh or zipper if previously inserted (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 319.60 - 30400 Laparotomy with insertion of portacath for administration of cytotoxic therapy including placement of reservoir (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 632.50 - 30402 Retroperitoneal abscess, drainage of, not involving laparotomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 464.60 - 30403 Ventral, incisional, or recurrent hernia or burst abdomen, repair of, with or without mesh (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 521.25 - 30405 Ventral or incisional hernia (other than recurrent inguinal or femoral hernia), repair of, requiring muscle transposition, mesh hernioplasty or resection of strangulated bowel (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 914.95 - 30406 Paracentesis abdominis (Anaes.) 52.20 - 30408 Peritoneo venous shunt, insertion of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 392.10 - 30409 Liver biopsy, percutaneous (Anaes.) 174.45 - 30411 Liver biopsy by wedge excision when performed in association with another intra‑abdominal procedure (H) (Anaes.) 88.80 - 30412 Liver biopsy by core needle, when performed in conjunction with another intra‑abdominal procedure (Anaes.) 52.35 - 30414 Liver, subsegmental resection of, (local excision), other than for trauma (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 689.80 - 30415 Liver, segmental resection of, other than for trauma (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,379.50 - 30416 Liver cyst, laparoscopic marsupialisation of, if the size of the cyst is greater than 5 cm in diameter (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 748.95 - 30417 Liver cysts, laparoscopic marsupialisation of 5 or more, including any cyst greater than 5 cm in diameter (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,123.40 - 30418 Liver, lobectomy of, other than for trauma (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,597.55 - 30419 Liver tumours, destruction of, by hepatic cryotherapy, other than a service associated with a service to which item 50950 or 50952 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 817.10 - 30421 Liver, tri‑segmental resection (extended lobectomy) of, other than for trauma (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,996.55 - 30422 Liver, repair of superficial laceration of, for trauma (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 675.35 - 30425 Liver, repair of deep multiple lacerations of, or debridement of, for trauma (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,306.90 - 30427 Liver, segmental resection of, for trauma (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,560.95 - 30428 Liver, lobectomy of, for trauma (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,670.00 - 30430 Liver, extended lobectomy (tri‑segmental resection) of, for trauma (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,323.30 - 30431 Liver abscess, open abdominal drainage of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 521.25 - 30433 Liver abscess (multiple), open abdominal drainage of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 726.05 - 30434 Hydatid cyst of liver, peritoneum or viscus, complete removal of contents of, with or without suture of biliary radicles (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 588.15 - 30436 Hydatid cyst of liver, peritoneum or viscus, complete removal of contents of, with or without suture of biliary radicles, with omentoplasty or myeloplasty (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 653.45 - 30437 Hydatid cyst of liver, total excision of, by cysto‑pericystectomy (membrane plus fibrous wall) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 813.30 - 30438 Hydatid cyst of liver, excision of, with drainage and excision of liver tissue (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,150.85 - 30439 Operative cholangiography or operative pancreatography or intra operative ultrasound of the biliary tract (including one or more examinations performed during the one operation) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 185.60 - 30440 Cholangiogram, percutaneous transhepatic, and insertion of biliary drainage tube, using interventional imaging techniques, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30451 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 526.40 - 30441 Intra operative ultrasound for staging of intra abdominal tumours (H) (Anaes.) 136.25 - 30442 Choledochoscopy in conjunction with another procedure (H) (Anaes.) 185.60 - 30443 Cholecystectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 739.35 - 30445 Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 739.35 - 30446 Laparoscopic cholecystectomy when procedure is completed by laparotomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 739.35 - 30448 Laparoscopic cholecystectomy, involving removal of common duct calculi via the cystic duct (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 972.90 - 30449 Laparoscopic cholecystectomy with removal of common duct calculi via laparoscopic choledochotomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,081.85 - 30450 Calculus of biliary or renal tract, extraction of, using interventional imaging techniques—other than a service associated with a service to which item 36627, 36630, 36645 or 36648 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 524.40 - 30451 Biliary drainage tube, exchange of, using interventional imaging techniques, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30440 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 267.65 - 30452 Choledochoscopy with balloon dilatation of a stricture or passage of stent or extraction of calculi (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 377.50 - 30454 Choledochotomy (with or without cholecystectomy), with or without removal of calculi (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 862.50 - 30455 Choledochotomy (with or without cholecystectomy), with removal of calculi including biliary intestinal anastomosis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,014.05 - 30457 Choledochotomy, intrahepatic, involving removal of intrahepatic bile duct calculi (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,379.50 - 30458 Transduodenal operation on sphincter of Oddi, involving one or more of, removal of calculi, sphincterotomy, sphincteroplasty, biopsy, local excision of peri‑ampullary or duodenal tumour, sphincteroplasty of the pancreatic duct, pancreatic duct septoplasty, with or without choledochotomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,014.05 - 30460 Cholecystoduodenostomy, cholecystoenterostomy, choledochojejunostomy or Roux‑en‑Y as a bypass procedure when no prior biliary surgery performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 862.50 - 30461 Radical resection of porta hepatis with biliary‑enteric anastomoses, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30443, 30454, 30455, 30458 or 30460 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,478.40 - 30463 Radical resection of common hepatic duct and right and left hepatic ducts, with 2 duct anastomoses (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,815.20 - 30464 Radical resection of common hepatic duct and right and left hepatic ducts involving more than 2 anastomoses or resection of segment or major portion of segment of liver (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,178.25 - 30466 Intrahepatic biliary bypass of left hepatic ductal system by Roux‑en‑Y loop to peripheral ductal system (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,256.05 - 30467 Intrahepatic bypass of right hepatic ductal system by Roux‑en‑Y loop to peripheral ductal system (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,553.70 - 30469 Biliary stricture, repair of, after one or more operations on the biliary tree (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,720.90 - 30472 Hepatic or common bile duct, repair of, as the primary procedure after partial or total transection of bile duct or ducts (Anaes.) (Assist.) 929.35 - 30473 Oesophagoscopy (other than a service to which item 41816 or 41822 applies), gastroscopy, duodenoscopy or panendoscopy (one or more such procedures), with or without biopsy, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30478 or 30479 applies (Anaes.) 177.10 - 30475 Endoscopic dilatation of stricture of upper gastrointestinal tract (including the use of imaging intensification if clinically indicated) (Anaes.) 348.95 - 30478 Oesophagoscopy (other than a service to which item 41816, 41822 or 41825 applies), gastroscopy, duodenoscopy, panendoscopy or push enteroscopy, one or more such procedures, if:(a) the procedures are performed using one or more of the following endoscopic procedures:(i) polypectomy;(ii) sclerosing or adrenalin injections;(iii) banding;(iv) endoscopic clips;(v) haemostatic powders;(vi) diathermy;(vii) argon plasma coagulation; and(b) the procedures are for the treatment of one or more of the following:(i) upper gastrointestinal tract bleeding;(ii) polyps;(iii) removal of foreign body;(iv) oesophageal or gastric varices;(v) peptic ulcers;(vi) neoplasia;(vii) benign vascular lesions;(viii) strictures of the gastrointestinal tract;(ix) tumorous overgrowth through or over oesophageal stents;other than a service associated with a service to which item 30473 or 30479 applies (Anaes.) 245.55 - 30479 Endoscopy with laser therapy, for the treatment of one or more of the following:(a) neoplasia;(b) benign vascular lesions;(c) strictures of the gastrointestinal tract;(d) tumorous overgrowth through or over oesophageal stents;(e) peptic ulcers;(f) angiodysplasia;(g) gastric antral vascular ectasia;(h) post‑polypectomy bleeding;other than a service associated with a service to which item 30473 or 30478 applies (Anaes.) 476.10 - 30481 Percutaneous gastrostomy (initial procedure):(a) including any associated imaging services; and(b) excluding the insertion of a device for the purpose of facilitating weight loss(Anaes.) 357.00 - 30482 Percutaneous gastrostomy (repeat procedure):(a) including any associated imaging services; and(b) excluding the insertion of a device for the purpose of facilitating weight loss(Anaes.) 253.85 - 30483 Gastrostomy button, caecostomy antegrade enema device (chait etc.) or stomal indwelling device:(a) non‑endoscopic insertion of; or(b) non‑endoscopic replacement of;on a person 10 years of age or over, excluding the insertion of a device for the purpose of facilitating weight loss (Anaes.) 177.05 - 30484 Endoscopic retrograde cholangio‑pancreatography (Anaes.) 364.90 - 30485 Endoscopic sphincterotomy with or without extraction of stones from common bile duct (Anaes.) 563.30 - 30488 Small bowel intubation—as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 90.00 - 30490 Oesophageal prosthesis, insertion of, including endoscopy and dilatation (Anaes.) 526.40 - 30491 Bile duct, endoscopic stenting of (including endoscopy and dilatation) (Anaes.) 555.35 - 30492 Bile duct, percutaneous stenting of (including dilatation when performed), using interventional imaging techniques (H) (Anaes.) 787.30 - 30494 Endoscopic biliary dilatation (H) (Anaes.) 420.50 - 30495 Percutaneous biliary dilatation for biliary stricture using interventional imaging techniques (H) (Anaes.) 787.30 - 30496 Vagotomy, truncal or selective, with or without pyloroplasty or gastroenterostomy (Anaes.) (Assist.) 588.15 - 30497 Vagotomy and antrectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 701.30 - 30499 Vagotomy, highly selective (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 834.05 - 30500 Vagotomy, highly selective with duodenoplasty for peptic stricture (Anaes.) (Assist.) 893.10 - 30502 Vagotomy, highly selective, with dilatation of pylorus (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 985.70 - 30503 Vagotomy or antrectomy, or both, for peptic ulcer following previous operation for peptic ulcer (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,103.80 - 30505 Bleeding peptic ulcer, control of, involving suture of bleeding point or wedge excision (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 551.85 - 30506 Bleeding peptic ulcer, control of, involving suture of bleeding point or wedge excision, and vagotomy and pyloroplasty or gastroenterostomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 965.75 - 30508 Bleeding peptic ulcer, control of, involving suture of bleeding point or wedge excision, and highly selective vagotomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,016.55 - 30509 Bleeding peptic ulcer, control of, involving gastric resection (other than wedge resection) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,016.55 - 30515 Gastroenterostomy (including gastroduodenostomy) or enterocolostomy or enteroenterostomy, not being a service to which any of items 31569 to 31581 apply (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 704.35 - 30517 Gastroenterostomy, pyloroplasty or gastroduodenostomy, reconstruction of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 922.20 - 30518 Partial gastrectomy, not being a service associated with a service to which any of items 31569 to 31581 apply (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 987.50 - 30520 Gastric tumour, removal of, by local excision, other than a service to which item 30518 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 675.35 - 30521 Gastrectomy, total, for benign disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,444.90 - 30523 Gastrectomy, sub‑total radical, for carcinoma (including splenectomy when performed) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,510.10 - 30524 Gastrectomy, total radical, for carcinoma (including extended node dissection and distal pancreatectomy and splenectomy when performed) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,662.65 - 30526 Gastrectomy, total, and including lower oesophagus, performed by left thoraco‑abdominal incision or opening of diaphragmatic hiatus (including splenectomy when performed) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,156.35 - 30527 Antireflux operation by fundoplasty, via abdominal or thoracic approach, with or without closure of the diaphragmatic hiatus—other than a service to which item 30601 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 871.30 - 30529 Antireflux operation by fundoplasty, with oesophagoplasty for stricture or short oesophagus (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,306.90 - 30530 Antireflux operation by cardiopexy, with or without fundoplasty (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 784.20 - 30532 Oesophagogastric myotomy (Heller’s operation) via abdominal or thoracic approach, with or without closure of the diaphragmatic hiatus, by laparoscopy or open operation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 900.45 - 30533 Oesophagogastric myotomy (Heller’s operation) via abdominal or thoracic approach, with fundoplasty, with or without closure of the diaphragmatic hiatus, by laparoscopy or open operation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,071.00 - 30535 Oesophagectomy with gastric reconstruction by abdominal mobilisation and thoracotomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,696.65 - 30536 Oesophagectomy involving gastric reconstruction by abdominal mobilisation, thoracotomy and anastomosis in the neck or chest—one surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,720.90 - 30538 Oesophagectomy involving gastric reconstruction by abdominal mobilisation, thoracotomy and anastomosis in the neck or chest—conjoint surgery, principal surgeon (including after‑care) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,190.80 - 30539 Oesophagectomy involving gastric reconstruction by abdominal mobilisation, thoracotomy and anastomosis in the neck or chest—conjoint surgery, co‑surgeon (H) (Assist.) 871.30 - 30541 Oesophagectomy, by trans‑hiatal oesophagectomy (cervical and abdominal mobilisation, anastomosis) with posterior or anterior mediastinal placement—one surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,517.50 - 30542 Oesophagectomy, by trans‑hiatal oesophagectomy (cervical and abdominal mobilisation, anastomosis) with posterior or anterior mediastinal placement—conjoint surgery, principal surgeon (including after‑care) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,031.10 - 30544 Oesophagectomy, by trans‑hiatal oesophagectomy (cervical and abdominal mobilisation, anastomosis) with posterior or anterior mediastinal placement—conjoint surgery, co‑surgeon (H) (Assist.) 755.20 - 30545 Oesophagectomy with colon or jejunal anastomosis, (abdominal and thoracic mobilisation with thoracic anastomosis)—one surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,837.10 - 30547 Oesophagectomy with colon or jejunal anastomosis, (abdominal and thoracic mobilisation with thoracic anastomosis)—conjoint surgery, principal surgeon (including after‑care) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,263.35 - 30548 Oesophagectomy with colon or jejunal anastomosis, (abdominal and thoracic mobilisation with thoracic anastomosis)—conjoint surgery, co‑surgeon (Assist.) 943.80 - 30550 Oesophagectomy with colon or jejunal replacement (abdominal and thoracic mobilisation with anastomosis of pedicle in the neck)—one surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,062.20 - 30551 Oesophagectomy with colon or jejunal replacement (abdominal and thoracic mobilisation with anastomosis of pedicle in the neck)—conjoint surgery, principal surgeon (including after‑care) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,423.15 - 30553 Oesophagectomy with colon or jejunal replacement (abdominal and thoracic mobilisation with anastomosis of pedicle in the neck)—conjoint surgery, co‑surgeon (Assist.) 1,052.65 - 30554 Oesophagectomy with reconstruction by free jejunal graft—one surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,294.45 - 30556 Oesophagectomy with reconstruction by free jejunal graft—conjoint surgery, principal surgeon (including after‑care) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,582.80 - 30557 Oesophagectomy with reconstruction by free jejunal graft—conjoint surgery, co‑surgeon (H) (Assist.) 1,169.00 - 30559 Oesophagus, local excision for tumour of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 849.55 - 30560 Oesophageal perforation, repair of, by thoracotomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 943.80 - 30562 Enterostomy or colostomy, closure of (not involving resection of bowel), on a person 10 years of age or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 595.00 - 30563 Colostomy or ileostomy, refashioning of, on a person 10 years of age or over (Anaes.) (Assist.) 595.00 - 30564 Small bowel strictureplasty for chronic inflammatory bowel disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 772.30 - 30565 Small intestine, resection of, without anastomosis (including formation of stoma) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 871.30 - 30566 Small intestine, resection of, with anastomosis, on a person 10 years of age or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 967.85 - 30568 Intraoperative enterotomy for visualisation of the small intestine by endoscopy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 726.05 - 30569 Endoscopic examination of small bowel with flexible endoscope passed at laparotomy, with or without biopsies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 370.20 - 30571 Appendicectomy, on a person 10 years of age or over, other than a service to which item 30574 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 445.40 - 30572 Laparoscopic appendicectomy, on a person 10 years of age or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 445.40 - 30574 Appendicectomy, when performed in conjunction with another intra‑abdominal procedure through the same incision (H) (Anaes.) 123.25 - 30575 Pancreatic abscess, laparotomy and external drainage of, not requiring retro‑pancreatic dissection (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 512.70 - 30577 Pancreatic necrosectomy for pancreatic necrosis or abscess formation requiring major pancreatic or retro‑pancreatic dissection, excluding after‑care (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,089.15 - 30578 Endocrine tumour, exploration of pancreas or duodenum, followed by local excision of pancreatic tumour (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,147.20 - 30580 Endocrine tumour, exploration of pancreas or duodenum, followed by local excision of duodenal tumour (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,045.40 - 30581 Endocrine tumour, exploration of pancreas or duodenum for, but no tumour found (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 762.35 - 30583 Distal pancreatectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,194.25 - 30584 Pancreatico‑duodenectomy, Whipple’s operation, with or without preservation of pylorus (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,762.75 - 30586 Pancreatic cyst‑anastomosis to stomach or duodenum—by open or endoscopic means (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 701.30 - 30587 Pancreatic cyst, anastomosis to Roux loop of jejunum (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 726.05 - 30589 Pancreatico‑jejunostomy for pancreatitis or trauma (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,251.10 - 30590 Pancreatico‑jejunostomy following previous pancreatic surgery (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,379.50 - 30593 Pancreatectomy, near total or total (including duodenum), with or without splenectomy (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,887.75 - 30594 Pancreatectomy for pancreatitis following previously attempted drainage procedure or partial resection (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,178.25 - 30596 Splenorrhaphy or partial splenectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 897.30 - 30597 Splenectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 720.20 - 30599 Splenectomy, for massive spleen (weighing more than 1,500 gms) or involving thoraco‑abdominal incision (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,306.90 - 30600 Diaphragmatic hernia, traumatic, repair of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 777.10 - 30601 Diaphragmatic hernia, congenital, repair of, by thoracic or abdominal approach, on a person 10 years of age or over, not being a service to which any of items 31569 to 31581 apply (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 957.30 - 30602 Portal hypertension, porto‑caval shunt for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,553.70 - 30603 Portal hypertension, meso‑caval shunt for (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,640.90 - 30605 Portal hypertension, selective spleno‑renal shunt for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,865.95 - 30606 Portal hypertension, oesophageal transection via stapler or oversew of gastric varices with or without devascularisation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,110.80 - 30608 Small intestine, resection of, with anastomosis, on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,258.20 - 30609 Femoral or inguinal hernia, laparoscopic repair of, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30614 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 464.50 - 30611 Benign tumour of soft tissue (other than tumours of skin, cartilage and bone, simple lipomas covered by item 31345 and lipomata), removal of, by surgical excision, on a person under 10 years of age, if the specimen excised is sent for histological confirmation of diagnosis, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 563.35 - 30614 Femoral or inguinal hernia or infantile hydrocele, repair of, on a person 10 years of age or over, other than a service to which item 30403 or 30615 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 464.50 - 30615 Strangulated, incarcerated or obstructed hernia, repair of, without bowel resection, on a person 10 years of age or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 521.25 - 30618 Lymph nodes of neck, selective dissection of one or 2 lymph node levels involving removal of soft tissue and lymph nodes from one side of the neck, on a person under 10 years of age (Anaes.) (Assist.) 522.25 - 30619 Laparoscopic splenectomy, on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 936.25 - 30621 Repair of symptomatic umbilical, epigastric or linea alba hernia requiring mesh or other formal repair of, in a person 10 years of age or over, other than a service to which item 30403 or 30405 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 407.50 - 30622 Caecostomy, enterostomy, colostomy, enterotomy, colotomy, cholecystostomy, gastrostomy, gastrotomy, reduction of intussusception, removal of Meckel’s diverticulum, suture of perforated peptic ulcer, simple repair of ruptured viscus, reduction of volvulus, pyloroplasty or drainage of pancreas, on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 677.65 - 30623 Laparotomy involving division of peritoneal adhesions (if no other intra‑abdominal procedure is performed), on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 677.65 - 30626 Laparotomy involving division of adhesions in association with another intra‑abdominal procedure if the time taken to divide the adhesions is between 45 minutes and 2 hours, on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 680.80 - 30627 Laparoscopy, diagnostic, other than a service associated with another laparoscopic procedure, on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) 285.95 - 30628 Hydrocele, tapping of 35.60 - 30631 Hydrocele, removal of, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30641, 30642 or 30644 applies (Anaes.) 236.65 - 30635 Varicocele, surgical correction of, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30641, 30642 or 30644 applies—one procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 291.80 - 30636 Gastrostomy button, caecostomy antegrade enema device (chait etc.) or stomal indwelling device, non‑endoscopic insertion of, or non‑endoscopic replacement of, on a person under 10 years of age (Anaes.) 233.15 - 30637 Enterostomy or colostomy, closure of (not involving resection of bowel), on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 773.50 - 30639 Colostomy or ileostomy, refashioning of, on a person under 10 years of age (Anaes.) (Assist.) 773.50 - 30640 Repair of large and irreducible scrotal hernia, if duration of surgery exceeds 2 hours, in a person 10 years of age or over, other than a service to which item 30403, 30405, 30614, 30615 or 30621 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 914.95 - 30641 Orchidectomy, simple or subcapsular, unilateral with or without insertion of testicular prosthesis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 407.50 - 30642 Orchidectomy, radical, unilateral, with or without insertion of testicular prosthesis, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30631, 30635, 30641, 30643 or 30644 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 521.25 - 30643 Exploration of spermatic cord, inguinal approach, with or without testicular biopsy and with or without excision of spermatic cord and testis, on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 677.65 - 30644 Exploration of spermatic cord, inguinal approach, with or without testicular biopsy and with or without excision of spermatic cord and testis, on a person 10 years of age or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 521.25 - 30645 Appendicectomy, on a person under 10 years of age, other than a service to which item 30574 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 579.00 - 30646 Laparoscopic appendicectomy, on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 579.00 - 30649 Haemorrhage, arrest of, following circumcision requiring general anaesthesia, on a person under 10 years of age (Anaes.) 187.65 - 30654 Circumcision of the penis (other than a service to which item 30658 applies) 46.50 - 30658 Circumcision of the penis, when performed in conjunction with a service to which an item in Group T7 or Group T10 applies (Anaes.) 142.00 - 30663 Haemorrhage, arrest of, following circumcision requiring general anaesthesia, on a person 10 years of age or over (Anaes.) 144.35 - 30666 Paraphimosis or phimosis, reduction of, under general anaesthesia, with or without dorsal incision, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 47.45 - 30672 Coccyx, excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 445.40 - 30676 Pilonidal sinus or cyst, or sacral sinus or cyst, excision of (Anaes.) 379.05 - 30679 Pilonidal sinus, injection of sclerosant fluid under anaesthesia (Anaes.) 96.30 - 30680 Balloon enteroscopy, examination of the small bowel (oral approach), with or without biopsy, without intraprocedural therapy, for diagnosis of patients with obscure gastrointestinal bleeding if the patient:(a) has recurrent or persistent bleeding; and(b) is anaemic or has active bleeding; and(c) has had an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and a colonoscopy performed that did not identify the cause of the bleeding;not in association with another item in this Subgroup (other than item 30682 or 30686) (Anaes.) 1,170.00 - 30682 Balloon enteroscopy, examination of the small bowel (anal approach), with or without biopsy, without intraprocedural therapy, for diagnosis of patients with obscure gastrointestinal bleeding if the patient:(a) has recurrent or persistent bleeding; and(b) is anaemic or has active bleeding; and(c) has had an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and a colonoscopy performed that did not identify the cause of the bleeding;not in association with another item in this Subgroup (other than item 30680 or 30684) (Anaes.) 1,170.00 - 30684 Balloon enteroscopy, examination of the small bowel (oral approach), with or without biopsy, with one or more of the following procedures—snare polypectomy, removal of foreign body, diathermy, heater probe, laser coagulation or argon plasma coagulation, for diagnosis and management of patients with obscure gastrointestinal bleeding if the patient:(a) has recurrent or persistent bleeding; and(b) is anaemic or has active bleeding; and(c) has had an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and a colonoscopy performed that did not identify the cause of the bleeding;not in association with another item in this Subgroup (other than item 30682 or 30686) (Anaes.) 1,439.85 - 30686 Balloon enteroscopy, examination of the small bowel (anal approach), with or without biopsy, with one or more of the following procedures—snare polypectomy, removal of foreign body, diathermy, heater probe, laser coagulation or argon plasma coagulation, for diagnosis and management of patients with obscure gastrointestinal bleeding if the patient:(a) has recurrent or persistent bleeding; and(b) is anaemic or has active bleeding; and(c) has had an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and a colonoscopy performed that did not identify the cause of the bleeding;not in association with another item in this Subgroup (other than item 30680 or 30684) (Anaes.) 1,439.85 - 30687 Endoscopy with radiofrequency ablation of mucosal metaplasia for the treatment of Barrett’s Oesophagus in a single course of treatment, following diagnosis of high grade dysplasia confirmed by histological examination (Anaes.) 476.10 - 30688 Endoscopic ultrasound (endoscopy with ultrasound imaging), with or without biopsy, for the staging of one or more of oesophageal, gastric or pancreatic cancer, not in association with another item in this Subgroup (other than item 30484, 30485, 30491 or 30494) and other than a service associated with the routine monitoring of chronic pancreatitis (Anaes.) 364.90 - 30690 Endoscopic ultrasound (endoscopy with ultrasound imaging), with or without biopsy, with fine needle aspiration (including aspiration of the locoregional lymph nodes if performed, for the staging of one or more of oesophageal, gastric or pancreatic cancer), not in association with another item in this Subgroup (other than item 30484, 30485, 30491 or 30494) and other than a service associated with the routine monitoring of chronic pancreatitis (Anaes.) 563.30 - 30692 Endoscopic ultrasound (endoscopy with ultrasound imaging), with or without biopsy, for the diagnosis of one or more of pancreatic, biliary or gastric submucosal tumours, not in association with another item in this Subgroup (other than item 30484, 30485, 30491 or 30494) and other than a service associated with the routine monitoring of chronic pancreatitis (Anaes.) 364.90 - 30694 Endoscopic ultrasound (endoscopy with ultrasound imaging), with or without biopsy, with fine needle aspiration for the diagnosis of one or more of pancreatic, biliary or gastric submucosal tumours, not in association with another item in this Subgroup (other than item 30484, 30485, 30491 or 30494) and other than a service associated with the routine monitoring of chronic pancreatitis (Anaes.) 563.30 - 30696 Endoscopic ultrasound guided fine needle aspiration biopsy or biopsies (endoscopy with ultrasound imaging) to obtain one or more specimens from either:(a) mediastinal masses; or(b) locoregional nodes to stage non‑small cell lung carcinoma;other than a service associated with another item in this Subgroup or to which items 30710, 55054 apply (Anaes.) 563.30 - 30710 Endobronchial ultrasound guided biopsy or biopsies (bronchoscopy with ultrasound imaging, with or without associated fluoroscopic imaging) to obtain one or more specimens by:(a) transbronchial biopsy or biopsies of peripheral lung lesions; or(b) fine needle aspirations of one or more mediastinal masses; or(c) fine needle aspirations of locoregional nodes to stage non‑small cell lung carcinoma;other than a service associated with another item in this Subgroup or to which items 30696, 41892, 41898, or 60500 to 60509 applies (Anaes.) 563.30 - 31000 Mohs surgery of skin tumour located on the head, neck, genitalia, hand, digits, leg (below knee) or foot, utilising horizontal frozen sections with mapping of all excised tissue, and histological examination of all excised tissue by the specialist performing the procedure, if the specialist is recognised by the Australasian College of Dermatologists as an approved Mohs surgeon—6 or fewer sections (Anaes.) 580.90 - 31001 Mohs surgery of skin tumour located on the head, neck, genitalia, hand, digits, leg (below knee) or foot, utilising horizontal frozen sections with mapping of all excised tissue, and histological examination of all excised tissue by the specialist performing the procedure, if the specialist is recognised by the Australasian College of Dermatologists as an approved Mohs surgeon—7 to 12 sections (inclusive) (Anaes.) 726.05 - 31002 Mohs surgery of skin tumour located on the head, neck, genitalia, hand, digits, leg (below knee) or foot, utilising horizontal frozen sections with mapping of all excised tissue, and histological examination of all excised tissue by the specialist performing the procedure, if the specialist is recognised by the Australasian College of Dermatologists as an approved Mohs surgeon—13 or more sections (Anaes.) 871.30 - 31003 Mohs surgery of skin tumour utilising horizontal frozen sections with mapping of all excised tissue, and histological examination of all excised tissue by the specialist performing the procedure, if the specialist is recognised by the Australasian College of Dermatologists as an approved Mohs surgeon—6 or fewer sectionsNot applicable to a service performed in association with a service to which item 31000 applies (Anaes.) 580.90 - 31004 Mohs surgery of skin tumour utilising horizontal frozen sections with mapping of all excised tissue, and histological examination of all excised tissue by the specialist performing the procedure, if the specialist is recognised by the Australasian College of Dermatologists as an approved Mohs surgeon—7 to 12 sections (inclusive)Not applicable to a service performed in association with a service to which item 31001 applies (Anaes.) 726.05 - 31005 Mohs surgery of skin tumour utilising horizontal frozen sections with mapping of all excised tissue, and histological examination of all excised tissue by the specialist performing the procedure, if the specialist is recognised by the Australasian College of Dermatologists as an approved Mohs surgeon—13 or more sectionsNot applicable to a service performed in association with a service to which item 31002 applies (Anaes.) 871.30 - 31206 Tumour, cyst, ulcer or scar (other than a scar removed during the surgical approach at an operation), removal of and suture, if:(a) the lesion size is not more than 10 mm in diameter; and(b) the removal is from a mucous membrane by surgical excision (other than by shave excision); and(c) the specimen excised is sent for histological examination (Anaes.) 95.45 - 31211 Tumour, cyst, ulcer or scar (other than a scar removed during the surgical approach at an operation), removal of and suture, if:(a) the lesion size is more than 10 mm, but not more than 20 mm, in diameter; and(b) the removal is from a mucous membrane by surgical excision (other than by shave excision); and(c) the specimen excised is sent for histological examination (Anaes.) 123.10 - 31216 Tumour, cyst, ulcer or scar (other than a scar removed during the surgical approach at an operation), removal of and suture, if:(a) the lesion size is more than 20 mm in diameter; and(b) the removal is from a mucous membrane by surgical excision (other than by shave excision); and(c) the specimen excised is sent for histological examination (Anaes.) 143.55 - 31220 Tumours (other than viral verrucae (common warts) and seborrheic keratoses), cysts, ulcers or scars (other than scars removed during the surgical approach at an operation), removal of 4 to 10 lesions and suture, if:(a) the size of each lesion is not more than 10 mm in diameter; and(b) each removal is from cutaneous or subcutaneous tissue by surgical excision (other than by shave excision); and(c) all of the specimens excised are sent for histological examination(Anaes.) 214.55 - 31221 Tumours, cysts, ulcers or scars (other than scars removed during the surgical approach at an operation), removal of 4 to 10 lesions, if:(a) the size of each lesion is not more than 10 mm in diameter; and(b) each removal is from a mucous membrane by surgical excision (other than by shave excision); and(c) each site of excision is closed by suture; and(d) all of the specimens excised are sent for histological examination (Anaes.) 214.55 - 31225 Tumours (other than viral verrucae (common warts) and seborrheic keratoses), cysts, ulcers or scars (other than scars removed during the surgical approach at an operation), removal of more than 10 lesions, if:(a) the size of each lesion is not more than 10 mm in diameter; and(b) each removal is from cutaneous or subcutaneous tissue or mucous membrane by surgical excision (other than by shave excision); and(c) each site of excision is closed by suture; and(d) all of the specimens excised are sent for histological examination(Anaes.) 381.30 - 31245 Skin and subcutaneous tissue, extensive excision of, in the treatment of suppurative hydradenitis (excision from axilla, groin or natal cleft) or sycosis barbae or nuchae (excision from face or neck) (Anaes.) 369.00 - 31250 Giant hairy or compound naevus, excision of an area at least 1% of body surface—if the specimen excised is sent for histological confirmation of diagnosis (Anaes.) 369.00 - 31340 Muscle, bone or cartilage, excision of one or more of, if clinically indicated, and if:(a) the specimen excised is sent for histological confirmation; and(b) a malignant tumour of skin covered by item 31000, 31001, 31002, 31003, 31004, 31005, 31356, 31358, 31359, 31361, 31363, 31365, 31367, 31369, 31371, 31372, 31373, 31374, 31375 or 31376 is excised(Anaes.) Amount under clause 2.45.4 - 31345 Lipoma, removal of, by surgical excision or liposuction, if:(a) the lesion is:(i) subcutaneous and 50 mm or more in diameter; or(ii) sub‑fascial; and(b) the specimen excised is sent for histological confirmation of diagnosis(Anaes.) 210.95 - 31346 Liposuction (suction assisted lipolysis) to one regional area for contour problems of abdominal, upper arm or thigh fat because of repeated insulin injections, if:(a) the lesion is subcutaneous; and(b) the lesion is 50 mm or more in diameter; and(c) photographic and/or diagnostic imaging evidence demonstrating the need for this service is documented in the patient notes(Anaes.) 210.95 - 31350 Benign tumour of soft tissue (other than tumours of skin, cartilage and bone, simple lipomas covered by item 31345 and lipomata), removal of, by surgical excision, on a person 10 years of age or over, if the specimen excised is sent for histological confirmation of diagnosis, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 433.35 - 31355 Malignant tumour of soft tissue (other than tumours of skin or cartilage and bone), removal of, by surgical excision, if histological proof of malignancy is obtained, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 714.45 - 31356 Malignant skin lesion (other than a malignant skin lesion covered by item 31371, 31372, 31373, 31374, 31375 or 31376), surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the lesion is excised from nose, eyelid, eyebrow, lip, ear, digit or genitalia, or from a contiguous area; and(b) the necessary excision diameter is less than 6 mm; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination; and(d) malignancy is confirmed from the excised specimen or previous biopsy;not in association with item 45201 (Anaes.) 221.35 - 31357 Non‑malignant skin lesion (other than viral verrucae (common warts) and seborrheic keratoses), including a cyst, ulcer or scar (other than a scar removed during the surgical approach at an operation), surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the lesion is excised from nose, eyelid, eyebrow, lip, ear, digit or genitalia, or from a contiguous area; and(b) the necessary excision diameter is less than 6 mm; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination;not in association with item 45201 (Anaes.) 109.70 - 31358 Malignant skin lesion (other than a malignant skin lesion covered by item 31371, 31372, 31373, 31374, 31375 or 31376), surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the lesion is excised from nose, eyelid, eyebrow, lip, ear, digit or genitalia, or from a contiguous area; and(b) the necessary excision diameter is 6 mm or more; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination; and(d) malignancy is confirmed from the excised specimen or previous biopsy(Anaes.) 270.85 - 31359 Malignant skin lesion (other than a malignant skin lesion covered by item 31371, 31372, 31373, 31374, 31375 or 31376), surgical excision (other than by shave excision), if:(a) the lesion is excised from nose, eyelid, eyebrow, lip, ear, digit or genitalia (the applicable site); and(b) the necessary excision area is at least one third of the surface area of the applicable site; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination; and(d) malignancy is confirmed from the excised specimen or previous biopsy(H) (Anaes.) 330.15 - 31360 Non‑malignant skin lesion (other than viral verrucae (common warts) and seborrheic keratoses), including a cyst, ulcer or scar (other than a scar removed during the surgical approach at an operation), surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the lesion is excised from nose, eyelid, eyebrow, lip, ear, digit or genitalia, or from a contiguous area; and(b) the necessary excision diameter is 6 mm or more; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination(Anaes.) 168.05 - 31361 Malignant skin lesion (other than a malignant skin lesion covered by item 31371, 31372, 31373, 31374, 31375 or 31376), surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the lesion is excised from face, neck, scalp, nipple‑areola complex, distal lower limb (distal to, and including, the knee) or distal upper limb (distal to, and including, the ulnar styloid); and(b) the necessary excision diameter is less than 14 mm; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination; and(d) malignancy is confirmed from the excised specimen or previous biopsy;not in association with item 45201 (Anaes.) 186.70 - 31362 Non‑malignant skin lesion (other than viral verrucae (common warts) and seborrheic keratoses), including a cyst, ulcer or scar (other than a scar removed during the surgical approach at an operation), surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the lesion is excised from face, neck, scalp, nipple‑areola complex, distal lower limb (distal to, and including, the knee) or distal upper limb (distal to, and including, the ulnar styloid); and(b) the necessary excision diameter is less than 14 mm; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination;not in association with item 45201 (Anaes.) 133.90 - 31363 Malignant skin lesion (other than a malignant skin lesion covered by item 31371, 31372, 31373, 31374, 31375 or 31376), surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the lesion is excised from face, neck, scalp, nipple‑areola complex, distal lower limb (distal to, and including, the knee) or distal upper limb (distal to, and including, the ulnar styloid); and(b) the necessary excision diameter is 14 mm or more; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination; and(d) malignancy is confirmed from the excised specimen or previous biopsy(Anaes.) 244.30 - 31364 Non‑malignant skin lesion (other than viral verrucae (common warts) and seborrheic keratoses), including a cyst, ulcer or scar (other than a scar removed during the surgical approach at an operation), surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the lesion is excised from face, neck, scalp, nipple‑areola complex, distal lower limb (distal to, and including, the knee) or distal upper limb (distal to, and including, the ulnar styloid); and(b) the necessary excision diameter is 14 mm or more; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination(Anaes.) 168.05 - 31365 Malignant skin lesion (other than a malignant skin lesion covered by item 31369, 31370, 31371, 31372 or 31373), surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the lesion is excised from any part of the body not covered by item 31356, 31358, 31359, 31361 or 31363; and(b) the necessary excision diameter is less than 15 mm; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination; and(d) malignancy is confirmed from the excised specimen or previous biopsy;not in association with item 45201 (Anaes.) 158.30 - 31366 Non‑malignant skin lesion (other than viral verrucae (common warts) and seborrheic keratoses), including a cyst, ulcer or scar (other than a scar removed during the surgical approach at an operation), surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the lesion is excised from any part of the body not covered by item 31357, 31360, 31362 or 31364; and(b) the necessary excision diameter is less than 15 mm; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination;not in association with item 45201 (Anaes.) 95.45 - 31367 Malignant skin lesion (other than a malignant skin lesion covered by item 31371, 31372, 31373, 31374, 31375 or 31376), surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the lesion is excised from any part of the body not covered by item 31356, 31358, 31359, 31361 or 31363; and(b) the necessary excision diameter is at least 15 mm but not more than 30 mm; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination; and(d) malignancy is confirmed from the excised specimen or previous biopsy;not in association with item 45201 (Anaes.) 213.60 - 31368 Non‑malignant skin lesion (other than viral verrucae (common warts) and seborrheic keratoses), including a cyst, ulcer or scar (other than a scar removed during the surgical approach at an operation), surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the lesion is excised from any part of the body not covered by item 31357, 31360, 31362 or 31364; and(b) the necessary excision diameter is at least 15 mm but not more than 30mm; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination;not in association with item 45201 (Anaes.) 125.55 - 31369 Malignant skin lesion (other than a malignant skin lesion covered by item 31371, 31372, 31373, 31374, 31375 or 31376), surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the lesion is excised from any part of the body not covered by item 31356, 31358, 31359, 31361 or 31363; and(b) the necessary excision diameter is more than 30 mm; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination; and(d) malignancy is confirmed from the excised specimen or previous biopsy(Anaes.) 245.90 - 31370 Non‑malignant skin lesion (other than viral verrucae (common warts) and seborrheic keratoses), including a cyst, ulcer or scar (other than a scar removed during the surgical approach at an operation), surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the lesion is excised from any part of the body not covered by item 31357, 31360, 31362 or 31364; and(b) the necessary excision diameter is more than 30 mm; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination(Anaes.) 143.55 - 31371 Malignant melanoma, appendageal carcinoma, malignant connective tissue tumour of skin or merkel cell carcinoma of skin, definitive surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the tumour is excised from nose, eyelid, eyebrow, lip, ear, digit or genitalia, or from a contiguous area; and(b) the necessary excision diameter is 6 mm or more; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination; and(d) malignancy is confirmed from the excised specimen or previous biopsy(Anaes.) 357.00 - 31372 Malignant melanoma, appendageal carcinoma, malignant connective tissue tumour of skin or merkel cell carcinoma of skin, definitive surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the tumour is excised from face, neck, scalp, nipple‑areola complex, distal lower limb (distal to, and including, the knee) or distal upper limb (distal to, and including, the ulnar styloid); and(b) the necessary excision diameter is less than 14 mm; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination; and(d) malignancy is confirmed from the excised specimen or previous biopsy;not in association with item 45201 (Anaes.) 308.70 - 31373 Malignant melanoma, appendageal carcinoma, malignant connective tissue tumour of skin or merkel cell carcinoma of skin, definitive surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the tumour is excised from face, neck, scalp, nipple‑areola complex, distal lower limb (distal to, and including, the knee) or distal upper limb (distal to, and including, the ulnar styloid); and(b) the necessary excision diameter is 14 mm or more; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination; and(d) malignancy is confirmed from the excised specimen or previous biopsy(Anaes.) 356.80 - 31374 Malignant melanoma, appendageal carcinoma, malignant connective tissue tumour of skin or merkel cell carcinoma of skin, definitive surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the tumour is excised from any part of the body not covered by item 31371, 31372 or 31373; and(b) the necessary excision diameter is less than 15 mm; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination; and(d) malignancy is confirmed from the excised specimen or previous biopsy;not in association with item 45201 (Anaes.) 281.90 - 31375 Malignant melanoma, appendageal carcinoma, malignant connective tissue tumour of skin or merkel cell carcinoma of skin, definitive surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the tumour is excised from any part of the body not covered by item 31371, 31372 or 31373; and(b) the necessary excision diameter is at least 15 mm but not more than 30 mm; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination; and(d) malignancy is confirmed from the excised specimen or previous biopsy;not in association with item 45201 (Anaes.) 303.40 - 31376 Malignant melanoma, appendageal carcinoma, malignant connective tissue tumour of skin or merkel cell carcinoma of skin, definitive surgical excision (other than by shave excision) and repair of, if:(a) the tumour is excised from any part of the body not covered by item 31371, 31372 or 31373; and(b) the necessary excision diameter is more than 30 mm; and(c) the excised specimen is sent for histological examination; and(d) malignancy is confirmed from the excised specimen or previous biopsy(Anaes.) 351.60 - 31400 Malignant upper aerodigestive tract tumour (other than tumour of the lip), excision of, if:(a) the tumour is not more than 20 mm in diameter; and(b) histological confirmation of malignancy is obtained(Anaes.) (Assist.) 261.05 - 31403 Malignant upper aerodigestive tract tumour (other than tumour of the lip), excision of, if:(a) the tumour is more than 20 mm but not more than 40 mm in diameter; and(b) histological confirmation of malignancy is obtained(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 301.35 - 31406 Malignant upper aerodigestive tract tumour more than 40 mm in diameter (excluding tumour of the lip), excision of, if histological confirmation of malignancy has been obtained (Anaes.) (Assist.) 502.15 - 31409 Parapharyngeal tumour, excision of, by cervical approach (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,560.15 - 31412 Recurrent or persistent parapharyngeal tumour, excision of, by cervical approach (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,921.75 - 31420 Lymph node of neck, biopsy of (Anaes.) 183.90 - 31423 Lymph nodes of neck, selective dissection of one or 2 lymph node levels involving removal of soft tissue and lymph nodes from one side of the neck, on a person 10 years of age or over (Anaes.) (Assist.) 401.75 - 31426 Lymph nodes of neck, selective dissection of 3 lymph node levels involving removal of soft tissue and lymph nodes from one side of the neck (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 803.45 - 31429 Lymph nodes of neck, selective dissection of 4 lymph node levels on one side of the neck with preservation of one or more of internal jugular vein, sternocleido‑mastoid muscle or spinal accessory nerve (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,252.10 - 31432 Lymph nodes of neck, bilateral selective dissection of levels I, II and III (bilateral supraomohyoid dissections) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,339.15 - 31435 Lymph nodes of neck, comprehensive dissection of all 5 lymph node levels on one side of the neck (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 984.30 - 31438 Lymph nodes of neck, comprehensive dissection of all 5 lymph node levels on one side of the neck with preservation of one or more of internal jugular vein, sternocleido‑mastoid muscle, or spinal accessory nerve (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,560.15 - 31450 Laparoscopic division of adhesions, as an independent procedure, if the time taken is 1 hour or less (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 406.65 - 31452 Laparoscopic division of adhesions, as an independent procedure, if the time taken is more than 1 hour (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 711.50 - 31454 Laparoscopy with drainage of pus, bile or blood, as an independent procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 563.30 - 31456 Gastroscopy and insertion of nasogastric or nasoenteral feeding tube, if blind insertion of the feeding tube has failed or is inappropriate due to the patient’s medical condition (H) (Anaes.) 245.55 - 31458 Gastroscopy and insertion of nasogastric or nasoenteral feeding tube if:(a) blind insertion of the feeding tube has failed or is inappropriate due to the patient’s medical condition; and(b) the use of imaging intensification is clinically indicated(H) (Anaes.) 294.65 - 31460 Percutaneous gastrostomy tube, jejunal extension to, including any associated imaging services (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 357.00 - 31462 Operative feeding jejunostomy performed in conjunction with major upper gastro‑intestinal resection (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 521.25 - 31464 Antireflux operation by fundoplasty, via abdominal or thoracic approach, with or without closure of the diaphragmatic hiatus, by laparoscopic technique—other than a service to which item 30601 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 871.30 - 31466 Antireflux operation by fundoplasty, via abdominal or thoracic approach, with or without closure of the diaphragmatic hiatus, revision procedure, by laparoscopy or open operation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,306.95 - 31468 Para‑oesophageal hiatus hernia, repair of, with complete reduction of hernia, resection of sac and repair of hiatus, with or without fundoplication (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,435.85 - 31470 Laparoscopic splenectomy, on a person 10 years of age or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 720.20 - 31472 Cholecystoduodenostomy, cholecystoenterostomy, choledochojejunostomy or Roux‑en‑y as a bypass procedure, if prior biliary surgery has been performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,169.80 - 31500 Breast, benign lesion up to and including 50 mm in diameter, including simple cyst, fibroadenoma or fibrocystic disease, open surgical biopsy or excision of, with or without frozen section histology (Anaes.) 260.05 - 31503 Breast, benign lesion more than 50 mm in diameter, excision of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 346.75 - 31506 Breast, abnormality detected by mammography or ultrasound, if guidewire or other localisation procedure is performed, excision biopsy of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 390.10 - 31509 Breast, malignant tumour, open surgical biopsy of, with or without frozen section histology (Anaes.) 346.75 - 31512 Breast, malignant tumour, complete local excision of, with or without frozen section histology (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 650.15 - 31515 Breast, tumour site, re‑excision of, following open biopsy or incomplete excision of malignant tumour (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 436.15 - 31516 Breast, malignant tumour, complete local excision of, with or without frozen section histology when targeted intraoperative radiotherapy (using an intrabeam device) is performed concurrently, if the patient satisfies the requirements mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (g) of item 15900 (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 867.00 - 31519 Breast, total mastectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 736.05 - 31524 Breast, subcutaneous mastectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,040.25 - 31525 Breast, mastectomy for gynecomastia, with or without liposuction (suction assisted lipolysis), not being a service associated with a service to which item 45585 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 520.00 - 31530 Breast, biopsy of solid tumour or tissue of, using a vacuum‑assisted breast biopsy device under imaging guidance, for histological examination, if imaging has demonstrated:(a) microcalcification of lesion; or(b) impalpable lesion less than one cm in diameter;including pre‑operative localisation of lesion, if performed, other than a service associated with a service to which item 31539, 31545 or 31548 applies 595.65 - 31533 Fine needle aspiration of an impalpable breast lesion detected by mammography or ultrasound, imaging guided—but not including imaging (Anaes.) 137.90 - 31536 Breast, preoperative localisation of lesion of, by hookwire or similar device, using interventional imaging techniques, but not including imaging—other than a service associated with a service to which item 31539, 31542 or 31545 applies (Anaes.) 189.40 - 31539 Breast, biopsy of solid tumour or tissue of, using a bore‑enbloc stereotactic biopsy, for histological examination, conducted by a qualified surgeon, if imaging has demonstrated an impalpable lesion of less than 15 mm in diameter, other than a service associated with a service to which item 31530, 31536 or 31548 applies (H) (Anaes.) 398.80 - 31542 Breast, initial guidewire localisation of lesion, by hookwire or similar device, conducted by a qualified radiologist, using interventional imaging techniques before a bore‑enbloc stereotactic biopsy, including imaging—other than a service associated with a service to which item 31536 applies (Anaes.) 196.95 - 31545 Breast, biopsy of solid tumour or tissue of, using a bore‑enbloc stereotactic biopsy, for histological examination, conducted by a qualified surgeon, if imaging has demonstrated an impalpable lesion of less than 15 mm in diameter, including initial guidewire localisation of lesion, by hookwire or similar device, using interventional imaging techniques and including imaging—other than a service associated with a service to which item 31530, 31536 or 31548 applies (Anaes.) 595.65 - 31548 Breast, biopsy of solid tumour or tissue of, using mechanical biopsy device, for histological examination, other than a service associated with a service to which item 31530, 31539 or 31545 applies (Anaes.) 137.90 - 31551 Breast, haematoma, seroma or inflammatory condition including abscess, granulomatous mastitis or similar, exploration and drainage of, when performed in the operating theatre of a hospital, excluding after‑care (H) (Anaes.) 216.75 - 31554 Breast, microdochotomy of, for benign or malignant condition (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 433.50 - 31557 Breast central ducts, excision of, for benign condition (Anaes.) (Assist.) 346.75 - 31560 Accessory breast tissue, excision of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 346.75 - 31563 Inverted nipple, surgical eversion of (Anaes.) 259.75 - 31566 Accessory nipple, excision of (Anaes.) 129.95 - 31569 Adjustable gastric band, placement of, with or without crural repair taking 45 minutes or less, for a patient with clinically severe obesity (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 849.55 - 31572 Gastric bypass by Roux‑en‑Y including associated anastomoses, with or without crural repair taking 45 minutes or less, for a patient with clinically severe obesity not being associated with a service to which item 30515 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,045.40 - 31575 Sleeve gastrectomy, with or without crural repair taking 45 minutes or less, for a patient with clinically severe obesity (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 849.55 - 31578 Gastroplasty (excluding by gastric plication), with or without crural repair taking 45 minutes or less, for a patient with clinically severe obesity (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 849.55 - 31581 Gastric bypass by biliopancreatic diversion with or without duodenal switch including gastric restriction and anastomoses, with or without crural repair taking 45 minutes or less, for a patient with clinically severe obesity (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,045.40 - 31584 Surgical reversal of adjustable gastric banding (removal or replacement of gastric band), gastric bypass, gastroplasty (excluding by gastric plication) or biliopancreatic diversion being services to which items 31569 to 31581 apply (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,539.10 - 31587 Adjustment of gastric band as an independent procedure including any associated consultation 97.95 - 31590 Adjustment of gastric band reservoir, repair, revision or replacement of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 251.70 Subdivision C—Subgroups 2 and 3 of Group T8 2.45.13  Meaning of foreign body in items 35360 to 35363   In items 35360 to 35363: foreign body does not include an instrument inserted for the purpose of a service being rendered. 2.45.14  Application of items 32084, 32087, 32090 and 32093   If a service to which item 32084, 32087, 32090 or 32093 applies is provided by a practitioner to a patient on more than one occasion on a day, the second service is taken to be a separate service for the purposes of the item if the second service is provided under a second episode of anaesthesia or other sedation. 2.45.15  Application of items 32500 to 32517 and 35321   Items 32500 to 32517 and 35321 do not apply to the services mentioned in those items if the services are delivered by:  (a) endovenous laser treatment; or  (b) radiofrequency diathermy; or  (c) radiofrequency ablation for varicose veins. 2.45.16  Application of items 35404, 35406 and 35408  (1) Items 35404, 35406 and 35408 do not apply to selective internal radiation therapy provided in combination with systemic chemotherapy using any drugs other than 5 fluorouracil (5FU) and leucovorin.  (2) Item 35404 applies only to a service provided by a medical practitioner recognised as a specialist, or consultant physician, in the specialty of nuclear medicine or radiation oncology for the purposes of the Act. 2.45.17  Artificial bowel sphincter   An artificial bowel sphincter under items 32220 and 32221 is contraindicated in:  (a) patients with inflammatory bowel disease, pelvic sepsis, pregnancy, progressive degenerative diseases or a scarred or fragile perineum; and  (b) patients who have had an adverse reaction to radiopaque solution; and  (c) patients who engage in receptive anal intercourse. 2.45.18  Meaning of eligible stroke centre eligible stroke centre means a facility that:  (a) has a designated stroke unit; and  (b) is equipped and has staff available or on call so that it is capable of providing all of the following to a patient on a 24‑hour basis:  (i) the services of a specialist or consultant physician who has the training required under paragraph (b) of item 35414;  (ii) diagnostic imaging services using advanced imaging techniques, including computed tomography, computed tomography angiography, digital subtraction angiography, magnetic resonance imaging and magnetic resonance angiography;  (iii) care from a team of health practitioners including a stroke physician, a neurologist, a neurosurgeon, a radiologist, an anaesthetist, an intensive care unit specialist, a medical imaging technologist and a nurse; and  (c) has dedicated endovascular angiography facilities; and  (d) has written procedures for assessing and treating patients who have, or may have, experienced a stroke. Note: A health practitioner may fulfil the role of more than one of the types of health practitioner specified in paragraph (b)(iii). For example, a neurologist may also be a stroke physician.   - Subgroup 2—Colorectal - 32000 Large intestine, resection of, without anastomosis, including right hemicolectomy (including formation of stoma) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,031.35 - 32003 Large intestine, resection of, with anastomosis, including right hemicolectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,078.80 - 32004 Large intestine, sub‑total colectomy (resection of right colon, transverse colon and splenic flexure) without anastomosis, other than a service associated with a service to which item 32000, 32003, 32005 or 32006 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,150.35 - 32005 Large intestine, sub‑total colectomy (resection of right colon, transverse colon and splenic flexure) with anastomosis, other than a service associated with a service to which item 32000, 32003, 32004 or 32006 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,299.55 - 32006 Left hemicolectomy, including the descending and sigmoid colon (including formation of stoma) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,150.35 - 32009 Total colectomy and ileostomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,364.60 - 32012 Total colectomy and ileo‑rectal anastomosis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,507.40 - 32015 Total colectomy with excision of rectum and ileostomy—one surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,852.50 - 32018 Total colectomy with excision of rectum and ileostomy, combined synchronous operation—abdominal resection (including after‑care) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,570.85 - 32021 Total colectomy with excision of rectum and ileostomy, combined synchronous operation—perineal resection (H) (Assist.) 563.30 - 32023 Endoscopic insertion of stent or stents for large bowel obstruction, stricture or stenosis, including colonoscopy and any image intensification, if the obstruction is due to:(a) a pre‑diagnosed colorectal cancer, or cancer of an organ adjacent to the bowel; or(b) an unknown diagnosis (H) (Anaes.) 555.35 - 32024 Rectum, high restorative anterior resection with intraperitoneal anastomosis (of the rectum) greater than 10 cm from the anal verge—excluding resection of sigmoid colon alone, other than a service associated with a service to which item 32103, 32104 or 32106 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,364.60 - 32025 Rectum, low restorative anterior resection with extraperitoneal anastomosis (of the rectum) less than 10 cm from the anal verge, with or without covering stoma, other than a service associated with a service to which item 32103, 32104 or 32106 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,825.30 - 32026 Rectum, ultra low restorative resection, with or without covering stoma, if the anastomosis is sited in the anorectal region and is 6 cm or less from the anal verge (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,965.65 - 32028 Rectum, low or ultra low restorative resection, with peranal sutured coloanal anastomosis, with or without covering stoma (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,106.20 - 32029 Colonic reservoir, construction of, being a service associated with a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 421.20 - 32030 Rectosigmoidectomy—(Hartmann’s operation) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,031.35 - 32033 Restoration of bowel following Hartmann’s or similar operation, including dismantling of the stoma (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,507.40 - 32036 Sacrococcygeal and presacral tumour—excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,911.80 - 32039 Rectum and anus, abdomino‑perineal resection of—one surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,535.05 - 32042 Rectum and anus, abdomino‑perineal resection of, combined synchronous operation, abdominal resection (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,293.15 - 32045 Rectum and anus, abdomino‑perineal resection of, combined synchronous operation—perineal resection (H) (Assist.) 483.95 - 32046 Rectum and anus, abdomino‑perineal resection of, combined synchronous operation—perineal resection if the perineal surgeon also provides assistance to the abdominal surgeon (H) (Assist.) 747.90 - 32047 Perineal proctectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 871.30 - 32051 Total colectomy with excision of rectum and ileoanal anastomosis with formation of ileal reservoir, with or without creation of temporary ileostomy—one surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,316.60 - 32054 Total colectomy with excision of rectum and ileoanal anastomosis with formation of ileal reservoir, with or without creation of temporary ileostomy—conjoint surgery, abdominal surgeon (including after‑care) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,126.20 - 32057 Total colectomy with excision of rectum and ileoanal anastomosis with formation of ileal reservoir—conjoint surgery, perineal surgeon (H) (Assist.) 563.30 - 32060 Ileostomy closure with rectal resection and mucosectomy and ileoanal anastomosis with formation of ileal reservoir, with or without temporary loop ileostomy—one surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,316.60 - 32063 Ileostomy closure with rectal resection and mucosectomy and ileoanal anastomosis with formation of ileal reservoir, with or without temporary loop ileostomy—conjoint surgery, abdominal surgeon (including after‑care) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,126.20 - 32066 Ileostomy closure with rectal resection and mucosectomy and ileoanal anastomosis with formation of ileal reservoir, with or without temporary loop ileostomy—conjoint surgery, perineal surgeon (H) (Assist.) 563.30 - 32069 Ileostomy reservoir, continent type, creation of, including conversion of existing ileostomy, if appropriate (H) (Anaes.) 1,713.65 - 32072 Sigmoidoscopic examination (with rigid sigmoidoscope), with or without biopsy 47.85 - 32075 Sigmoidoscopic examination (with rigid sigmoidoscope), under general anaesthesia, with or without biopsy, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 75.05 - 32084 Flexible fibreoptic sigmoidoscopy or fibreoptic colonoscopy up to the hepatic flexure, with or without biopsy, other than a service associated with a service to which item 32090 or 32093 applies (Anaes.) 111.35 - 32087 Endoscopic examination of the colon up to the hepatic flexure by flexible fibreoptic sigmoidoscopy or fibreoptic colonoscopy for the removal of one or more polyps or the treatment of radiation proctitis, angiodysplasia or post‑polypectomy bleeding by argon plasma coagulation, one or more of, other than a service associated with a service to which item 32090 or 32093 applies (Anaes.) 204.70 - 32088 Fibreoptic colonoscopy—examination of the colon beyond the hepatic flexure, with or without biopsy, following a positive faecal occult blood test for a participant registered on the National Bowel Cancer Screening Program (Anaes.) 334.35 - 32089 Endoscopic examination of the colon beyond the hepatic flexure by fibreoptic colonoscopy for the removal of one or more polyps, following a positive faecal occult blood test for a participant registered on the National Bowel Cancer Screening Program (Anaes.) 469.20 - 32090 Fibreoptic colonoscopy—examination of colon beyond the hepatic flexure with or without biopsy (Anaes.) 334.35 - 32093 Endoscopic examination of the colon beyond the hepatic flexure by fibreoptic colonoscopy for the removal of one or more polyps, or the treatment of radiation proctitis, angiodysplasia or post‑polypectomy bleeding by argon plasma coagulation, one or more of (Anaes.) 469.20 - 32094 Endoscopic dilatation of colorectal strictures including colonoscopy (H) (Anaes.) 551.85 - 32095 Endoscopic examination of small bowel with flexible endoscope passed by stoma, with or without biopsies (Anaes.) 127.80 - 32096 Rectal biopsy, full thickness, under general anaesthesia, or under epidural or spinal (intrathecal) nerve block (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 256.95 - 32099 Rectal tumour of 5 cm or less in diameter, per anal submucosal excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 333.20 - 32102 Rectal tumour of greater than 5 cm in diameter, indicated by pathological examination, per anal submucosal excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 634.70 - 32103 Rectal tumour of less than 4 cm in diameter, per anal excision of, using rectoscopy incorporating either 2 dimensional or 3 dimensional optic viewing systems, if removal is unable to be performed during colonoscopy or by local excision, other than a service associated with a service to which item 32024, 32025, 32104 or 32106 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 772.30 - 32104 Rectal tumour of 4 cm or greater in diameter, per anal excision of, using rectoscopy incorporating either 2 dimensional or 3 dimensional optic viewing systems, if removal is unable to be performed during colonoscopy or by local excision, other than a service associated with a service to which item 32024, 32025, 32103 or 32106 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 999.65 - 32105 Anorectal carcinoma—per anal full thickness excision of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 483.95 - 32106 Anterolateral intraperitoneal rectal tumour, per anal excision of, using rectoscopy incorporating either 2 dimensional or 3 dimensional optic viewing systems, if removal is unable to be performed during colonoscopy and if removal requires dissection within the peritoneal cavity, other than a service associated with a service to which item 32024, 32025, 32103 or 32104 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,364.60 - 32108 Rectal tumour, trans‑sphincteric excision of (Kraske or similar operation) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 999.65 - 32111 Rectal prolapse, Delorme procedure for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 634.70 - 32112 Rectal prolapse, perineal recto‑sigmoidectomy for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 772.30 - 32114 Rectal stricture, per anal release of (Anaes.) 174.45 - 32115 Rectal stricture, dilatation of (H) (Anaes.) 126.85 - 32117 Rectal prolapse, abdominal rectopexy of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 999.65 - 32120 Rectal prolapse, perineal repair of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 256.95 - 32123 Anal stricture, anoplasty for (Anaes.) (Assist.) 333.20 - 32126 Anal incontinence, Parks’ intersphincteric procedure for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 483.95 - 32129 Anal sphincter, direct repair of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 634.70 - 32131 Rectocele, transanal repair of rectocele (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 533.60 - 32132 Haemorrhoids or rectal prolapse—sclerotherapy for (Anaes.) 45.10 - 32135 Haemorrhoids or rectal prolapse—rubber band ligation of, with or without sclerotherapy, cryotherapy or infrared therapy for (Anaes.) 67.50 - 32138 Haemorrhoidectomy including excision of anal skin tags when performed (Anaes.) 367.75 - 32139 Haemorrhoidectomy involving third or fourth degree haemorrhoids, including excision of anal skin tags when performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 367.75 - 32142 Anal skin tags or anal polyps, excision of one or more of (Anaes.) 67.50 - 32145 Anal skin tags or anal polyps, excision of one or more of, undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 135.05 - 32147 Perianal thrombosis, incision of (Anaes.) 45.10 - 32150 Operation for fissure‑in‑ano, including excision or sphincterotomy but excluding dilatation only (Anaes.) (Assist.) 256.95 - 32153 Anus, dilatation of, under general anaesthesia, with or without disimpaction of faeces, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) 70.10 - 32156 Fistula‑in‑ano, subcutaneous, excision of (Anaes.) 131.75 - 32159 Anal fistula, treatment of, by excision or by insertion of a Seton, or by a combination of both procedures, involving the lower half of the anal sphincter mechanism (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 333.20 - 32162 Anal fistula, treatment of, by excision or by insertion of a Seton, or by a combination of both procedures, involving the upper half of the anal sphincter mechanism (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 483.95 - 32165 Anal fistula, repair of by mucosal flap advancement (Anaes.) (Assist.) 634.70 - 32166 Anal fistula—readjustment of Seton (Anaes.) 206.20 - 32168 Fistula wound, review of, under general or regional anaesthetic, as an independent procedure (H) (Anaes.) 131.75 - 32171 Anorectal examination, with or without biopsy, under general anaesthetic, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) 88.80 - 32174 Intra‑anal, perianal or ischio‑rectal abscess, drainage of (excluding after‑care) (Anaes.) 88.80 - 32175 Intra‑anal, perianal or ischio‑rectal abscess, draining of, performed in the operating theatre of a hospital (excluding after‑care) (H) (Anaes.) 162.65 - 32177 Anal warts, removal of, under general anaesthesia, or under regional or field nerve block (excluding pudendal block), if the time taken is less than or equal to 45 minutes—other than a service associated with a service to which item 35507 or 35508 applies (H) (Anaes.) 174.25 - 32180 Anal warts, removal of, under general anaesthesia, or under regional or field nerve block (excluding pudendal block), if the time taken is greater than 45 minutes—other than a service associated with a service to which item 35507 or 35508 applies (H) (Anaes.) 256.95 - 32183 Intestinal sling procedure before radiotherapy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 561.65 - 32186 Colonic lavage, total, intra‑operative (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 561.65 - 32200 Distal muscle, devascularisation of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 295.70 - 32203 Anal or perineal graciloplasty (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 635.00 - 32206 Stimulator and electrodes, insertion of, following previous graciloplasty (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 573.70 - 32209 Anal or perineal graciloplasty with insertion of stimulator and electrodes (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 921.95 - 32210 Gracilis neosphincter pacemaker, replacement of (Anaes.) 255.45 - 32212 Ano‑rectal application of formalin in the treatment of radiation proctitis, if performed in the operating theatre of a hospital, excluding after‑care (H) (Anaes.) 136.25 - 32213 Sacral nerve lead or leads, percutaneous placement using fluoroscopic guidance (or open placement) and intraoperative test stimulation, to manage faecal incontinence in a patient who:(a) has an anatomically intact but functionally deficient anal sphincter; and(b) has faecal incontinence that has been refractory to conservative non‑surgical treatment for at least 12 months;other than a patient who:(c) is medically unfit for surgery; or(d) is pregnant or planning pregnancy; or(e) has irritable bowel syndrome; or(f) has congenital anorectal malformations; or(g) has active anal abscesses or fistulas; or(h) has anorectal organic bowel disease, including cancer; or(i) has functional effects of previous pelvic irradiation; or(j) has congenital or acquired malformations of the sacrum; or(k) has had rectal or anal surgery within the previous 12 months(H) (Anaes.) 660.95 - 32214 Neurostimulator or receiver, subcutaneous placement of, involving placement and connection of an extension wire to a sacral nerve electrode using fluoroscopic guidance, to manage faecal incontinence in a patient who:(a) has an anatomically intact but functionally deficient anal sphincter; and(b) has faecal incontinence that has been refractory to conservative non‑surgical treatment for at least 12 months;other than a patient who:(c) is medically unfit for surgery; or(d) is pregnant or planning pregnancy; or(e) has irritable bowel syndrome; or(f) has congenital anorectal malformations; or(g) has active anal abscesses or fistulas; or(h) has anorectal organic bowel disease, including cancer; or(i) has functional effects of previous pelvic irradiation; or(j) has congenital or acquired malformations of the sacrum; or(k) has had rectal or anal surgery within the previous 12 months(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 334.00 - 32215 Sacral nerve electrode or electrodes, management, adjustment and electronic programming of the neurostimulator by a medical practitioner, to manage faecal incontinence, other than in a patient who:(a) is medically unfit for surgery; or(b) is pregnant or planning pregnancy; or(c) has irritable bowel syndrome; or(d) has congenital anorectal malformations; or(e) has active anal abscesses or fistulas; or(f) has anorectal organic bowel disease, including cancer; or(g) has functional effects of previous pelvic irradiation; or(h) has congenital or acquired malformations of the sacrum; or(i) has had rectal or anal surgery within the previous 12 months;—each day 125.40 - 32216 Sacral nerve lead or leads, percutaneous surgical repositioning of, using fluoroscopic guidance (or open surgical repositioning of) and interoperative test stimulation, to correct displacement or unsatisfactory positioning, if the lead was inserted to manage faecal incontinence in a patient who:(a) has an anatomically intact but functionally deficient anal sphincter; and(b) has faecal incontinence that has been refractory to conservative non‑surgical treatment for at least 12 months;other than a patient who:(c) is medically unfit for surgery; or(d) is pregnant or planning pregnancy; or(e) has irritable bowel syndrome; or(f) has congenital anorectal malformations; or(g) has active anal abscesses or fistulas; or(h) has anorectal organic bowel disease, including cancer; or(i) has functional effects of previous pelvic irradiation; or(j) has congenital or acquired malformations of the sacrum; or(k) has had rectal or anal surgery within the previous 12 months;other than a service to which item 32213 applies (H) (Anaes.) 593.55 - 32217 Neurostimulator or receiver, removal of, if the neurostimulator or receiver was inserted to manage faecal incontinence in a patient who:(a) has an anatomically intact but functionally deficient anal sphincter; and(b) has faecal incontinence that has been refractory to conservative non‑surgical treatment for at least 12 months;other than a patient who:(c) is medically unfit for surgery; or(d) is pregnant or planning pregnancy; or(e) has irritable bowel syndrome; or(f) has congenital anorectal malformations; or(g) has active anal abscesses or fistulas; or(h) has anorectal organic bowel disease, including cancer; or(i) has functional effects of previous pelvic irradiation; or(j) has congenital or acquired malformations of the sacrum; or(k) has had rectal or anal surgery within the previous 12 months(H) (Anaes.) 156.30 - 32218 Sacral nerve lead or leads, removal of, if the lead was inserted to manage faecal incontinence in a patient who:(a) has an anatomically intact but functionally deficient anal sphincter; and(b) has faecal incontinence that has been refractory to conservative non‑surgical treatment for at least 12 months;other than a patient who:(c) is medically unfit for surgery; or(d) is pregnant or planning pregnancy; or(e) has irritable bowel syndrome; or(f) has congenital anorectal malformations; or(g) has active anal abscesses or fistulas; or(h) has anorectal organic bowel disease, including cancer; or(i) has functional effects of previous pelvic irradiation; or(j) has congenital or acquired malformations of the sacrum; or(k) has had rectal or anal surgery within the previous 12 months(H) (Anaes.) 156.30 - 32220 Insertion of an artificial bowel sphincter for severe faecal incontinence in the treatment of a patient for whom conservative and other less invasive forms of treatment are contraindicated or have failed (Anaes.) (Assist.) 903.90 - 32221 Removal or revision of an artificial bowel sphincter (with or without replacement) for severe faecal incontinence in the treatment of a patient for whom conservative and other less invasive forms of treatment are contraindicated or have failed (Anaes.) (Assist.) 903.90 - Subgroup 3—Vascular - 32500 Varicose veins if varicosity measures 2.5 mm or greater in diameter, multiple injections of sclerosant using continuous compression techniques, including associated consultation—one or both legs—other than a service associated with another varicose vein operation on the same leg (excluding after‑care)—to a maximum of 6 treatments in a 12 month period (Anaes.) 109.80 - 32504 Varicose veins, multiple excision of tributaries, with or without division of one or more perforating veins—one leg—other than a service associated with a service to which item 32507, 32508, 32511, 32514 or 32517 applies in relation to the same leg (Anaes.) 267.65 - 32507 Varicose veins, sub‑fascial surgical exploration of one or more incompetent perforating veins—one leg—other than a service associated with a service to which item 32508, 32511, 32514 or 32517 applies in relation to the same leg (Anaes.) (Assist.) 533.60 - 32508 Varicose veins, complete dissection at the sapheno‑femoral junction or sapheno‑popliteal junction—one leg—with or without either ligation or stripping, or both, of the long or short saphenous vein on the same leg, for the first time, including excision or injection of either tributaries or incompetent perforating veins, or both (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 533.60 - 32511 Varicose veins, complete dissection at the sapheno‑femoral junction and sapheno‑popliteal junction—one leg—with or without either ligation or stripping, or both, of the long or short saphenous vein on the same leg, for the first time, including excision or injection of either tributaries or incompetent perforating veins, or both (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 793.30 - 32514 Varicose veins, ligation of the long or short saphenous vein on the same leg, with or without stripping, by re‑operation for recurrent veins in the same territory—one leg—including excision or injection of either tributaries or incompetent perforating veins, or both (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 926.80 - 32517 Varicose veins, ligation of the long and short saphenous veins on the same leg, with or without stripping, by re‑operation for recurrent veins in either territory—one leg—including excision or injection of either tributaries or incompetent perforating veins, or both (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,193.40 - 32520 Varicose veins, abolition of venous reflux by occlusion of a primary or recurrent great (long) or small (short) saphenous vein of one leg (and major tributaries of saphenous veins as necessary), using a laser probe introduced by an endovenous catheter, if it is documented by duplex ultrasound that the great or small saphenous vein (whichever is to be treated) demonstrates reflux of 0.5 seconds or longer:(a) including all preparation and immediate clinical aftercare (including excision or injection of either tributaries or incompetent perforating veins, or both); and(b) not including radiofrequency diathermy, radiofrequency ablation or cyanoacrylate embolisation; and(c) not provided on the same occasion as a service described in any of items 32500, 32504 and 32507(Anaes.) 533.60 - 32522 Varicose veins, abolition of venous reflux by occlusion of a primary or recurrent great (long) and small (short) saphenous vein of one leg (and major tributaries of saphenous veins as necessary), using a laser probe introduced by an endovenous catheter, if it is documented by duplex ultrasound that the great and small saphenous veins demonstrate reflux of 0.5 seconds or longer:(a) including all preparation and immediate clinical aftercare (including excision or injection of either tributaries or incompetent perforating veins, or both); and(b) not including radiofrequency diathermy, radiofrequency ablation or cyanoacrylate embolisation; and(c) not provided on the same occasion as a service described in any of items 32500, 32504 and 32507(Anaes.) 793.30 - 32523 Varicose veins, abolition of venous reflux by occlusion of a primary or recurrent great (long) or small (short) saphenous vein of one leg (and major tributaries of saphenous veins as necessary), using a radiofrequency catheter introduced by an endovenous catheter, if it is documented by duplex ultrasound that the great or small saphenous vein (whichever is to be treated) demonstrates reflux of 0.5 seconds or longer:(a) including all preparation and immediate clinical aftercare (including excision or injection of either tributaries or incompetent perforating veins, or both); and(b) not including endovenous laser therapy or cyanoacrylate embolisation; and(c) not provided on the same occasion as a service described in any of items 32500, 32504 and 32507(Anaes.) 533.60 - 32526 Varicose veins, abolition of venous reflux by occlusion of a primary or recurrent great (long) and small (short) saphenous vein of one leg (and major tributaries of saphenous veins as necessary), using a radiofrequency catheter introduced by an endovenous catheter, if it is documented by duplex ultrasound that the great and small saphenous veins demonstrate reflux of 0.5 seconds or longer:(a) including all preparation and immediate clinical aftercare (including excision or injection of either tributaries or incompetent perforating veins, or both); and(b) not including endovenous laser therapy or cyanoacrylate embolisation; and(c) not provided on the same occasion as a service described in any of items 32500, 32504 and 32507(Anaes.) 793.30 - 32528 Varicose veins, abolition of venous reflux by occlusion of a primary or recurrent great (long) or small (short) saphenous vein of one leg (and major tributaries of saphenous veins as necessary), using cyanoacrylate adhesive, if it is documented by duplex ultrasound that the great or small saphenous vein (whichever is to be treated) demonstrates reflux of 0.5 seconds or longer:(a) including all preparation and immediate clinical aftercare (including excision or injection of either tributaries or incompetent perforating veins, or both); and(b) not including radiofrequency diathermy, radiofrequency ablation or endovenous laser therapy; and(c) not provided on the same occasion as a service described in any of items 32500, 32504 and 32507(Anaes.) 533.60 - 32529 Varicose veins, abolition of venous reflux by occlusion of a primary or recurrent great (long) and small (short) saphenous vein of one leg (and major tributaries of saphenous veins as necessary), using cyanoacrylate adhesive, if it is documented by duplex ultrasound that the great and small saphenous veins demonstrate reflux of 0.5 seconds or longer:(a) including all preparation and immediate clinical aftercare (including excision or injection of either tributaries or incompetent perforating veins, or both); and(b) not including radiofrequency diathermy, radiofrequency ablation or endovenous laser therapy; and(c) not provided on the same occasion as a service described in any of items 32500, 32504 and 32507(Anaes.) 793.30 - 32700 Artery of neck, bypass using vein or synthetic material (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,436.30 - 32703 Internal carotid artery, transection and reanastomosis of, or resection of small length and reanastomosis of—with or without endarterectomy (H) (Assist.) 1,188.20 - 32708 Aortic bypass for occlusive disease using a straight non‑bifurcated graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,421.35 - 32710 Aortic bypass for occlusive disease using a bifurcated graft with one or both anastomoses to the iliac arteries (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,579.30 - 32711 Aortic bypass for occlusive disease using a bifurcated graft with one or both anastomoses to the common femoral or profunda femoris arteries (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,737.25 - 32712 Ilio‑femoral bypass grafting (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,255.80 - 32715 Axillary or subclavian to femoral bypass grafting to one or both femoral arteries (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,255.80 - 32718 Femoro‑femoral or ilio‑femoral cross‑over bypass grafting (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,188.20 - 32721 Renal artery, bypass grafting to (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,887.35 - 32724 Renal arteries (both), bypass grafting to (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,143.10 - 32730 Mesenteric vessel (single), bypass grafting to (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,624.30 - 32733 Mesenteric vessels (multiple), bypass grafting to (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,887.35 - 32736 Inferior mesenteric artery, operation on, when performed in conjunction with another intra‑abdominal vascular operation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 413.55 - 32739 Femoral artery bypass grafting using vein, including harvesting of vein (when it is the ipsilateral long saphenous vein) with above knee anastomosis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,293.40 - 32742 Femoral artery bypass grafting using vein, including harvesting of vein (when it is the ipsilateral long saphenous vein) with distal anastomosis to below knee popliteal artery (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,481.50 - 32745 Femoral artery bypass grafting using vein, including harvesting of vein (when it is the ipsilateral long saphenous vein) with distal anastomosis to tibio peroneal trunk or tibial or peroneal artery (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,691.95 - 32748 Femoral artery bypass grafting using vein, including harvesting of vein (when it is the ipsilateral long saphenous vein) with distal anastomosis within 5 cm of the ankle joint (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,834.80 - 32751 Femoral artery bypass grafting using synthetic graft, with lower anastomosis above or below the knee (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,188.20 - 32754 Femoral artery bypass grafting, using a composite graft (synthetic material and vein) with lower anastomosis above or below the knee, including use of a cuff or sleeve of vein at one or both anastomoses (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,481.50 - 32757 Femoral artery sequential bypass grafting (using a vein or synthetic material) if an additional anastomosis is made to separately revascularise more than one artery—each additional artery revascularised beyond a femoral bypass (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 413.55 - 32760 Vein, harvesting of, from leg or arm for bypass or replacement graft when not performed on the limb which is the subject of the bypass or graft—each vein (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 406.05 - 32763 Arterial bypass grafting, using vein or synthetic material, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,188.20 - 32766 Arterial or venous anastomosis, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies, as an independent procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 789.65 - 32769 Arterial or venous anastomosis other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies, when performed in combination with another vascular operation (including graft to graft anastomosis) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 273.65 - 33050 Bypass grafting to replace a popliteal aneurysm using vein, including harvesting vein (when it is the ipsilateral long saphenous vein) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,455.30 - 33055 Bypass grafting to replace a popliteal aneurysm using a synthetic graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,167.05 - 33070 Aneurysm in the extremities, ligation, suture closure or excision of, without bypass grafting (Anaes.) (Assist.) 842.00 - 33075 Aneurysm in the neck, ligation, suture closure or excision of, without bypass grafting (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,071.05 - 33080 Intra‑abdominal or pelvic aneurysm, ligation, suture closure or excision of, without bypass grafting (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,307.45 - 33100 Aneurysm of common or internal carotid artery, or both, replacement by graft of vein or synthetic material (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,436.30 - 33103 Thoracic aneurysm, replacement by graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,015.30 - 33109 Thoraco‑abdominal aneurysm, replacement by graft including re‑implantation of arteries (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,436.50 - 33112 Suprarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm, replacement by graft including re‑implantation of arteries (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,113.10 - 33115 Infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm, replacement by tube graft other than a service associated with a service to which item 33116 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,421.35 - 33116 Infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm (repair), replacement by tube graft using endovascular repair procedure, excluding associated radiological services (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,399.00 - 33118 Infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm, replacement by bifurcation graft to iliac arteries (with or without excision of common iliac aneurysms) other than a service associated with a service to which item 33119 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,579.30 - 33119 Infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm (repair), replacement by bifurcation graft to one or both iliac arteries using endovascular repair procedure, excluding associated radiological services (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,554.55 - 33121 Infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm, replacement by bifurcation graft to one or both femoral arteries (with or without excision or bypass of common iliac aneurysms) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,737.25 - 33124 Aneurysm of iliac artery (common, external or internal), replacement by graft—unilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,210.80 - 33127 Aneurysms of iliac arteries (common, external or internal), replacement by graft—bilateral (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,586.75 - 33130 Aneurysm of visceral artery, excision and repair by direct anastomosis or replacement by graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,383.65 - 33133 Aneurysm of visceral artery, dissection and ligation of arteries without restoration of continuity (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,037.65 - 33136 False aneurysm, repair of, at aortic anastomosis following previous aortic surgery (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,616.75 - 33139 False aneurysm, repair of, in iliac artery and restoration of arterial continuity (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,586.75 - 33142 False aneurysm, repair of, in femoral artery and restoration of arterial continuity (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,481.50 - 33145 Ruptured thoracic aortic aneurysm, replacement by graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,549.20 - 33148 Ruptured thoraco‑abdominal aortic aneurysm, replacement by graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,165.80 - 33151 Ruptured suprarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm, replacement by graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,007.90 - 33154 Ruptured infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm, replacement by tube graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,225.90 - 33157 Ruptured infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm, replacement by bifurcation graft to iliac arteries (with or without excision or bypass of common iliac aneurysms) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,481.50 - 33160 Ruptured infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm, replacement by bifurcation graft to one or both femoral arteries (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,481.50 - 33163 Ruptured iliac artery aneurysm, replacement by graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,105.70 - 33166 Ruptured aneurysm of visceral artery, replacement by anastomosis or graft (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,105.70 - 33169 Ruptured aneurysm of visceral artery, simple ligation of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,639.35 - 33172 Aneurysm of major artery, replacement by graft, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,278.35 - 33175 Ruptured aneurysm in the extremities, ligation, suture closure or excision of, without bypass grafting (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,178.10 - 33178 Ruptured aneurysm in the neck, ligation, suture closure or excision of, without bypass grafting (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,498.20 - 33181 Ruptured intra‑abdominal or pelvic aneurysm, ligation, suture closure or excision of, without bypass grafting (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,831.70 - 33500 Artery or arteries of neck, endarterectomy of, including closure by suture (if endarterectomy of one or more arteries is undertaken through one arteriotomy incision) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,135.40 - 33506 Innominate or subclavian artery, endarterectomy of, including closure by suture (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,270.90 - 33509 Aortic endarterectomy, including closure by suture, other than a service associated with another procedure on the aorta (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,421.35 - 33512 Aorto‑iliac endarterectomy (one or both iliac arteries), including closure by suture other than a service associated with a service to which item 33515 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,579.30 - 33515 Aorto‑femoral endarterectomy (one or both femoral arteries) or bilateral ilio‑femoral endarterectomy, including closure by suture, other than a service associated with a service to which item 33512 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,737.25 - 33518 Iliac endarterectomy, including closure by suture, other than a service associated with another procedure on the iliac artery (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,270.90 - 33521 Ilio‑femoral endarterectomy (one side), including closure by suture (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,376.10 - 33524 Renal artery, endarterectomy of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,624.30 - 33527 Renal arteries (both), endarterectomy of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,887.35 - 33530 Coeliac or superior mesenteric artery, endarterectomy of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,624.30 - 33533 Coeliac and superior mesenteric artery, endarterectomy of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,887.35 - 33536 Inferior mesenteric artery, endarterectomy of, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,346.10 - 33539 Artery of extremities, endarterectomy of, including closure by suture (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 970.05 - 33542 Extended deep femoral endarterectomy, if the endarterectomy is at least 7 cm long (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,383.65 - 33545 Artery, vein or bypass graft, patch grafting to by vein or synthetic material if patch is less than 3 cm long (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 273.65 - 33548 Artery, vein or bypass graft, patch grafting to by vein or synthetic material if patch is 3 cm long or greater (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 556.60 - 33551 Vein, harvesting of from leg or arm for patch when not performed through same incision as operation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 273.65 - 33554 Endarterectomy, in conjunction with an arterial bypass operation to prepare the site for anastomosis—each site (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 272.40 - 33800 Embolus, removal of, from artery of neck (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,180.60 - 33803 Embolectomy or thrombectomy, by abdominal approach, of an artery or bypass graft of trunk (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,128.05 - 33806 Embolectomy or thrombectomy (including the infusion of thrombolytic or other agents) from an artery or bypass graft of extremities, or embolectomy of abdominal artery via the femoral artery, item to be claimed once per extremity, regardless of the number of incisions required to access the artery or bypass graft (Anaes.) (Assist.) 812.15 - 33810 Inferior vena cava or iliac vein, closed thrombectomy by catheter via the femoral vein (Anaes.) (Assist.) 592.45 - 33811 Inferior vena cava or iliac vein, open removal of thrombus or tumour (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,763.80 - 33812 Thrombus, removal of, from femoral or other similar large vein (Anaes.) (Assist.) 932.45 - 33815 Major artery or vein of extremity, repair of wound of, with restoration of continuity, by lateral suture (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 857.30 - 33818 Major artery or vein of extremity, repair of wound of, with restoration of continuity, by direct anastomosis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,000.15 - 33821 Major artery or vein of extremity, repair of wound of, with restoration of continuity, by interposition graft of synthetic material or vein (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,143.00 - 33824 Major artery or vein of neck, repair of wound of, with restoration of continuity, by lateral suture (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,090.35 - 33827 Major artery or vein of neck, repair of wound of, with restoration of continuity, by direct anastomosis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,278.35 - 33830 Major artery or vein of neck, repair of wound of, with restoration of continuity, by interposition graft of synthetic material or vein (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,466.30 - 33833 Major artery or vein of abdomen, repair of wound of, with restoration of continuity by lateral suture (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,331.15 - 33836 Major artery or vein of abdomen, repair of wound of, with restoration of continuity by direct anastomosis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,586.75 - 33839 Major artery or vein of abdomen, repair of wound of, with restoration of continuity by means of interposition graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,857.40 - 33842 Artery of neck, re‑operation for bleeding or thrombosis after carotid or vertebral artery surgery (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 917.40 - 33845 Laparotomy for control of post operative bleeding or thrombosis after intra‑abdominal vascular procedure, if no other procedure is performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 639.20 - 33848 Extremity, re‑operation on, for control of bleeding or thrombosis after vascular procedure, if no other procedure is performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 639.20 - 34100 Major artery of neck, elective ligation or exploration of, other than a service associated with another vascular procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 707.00 - 34103 Great artery (aorta or pulmonary artery) or great vein (superior or inferior vena cava), ligation or exploration of immediate branches or tributaries, or ligation or exploration of the subclavian, axillary, iliac, femoral or popliteal arteries or veins, if the service is not associated with item 32508, 32511, 32520, 32522, 32523, 32526, 32528 or 32529—for a maximum of 2 services provided to the same patient on the same occasion (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 413.55 - 34106 Artery or vein (including brachial, radial, ulnar or tibial), ligation of, by elective operation, or exploration of, other than a service associated with another vascular procedure except those services to which item 32508, 32511, 32514 or 32517 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 291.70 - 34109 Temporal artery, biopsy of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 338.35 - 34112 Arterio‑venous fistula of an extremity, dissection and ligation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 857.30 - 34115 Arterio‑venous fistula of the neck, dissection and ligation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 970.05 - 34118 Arterio‑venous fistula of the abdomen, dissection and ligation (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,383.65 - 34121 Arterio‑venous fistula of an extremity, dissection and repair of, with restoration of continuity (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,105.35 - 34124 Arterio‑venous fistula of the neck, dissection and repair of, with restoration of continuity (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,210.80 - 34127 Arterio‑venous fistula of the abdomen, dissection and repair of, with restoration of continuity (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,586.75 - 34130 Surgically created arterio‑venous fistula of an extremity, closure of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 496.30 - 34133 Scalenotomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 556.60 - 34136 First rib, resection of portion of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 894.75 - 34139 Cervical rib, removal of, or other operation for removal of thoracic outlet compression, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 894.75 - 34142 Coeliac artery, decompression of, for coeliac artery compression syndrome, as an independent procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,105.35 - 34145 Popliteal artery, exploration of, for popliteal entrapment, with or without division of fibrous tissue and muscle (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 804.65 - 34148 Carotid associated tumour, resection of, with or without repair or reconstruction of internal or common carotid arteries, when tumour is 4 cm or less in maximum diameter (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,436.30 - 34151 Carotid associated tumour, resection of, with or without repair or reconstruction of internal or common carotid arteries, when tumour is greater than 4 cm in maximum diameter (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,962.65 - 34154 Recurrent carotid associated tumour, resection of, with or without repair or replacement of portion of internal or common carotid arteries (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,338.75 - 34157 Neck, excision of infected bypass graft, including closure of vessel or vessels (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,188.20 - 34160 Aorto‑duodenal fistula, repair of, by suture of aorta and repair of duodenum (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,225.90 - 34163 Aorto‑duodenal fistula, repair of, by insertion of aortic graft and repair of duodenum (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,857.55 - 34166 Aorto‑duodenal fistula, repair of, by oversewing of abdominal aorta, repair of duodenum and axillo bifemoral grafting (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,857.55 - 34169 Infected bypass graft from trunk, excision of, including closure of arteries (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,586.75 - 34172 Infected axillo‑femoral or femoro‑femoral graft, excision of, including closure of arteries (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,293.40 - 34175 Infected bypass graft from extremities, excision of including closure of arteries (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,188.20 - 34500 Arteriovenous shunt, external, insertion of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 308.40 - 34503 Arteriovenous anastomosis of upper or lower limb, in conjunction with another venous or arterial operation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 413.55 - 34506 Arteriovenous shunt, external, removal of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 210.45 - 34509 Arteriovenous anastomosis of upper or lower limb, not in conjunction with another venous or arterial operation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 977.55 - 34512 Arteriovenous access device, insertion of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,075.40 - 34515 Arteriovenous access device, thrombectomy of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 767.00 - 34518 Stenosis of arteriovenous fistula or prosthetic arteriovenous access device, correction of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,285.75 - 34521 Intra‑abdominal artery or vein, cannulation of, for infusion chemotherapy, by open operation (excluding after‑care) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 789.95 - 34524 Arterial cannulation for infusion chemotherapy by open operation, other than a service to which item 34521 applies (excluding after‑care) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 413.55 - 34527 Central vein catheterisation by open technique, using subcutaneous tunnel with pump or access port as with central venous line catheter or other chemotherapy delivery device, including any associated percutaneous central vein catheterisation, on a person 10 years of age or over (Anaes.) 551.60 - 34528 Central vein catheterisation by percutaneous technique, using subcutaneous tunnel with pump or access port as with central venous line catheter or other chemotherapy delivery device, on a person 10 years of age or over (Anaes.) 272.40 - 34529 Central vein catheterisation by open technique, using subcutaneous tunnel with pump or access port as with central venous line catheter or other chemotherapy delivery device, including any associated percutaneous central vein catheterisation, on a person under 10 years of age (Anaes.) 717.10 - 34530 Central venous line, or other chemotherapy device, removal of, by open surgical procedure in the operating theatre of a hospital, on a person 10 years of age or over (Anaes.) 204.25 - 34533 Isolated limb perfusion, including cannulation of artery and vein at commencement of procedure, regional perfusion for chemotherapy, or other therapy, repair of arteriotomy and venotomy at conclusion of procedure (excluding after‑care) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,240.65 - 34534 Central vein catheterisation by percutaneous technique, using subcutaneous tunnel with pump or access port as with central venous line catheter or other chemotherapy delivery device, on a person under 10 years of age (Anaes.) 354.10 - 34538 Central vein catheterisation by percutaneous technique, using subcutaneous tunnelled cuffed catheter or similar device, for the administration of haemodialysis or parenteral nutrition (Anaes.) 272.40 - 34539 Tunnelled cuffed catheter, or similar device, removal of, by open surgical procedure (Anaes.) 204.25 - 34540 Central venous line, or other chemotherapy device, removal of, by open surgical procedure in the operating theatre of a hospital, on a person under 10 years of age (Anaes.) 265.50 - 34800 Inferior vena cava, plication, ligation, or application of caval clip (Anaes.) (Assist.) 812.15 - 34803 Inferior vena cava, reconstruction of or bypass by vein or synthetic material (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,789.85 - 34806 Cross leg bypass grafting, saphenous to iliac or femoral vein (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 970.05 - 34809 Saphenous vein anastomosis to femoral or popliteal vein for femoral vein bypass (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 970.05 - 34812 Venous stenosis or occlusion, vein bypass for, using vein or synthetic material, other than a service associated with a service to which item 34806 or 34809 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,173.05 - 34815 Vein stenosis, patch angioplasty for, (excluding vein graft stenosis)—using vein or synthetic material (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 970.05 - 34818 Venous valve, plication or repair to restore valve competency (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,067.80 - 34821 Vein transplant to restore valvular function (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,451.45 - 34824 External stent, application of, to restore venous valve competency to superficial vein—one stent (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 496.30 - 34827 External stents, application of, to restore venous valve competency to superficial vein or veins—more than one stent (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 601.65 - 34830 External stent, application of, to restore venous valve competency to deep vein—one stent (Anaes.) (Assist.) 707.00 - 34833 External stents, application of, to restore venous valve competency to deep vein or veins—more than one stent (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 917.40 - 35000 Lumbar sympathectomy (Anaes.) (Assist.) 707.00 - 35003 Cervical or upper thoracic sympathectomy by any surgical approach (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 917.40 - 35006 Cervical or upper thoracic sympathectomy, if operation is a re‑operation for previous incomplete sympathectomy by any surgical approach (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,150.55 - 35009 Lumbar sympathectomy, if operation is following chemical sympathectomy or for previous incomplete surgical sympathectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 894.75 - 35012 Sacral or pre‑sacral sympathectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 707.00 - 35100 Ischaemic limb, debridement of necrotic material, gangrenous tissue, or slough in, in the operating theatre of a hospital, when debridement includes muscle, tendon or bone (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 368.55 - 35103 Ischaemic limb, debridement of necrotic material, gangrenous tissue, or slough in, in the operating theatre of a hospital, superficial tissue only (H) (Anaes.) 234.55 - 35200 Operative arteriography or venography, one or more of, performed during the course of an operative procedure on an artery or vein—one site (H) (Anaes.) 171.50 - 35202 Major arteries or veins in the neck, abdomen or extremities, access to, as part of re‑operation after prior surgery on these vessels (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 817.10 - 35300 Transluminal balloon angioplasty of one peripheral artery or vein of one limb, percutaneous or by open exposure, excluding associated radiological services or preparation, and excluding after‑care (Anaes.) (Assist.) 515.35 - 35303 Transluminal balloon angioplasty of aortic arch branches, aortic visceral branches, or more than one peripheral artery or vein of one limb, percutaneous or by open exposure, excluding associated radiological services or preparation, and excluding after‑care (Anaes.) (Assist.) 660.80 - 35306 Transluminal stent insertion, one or more stents, including associated balloon dilatation for one peripheral artery or vein of one limb, percutaneous or by open exposure, excluding associated radiological services or preparation, and excluding after‑care (Anaes.) (Assist.) 609.90 - 35307 Transluminal stent insertion, one or more stents (not drug‑eluting), with or without associated balloon dilatation, for one carotid artery, percutaneous (not direct), with or without an embolic protection device, for a patient who:(a) meets the requirements for carotid endarterectomy; and(b) has medical or surgical comorbidities that cause the patient to be at high risk of perioperative complications from carotid endarterectomy;excluding associated radiological services, radiological preparation and after‑care (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,121.15 - 35309 Transluminal stent insertion, one or more stents, including associated balloon dilatation for visceral arteries or veins, or more than one peripheral artery or vein of one limb, percutaneous or by open exposure, excluding associated radiological services or preparation, and excluding after‑care (Anaes.) (Assist.) 762.35 - 35312 Peripheral arterial atherectomy including associated balloon dilatation of one limb, percutaneous or by open exposure, excluding associated radiological services or preparation, and excluding after‑care (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 864.05 - 35315 Peripheral laser angioplasty including associated balloon dilatation of one limb, percutaneous or by open exposure, excluding associated radiological services or preparation, and excluding after‑care (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 864.05 - 35317 Peripheral arterial or venous catheterisation with administration of thrombolytic or chemotherapeutic agents, by continuous infusion, using percutaneous approach, excluding associated radiological services or preparation, and excluding after‑care (other than a service associated with a service to which an item in Subgroup 11 of Group T1 or item 35319 or 35320 applies, or associated with photodynamic therapy with verteporfin) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 355.80 - 35319 Peripheral arterial or venous catheterisation with administration of thrombolytic or chemotherapeutic agents, by pulse spray technique, using percutaneous approach, excluding associated radiological services or preparation, and excluding after‑care (other than a service associated with a service to which an item in Subgroup 11 of Group T1 or item 35317 or 35320 applies, or associated with photodynamic therapy with verteporfin) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 637.80 - 35320 Peripheral arterial or venous catheterisation with administration of thrombolytic or chemotherapeutic agents, by open exposure, excluding associated radiological services or preparation, and excluding after‑care (other than a service associated with a service to which an item in Subgroup 11 of Group T1 or item 35317 or 35319 applies, or associated with photodynamic therapy with verteporfin) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 856.70 - 35321 Peripheral arterial or venous catheterisation to administer agents to occlude arteries, veins or arterio‑venous fistulae or to arrest haemorrhage (but not for the treatment of uterine fibroids or varicose veins), percutaneous or by open exposure, excluding associated radiological services or preparation, and excluding after‑care (other than a service associated with photodynamic therapy with verteporfin) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 813.30 - 35324 Angioscopy not combined with another procedure, excluding associated radiological services or preparation, and excluding after‑care (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 304.95 - 35327 Angioscopy combined with another procedure, excluding associated radiological services or preparation, and excluding after‑care (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 408.70 - 35330 Insertion of inferior vena caval filter, percutaneous or by open exposure, excluding associated radiological services or preparation, and excluding after‑care (Anaes.) (Assist.) 515.35 - 35331 Retrieval of inferior vena caval filter, percutaneous or by open exposure, not including associated radiological services or preparation, and not including aftercare (H) (Anaes.) 592.45 - 35360 Retrieval of foreign body in pulmonary artery, percutaneous or by open exposure, not including associated radiological services or preparation, and not including aftercare (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 828.20 - 35361 Retrieval of foreign body in right atrium, percutaneous or by open exposure, not including associated radiological services or preparation, and not including aftercare (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 710.30 - 35362 Retrieval of foreign body in inferior vena cava or aorta, percutaneous or by open exposure, not including associated radiological services or preparation, and not including aftercare (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 592.45 - 35363 Retrieval of foreign body in peripheral vein or peripheral artery, percutaneous or by open exposure, not including associated radiological services or preparation, and not including aftercare (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 474.65 - 35404 Dosimetry, handling and injection of sir‑spheres for selective internal radiation therapy of hepatic metastases that are secondary to colorectal cancer and not suitable for resection or ablation (other than a service to which item 35317, 35319, 35320 or 35321 applies)—for any particular patient, applicable once (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 346.60 - 35406 Trans‑femoral catheterisation of the hepatic artery to administer sir‑spheres, for selective internal radiation therapy, to embolise the microvasculature of hepatic metastases, that are secondary to colorectal cancer and not suitable for resection or ablation (other than a service to which item 35317, 35319, 35320 or 35321 applies) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 813.30 - 35408 Catheterisation of the hepatic artery via a permanently implanted hepatic artery port to administer sir‑spheres, for selective internal radiation therapy, to embolise the microvasculature of hepatic metastases, that are secondary to colorectal cancer and not suitable for resection or ablation (other than a service to which item 35317, 35319, 35320 or 35321 applies) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 610.10 - 35410 Uterine artery catheterisation with percutaneous administration of occlusive agents, for the treatment of symptomatic uterine fibroids in a patient who has been referred for uterine artery embolisation by a specialist gynaecologist, excluding associated radiological services or preparation, and excluding aftercare (Anaes.) (Assist.) 813.30 - 35412 Intracranial aneurysm, ruptured or unruptured, endovascular occlusion with detachable coils, and assisted coiling (if performed), with parent artery preservation, not for use with liquid embolics only, including intra‑operative imaging, but in association with pre‑operative diagnostic imaging under item 60009, 60010, 60072, 60073, 60075, 60076, 60078 or 60079, including aftercare (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,857.55 - 35414 Mechanical thrombectomy, in a patient with a diagnosis of acute ischaemic stroke caused by occlusion of a large vessel of the anterior cerebral circulation, including intra‑operative imaging and aftercare, if:(a) the diagnosis is confirmed by an appropriate imaging modality such as computed tomography, magnetic resonance imaging or angiography; and(b) the service is performed by a specialist or consultant physician with appropriate training that is recognised by the Conjoint Committee for Recognition of Training in Interventional Neuroradiology; and(c) the service is provided in an eligible stroke centre.For any particular patient—applicable once per presentation by the patient at an eligible stroke centre, regardless of the number of times mechanical thrombectomy is attempted during that presentation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,500.00 Subdivision D—Subgroups 4, 5 and 6 of Group T8 2.45.19  Application of items 38470 to 38766   Items 38470 to 38766 must be performed using open exposure or minimally invasive surgery which excludes percutaneous and transcatheter techniques unless otherwise stated in the item.   - Subgroup 4—Gynaecological - 35500 Gynaecological examination under anaesthesia, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 81.30 - 35502 Intra‑uterine contraceptive device, introduction of, for the control of idiopathic menorrhagia, including endometrial biopsy to exclude endometrial pathology, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 80.15 - 35503 Intra‑uterine contraceptive device, introduction of, if the service is not associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (other than a service mentioned in item 30062) (Anaes.) 53.55 - 35506 Intra‑uterine contraceptive device, removal of under general anaesthesia, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 53.70 - 35507 Vulval or vaginal warts, removal of under general anaesthesia, or under regional or field nerve block (excluding pudendal block), if the time taken is less than or equal to 45 minutes—other than a service associated with a service to which item 32177 or 32180 applies (H) (Anaes.) 174.45 - 35508 Vulval or vaginal warts, removal of under general anaesthesia, or under regional or field nerve block (excluding pudendal block), if the time taken is greater than 45 minutes—other than a service associated with a service to which item 32177 or 32180 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 256.95 - 35509 Hymenectomy (Anaes.) 89.45 - 35513 Bartholin’s cyst, excision of (Anaes.) 221.70 - 35517 Bartholin’s cyst or gland, marsupialisation of (Anaes.) 146.00 - 35518 Ovarian cyst aspiration, for cysts of at least 4 cm in diameter in a premenopausal person and at least 2 cm in diameter in a postmenopausal person, by abdominal or vaginal route, using interventional imaging techniques and not associated with services provided for assisted reproductive techniques (Anaes.) 207.85 - 35520 Bartholin’s abscess, incision of (Anaes.) 58.30 - 35523 Urethra or urethral caruncle, cauterisation of (Anaes.) 58.30 - 35527 Urethral caruncle, excision of (Anaes.) 146.00 - 35530 Clitoris, amputation of, if medically indicated (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 269.85 - 35533 Vulvoplasty or labioplasty, for repair of:(a) female genital mutilation; or(b) an anomaly associated with a major congenital anomaly of the uro‑gynaecological tractother than a service associated with a service to which item 35536, 37836, 37050, 37842, 37851 or 43882 applies (H) (Anaes.) 349.85 - 35534 Vulvoplasty or labioplasty, in a patient aged 18 years or more, performed by a specialist in the practice of the specialist’s specialty, for a structural abnormality that is causing significant functional impairment, if the patient’s labium extends more than 8 cm below the vaginal introitus while the patient is in a standing resting position (H) (Anaes.) 349.85 - 35536 Vulva, wide local excision of suspected malignancy or hemivulvectomy, one or both procedures (Anaes.) (Assist.) 348.45 - 35539 Colposcopically directed CO2 laser therapy for previously confirmed intraepithelial neoplastic changes of the cervix, vagina, vulva, urethra or anal canal, including any associated biopsies—one anatomical site (Anaes.) 272.95 - 35542 Colposcopically directed CO2 laser therapy for previously confirmed intraepithelial neoplastic changes of the cervix, vagina, vulva, urethra or anal canal, including any associated biopsies—2 or more anatomical sites (Anaes.) (Assist.) 319.60 - 35545 Colposcopically directed CO2 laser therapy for condylomata, unsuccessfully treated by other methods (Anaes.) 183.60 - 35548 Vulvectomy, radical, for malignancy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 834.05 - 35551 Pelvic lymph glands, excision of (radical) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 683.90 - 35554 Vagina, dilatation of, as an independent procedure including any associated consultation (Anaes.) 43.50 - 35557 Vagina, removal of simple tumour—(including Gartner duct cyst) (Anaes.) 214.50 - 35560 Vagina, partial or complete removal of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 683.90 - 35561 Vaginectomy, radical, for proven invasive malignancy—one surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,379.50 - 35562 Vaginectomy, radical, for proven invasive malignancy, conjoint surgery—abdominal surgeon (including after‑care) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,132.60 - 35564 Vaginectomy, radical, for proven invasive malignancy, conjoint surgery—perineal surgeon (H) (Assist.) 522.85 - 35565 Vaginal reconstruction for congenital absence, gynatresia or urogenital sinus (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 683.90 - 35566 Vaginal septum, excision of, for correction of double vagina (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 397.25 - 35568 Sacrospinous colpopexy for the management of upper vaginal prolapse (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 624.60 - 35569 Plastic repair to enlarge vaginal orifice (H) (Anaes.) 160.85 - 35572 Colpotomy, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) 123.80 - 35578 Le Fort operation for genital prolapse, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 674.50 - 35595 Laparoscopic or abdominal pelvic floor repair involving the fixation of the uterosacral and cardinal ligaments to rectovaginal and pubocervical fascia for symptomatic upper vaginal vault prolapse (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,155.00 - 35596 Fistula between genital and urinary or alimentary tracts, repair of, other than a service to which item 37029, 37333 or 37336 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 683.90 - 35597 Sacral colpopexy, laparoscopic or open procedure, if graft or mesh is secured to the vault, the anterior and posterior compartments and to the sacrum for correction of symptomatic upper vaginal vault prolapse (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,473.20 - 35599 Stress incontinence, sling operation for, with or without mesh or tape, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30405 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 674.50 - 35602 Stress incontinence, combined synchronous abdomino‑vaginal operation for—abdominal procedure, with or without mesh, (including after‑care), other than a service associated with a service to which item 30405 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 674.50 - 35605 Stress incontinence, combined synchronous abdomino‑vaginal operation for—vaginal procedure, with or without mesh, (including after‑care), other than a service associated with a service to which item 30405 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 365.95 - 35608 Cervix, cauterisation (other than by chemical means), ionisation, diathermy or biopsy of, with or without dilatation of cervix (Anaes.) 64.00 - 35611 Cervix, removal of polyp or polypi, with or without dilatation of cervix, other than a service associated with a service to which item 35608 applies (Anaes.) 64.00 - 35612 Cervix, residual stump, removal of, by abdominal approach (Anaes.) (Assist.) 506.00 - 35613 Cervix, residual stump, removal of, by vaginal approach (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 404.80 - 35614 Examination of lower genital tract by a Hinselmann‑type colposcope in a patient with a previous abnormal cervical smear, an abnormal result from a cervical screening service or a history of maternal ingestion of oestrogen or if a patient, because of suspicious signs of cancer, has been referred by another medical practitioner (Anaes.) 63.90 - 35615 Vulva, biopsy of, when performed in conjunction with a service to which item 35614 applies 53.70 - 35616 Endometrium, endoscopic examination of and ablation of, by microwave, thermal balloon or radiofrequency electrosurgery, for chronic refractory menorrhagia including any hysteroscopy performed on the same day, with or without uterine curettage (H) (Anaes.) 449.60 - 35618 Cervix, cone biopsy, amputation or repair of, other than a service to which item 35577 or 35578 applies (Anaes.)Note: Item 35577 is specified in a determination made under subsection 3C(1) of the Act. 218.00 - 35620 Endometrial biopsy if malignancy is suspected in patients with abnormal uterine bleeding or post‑menopausal bleeding (Anaes.) 53.35 - 35622 Endometrium, endoscopic ablation of, by laser or diathermy, for chronic refractory menorrhagia including any hysteroscopy performed on the same day, with or without uterine curettage, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30390 applies (H) (Anaes.) 602.45 - 35623 Hysteroscopic resection of myoma, or myoma and uterine septum resection (if both are performed), followed by endometrial ablation by laser or diathermy (H) (Anaes.) 819.25 - 35626 Hysteroscopy, including biopsy, performed by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty, if the patient is referred to him or her for the investigation of suspected intrauterine pathology (with or without local anaesthetic), other than a service associated with a service to which item 35627 or 35630 applies 82.80 - 35627 Hysteroscopy with dilatation of the cervix performed in the operating theatre of a hospital—other than a service associated with a service to which item 35626 or 35630 applies (H) (Anaes.) 107.15 - 35630 Hysteroscopy, with endometrial biopsy, performed in the operating theatre of a hospital—other than a service associated with a service to which item 35626 or 35627 applies (H) (Anaes.) 183.00 - 35633 Hysteroscopy with uterine adhesiolysis or polypectomy or tubal catheterisation (including hysteroscopy for insertion of device for sterilisation) or removal of IUD which cannot be removed by other means—one or more of (Anaes.) 218.00 - 35634 Hysteroscopic resection of uterine septum followed by endometrial ablation by laser or diathermy (Anaes.) 685.70 - 35635 Hysteroscopy involving resection of the uterine septum (H) (Anaes.) 299.45 - 35636 Hysteroscopy, involving resection of myoma, or resection of myoma and uterine septum (if both are performed) (H) (Anaes.) 433.00 - 35637 Laparoscopy, involving puncture of cysts, diathermy of endometriosis, ventrosuspension, division of adhesions or similar procedure—one or more procedures with or without biopsy—other than a service associated with another laparoscopic procedure or hysterectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 406.65 - 35638 Complicated operative laparoscopy, including use of laser when required, for one or more of the following procedures—oophorectomy, ovarian cystectomy, myomectomy, salpingectomy or salpingostomy, ablation of moderate or severe endometriosis requiring more than 1 hour’s operating time, or division of utero‑sacral ligaments for significant dysmenorrhoea—other than a service associated with another intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal procedure except item 30393 (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 711.50 - 35640 Uterus, curettage of, with or without dilatation (including curettage for incomplete miscarriage) under general anaesthesia or under epidural or spinal (intrathecal) nerve block, including procedures to which item 35626, 35627 or 35630 applies, if performed (H) (Anaes.) 183.00 - 35641 Endometriosis level 4 or 5, laparoscopic resection of, involving any 2 of the following procedures:(a) resection of the pelvic side wall including dissection of endometriosis or scar tissue from the ureter;(b) resection of the Pouch of Douglas;(c) resection of an ovarian endometrioma greater than 2 cm in diameter;(d) dissection of bowel from uterus from the level of the endocervical junction or above;if the operating time exceeds 90 minutes (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,242.65 - 35643 Evacuation of the contents of the gravid uterus by curettage or suction curettage other than a service to which item 35640 applies, including procedures to which item 35626, 35627 or 35630 applies, if performed (Anaes.) 218.00 - 35644 Cervix, electrocoagulation diathermy with colposcopy, for previously confirmed intraepithelial neoplastic changes of the cervix, including any local anaesthesia and biopsies, other than a service associated with a service to which item 35640 or 35647 applies (Anaes.) 203.65 - 35645 Cervix, electrocoagulation diathermy with colposcopy, for previously confirmed intraepithelial neoplastic changes of the cervix, including any local anaesthesia and biopsies, in association with ablative therapy of additional areas of intraepithelial change in one or more sites of vagina, vulva, urethra or anus, other than a service associated with a service to which item 35649 applies (Anaes.) 318.70 - 35646 Cervix, colposcopy with radical diathermy of, with or without cervical biopsy, for previously confirmed intraepithelial neoplastic changes of the cervix (Anaes.) 203.65 - 35647 Cervix, large loop excision of transformation zone together with colposcopy for previously confirmed intraepithelial neoplastic changes of the cervix, including any local anaesthesia and biopsies, other than a service associated with a service to which item 35644 applies (Anaes.) 203.65 - 35648 Cervix, large loop excision diathermy for previously confirmed intraepithelial neoplastic changes of the cervix, including any local anaesthesia and biopsies, in conjunction with ablative treatment of additional areas of intraepithelial change of one or more sites of vagina, vulva, urethra or anus, other than a service associated with a service to which item 35645 applies (Anaes.) 318.70 - 35649 Hysterotomy or uterine myomectomy, abdominal (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 536.00 - 35653 Hysterectomy, abdominal, sub‑total or total, with or without removal of uterine adnexae (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 674.70 - 35657 Hysterectomy, vaginal, with or without uterine curettage, other than a service to which item 35673 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 674.70 - 35658 Uterus (at least equivalent in size to a 10 week gravid uterus), debulking of, before vaginal removal at hysterectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 416.05 - 35661 Hysterectomy, abdominal, requiring extensive retroperitoneal dissection with or without exposure of one or both ureters, for the management of severe endometriosis, pelvic inflammatory disease or benign pelvic tumours, with or without conservation of ovaries (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 871.30 - 35664 Radical hysterectomy with radical excision of pelvic lymph glands (with or without excision of uterine adnexae) for proven malignancy including excision of any one or more of parametrium, paracolpos, upper vagina or contiguous pelvic peritoneum and involving ureterolysis if performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,452.20 - 35667 Radical hysterectomy without gland dissection (with or without excision of uterine adnexae) for proven malignancy including excision of any one or more of parametrium, paracolpos, upper vagina or contiguous pelvic peritoneum and involving ureterolysis if performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,234.25 - 35670 Hysterectomy, abdominal, with radical excision of pelvic lymph glands, with or without removal of uterine adnexae (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,016.30 - 35673 Hysterectomy, vaginal, (with or without uterine curettage) with salpingectomy, oophorectomy or excision of ovarian cyst, one or more, one or both sides (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 757.80 - 35674 Ultrasound guided needling and injection of ectopic pregnancy 207.85 - 35677 Ectopic pregnancy, removal of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 536.00 - 35678 Ectopic pregnancy, laparoscopic removal of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 646.25 - 35680 Bicornuate uterus, plastic reconstruction for (Anaes.) (Assist.) 582.05 - 35684 Uterus, suspension or fixation of, as an independent procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 471.15 - 35688 Sterilisation by transection or resection of fallopian tubes, via abdominal or vaginal routes or via laparoscopy using diathermy or another method (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 397.25 - 35691 Sterilisation by interruption of fallopian tubes when performed in conjunction with Caesarean section (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 158.70 - 35694 Tuboplasty (salpingostomy, salpingolysis or tubal implantation into uterus), unilateral or bilateral, one or more procedures (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 637.70 - 35697 Microsurgical tuboplasty (salpingostomy, salpingolysis or tubal implantation into uterus), unilateral or bilateral, one or more procedures (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 946.20 - 35700 Fallopian tubes, unilateral microsurgical anastomosis of, using operating microscope (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 730.05 - 35703 Hydrotubation of fallopian tubes as a non‑repetitive procedure, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies (Anaes.) 67.50 - 35706 Rubin test for patency of fallopian tubes (Anaes.) 67.50 - 35709 Fallopian tubes, hydrotubation of, as a repetitive post‑operative procedure (Anaes.) 43.50 - 35710 Falloposcopy, unilateral or bilateral, including hysteroscopy and tubal catheterisation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 463.30 - 35713 Laparotomy, involving oophorectomy, salpingectomy, salpingo‑oophorectomy, removal of ovarian, parovarian, fimbrial or broad ligament cyst—one such procedure, other than a service associated with hysterectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 452.85 - 35717 Laparotomy, involving oophorectomy, salpingectomy, salpingo‑oophorectomy, removal of ovarian, parovarian, fimbrial or broad ligament cyst—2 or more such procedures, unilateral or bilateral, other than a service associated with hysterectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 545.30 - 35720 Radical or debulking operation for advanced gynaecological malignancy, with or without omentectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 674.50 - 35723 Retro‑peritoneal lymph node biopsies from above the level of the aortic bifurcation, for staging or restaging of gynaecological malignancy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 483.10 - 35726 Infra‑colic omentectomy with multiple peritoneal biopsies for staging or restaging of gynaecological malignancy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 483.10 - 35729 Ovarian transposition out of the pelvis, in conjunction with radical hysterectomy for invasive malignancy (H) (Anaes.) 217.80 - 35730 Ovarian repositioning for one or both ovaries to preserve ovarian function, prior to gonadotoxic radiotherapy when the treatment volume and dose of radiation have a high probability of causing infertility (H) (Anaes.) 217.80 - 35750 Laparoscopically assisted hysterectomy, including any associated laparoscopy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 784.60 - 35753 Laparoscopically assisted hysterectomy, with one or more of the following procedures—salpingectomy, oophorectomy, excision of ovarian cyst or treatment of moderate endometriosis, one or both sides, including any associated laparoscopy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 867.60 - 35754 Laparoscopically assisted hysterectomy which requires dissection of endometriosis, or other pathology, from the ureter, one or both sides, including any associated laparoscopy, including when performed with one or more of the following procedures—salpingectomy, oophorectomy, excision of ovarian cyst or treatment of endometriosis, other than a service to which item 35641 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,091.90 - 35756 Laparoscopically assisted hysterectomy, when procedure is completed by open hysterectomy, including any associated laparoscopy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 784.60 - 35759 Procedure for the control of post‑operative haemorrhage following gynaecological surgery, under general anaesthesia, utilising a vaginal or abdominal and vaginal approach if no other procedure is performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 563.30 - Subgroup 5—Urological - 36502 Pelvic lymphadenectomy, open or laparoscopic, or both, unilateral or bilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 683.90 - 36503 Renal transplant, other than a service to which item 36506 or 36509 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,391.15 - 36506 Renal transplant, performed by vascular surgeon and urologist operating together—vascular anastomosis, including after‑care (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 924.70 - 36509 Renal transplant, performed by vascular surgeon and urologist operating together—ureterovesical anastomosis, including after‑care (H) (Assist.) 782.95 - 36516 Nephrectomy, complete (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 924.70 - 36519 Nephrectomy, complete, complicated by previous surgery on the same kidney (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,291.10 - 36522 Nephrectomy, partial (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,107.95 - 36525 Nephrectomy, partial, complicated by previous surgery on the same kidney (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,574.45 - 36526 Nephrectomy, radical with en bloc dissection of lymph nodes, with or without adrenalectomy, for a tumour of less than 10 cm in diameter, if performed if malignancy is clinically suspected but not confirmed by histopathological examination (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,291.10 - 36527 Nephrectomy, radical with en bloc dissection of lymph nodes, with or without adrenalectomy, for a tumour of 10 cm or more in diameter, or complicated by previous open or laparoscopic surgery on the same kidney, if performed if malignancy is clinically suspected but not confirmed by histopathological examination (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,593.40 - 36528 Nephrectomy, radical with en bloc dissection of lymph nodes, with or without adrenalectomy, for a tumour less than 10 cm in diameter (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,291.10 - 36529 Nephrectomy, radical with en bloc dissection of lymph nodes, with or without adrenalectomy, for a tumour 10 cm or more in diameter, or complicated by previous open or laparoscopic surgery on the same kidney (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,593.40 - 36531 Nephro‑ureterectomy, complete, including associated bladder repair and any associated endoscopic procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,157.85 - 36532 Nephro‑ureterectomy, for tumour, with or without en bloc dissection of lymph nodes, including associated bladder repair and any associated endoscopic procedures (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,661.85 - 36533 Nephro‑ureterectomy, for tumour, with or without en bloc dissection of lymph nodes, including associated bladder repair and any associated endoscopic procedures, complicated by previous open or laparoscopic surgery on the same kidney or ureter (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,964.15 - 36537 Kidney or perinephric area, exploration of, with or without drainage of, by open exposure, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 691.40 - 36540 Nephrolithotomy or pyelolithotomy, or both, through the same skin incision, for one or 2 stones (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,107.95 - 36543 Nephrolithotomy or pyelolithotomy, or both, extended, for staghorn stone or 3 or more stones, including one or more of the following: nephrostomy, pyelostomy, pedicle control with or without freezing, calyorrhaphy or pyeloplasty (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,291.10 - 36546 Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL) to urinary tract and post‑treatment care for 3 days, including pre‑treatment consultations, unilateral (Anaes.) 691.40 - 36549 Ureterolithotomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 833.10 - 36552 Nephrostomy or pyelostomy, open, as an independent procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 741.50 - 36558 Renal cyst or cysts, excision or unroofing of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 649.80 - 36561 Renal biopsy (closed) (Anaes.) 172.50 - 36564 Pyeloplasty (plastic reconstruction of the pelvi‑ureteric junction), by open exposure, laparoscopy or laparoscopic assisted techniques (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 924.70 - 36567 Pyeloplasty in a kidney that is congenitally abnormal in addition to the presence of pelvic‑ureteric junction obstruction, or in a solitary kidney, by open exposure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,016.30 - 36570 Pyeloplasty, complicated by previous surgery on the same kidney, by open exposure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,291.10 - 36573 Divided ureter, repair of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 924.70 - 36576 Kidney, exposure and exploration of, including repair or nephrectomy, for trauma, other than a service associated with another procedure performed on the kidney, renal pelvis or renal pedicle (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,157.85 - 36579 Ureterectomy, complete or partial, with or without associated bladder repair, other than a service associated with a service to which item 37000 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 741.50 - 36585 Ureter, transplantation of, into skin (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 741.50 - 36588 Ureter, reimplantation into bladder (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 924.70 - 36591 Ureter, reimplantation into bladder with psoas hitch or Boari flap or both (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,107.95 - 36594 Ureter, transplantation of, into intestine (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 924.70 - 36597 Ureter, transplantation of, into another ureter (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 924.70 - 36600 Ureter, transplantation of, into isolated intestinal segment, unilateral (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,107.95 - 36603 Ureters, transplantation of, into isolated intestinal segment, bilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,291.10 - 36604 Ureteric stent, passage of through percutaneous nephrostomy tube, using interventional imaging techniques (Anaes.) 267.65 - 36605 Ureteric stent, insertion of, with removal of calculus from:(a) the pelvicalyceal system; or(b) ureter; or(c) the pelvicalyceal system and ureter;through a nephrostomy tube using interventional imaging techniques (H) (Anaes.) 690.70 - 36606 Intestinal urinary reservoir, continent, formation of, including formation of non‑return valves and implantation of ureters (one or both) into reservoir (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,315.80 - 36607 Ureteric stent, insertion of, with balloon dilatation of:(a) the pelvicalyceal system; or(b) ureter; or(c) the pelvicalyceal system and ureter;through a nephrostomy tube using interventional imaging techniques (H) (Anaes.) 690.70 - 36608 Ureteric stent, exchange of, percutaneously through the ileal conduit or bladder using interventional imaging techniques, other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 36811 to 36854 apply (H) (Anaes.) 267.65 - 36609 Intestinal urinary conduit or ureterostomy, revision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 741.50 - 36612 Ureter, exploration of, with or without drainage of, as an independent procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 649.80 - 36615 Ureterolysis, with or without repositioning of ureter, for obstruction of the ureter, evident either radiologically or by proximal ureteric dilatation at operation, secondary to retroperitoneal fibrosis, or similar condition (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 741.50 - 36618 Reduction ureteroplasty (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 649.80 - 36621 Closure of cutaneous ureterostomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 464.50 - 36624 Nephrostomy, percutaneous, using interventional imaging techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 558.10 - 36627 Nephroscopy, percutaneous, with or without any one or more of stone extraction, biopsy or diathermy, other than a service to which item 36639, 36642, 36645 or 36648 applies (H) (Anaes.) 691.40 - 36630 Nephroscopy, being a service to which item 36627 applies, if, after a substantial portion of the procedure has been performed, it is necessary to discontinue the operation due to bleeding (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 341.50 - 36633 Nephroscopy, percutaneous, with incision of any one or more of renal pelvis, calyx or calyces or ureter and including antegrade insertion of ureteric stent, other than a service associated with a service to which item 36627, 36639, 36642, 36645 or 36648 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 741.50 - 36636 Nephroscopy, percutaneous, with incision of any one or more of renal pelvis, calyx or calyces or ureter and including antegrade insertion of ureteric stent, being a service associated with a service to which item 36627, 36639, 36642, 36645 or 36648 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 399.90 - 36639 Nephroscopy, percutaneous, with destruction and extraction of one or 2 stones using ultrasound or electrohydraulic shock waves or lasers (other than a service to which item 36645 or 36648 applies) (H) (Anaes.) 833.10 - 36642 Nephroscopy, being a service to which item 36639 applies, if, after a substantial portion of the procedure has been performed, it is necessary to discontinue the operation due to bleeding (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 416.45 - 36645 Nephroscopy, percutaneous, with removal or destruction of a stone greater than 3 cm in any dimension, or for 3 or more stones (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,066.30 - 36648 Nephroscopy, being a service to which item 36645 applies, if, after a substantial portion of the procedure has been performed, it is necessary to discontinue the operation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 949.60 - 36649 Nephrostomy drainage tube, exchange of—but not including imaging (Anaes.) (Assist.) 267.65 - 36650 Nephrostomy tube, removal of, using interventional imaging techniques, if the ureter has been stented with a double J ureteric stent and that stent is left in place (H) (Anaes.) 149.70 - 36652 Pyeloscopy, retrograde, of one collecting system, with or without any one or more of, cystoscopy, ureteric meatotomy, ureteric dilatation, other than a service associated with a service to which item 36803, 36812 or 36824 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 649.80 - 36654 Pyeloscopy, retrograde, of one collecting system, being a service to which item 36652 applies, plus one or more of extraction of stone from the renal pelvis or calyces, or biopsy or diathermy of the renal pelvis or calyces, other than a service associated with a service performed in the same collecting system to which item 36656 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 833.10 - 36656 Pyeloscopy, retrograde, of one collecting system, being a service to which item 36652 applies, plus extraction of 2 or more stones in the renal pelvis or calyces or destruction of stone with ultrasound, electrohydraulic or kinetic lithotripsy or laser in the renal pelvis or calyces, with or without extraction of fragments, other than a service associated with a service performed in the same collecting system to which item 36654 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,066.30 - 36663 Both:(a) percutaneous placement of sacral nerve lead or leads using fluoroscopic guidance, or open placement of sacral nerve lead or leads; and(b) intra‑operative test stimulation, to manage:(i) detrusor over‑activity that has been refractory to at least 12 months conservative non‑surgical treatment; or(ii) non‑obstructive urinary retention that has been refractory to at least 12 months conservative non‑surgical treatment(Anaes.) 660.95 - 36664 Both:(a) percutaneous repositioning of sacral nerve lead or leads using fluoroscopic guidance, or open repositioning of sacral nerve lead or leads; and(b) intra‑operative test stimulation, to correct displacement or unsatisfactory positioning, if inserted for the management of:(i) detrusor over‑activity that has been refractory to at least 12 months conservative non‑surgical treatment; or(ii) non‑obstructive urinary retention that has been refractory to at least 12 months conservative non‑surgical treatment;other than a service to which item 36663 applies (Anaes.) 593.55 - 36665 Sacral nerve electrode or electrodes, management and adjustment of the pulse generator by a medical practitioner, to manage detrusor over‑activity or non‑obstructive urinary retention—each day 125.40 - 36666 Pulse generator, subcutaneous placement of, and placement and connection of extension wire or wires to sacral nerve electrode or electrodes, for the management of:(a) detrusor over‑activity that has been refractory to at least 12 months conservative non‑surgical treatment; or(b) non‑obstructive urinary retention that has been refractory to at least 12 months conservative non‑surgical treatment(Anaes.) 334.00 - 36667 Sacral nerve lead or leads, removal of, if the lead was inserted to manage:(a) detrusor over‑activity that has been refractory to at least 12 months conservative non‑surgical treatment; or(b) non‑obstructive urinary retention that has been refractory to at least 12 months conservative non‑surgical treatment(Anaes.) 156.30 - 36668 Pulse generator, removal of, if the pulse generator was inserted to manage:(a) detrusor over‑activity that has been refractory to at least 12 months conservative non‑surgical treatment; or(b) non‑obstructive urinary retention that has been refractory to at least 12 months conservative non‑surgical treatment(Anaes.) 156.30 - 36671 Percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation, initial treatment protocol, for the treatment of overactive bladder, by a specialist urologist, gynaecologist or urogynaecologist, if:(a) the patient has been diagnosed with idiopathic overactive bladder; and(b) the patient has been refractory to, is contraindicated or otherwise not suitable for conservative treatments (including anti‑cholinergic agents); and(c) the patient is contraindicated or otherwise not a suitable candidate for botulinum toxin type A therapy; and(d) the patient is contraindicated or otherwise not a suitable candidate for sacral nerve stimulation; and(e) the patient is willing and able to comply with the treatment protocol; and(f) the initial treatment protocol comprises 12 sessions, delivered over a 3 month period; and(g) each session lasts for a minimum of 45 minutes, of which neurostimulation lasts for 30 minutes.Applicable only once, unless the patient achieves at least a 50% reduction in overactive bladder symptoms from baseline at any time during the 3 month treatment period.Not applicable to a service associated with a service to which item 36672 or 36673 applies 200.00 - 36672 Percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation, tapering treatment protocol, for the treatment of overactive bladder, including any associated consultation at the time the percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation treatment is administered, if:(a) the patient responded to the percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation initial treatment protocol and has achieved at least a 50% reduction in overactive bladder symptoms from baseline at any time during the treatment period for the initial treatment protocol; and(b) the tapering treatment protocol comprises no more than 5 sessions, delivered over a 3 month period, and the interval between sessions is adjusted with the aim of sustaining therapeutic benefit of the treatment; and(c) each session lasts for a minimum of 45 minutes, of which neurostimulation lasts for 30 minutes.Not applicable to a service associated with a service to which item 36671 or 36673 applies 200.00 - 36673 Percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation, maintenance treatment protocol, for the treatment of overactive bladder, including any associated consultation at the time the percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation treatment is administered, if:(a) the patient responded to the percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation initial treatment protocol and to the tapering treatment protocol, and has achieved at least a 50% reduction in overactive bladder symptoms from baseline at any time during the treatment period for the initial treatment protocol; and(b) the maintenance treatment protocol comprises no more than 12 sessions, delivered over a 12 month period, and the interval between sessions is adjusted with the aim of sustaining therapeutic benefit of the treatment; and(c) each session lasts for a minimum of 45 minutes, of which neurostimulation lasts for 30 minutes.Not applicable to service associated with a service to which item 36671 or 36672 applies 200.00 - 36800 Bladder, catheterisation of, if no other procedure is performed (Anaes.) 27.60 - 36803 Ureteroscopy, of one ureter, with or without any one or more of cystoscopy, ureteric meatotomy, or ureteric dilatation, other than a service associated with a service to which item 36652, 36654, 36656, 36806, 36809, 36812, 36824, 36848 or 36857 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 466.35 - 36806 Ureteroscopy, of one ureter, with or without any one or more of, cystoscopy, ureteric meatotomy or ureteric dilatation, plus one or more of extraction of stone from the ureter, or biopsy or diathermy of the ureter, other than a service associated with a service to which item 36803 or 36812 applies, or a service associated with a service to which item 36809, 36824, 36848 or 36857 applies to a procedure performed on the same ureter (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 649.80 - 36809 Ureteroscopy, of one ureter, with or without any one or more of, cystoscopy, ureteric meatotomy or ureteric dilatation, plus destruction of stone in the ureter with ultrasound, electrohydraulic or kinetic lithotripsy or laser, with or without extraction of fragments, other than a serviceassociated with a service to which item 36803 or 36812 applies, or a service associated with a service to which item 36806, 36824, 36848 or 36857 applies to a procedure performed on the same ureter (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 833.10 - 36811 Cystoscopy with insertion of urethral prosthesis (Anaes.) 323.40 - 36812 Cystoscopy with urethroscopy, with or without urethral dilatation, other than a service associated with another urological endoscopic procedure on the lower urinary tract except a service to which item 37327 applies (Anaes.) 166.70 - 36815 Cystoscopy, with or without urethroscopy, for the treatment of penile warts or urethral warts, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30189 applies (Anaes.) 237.90 - 36818 Cystoscopy, with ureteric catheterisation including fluoroscopic imaging of the upper urinary tract, unilateral or bilateral, other than a service associated with a service to which item 36824 or 36830 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 276.60 - 36821 Cystoscopy with one or more of ureteric dilatation, insertion of ureteric stent, or brush biopsy of ureter or of renal pelvis, unilateral, other than a service associated with a service to which item 36824 or 36830 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 323.20 - 36824 Cystoscopy with ureteric catheterisation, unilateral or bilateral, other than a service associated with a service to which item 36818 or 36821 applies (Anaes.) 213.15 - 36825 Cystoscopy, with endoscopic incision of pelviureteric junction or ureteric stricture, including removal or replacement of ureteric stent, other than a service associated with a service to which item 36818, 36821, 36824, 36830 or 36833 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 581.30 - 36827 Cystoscopy, with controlled hydro‑dilatation of the bladder (Anaes.) 229.85 - 36830 Cystoscopy, with ureteric meatotomy (H) (Anaes.) 203.25 - 36833 Cystoscopy with removal of ureteric stent or other foreign body (Anaes.) (Assist.) 276.60 - 36836 Cystoscopy with biopsy of bladder, other than a service associated with a service to which item 36812, 36830, 36840, 36845, 36848, 36854, 37203, 37206, 37215, 37230 or 37233 applies (Anaes.) 229.85 - 36840 Cystoscopy, with resection, diathermy or visual laser destruction of bladder tumour or other lesion of the bladder, other than a service associated with a service to which item 36845 applies (Anaes.) 323.20 - 36842 Cystoscopy with lavage of blood clots from bladder including any associated diathermy of prostate or bladder, other than a service associated with a service to which item 36812, 36827 to 36863, 37203, 37206, 37230 or 37233 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 325.20 - 36845 Cystoscopy, with diathermy, resection or visual laser destruction of multiple tumours in more than 2 quadrants of the bladder or solitary tumour greater than 2 cm in diameter (Anaes.) 691.40 - 36848 Cystoscopy with resection of ureterocele (H) (Anaes.) 229.85 - 36851 Cystoscopy with injection into bladder wall, other than a service associated with a service to which item 18375 or 18379 applies (H) (Anaes.) 229.85 - 36854 Cystoscopy with endoscopic incision or resection of external sphincter, bladder neck or both (H) (Anaes.) 466.35 - 36857 Endoscopic manipulation or extraction of ureteric calculus (H) (Anaes.) 366.45 - 36860 Endoscopic examination of intestinal conduit or reservoir (Anaes.) 166.70 - 36863 Litholapaxy, with or without cystoscopy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 466.35 - 37000 Bladder, partial excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 741.50 - 37004 Bladder, repair of rupture (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 649.80 - 37008 Cystostomy or cystotomy, suprapubic, other than a service to which item 37011 applies or a service associated with other open bladder procedure (Anaes.) 416.45 - 37011 Suprapubic stab cystotomy, other than a service associated with a service to which items 37200 to 37221 apply (Anaes.) 93.35 - 37014 Bladder, total excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,066.30 - 37020 Bladder diverticulum, excision or obliteration of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 741.50 - 37023 Vesical fistula, cutaneous, operation for (H) (Anaes.) 416.45 - 37026 Cutaneous vesicostomy, establishment of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 416.45 - 37029 Vesico‑vaginal fistula, closure of, by abdominal approach (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 924.70 - 37038 Vesico‑intestinal fistula, closure of, excluding bowel resection (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 691.75 - 37040 Bladder stress incontinence, sling procedure for, using a non‑adjustable synthetic male sling system, with or without mesh, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30405, 35599 or 37042 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 911.30 - 37041 Bladder aspiration, by needle 46.60 - 37042 Bladder stress incontinence—sling procedure for, using autologous fascial sling, including harvesting of sling, with or without mesh, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30405 or 35599 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 911.30 - 37043 Bladder stress incontinence, Stamey or similar type needle colposuspension, with or without mesh, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30405 or 35599 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 674.50 - 37044 Bladder stress incontinence, suprapubic procedure for, e.g., Burch colposuspension, with or without mesh, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30405 or 35599 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 691.75 - 37045 Continent catheterisation bladder stomas (for example, Mitrofanoff), formation of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,428.75 - 37047 Bladder enlargement using intestine (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,666.05 - 37050 Bladder exstrophy closure, not involving sphincter reconstruction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 741.50 - 37053 Bladder transection and re‑anastomosis to trigone (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 856.70 - 37200 Prostatectomy, open (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,016.30 - 37201 Prostate, transurethral radio‑frequency needle ablation of, with or without cystoscopy and with or without urethroscopy, in patients with moderate to severe lower urinary tract symptoms who are not medically fit for transurethral resection of the prostate (that is, prostatectomy using diathermy or cold punch) and including a service to which item 36854, 37203, 37206, 37207, 37208, 37245, 37303, 37321 or 37324 applies (H) (Anaes.) 828.85 - 37202 Prostate, transurethral radio‑frequency needle ablation of, with or without cystoscopy and with or without urethroscopy, in patients with moderate to severe lower urinary tract symptoms who are not medically fit for transurethral resection of the prostate (that is prostatectomy using diathermy or cold punch) and including a service to which item 36854, 37245, 37303, 37321 or 37324 applies, continuation of, within 10 days of the procedure described by item 37201, 37203 or 37207 which had to be discontinued for medical reasons (Anaes.) 416.05 - 37203 Prostatectomy (endoscopic, using diathermy or cold punch), with or without cystoscopy, and with or without urethroscopy, and including services to which item 36854, 37201, 37202, 37207, 37208, 37245, 37303, 37321 or 37324 applies (H) (Anaes.) 1,042.15 - 37206 Prostatectomy (endoscopic, using diathermy or cold punch), with or without cystoscopy, and with or without urethroscopy, and including services to which item 36854, 37303, 37321 or 37324 applies, continuation of, within 10 days of the procedure described by item 37201, 37203, 37207 or 37245 which had to be discontinued for medical reasons (H) (Anaes.) 558.10 - 37207 Prostate, endoscopic non‑contact (side firing) visual laser ablation, with or without cystoscopy, and with or without urethroscopy, and including services to which item 36854, 37201, 37202, 37203, 37206, 37245, 37303, 37321 or 37324 applies (H) (Anaes.) 866.45 - 37208 Prostate, endoscopic non‑contact (side firing) visual laser ablation, with or without cystoscopy, and with or without urethroscopy, and including services to which item 36854, 37303, 37321 or 37324 applies, continuation of, within 10 days of the procedure described by item 37201, 37203, 37207 or 37245 which had to be discontinued for medical reasons (H) (Anaes.) 416.05 - 37209 Total excision (other than a service associated with a service to which item 37210 or 37211 applies) of any, or all of:(a) prostate; or(b) seminal vesicle, unilateral or bilateral; or(c) ampulla of vas, unilateral or bilateral(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,291.10 - 37210 Prostatectomy, radical, involving total excision of the prostate, sparing of nerves around the bladder and bladder neck reconstruction, other than a service associated with a service to which item 35551, 36502 or 37375 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,593.40 - 37211 Prostatectomy, radical, involving total excision of the prostate, sparing of nerves around the bladder and bladder neck reconstruction, with pelvic lymphadenectomy, other than a service associated with a service to which item 35551, 36502 or 37375 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,935.20 - 37212 Prostate, open perineal biopsy or open drainage of abscess (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 276.60 - 37215 Prostate, biopsy of, endoscopic, with or without cystoscopy (Anaes.) (Assist.) 416.45 - 37217 Prostate, implantation of radio‑opaque fiducial markers into the prostate gland or prostate surgical bed (Anaes.) 138.30 - 37218 Prostate, needle biopsy of, or injection into, excluding insertion of radioopaque markers (Anaes.) 138.30 - 37219 Prostate, needle biopsy of, using prostatic ultrasound techniques and obtaining one or more prostatic specimens, being a service associated with a service to which item 55600 or 55603 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 280.85 - 37220 Prostate, radioactive seed implantation of, urological component, using transrectal ultrasound guidance, for localised prostatic malignancy at clinical stage T1 (clinically inapparent tumour that is not palpable or visible by imaging) or clinical stage T2 (tumour confined within prostate), with a Gleason score of not more than 7 and a prostate specific antigen (PSA) of 10ng/ml or less at the time of diagnosis, if the procedure is performed by a urologist at an approved site in association with a radiation oncologist, and being a service associated with a service to which item 55603 applies (H) (Anaes.) 1,044.20 - 37221 Prostatic abscess, endoscopic drainage of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 466.35 - 37223 Prostatic coil, insertion of, under ultrasound control (H) (Anaes.) 206.25 - 37224 Prostate, diathermy or visual laser destruction of lesion of, other than a service associated with a service to which item 37201, 37202, 37203, 37206, 37207, 37208, 37215, 37230 or 37233 applies (Anaes.) 323.20 - 37227 Prostate, transperineal insertion of catheters for high dose rate brachytherapy using ultrasound guidance including any associated cystoscopy, if performed at an approved site, and being a service associated with a service to which item 15331 or 15332 applies 565.85 - 37230 Prostate, high‑energy transurethral microwave thermotherapy of, with or without cystoscopy, and with or without urethroscopy, and including services to which item 36854, 37203, 37206, 37207, 37208, 37303, 37321 or 37324 applies (Anaes.) 1,042.15 - 37233 Prostate, high‑energy transurethral microwave thermotherapy of, with or without cystoscopy, and with or without urethroscopy, and including services to which item 36854, 37303, 37321 or 37324 applies, continuation of, within 10 days of the procedure described by item 37201, 37203, 37207 or 37230 which had to be discontinued for medical reasons (Anaes.) 558.10 - 37245 Prostate, endoscopic enucleation of, using high powered Holmium:YAG laser and an end firing, non‑contact fibre, with or without tissue morcellation, cystoscopy or urethroscopy, for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia and other than a service associated with a service to which item 36854, 37201, 37202, 37203, 37206, 37207, 37208, 37303, 37321 or 37324 applies (H) (Anaes.) 1,262.15 - 37300 Urethral sounds, passage of, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 46.60 - 37303 Urethral stricture, dilatation of (Anaes.) 74.05 - 37306 Urethra, repair of rupture of distal section (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 649.80 - 37309 Urethra, repair of rupture of prostatic or membranous segment (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 924.70 - 37315 Urethroscopy, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 138.30 - 37318 Urethroscopy, with any one or more of biopsy, diathermy, visual laser destruction of stone or removal of foreign body or stone (Anaes.) (Assist.) 276.60 - 37321 Urethral meatotomy, external (Anaes.) 93.35 - 37324 Urethrotomy or urethrostomy, internal or external (H) (Anaes.) 229.85 - 37327 Urethrotomy, optical, for urethral stricture (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 323.20 - 37330 Urethrectomy, partial or complete, for removal of tumour (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 649.80 - 37333 Urethro‑vaginal fistula, closure of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 558.10 - 37336 Urethro‑rectal fistula, closure of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 741.50 - 37338 Urethral synthetic male sling system, division or removal of, for urethral obstruction or erosion, following previous surgery for urinary incontinence, other than a service associated with a service to which item 37340 or 37341 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 911.30 - 37339 Periurethral or transurethral injection of materials for the treatment of urinary incontinence, including cystoscopy and urethroscopy, other than a service associated with a service to which item 18375 or 18379 applies (Anaes.) 239.85 - 37340 Urethral sling, division or removal of, for urethral obstruction or erosion, following previous surgery for urinary incontinence—vaginal approach, other than a service associated with a service to which item 37341 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 425.00 - 37341 Urethral sling, division or removal of, for urethral obstruction or erosion, following previous surgery for urinary incontinence—suprapubic or vaginal approach, other than a service associated with a service to which item 37340 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 911.30 - 37342 Urethroplasty—single stage operation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 833.10 - 37343 Urethroplasty, single stage operation, transpubic approach via separate incisions above and below the symphysis pubis, excluding laparotomy, symphysectomy and suprapubic cystotomy, with or without re‑routing of the urethra around the crura (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,391.15 - 37345 Urethroplasty—2 stage operation—first stage (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 691.40 - 37348 Urethroplasty—2 stage operation—second stage (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 691.40 - 37351 Urethroplasty, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 276.60 - 37354 Hypospadias, meatotomy and hemi‑circumcision (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 323.20 - 37369 Urethra, excision of prolapse of (H) (Anaes.) 186.60 - 37372 Urethral diverticulum, excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 466.35 - 37375 Urethral sphincter, reconstruction by bladder tubularisation technique or similar procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,157.85 - 37381 Artificial urinary sphincter, insertion of cuff, perineal approach (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 741.50 - 37384 Artificial urinary sphincter, insertion of cuff, abdominal approach (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,157.85 - 37387 Artificial urinary sphincter, insertion of pressure regulating balloon and pump (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 323.20 - 37390 Artificial urinary sphincter, revision or removal of, with or without replacement (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 924.70 - 37393 Priapism, decompression by glanular stab caverno‑sospongiosum shunt or penile aspiration with or without lavage (Anaes.) 229.85 - 37396 Priapism, shunt operation for, other than a service to which item 37393 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 741.50 - 37402 Penis, partial amputation of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 466.35 - 37405 Penis, complete or radical amputation of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 924.70 - 37408 Penis, repair of laceration of cavernous tissue, or fracture involving cavernous tissue (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 466.35 - 37411 Penis, repair of avulsion (Anaes.) (Assist.) 924.70 - 37415 Penis, injection of, for the investigation and treatment of impotence—2 services only in a period of 36 consecutive months 46.60 - 37417 Penis, correction of chordee, with or without excision of fibrous plaque or plaques and with or without grafting (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 558.10 - 37418 Penis, correction of chordee, with or without excision of fibrous plaque or plaques and with or without grafting, involving mobilisation of the urethra (Anaes.) (Assist.) 741.50 - 37420 Penis, surgery to inhibit rapid penile drainage causing impotence, by ligation of veins deep to Buck’s fascia including one or more deep cavernosal veins, with or without pharmacological erection test (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 366.45 - 37423 Penis, lengthening by translocation of corpora (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 924.70 - 37426 Penis, artificial erection device, insertion of, into one or both corpora (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 974.55 - 37429 Penis, artificial erection device, insertion of pump and pressure regulating reservoir (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 323.20 - 37432 Penis, artificial erection device, complete or partial revision or removal of components, with or without replacement (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 924.70 - 37435 Penis, frenuloplasty as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 93.35 - 37438 Scrotum, partial excision of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 276.60 - 37444 Ureterolithotomy complicated by previous surgery at the same site of the same ureter (Anaes.) (Assist.) 999.65 - 37601 Spermatocele or epididymal cyst, excision of, one or more of, on one side (Anaes.) 276.60 - 37604 Exploration of scrotal contents, with or without fixation and with or without biopsy, unilateral, other than a service associated with sperm harvesting for IVF (Anaes.) 276.60 - 37605 Transcutaneous sperm retrieval, unilateral, from either the testis or the epididymis, for the purposes of intracytoplasmic sperm injection, for male factor infertility, other than a service to which item 13218 applies (Anaes.) 373.45 - 37606 Open surgical sperm retrieval, unilateral, including the exploration of scrotal contents, with or without biopsy, for the purposes of intracytoplasmic sperm injection, for male factor infertility, performed in a hospital, other than a service to which item 13218 or 37604 applies (Anaes.) 554.55 - 37607 Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection, unilateral, other than a service associated with a service to which item 36528 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 924.70 - 37610 Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection, unilateral, other than a service associated with a service to which item 36528 applies, following previous similar retroperitoneal dissection, retroperitoneal irradiation or chemotherapy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,391.15 - 37613 Epididymectomy (Anaes.) 276.60 - 37616 Vasovasostomy or vasoepididymostomy, unilateral, using the operating microscope, other than a service associated with sperm harvesting for IVF (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 691.40 - 37619 Vasovasostomy or vasoepididymostomy, unilateral, other than a service associated with sperm harvesting for IVF (Anaes.) (Assist.) 276.60 - 37623 Vasotomy or vasectomy, unilateral or bilateral (Anaes.) 229.85 - 37800 Patent urachus, excision of, on a person 10 years of age or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 521.25 - 37801 Patent urachus, excision of, on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 677.65 - 37803 Undescended testis, orchidopexy for, on a person 10 years of age or over, other than a service to which item 37806 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 521.25 - 37804 Undescended testis, orchidopexy for, on a person under 10 years of age, other than a service to which item 37807 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 677.65 - 37806 Undescended testis in inguinal canal close to deep inguinal ring or within abdominal cavity, orchidopexy for, on a person 10 years of age or over (Anaes.) (Assist.) 602.25 - 37807 Undescended testis in inguinal canal close to deep inguinal ring or within abdominal cavity, orchidopexy for, on a person under 10 years of age (Anaes.) (Assist.) 782.95 - 37809 Undescended testis, revision orchidopexy for, on a person 10 years of age or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 602.25 - 37810 Undescended testis, revision orchidopexy for, on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 782.95 - 37812 Impalpable testis, exploration of groin for, on a person 10 years of age or over, other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 37803, 37806 and 37809 apply (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 556.00 - 37813 Impalpable testis, exploration of groin for, on a person under 10 years of age, other than a service associated with a service to which any of items 37804, 37807 and 37810 apply (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 722.80 - 37815 Hypospadias, examination under anaesthesia with erection test, on a person 10 years of age or over (H) (Anaes.) 92.75 - 37816 Hypospadias, examination under anaesthesia with erection test, on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) 120.60 - 37818 Hypospadias, glanuloplasty incorporating meatal advancement, on a person 10 years of age or over (Anaes.) (Assist.) 491.45 - 37819 Hypospadias, glanuloplasty incorporating meatal advancement, on a person under 10 years of age (Anaes.) (Assist.) 638.90 - 37821 Hypospadias, distal, one stage repair, on a person 10 years of age or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 833.10 - 37822 Hypospadias, distal, one stage repair, on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,083.05 - 37824 Hypospadias, proximal, one stage repair, on a person 10 years of age or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,158.30 - 37825 Hypospadias, proximal, one stage repair, on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,505.80 - 37827 Hypospadias, staged repair, first stage, on a person 10 years of age or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 533.60 - 37828 Hypospadias, staged repair, first stage, on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 693.70 - 37830 Hypospadias, staged repair, second stage, on a person 10 years of age or over (Anaes.) (Assist.) 691.40 - 37831 Hypospadias, staged repair, second stage, on a person under 10 years of age (Anaes.) (Assist.) 898.90 - 37833 Hypospadias, repair of post‑operative urethral fistula, on a person 10 years of age or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 329.95 - 37834 Hypospadias, repair of post‑operative urethral fistula, on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 428.95 - 37836 Epispadias, staged repair, first stage (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 695.00 - 37839 Epispadias, staged repair, second stage (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 787.60 - 37842 Exstrophy of bladder or epispadias, secondary repair with bladder neck tightening, with or without ureteric reimplantation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,529.10 - 37845 Ambiguous genitalia with urogenital sinus, reduction clitoroplasty, with or without endoscopy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 695.00 - 37848 Ambiguous genitalia with urogenital sinus, reduction clitoroplasty, with endoscopy and vaginoplasty (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,251.05 - 37851 Congenital adrenal hyperplasia, mixed gonadal dysgenesis or similar condition, vaginoplasty for, with or without endoscopy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 926.80 - 37854 Urethral valve, destruction of, including cystoscopy and urethroscopy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 366.45 - Subgroup 6—Cardio‑Thoracic - 38200 Right heart catheterisation with any one or more of—fluoroscopy, oximetry, dye dilution curves, cardiac output measurement by any method, shunt detection or exercise stress test (Anaes.) 445.40 - 38203 Left heart catheterisation by percutaneous arterial puncture, arteriotomy or percutaneous left ventricular puncture with any one or more of—fluoroscopy, oximetry, dye dilution curves, cardiac output measurements by any method, shunt detection or exercise stress test (Anaes.) 531.55 - 38206 Right heart catheterisation with left heart catheterisation via the right heart or by another procedure, with any one or more of—fluoroscopy, oximetry, dye dilution curves, cardiac output measurements by any method, shunt detection or exercise stress test (Anaes.) 642.65 - 38209 Cardiac electrophysiological study—up to and including 3 catheter investigation of any one or more of—syncope, atrio‑ventricular conduction, sinus node function or simple ventricular tachycardia studies, other than a service associated with a service to which item 38212 or 38213 applies (Anaes.) 825.15 - 38212 Cardiac electrophysiological study:(a) 4 or more catheter supraventricular tachycardia investigation; or(b) complex tachycardia inductions; or(c) multiple catheter mapping; or(d) acute intravenous anti‑arrhythmic drug testing with pre and post drug inductions; or(e) catheter ablation to intentionally induce complete AV block; or(f) intra‑operative mapping; or(g) electrophysiological services during defibrillator implantation or testing;other than a service associated with a service to which item 38209 or 38213 applies (Anaes.) 1,372.45 - 38213 Cardiac electrophysiological study, for follow‑up testing of implanted defibrillator—other than a service associated with a service to which item 38209 or 38212 applies (Anaes.) 408.70 - 38215 Selective coronary angiography—placement of catheters and injection of opaque material into the native coronary arteries, other than a service associated with a service to which item 38218, 38220, 38222, 38225, 38228, 38231, 38234, 38237, 38240 or 38246 applies (Anaes.) 354.90 - 38218 Selective coronary angiography—placement of catheters and injection of opaque material with right or left heart catheterisation or both, or aortography, other than a service associated with a service to which item 38215, 38220, 38222, 38225, 38228, 38231, 38234, 38237, 38240 or 38246 applies (Anaes.) 532.25 - 38220 Selective coronary graft angiography—placement of one or more catheters and injection of opaque material into free coronary graft attached to the aorta (any number of grafts), other than a service associated with a service to which item 38215, 38218, 38222, 38225, 38228, 38231, 38234, 38237, 38240 or 38246 applies (Anaes.) 177.40 - 38222 Selective coronary graft angiography—placement of one or more catheters and injection of opaque material into direct internal mammary artery graft to one or more coronary arteries (irrespective of the number of grafts), other than a service associated with a service to which item 38215, 38218, 38220, 38225, 38228, 38231, 38234, 38237, 38240 or 38246 applies (Anaes.) 354.90 - 38225 Selective coronary angiography—placement of catheters and injection of opaque material into the native coronary arteries and placement of one or more catheters and injection of opaque material into free coronary graft attached to the aorta (irrespective of the number of grafts), other than a service associated with a service to which item 38215, 38218, 38220, 38222, 38228, 38231, 38234, 38237, 38240 or 38246 applies (Anaes.) 532.35 - 38228 Selective coronary angiography—placement of catheters and injection of opaque material into the native coronary arteries and placement of one or more catheters and injection of opaque material into direct internal mammary artery graft to one or more coronary arteries (irrespective of the number of grafts), other than a service associated with a service to which item 38215, 38218, 38220, 38222, 38225, 38231, 38234, 38237, 38240 or 38246 applies (Anaes.) 709.90 - 38231 Selective coronary angiography—placement of catheters and injection of opaque material into the native coronary arteries and placement of one or more catheters and injection of opaque material into free coronary graft attached to the aorta (irrespective of the number of grafts), and placement of one or more catheters and injection of opaque material into direct internal mammary artery graft to one or more coronary arteries (irrespective of the number of grafts), other than a service associated with a service to which item 38215, 38218, 38220, 38222, 38225, 38228, 38234, 38237, 38240 or 38246 applies (Anaes.) 887.25 - 38234 Selective coronary angiography—placement of catheters and injection of opaque material with right or left heart catheterisation or both, or aortography and placement of one or more catheters and injection of opaque material into free coronary graft attached to the aorta (irrespective of the number of grafts), other than a service associated with a service to which item 38215, 38218, 38220, 38222, 38225, 38228, 38231, 38237, 38240 or 38246 applies (Anaes.) 709.75 - 38237 Selective coronary angiography—placement of catheters and injection of opaque material with right or left heart catheterisation or both, or aortography and placement of one or more catheters and injection of opaque material into direct internal mammary artery graft to one or more coronary arteries (irrespective of the number of grafts), other than a service associated with a service to which item 38215, 38218, 38220, 38222, 38225, 38228, 38231, 38234, 38240 or 38246 applies (Anaes.) 887.20 - 38240 Selective coronary angiography—placement of catheters and injection of opaque material with right or left heart catheterisation or both, or aortography and placement of one or more catheters and injection of opaque material into free coronary graft attached to the aorta (irrespective of the number of grafts), and placement of one or more catheters and injection of opaque material into direct internal mammary artery graft to one or more coronary arteries (irrespective of the number of grafts), other than a service associated with a service to which item 38215, 38218, 38220, 38222, 38225, 38228, 38231, 38234, 38237 or 38246 applies (Anaes.) 1,064.60 - 38241 Use of a coronary pressure wire during selective coronary angiography to measure fractional flow reserve (FFR) and coronary flow reserve (CFR) in one or more intermediate coronary artery or graft lesions (stenosis of 30—70%), to determine whether revascularisation should be performed, if previous stress testing has either not been performed or the results are inconclusive (Anaes.) 469.70 - 38243 Placement of one or more catheters and injection of opaque material into any one or more coronary vessels or grafts before any coronary interventional procedure, other than a service associated with a service to which item 38246 applies (Anaes.) 443.60 - 38246 Selective coronary angiography—placement of catheters and injection of opaque material with right or left heart catheterisation or both, or aortography followed by placement of catheters before any coronary interventional procedure, other than a service associated with a service to which item 38215, 38218, 38220, 38222, 38225, 38228, 38231, 38234, 38237, 38240 or 38243 applies (Anaes.) 887.20 - 38256 Temporary transvenous pacemaking electrode, insertion of (Anaes.) 267.25 - 38270 Balloon valvuloplasty or isolated atrial septostomy, including cardiac catheterisations before and after balloon dilatation (Anaes.) (Assist.) 912.30 - 38272 Atrial septal defect, closure using a septal occluder or similar device by transcatheter approach (Anaes.) (Assist.) 912.30 - 38273 Patent ductus arteriosus, transcatheter closure of, including cardiac catheterisation and any imaging associated with the service (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 912.30 - 38274 Ventricular septal defect, transcatheter closure of, with imaging and cardiac catheterisation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 912.30 - 38275 Myocardial biopsy, by cardiac catheterisation (Anaes.) 298.20 - 38276 Transcatheter occlusion of left atrial appendage, and cardiac catheterisation performed by the same practitioner, for stroke prevention in a patient who has non‑valvular atrial fibrillation and a contraindication to life‑long oral anticoagulation therapy, and is at increased risk of thromboembolism demonstrated by:(a) a prior stroke (whether of an ischaemic or unknown type), transient ischaemic attack or non‑central nervous system systemic embolism; or(b) at least 2 of the following risk factors:(i) an age of 65 years or more;(ii) hypertension;(iii) diabetes mellitus;(iv) heart failure or left ventricular ejection fraction of 35% or less (or both);(v) vascular disease (prior myocardial infarction, peripheral artery disease or aortic plaque)(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 912.30 - 38285 Implantable ECG loop recorder, insertion of, for diagnosis of primary disorder, if:(a) the patient to whom the service is provided:(i) has recurrent unexplained syncope; and(ii) does not have a structural heart defect associated with a high risk of sudden cardiac death; and(b) a diagnosis has not been achieved through all other available cardiac investigations; and(c) a neurogenic cause is not suspected;including initial programming and testing (H) (Anaes.) 192.90 - 38286 Implantable ECG loop recorder, removal of (H) (Anaes.) 173.75 - 38287 Ablation of arrhythmia circuit or focus or isolation procedure involving one atrial chamber (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,098.45 - 38288 Implantable loop recorder, insertion of, for diagnosis of atrial fibrillation, if:(a) the patient to whom the service is provided has been diagnosed as having had an embolic stroke of undetermined source; and(b) the bases of the diagnosis included the following:(i) the medical history of the patient;(ii) physical examination;(iii) brain and carotid imaging;(iv) cardiac imaging;(v) surface ECG testing including 24‑hour Holter monitoring; and(c) atrial fibrillation is suspected; and(d) the patient:(i) does not have a permanent indication for oral anticoagulants; or(ii) does not have a permanent oral anticoagulants contraindication;including initial programming and testing (Anaes.) 192.90 - 38290 Ablation of arrhythmia circuits or foci, or isolation procedure involving both atrial chambers and including curative procedures for atrial fibrillation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,671.95 - 38293 Ventricular arrhythmia with mapping and ablation, including all associated electrophysiological studies performed on the same day (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,868.05 - 38300 Transluminal balloon angioplasty of one coronary artery, percutaneous or by open exposure, excluding associated radiological services, radiological preparation and after‑care (Anaes.) (Assist.) 515.35 - 38303 Transluminal balloon angioplasty of more than one coronary artery, percutaneous or by open exposure, excluding associated radiological services, radiological preparation and after‑care (Anaes.) (Assist.) 660.80 - 38306 Transluminal insertion of stent or stents into one occlusional site, including associated balloon dilatation of coronary artery, percutaneous or by open exposure, excluding associated radiological services, radiological preparation and after‑care (Anaes.) (Assist.) 762.35 - 38309 Percutaneous transluminal rotational atherectomy of one coronary artery, including balloon angioplasty without stent insertion, if:(a) no lesion of the coronary artery has been stented; and(b) each lesion of the coronary artery is complex and heavily calcified; and(c) balloon angioplasty, with or without stenting, is not suitable;excluding associated radiological services, radiological preparation and after‑care (Anaes.) (Assist.) 885.45 - 38312 Percutaneous transluminal rotational atherectomy of one coronary artery, including balloon angioplasty with the insertion of one or more stents, if:(a) no lesion of the coronary artery has been stented; and(b) each lesion of the coronary artery is complex and heavily calcified; and(c) balloon angioplasty, with or without stenting, is not suitable;excluding associated radiological services, radiological preparation and after‑care (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,132.35 - 38315 Percutaneous transluminal rotational atherectomy of more than one coronary artery, including balloon angioplasty without stent insertion, if:(a) no lesion of the coronary artery has been stented; and(b) each lesion of the coronary arteries is complex and heavily calcified; and(c) balloon angioplasty, with or without stenting, is not suitable;excluding associated radiological services, radiological preparation and after‑care (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,215.85 - 38318 Percutaneous transluminal rotational atherectomy of more than one coronary artery, including balloon angioplasty, with the insertion of one or more stents, if:(a) no lesion of the coronary artery has been stented; and(b) each lesion of the coronary arteries is complex and heavily calcified; and(c) balloon angioplasty with or without stenting is not suitable;excluding associated radiological services, radiological preparation and after‑care (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,586.35 - 38350 Single chamber permanent transvenous electrode (including cardiac electrophysiological services if used for pacemaker implantation), insertion, removal or replacement of (Anaes.) 638.65 - 38353 Permanent cardiac pacemaker (including cardiac electrophysiological services if used for pacemaker implantation), insertion, removal or replacement of—other than a service for the purpose of cardiac resynchronisation therapy (H) (Anaes.) 255.45 - 38356 Dual chamber permanent transvenous electrodes (including cardiac electrophysiological services if used for pacemaker implantation), insertion, removal or replacement of (H) (Anaes.) 837.35 - 38358 Extraction, by percutaneous method, of a chronically implanted transvenous pacing or defibrillator lead, if the lead has been in place for more than 6 months, and requires removal:(a) with locking stylets, snares or extraction sheaths; and(b) in a facility where cardiac surgery is available;being a service associated with item 61109 or 60509 (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,868.05 - 38359 Pericardium, paracentesis of (excluding after‑care) (Anaes.) 133.55 - 38362 Intra‑aortic balloon pump, percutaneous insertion of (H) (Anaes.) 384.95 - 38365 Permanent cardiac synchronisation device (including a cardiac synchronisation device that is capable of defibrillation), insertion, removal or replacement of, for a patient who:(a) has:(i) moderate to severe chronic heart failure (New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III or IV) despite optimised medical therapy; and(ii) sinus rhythm; and(iii) a left ventricular ejection fraction of less than or equal to 35%; and(iv) a QRS duration greater than or equal to 120 ms; or(b) satisfied the requirements mentioned in paragraph (a) immediately before the insertion of a cardiac resynchronisation therapy device and transvenous left ventricle electrode(H) (Anaes.) 255.45 - 38368 Permanent transvenous left ventricular electrode, insertion, removal or replacement of through the coronary sinus, for the purpose of cardiac resynchronisation therapy, including right heart catheterisation and any associated venogram of left ventricular veins, other than a service associated with a service to which item 35200 or 38200 applies, for a patient who:(a) has:(i) moderate to severe chronic heart failure (New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III or IV) despite optimised medical therapy; and(ii) sinus rhythm; and(iii) a left ventricular ejection fraction of less than or equal to 35%; and(iv) a QRS duration greater than or equal to 120 ms; or(b) has:(i) mild chronic heart failure (New York Heart Association (NYHA) class II) despite optimised medical therapy; and(ii) sinus rhythm; and(iii) a left ventricular ejection fraction of less than or equal to 35%; and(iv) a QRS duration greater than or equal to 150 ms; or(c) satisfied the requirements mentioned in paragraph (a) or (b) immediately before the insertion of a cardiac resynchronisation therapy device and transvenous left ventricle electrode(H) (Anaes.) 1,224.60 - 38371 Permanent cardiac synchronisation device capable of defibrillation, insertion, removal or replacement of, for a patient who:(a) has:(i) moderate to severe chronic heart failure (NYHA class III or IV) despite optimised medical therapy; and(ii) sinus rhythm; and(iii) a left ventricular ejection fraction of less than or equal to 35%; and(iv) a QRS duration greater than or equal to 120 ms; or(b) has:(i) mild chronic heart failure (New York Heart Association (NYHA) class II) despite optimised medical therapy; and(ii) sinus rhythm; and(iii) a left ventricular ejection fraction of less than or equal to 35%; and(iv) a QRS duration greater than or equal to 150 ms(H) (Anaes.) 287.85 - 38384 Automatic defibrillator, insertion of patches for, or insertion of transvenous endocardial defibrillation electrodes for, primary prevention of sudden cardiac death in:(a) a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction of less than or equal to 30% at least one month after a myocardial infarct despite optimised medical therapy; or(b) a patient with chronic heart failure associated with mild to moderate symptoms (NYHA II and III) and a left ventricular ejection fraction less than or equal to 35% despite optimised medical therapy;other than a service associated with a service to which item 38213 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,052.65 - 38387 Automatic defibrillation generator (other than a defibrillator capable of cardiac resynchronisation therapy), insertion or replacement of, for primary prevention of sudden cardiac death in:(a) a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction of less than or equal to 30% at least one month after a myocardial infarct despite optimised medical therapy; or(b) a patient with chronic heart failure associated with mild to moderate symptoms (NYHA II and III) and a left ventricular ejection fraction less than or equal to 35% despite optimised medical therapy;other than a service associated with a service to which item 38213 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 287.85 - 38390 Automatic defibrillator, insertion of patches or transvenous endocardial defibrillation electrodes for, other than for primary prevention for tachycardia arrhythmias or a service associated with a service to which item 38213 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,052.65 - 38393 Automatic defibrillator generator (other than a defibrillator capable of cardiac resynchronisation therapy), insertion or replacement of, other than for primary prevention for tachycardia arrhythmias or a service associated with a service to which item 38213 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 287.85 - 38415 Empyema, radical operation for, involving resection of rib (Anaes.) (Assist.) 399.35 - 38418 Thoracotomy, exploratory, with or without biopsy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 958.40 - 38421 Thoracotomy, with pulmonary decortication (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,532.00 - 38424 Thoracotomy, with pleurectomy or pleurodesis, or enucleation of hydatid cysts (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 958.40 - 38427 Thoracoplasty (complete)—3 or more ribs (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,183.40 - 38430 Thoracoplasty (in stages)—each stage (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 609.90 - 38436 Thoracoscopy, with or without division of pleural adhesions, including insertion of intercostal catheter, if necessary, with or without biopsy (H) (Anaes.) 249.75 - 38438 Pneumonectomy or lobectomy or segmentectomy other than a service associated with a service to which item 38418 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,532.00 - 38440 Lung, wedge resection of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,147.20 - 38441 Radical lobectomy or pneumonectomy including resection of chest wall, diaphragm, pericardium, or formal mediastinal node dissection (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,815.20 - 38446 Thoracotomy or sternotomy, for removal of thymus or mediastinal tumour (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,183.40 - 38447 Pericardiectomy via sternotomy or anterolateral thoracotomy without cardiopulmonary bypass (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,532.00 - 38448 Mediastinum, cervical exploration of, with or without biopsy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 363.05 - 38449 Pericardiectomy via sternotomy or anterolateral thoracotomy with cardiopulmonary bypass (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,143.20 - 38450 Pericardium, transthoracic open surgical drainage of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 856.65 - 38452 Pericardium, subxiphoid open surgical drainage of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 573.70 - 38453 Tracheal excision and repair without cardiopulmonary bypass (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,720.90 - 38455 Tracheal excision and repair of, with cardiopulmonary bypass (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,327.70 - 38456 Intrathoracic operation on heart, lungs, great vessels, bronchial tree, oesophagus or mediastinum, or on more than one of those organs, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,532.00 - 38457 Pectus excavatum or pectus carinatum, repair or radical correction of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,430.25 - 38458 Pectus excavatum, repair of, with implantation of subcutaneous prosthesis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 762.35 - 38460 Sternal wires or wires, removal of (H) (Anaes.) 275.40 - 38462 Sternotomy wound, debridement of, not involving reopening of the mediastinum (H) (Anaes.) 326.45 - 38464 Sternotomy wound, debridement of, involving curettage of infected bone with or without removal of wires but not involving reopening of the mediastinum (H) (Anaes.) 354.80 - 38466 Sternum, re‑operation on, for dehiscence or infection involving reopening of the mediastinum, with or without rewiring (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 958.00 - 38468 Sternum and mediastinum, re‑operation for infection of, involving muscle advancement flaps or greater omentum (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,476.15 - 38469 Sternum and mediastinum, re‑operation for infection of, involving muscle advancement flaps and greater omentum (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,720.90 - 38470 Permanent myocardial electrode, insertion of, by thoracotomy or sternotomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 958.40 - 38473 Permanent pacemaker electrode, insertion by open surgical approach (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 573.70 - 38475 Valve annuloplasty without insertion of ring, other than a service associated with a service to which item 38480 or 38481 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 831.75 - 38477 Valve annuloplasty with insertion of ring other than a service to which item 38478 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,003.35 - 38478 Valve annuloplasty with insertion of ring performed in conjunction with item 38480 or 38481 (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 970.40 - 38480 Valve repair, one leaflet (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,003.35 - 38481 Valve repair, 2 or more leaflets (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,280.65 - 38483 Aortic valve leaflet or leaflets, decalcification of, other than a service to which item 38475, 38477, 38480, 38481, 38488 or 38489 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,720.90 - 38485 Mitral annulus, reconstruction of, after decalcification, when performed in association with valve surgery (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 817.10 - 38487 Mitral valve, open valvotomy of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,720.90 - 38488 Valve replacement with bioprosthesis or mechanical prosthesis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,909.60 - 38489 Valve replacement with allograft (subcoronary or cylindrical implant), or unstented xenograft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,271.05 - 38490 Sub‑valvular structures, reconstruction and re‑implantation of, associated with mitral and tricuspid valve replacement (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 554.55 - 38493 Operative management of acute infective endocarditis, in association with heart valve surgery (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,957.60 - 38496 Artery harvesting (other than internal mammary), for coronary artery bypass (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 623.95 - 38497 Coronary artery bypass with cardiopulmonary bypass, using saphenous vein graft or grafts only, including harvesting of vein graft material if performed, other than a service associated with a service to which item 38498, 38500, 38501, 38503 or 38504 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,047.60 - 38498 Coronary artery bypass with the aid of tissue stabilisers, performed without cardiopulmonary bypass, using saphenous vein graft or grafts only, including harvesting of vein graft material if performed, either by a median sternotomy or other minimally invasive technique, and if a stand‑by perfusionist is present, other than a service associated with a service to which item 38497, 38500, 38501, 38503, 38504 or 38600 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,047.60 - 38500 Coronary artery bypass with cardiopulmonary bypass, using single arterial graft, with or without vein graft or grafts, including harvesting of internal mammary artery or vein graft material if performed, other than a service associated with a service to which item 38497, 38498, 38501, 38503 or 38504 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,200.00 - 38501 Coronary artery bypass with the aid of tissue stabilisers, performed without cardiopulmonary bypass, using single arterial graft, with or without vein graft or grafts, including harvesting of internal mammary artery or vein graft material if performed, either by a median sternotomy or other minimally invasive technique, and if a stand‑by perfusionist is present, other than a service associated with a service to which item 38497, 38498, 38500, 38503, 38504 or 38600 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,200.00 - 38503 Coronary artery bypass with cardiopulmonary bypass, using 2 or more arterial grafts, with or without vein graft or grafts, including harvesting of internal mammary artery or vein graft material if performed, other than a service associated with a service to which item 38497, 38498, 38500, 38501 or 38504 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,388.70 - 38504 Coronary artery bypass with the aid of tissue stabilisers, performed without cardiopulmonary bypass, using 2 or more arterial grafts, with or without vein graft or grafts, including harvesting of internal mammary artery or vein graft material if performed, either by a median sternotomy or other minimally invasive technique, and if a stand‑by perfusionist is present, other than a service associated with a service to which item 38497, 38498, 38500, 38501, 38503 or 38600 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,388.70 - 38505 Coronary endarterectomy, by open operation, including repair with one or more patch grafts, each vessel (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 277.25 - 38506 Left ventricular aneurysm, plication of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,626.25 - 38507 Left ventricular aneurysm resection with primary repair (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,909.20 - 38508 Left ventricular aneurysm resection with patch reconstruction of the left ventricle (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,388.70 - 38509 Ischaemic ventricular septal rupture, repair of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,388.70 - 38512 Division of accessory pathway, isolation procedure, procedure on atrioventricular node or perinodal tissues involving one atrial chamber only (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,098.45 - 38515 Division of accessory pathway, isolation procedure, procedure on atrioventricular node or perinodal tissues involving both atrial chambers and including curative surgery for atrial fibrillation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,671.95 - 38518 Ventricular arrhythmia with mapping and muscle ablation, with or without aneurysmeotomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,868.05 - 38550 Ascending thoracic aorta, repair or replacement of, not involving valve replacement or repair or coronary artery implantation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,146.15 - 38553 Ascending thoracic aorta, repair or replacement of, with aortic valve replacement or repair, without implantation of coronary arteries (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,719.75 - 38556 Ascending thoracic aorta, repair or replacement of, with aortic valve replacement or repair, and implantation of coronary arteries (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,104.70 - 38559 Aortic arch and ascending thoracic aorta, repair or replacement of, not involving valve replacement or repair or coronary artery implantation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,531.00 - 38562 Aortic arch and ascending thoracic aorta, repair or replacement of, with aortic valve replacement or repair, without implantation of coronary arteries (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,104.70 - 38565 Aortic arch and ascending thoracic aorta, repair or replacement of, with aortic valve replacement or repair, and implantation of coronary arteries (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,482.25 - 38568 Descending thoracic aorta, repair or replacement of, without shunt or cardiopulmonary bypass, by open exposure, percutaneous or endovascular means (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,862.95 - 38571 Descending thoracic aorta, repair or replacement of, using shunt or cardiopulmonary bypass (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,051.75 - 38572 Operative management of acute rupture or dissection, in conjunction with procedures on the thoracic aorta (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,987.05 - 38577 Cannulation for, and supervision and monitoring of, the administration of retrograde cerebral perfusion during deep hypothermic arrest (H) (Assist.) 554.55 - 38588 Cannulation of the coronary sinus for, and supervision of, the retrograde administration of blood or crystalloid for cardioplegia, including pressure monitoring (H) (Assist.) 416.05 - 38600 Central cannulation for cardiopulmonary bypass excluding post‑operative management, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,532.00 - 38603 Peripheral cannulation for cardiopulmonary bypass excluding post‑operative management (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 958.40 - 38609 Intra‑aortic balloon pump, insertion of, by arteriotomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 479.15 - 38612 Intra‑aortic balloon pump, removal of, with closure of artery by direct suture (Anaes.) (Assist.) 537.10 - 38613 Intra‑aortic balloon pump, removal of, with closure of artery by patch graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 674.05 - 38615 Insertion of a left or right ventricular assist device, for use as:(a) a bridge to cardiac transplantation in patients with refractory heart failure who are:(i) currently on a heart transplant waiting list; or(ii) expected to be suitable candidates for cardiac transplantation following a period of support on the ventricular assist device; or(b) acute post cardiotomy support for failure to wean from cardiopulmonary transplantation; or(c) cardio‑respiratory support for acute cardiac failure which is likely to recover with short term support of less than 6 weeks;not being a service associated with the use of a ventricular assist device as destination therapy in the management of patients with heart failure who are not expected to be suitable candidates for cardiac transplantation(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,532.00 - 38618 Insertion of a left and right ventricular assist device, for use as:(a) a bridge to cardiac transplantation in patients with refractory heart failure who are:(i) currently on a heart transplant waiting list; or(ii) expected to be suitable candidates for cardiac transplantation following a period of support on the ventricular assist device; or(b) acute post cardiotomy support for failure to wean from cardiopulmonary transplantation; or(c) cardio‑respiratory support for acute cardiac failure which is likely to recover with short term support of less than 6 weeks;not being a service associated with the use of a ventricular assist device as destination therapy in the management of patients with heart failure who are not expected to be suitable candidates for cardiac transplantation(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,909.60 - 38621 Left or right ventricular assist device, removal of, as an independent procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 762.35 - 38624 Left and right ventricular assist device, removal of, as an independent procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 856.65 - 38627 Extra‑corporeal membrane oxygenation, bypass or ventricular assist device cannulae, adjustment and re‑positioning of, by open operation, in patients supported by these devices (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 669.60 - 38637 Patent diseased coronary artery bypass vein graft or grafts, dissection, disconnection and oversewing of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 554.55 - 38640 Re‑operation via median sternotomy, for any procedure, including any divisions of adhesions if the time taken to divide the adhesions is 45 minutes or less (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 958.40 - 38643 Thoracotomy or sternotomy involving division of adhesions if the time taken to divide the adhesions exceeds 45 minutes (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,067.40 - 38647 Thoracotomy or sternotomy involving division of extensive adhesions if the time taken to divide the adhesions exceeds 2 hours (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,134.50 - 38650 Myomectomy or myotomy for hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,909.60 - 38653 Open heart surgery, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,909.60 - 38654 Permanent left ventricular electrode, insertion, removal or replacement of via open thoracotomy, for the purpose of cardiac resynchronisation therapy, for a patient who:(a) has:(i) moderate to severe chronic heart failure (New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III or IV) despite optimised medical therapy; and(ii) sinus rhythm; and(iii) a left ventricular ejection fraction of less than or equal to 35%; and(iv) a QRS duration greater than or equal to 120 ms; or(b) has:(i) mild chronic heart failure (New York Heart Association (NYHA) class II) despite optimised medical therapy; and(ii) sinus rhythm; and(iii) a left ventricular ejection fraction of less than or equal to 35%; and(iv) a QRS duration greater than or equal to 150 ms; or(c) satisfied the requirements mentioned in paragraph (a) or (b) immediately before the insertion of a cardiac resynchronisation therapy device and transvenous left ventricle electrode(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,224.60 - 38656 Thoracotomy or median sternotomy for post‑operative bleeding (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 958.40 - 38670 Cardiac tumour, excision of, involving the wall of the atrium or inter‑atrial septum, without patch or conduit reconstruction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,909.20 - 38673 Cardiac tumour, excision of, involving the wall of the atrium or inter‑atrial septum, requiring reconstruction with patch or conduit (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,148.85 - 38677 Cardiac tumour arising from ventricular myocardium, partial thickness excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,010.35 - 38680 Cardiac tumour arising from ventricular myocardium, full thickness excision of including repair or reconstruction (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,384.55 - 38700 Patent ductus arteriosus, shunt, collateral or other single large vessel, division or ligation of, without cardiopulmonary bypass, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,067.40 - 38703 Patent ductus arteriosus, shunt, collateral or other single large vessel, division or ligation of, with cardiopulmonary bypass, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,924.10 - 38706 Aorta, anastomosis or repair of, without cardiopulmonary bypass, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,822.40 - 38709 Aorta, anastomosis or repair of, with cardiopulmonary bypass, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,134.50 - 38712 Aortic interruption, repair of, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,563.15 - 38715 Main pulmonary artery, banding, debanding or repair of, without cardiopulmonary bypass, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,706.30 - 38718 Main pulmonary artery, banding, debanding or repair of, with cardiopulmonary bypass, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,134.50 - 38721 Vena cava, anastomosis or repair of, without cardiopulmonary bypass, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,495.80 - 38724 Vena cava, anastomosis or repair of, with cardiopulmonary bypass, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,134.50 - 38727 Intrathoracic vessels, anastomosis or repair of, without cardiopulmonary bypass, other than a service to which item 38700, 38703, 38706, 38709, 38712, 38715, 38718, 38721 or 38724 applies, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,495.80 - 38730 Intrathoracic vessels, anastomosis or repair of, with cardiopulmonary bypass, other than a service to which item 38700, 38703, 38706, 38709, 38712, 38715, 38718, 38721 or 38724 applies, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,134.50 - 38733 Systemic pulmonary or cavo‑pulmonary shunt, creation of, without cardiopulmonary bypass, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,495.80 - 38736 Systemic pulmonary or cavo‑pulmonary shunt, creation of, with cardiopulmonary bypass, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,134.50 - 38739 Atrial septectomy, with or without cardiopulmonary bypass, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,924.10 - 38742 Atrial septal defect, closure by open exposure and direct suture or patch, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,924.10 - 38745 Intra‑atrial baffle, insertion of, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,134.50 - 38748 Ventricular septectomy, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,134.50 - 38751 Ventricular septal defect, closure by direct suture or patch (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,134.50 - 38754 Intraventricular baffle or conduit, insertion of, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,671.95 - 38757 Extracardiac conduit, insertion of, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,134.50 - 38760 Extracardiac conduit, replacement of, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,134.50 - 38763 Ventricular myectomy, for relief of ventricular obstruction, right or left, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,134.50 - 38766 Ventricular augmentation, right or left, for congenital heart disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,134.50 - 38800 Thoracic cavity, aspiration of, for diagnostic purposes, other than a service associated with a service to which item 38803 applies 38.50 - 38803 Thoracic cavity, aspiration of, with therapeutic drainage (paracentesis), with or without diagnostic sample 76.90 - 38806 Intercostal drain, insertion of, not involving resection of rib (excluding after‑care) (Anaes.) 133.55 - 38809 Intercostal drain, insertion of, with pleurodesis and not involving resection of rib (excluding after‑care) (Anaes.) 164.55 - 38812 Percutaneous needle biopsy of lung (Anaes.) 209.15 Subdivision E—Subgroups 7 to 11 of Group T8   - Subgroup 7—Neurosurgical - 39000 Lumbar puncture (Anaes.) 75.30 - 39003 Cisternal puncture (Anaes.) 85.65 - 39006 Ventricular puncture (not including burr‑hole) (Anaes.) 159.40 - 39009 Subdural haemorrhage, tap for, each tap (H) (Anaes.) 59.35 - 39012 Burr‑hole, single, preparatory to ventricular puncture or for inspection purpose—other than a service to which another item applies (H) (Anaes.) 237.60 - 39013 Injection under image intensification with one or more of contrast media, local anaesthetic or corticosteroid into one or more zygo‑apophyseal or costo‑transverse joints or one or more primary posterior rami of spinal nerves (Anaes.) 109.15 - 39015 Ventricular reservoir, external ventricular drain or intracranial pressure monitoring device, insertion of—including burr‑hole (excluding after‑care) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 376.00 - 39018 Cerebrospinal fluid reservoir, insertion of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 376.00 - 39100 Injection of primary branch of trigeminal nerve with alcohol, cortisone, phenol, or similar substance (Anaes.) 237.60 - 39106 Neurectomy, intracranial, for trigeminal neuralgia (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,188.20 - 39109 Trigeminal gangliotomy by radiofrequency, balloon or glycerol (Anaes.) 443.70 - 39112 Cranial nerve, intracranial decompression of, using microsurgical techniques (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,541.50 - 39115 Percutaneous neurotomy of posterior divisions (or rami) of spinal nerves by any method, including any associated spinal, epidural or regional nerve block (applicable once in a 30 day period) (Anaes.) 75.30 - 39118 Percutaneous neurotomy for facet joint denervation by radio‑frequency probe or cryoprobe using radiological imaging control (Anaes.) (Assist.) 297.85 - 39121 Percutaneous cordotomy (Anaes.) (Assist.) 631.75 - 39124 Cordotomy or myelotomy, partial or total laminectomy for, or operation for dorsal root entry zone (Drez) lesion (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,616.80 - 39125 Intrathecal or epidural spinal catheter, insertion or replacement of, and connection to a subcutaneous implanted infusion pump, for the management of chronic intractable pain (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 298.05 - 39126 All of the following:(a) infusion pump, subcutaneous implantation or replacement of;(b) connection of the pump to an intrathecal or epidural spinal catheter;(c) filling of reservoir with a therapeutic agent or agents;with or without programming the pump, for the management of chronic intractable pain (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 361.90 - 39127 Subcutaneous reservoir and spinal catheter, insertion of, for the management of chronic intractable pain (H) (Anaes.) 473.65 - 39128 All of the following:(a) infusion pump, subcutaneous implantation of;(b) intrathecal or epidural spinal catheter, insertion of;(c) connection of pump to catheter;(d) filling of reservoir with a therapeutic agent or agents;with or without programming the pump, for the management of chronic intractable pain (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 659.95 - 39130 Epidural lead, percutaneous placement of, including intraoperative test stimulation, for the management of chronic intractable neuropathic pain or pain from refractory angina pectoris—to a maximum of 4 leads (H) (Anaes.) 674.15 - 39131 Epidural or peripheral nerve electrodes, management, adjustment, and electronic programming of, by a medical practitioner, for the management of chronic intractable neuropathic pain or pain from refractory angina pectoris—each day 127.80 - 39133 Either:(a) subcutaneously implanted infusion pump, removal of; or(b) intrathecal or epidural spinal catheter, removal or repositioning of;for the management of chronic intractable pain (H) (Anaes.) 159.40 - 39134 Neurostimulator or receiver, subcutaneous placement of, including placement and connection of extension wires to epidural or peripheral nerve electrodes, for the management of chronic intractable neuropathic pain or pain from refractory angina pectoris (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 340.60 - 39135 Neurostimulator or receiver that was inserted for the management of chronic intractable neuropathic pain or pain from refractory angina pectoris, removal of, performed in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 159.40 - 39136 Epidural or peripheral nerve lead that was inserted for the management of chronic intractable neuropathic pain or pain from refractory angina pectoris, removal of, performed in the operating theatre of a hospital (Anaes.) 159.40 - 39137 Epidural or peripheral nerve lead that was inserted for the management of chronic intractable neuropathic pain or pain from refractory angina pectoris, surgical repositioning of, to correct displacement or unsatisfactory positioning, including intraoperative test stimulation, other than a service to which item 39130, 39138 or 39139 applies (Anaes.) 605.35 - 39138 Peripheral nerve lead, surgical placement of, including intraoperative test stimulation, for chronic intractable neuropathic pain or pain from refractory angina pectoris—not exceeding 4 leads (Anaes.) (Assist.) 674.15 - 39139 Epidural lead, surgical placement of one or more of by partial or total laminectomy, including intraoperative test stimulation, for the management of chronic intractable neuropathic pain or pain from refractory angina pectoris—to a maximum of 4 leads (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 905.10 - 39140 Epidural catheter, insertion of, under imaging control, with epidurogram and epidural therapeutic injection for lysis of adhesions (Anaes.) 292.85 - 39300 Cutaneous nerve (including digital nerve), primary repair of, using microsurgical techniques (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 353.35 - 39303 Cutaneous nerve (including digital nerve), secondary repair of, using microsurgical techniques (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 466.10 - 39306 Nerve trunk, primary repair of, using microsurgical techniques (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 676.80 - 39309 Nerve trunk, secondary repair of, using microsurgical techniques (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 714.35 - 39312 Nerve trunk, internal (interfascicular), neurolysis of, using microsurgical techniques (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 398.55 - 39315 Nerve trunk, nerve graft to, (cable graft) including harvesting of nerve graft using microsurgical techniques (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,030.20 - 39318 Cutaneous nerve (including digital nerve), nerve graft to, using microsurgical techniques (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 639.20 - 39321 Nerve, transposition of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 473.65 - 39323 Percutaneous neurotomy by cryotherapy or radiofrequency lesion generator, other than a service to which another item applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 276.80 - 39324 Neurectomy, neurotomy or removal of tumour from superficial peripheral nerve, by open operation (Anaes.) (Assist.) 276.80 - 39327 Neurectomy, neurotomy or removal of tumour from deep peripheral or cranial nerve, by open operation, other than a service to which item 41575, 41576, 41578 or 41579 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 473.75 - 39330 Neurolysis by open operation without transposition, other than a service associated with a service to which item 39312 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 276.80 - 39331 Carpal tunnel release (division of transverse carpal ligament), by any method (Anaes.) 276.80 - 39333 Brachial plexus, exploration of, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 398.55 - 39500 Vestibular nerve, section of, via posterior fossa (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,270.90 - 39503 Facio‑hypoglossal nerve or facio‑accessory nerve, anastomosis of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 955.00 - 39600 Intracranial haemorrhage, burr‑hole craniotomy for—including burr‑holes (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 473.65 - 39603 Intracranial haemorrhage, osteoplastic craniotomy or extensive craniectomy and removal of haematoma (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,195.70 - 39606 Fractured skull, depressed or comminuted, operation for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 797.10 - 39609 Fractured skull, compound, without dural penetration, operation for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 955.00 - 39612 Fractured skull, compound, depressed or complicated, with dural penetration and brain laceration, operation for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,120.45 - 39615 Fractured skull with rhinorrhoea or otorrhoea, repair of, by cranioplasty or endoscopic approach (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,195.70 - 39640 Tumour involving anterior cranial fossa, removal of, involving craniotomy, radical excision of the skull base, and dural repair (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,031.65 - 39642 Tumour involving anterior cranial fossa, removal of, involving frontal craniotomy with lateral rhinotomy for clearance of paranasal sinus extension, (intracranial procedure) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,187.25 - 39646 Tumour involving anterior cranial fossa, removal of, involving frontal craniotomy with lateral rhinotomy and radical clearance of paranasal sinus and orbital fossa extensions, with intracranial decompression of the optic nerve, (intracranial procedure) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,653.60 - 39650 Tumour involving middle cranial fossa and infra‑temporal fossa, removal of, craniotomy and radical or sub‑total radical excision, with division and reconstruction of zygomatic arch, (intracranial procedure) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,642.95 - 39653 Petro‑clival and clival tumour, removal of, by supra and infratentorial approaches for radical or sub‑total radical excision (intracranial procedure), other than a service to which item 39654 or 39656 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 4,703.15 - 39654 Petro‑clival and clival tumour, removal of, by supra and infratentorial approaches for radical or sub‑total radical excision (intracranial procedure), conjoint surgery, principal surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,420.50 - 39656 Petro‑clival and clival tumour, removal of, by supra and infratentorial approaches for radical or sub‑total radical excision (intracranial procedure), conjoint surgery, co‑surgeon (H) (Assist.) 2,565.30 - 39658 Tumour involving the clivus, radical or sub‑total radical excision of, involving transoral or transmaxillary approach (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,031.65 - 39660 Tumour or vascular lesion of cavernous sinus, radical excision of, involving craniotomy with or without intracranial carotid artery exposure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,031.65 - 39662 Tumour or vascular lesion of foramen magnum, radical excision of, via transcondylar or far lateral suboccipital approach (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,031.65 - 39700 Skull tumour, benign or malignant, excision of, excluding cranioplasty (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 556.60 - 39703 Intracranial tumour, cyst or other brain tissue, burr‑hole and biopsy of, or drainage of, or both (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 519.00 - 39706 Intracranial tumour, biopsy or decompression of via osteoplastic flap or biopsy and decompression of via osteoplastic flap (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,112.85 - 39709 Craniotomy for removal of glioma, metastatic carcinoma or another tumour in cerebrum, cerebellum or brain stem—other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,586.75 - 39712 Craniotomy for removal of meningioma, pinealoma, cranio‑pharyngioma, intraventricular tumour or another intracranial tumour—other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,865.00 - 39715 Pituitary tumour, removal of, by transcranial or transphenoidal approach (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,985.30 - 39718 Arachnoidal cyst, craniotomy for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 872.30 - 39721 Craniotomy, involving osteoplastic flap, for re‑opening post‑operatively for haemorrhage, swelling, etc. (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 797.10 - 39800 Aneurysm, clipping or reinforcement of sac (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,857.55 - 39803 Intracranial arteriovenous malformation, excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,857.55 - 39806 Aneurysm, or arteriovenous malformation, intracranial proximal artery clipping of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,285.75 - 39812 Intracranial aneurysm or arteriovenous fistula, ligation of cervical vessel or vessels (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 631.75 - 39815 Carotid‑cavernous fistula, obliteration of—combined cervical and intracranial procedure (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,827.25 - 39818 Extracranial to intracranial bypass using superficial temporal artery (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,827.25 - 39821 Extracranial to intracranial bypass using saphenous vein graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,169.75 - 39900 Intracranial infection, drainage of, via burr‑hole—including burr‑hole (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 519.00 - 39903 Intracranial abscess, excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,586.75 - 39906 Osteomyelitis of skull or removal of infected bone flap, craniectomy for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 797.10 - 40000 Ventriculo‑cisternostomy (Torkildsen’s operation) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 917.40 - 40003 Cranial or cisternal shunt diversion, insertion of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 917.40 - 40006 Lumbar shunt diversion, insertion of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 721.95 - 40009 Cranial, cisternal or lumbar shunt, revision or removal of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 526.40 - 40012 Third ventriculostomy (open or endoscopic) with or without endoscopic septum pellucidotomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,030.20 - 40015 Subtemporal decompression (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 638.65 - 40018 Lumbar cerebrospinal fluid drain, insertion of (Anaes.) 159.40 - 40100 Meningocele, excision and closure of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 691.75 - 40103 Myelomeningocele, excision and closure of, including skin flaps or Z plasty, if performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,015.25 - 40106 Arnold‑Chiari malformation, decompression of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,030.20 - 40109 Encephalocoele, excision and closure of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,112.85 - 40112 Tethered cord, release of, including lipomeningocele or diastematomyelia (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,428.75 - 40115 Craniostenosis, operation for—single suture (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 721.95 - 40118 Craniostenosis, operation for—more than one suture (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 955.00 - 40600 Cranioplasty, reconstructive (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 955.00 - 40700 Corpus callosum, anterior section of, for epilepsy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,744.65 - 40701 Vagus nerve stimulation therapy through stimulation of the left vagus nerve, subcutaneous placement of electrical pulse generator, for:(a) management of refractory generalised epilepsy; or(b) treatment of refractory focal epilepsy not suitable for resective epilepsy surgery(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 340.60 - 40702 Vagus nerve stimulation therapy through stimulation of the left vagus nerve, surgical repositioning or removal of electrical pulse generator inserted for:(a) management of refractory generalised epilepsy; or(b) treatment of refractory focal epilepsy not suitable for resective epilepsy surgery(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 159.40 - 40703 Corticectomy, topectomy or partial lobectomy for epilepsy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,466.30 - 40704 Vagus nerve stimulation therapy through stimulation of the left vagus nerve, surgical placement of lead, including connection of lead to left vagus nerve and intra‑operative test stimulation, for:(a) management of refractory generalised epilepsy; or(b) treatment of refractory focal epilepsy not suitable for resective epilepsy surgery(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 674.15 - 40705 Vagus nerve stimulation therapy through stimulation of the left vagus nerve, surgical repositioning or removal of lead attached to left vagus nerve for:(a) management of refractory generalised epilepsy; or(b) treatment of refractory focal epilepsy not suitable for resective epilepsy surgery(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 605.35 - 40706 Hemispherectomy for intractable epilepsy (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,143.10 - 40707 Vagus nerve stimulation therapy through stimulation of the left vagus nerve, electrical analysis and programming of vagus nerve stimulation therapy device using external wand, for:(a) management of refractory generalised epilepsy; or(b) treatment of refractory focal epilepsy not suitable for resective epilepsy surgery 189.70 - 40708 Vagus nerve stimulation therapy through stimulation of the left vagus nerve, surgical replacement of battery in electrical pulse generator inserted for:(a) management of refractory generalised epilepsy; or(b) treatment of refractory focal epilepsy not suitable for resective epilepsy surgery(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 340.60 - 40709 Burr‑hole placement of intracranial depth or surface electrodes (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 519.00 - 40712 Intracranial electrode placement via craniotomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,045.20 - 40800 Stereotactic anatomical localisation, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) (Assist.) 638.65 - 40801 Functional stereotactic procedure, including computer assisted anatomical localisation, physiological localisation and lesion production in the basal ganglia, brain stem or deep white matter tracts, other than a service associated with deep brain stimulation for Parkinson’s disease, essential tremor or dystonia (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,745.80 - 40803 Intracranial stereotactic procedure by any method, other than a service to which item 40800 or 40801 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,195.70 - 40850 Deep brain stimulation (unilateral) functional stereotactic procedure, including computer assisted anatomical localisation, physiological localisation including twist drill, burr hole craniotomy or craniectomy and insertion of electrodes for the treatment of:(a) Parkinson’s disease, if the patient’s response to medical therapy is not sustained and is accompanied by unacceptable motor fluctuations; or(b) essential tremor or dystonia, if the patient’s symptoms cause severe disability(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,264.45 - 40851 Deep brain stimulation (bilateral) functional stereotactic procedure, including computer assisted anatomical localisation, physiological localisation including twist drill, burr hole craniotomy or craniectomy and insertion of electrodes for the treatment of:(a) Parkinson’s disease, if the patient’s response to medical therapy is not sustained and is accompanied by unacceptable motor fluctuations; or(b) essential tremor or dystonia, if the patient’s symptoms cause severe disability(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,963.00 - 40852 Deep brain stimulation (unilateral) subcutaneous placement of neuro‑stimulator receiver or pulse generator for the treatment of:(a) Parkinson’s disease, if the patient’s response to medical therapy is not sustained and is accompanied by unacceptable motor fluctuations; or(b) essential tremor or dystonia, if the patient’s symptoms cause severe disability(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 340.60 - 40854 Deep brain stimulation (unilateral) revision or removal of brain electrode for the treatment of:(a) Parkinson’s disease, if the patient’s response to medical therapy is not sustained and is accompanied by unacceptable motor fluctuations; or(b) essential tremor or dystonia, if the patient’s symptoms cause severe disability(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 526.40 - 40856 Deep brain stimulation (unilateral) removal or replacement of neurostimulator receiver or pulse generator for the treatment of:(a) Parkinson’s disease, if the patient’s response to medical therapy is not sustained and is accompanied by unacceptable motor fluctuations; or(b) essential tremor or dystonia, if the patient’s symptoms cause severe disability(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 255.45 - 40858 Deep brain stimulation (unilateral) placement, removal or replacement of extension lead for the treatment of:(a) Parkinson’s disease, if the patient’s response to medical therapy is not sustained and is accompanied by unacceptable motor fluctuations; or(b) essential tremor or dystonia, if the patient’s symptoms cause severe disability(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 526.40 - 40860 Deep brain stimulation (unilateral) target localisation incorporating anatomical and physiological techniques, including intra‑operative clinical evaluation, for the insertion of a single neurostimulation wire for the treatment of:(a) Parkinson’s disease, if the patient’s response to medical therapy is not sustained and is accompanied by unacceptable motor fluctuations; or(b) essential tremor or dystonia if the patient’s symptoms cause severe disability(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,022.70 - 40862 Deep brain stimulation (unilateral) electronic analysis and programming of neurostimulator pulse generator for the treatment of:(a) Parkinson’s disease, if the patient’s response to medical therapy is not sustained and is accompanied by unacceptable motor fluctuations; or(b) essential tremor or dystonia, if the patient’s symptoms cause severe disability(Anaes.) 189.70 - 40903 Neuroendoscopy, for inspection of an intraventricular lesion, with or without biopsy including burr‑hole (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 554.55 - 40905 Craniotomy, performed in association with items 45767, 45776, 45782 and 45785 for the correction of craniofacial abnormalities (Anaes.) 601.70 - Subgroup 8—ear, nose and throat - 41500 Ear, foreign body (other than ventilating tube) in, removal of, other than by simple syringing (Anaes.) 82.50 - 41503 Ear, removal of foreign body in, involving incision of external auditory canal (Anaes.) 238.80 - 41506 Aural polyp, removal of (Anaes.) 144.00 - 41509 External auditory meatus, surgical removal of keratosis obturans from, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 162.95 - 41512 Meatoplasty involving removal of cartilage or bone or both cartilage and bone, other than a service to which item 41515 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 585.90 - 41515 Meatoplasty involving removal of cartilage or bone or both cartilage and bone, being a service associated with a service to which item 41530, 41548, 41560 or 41563 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 384.55 - 41518 External auditory meatus, removal of exostoses in (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 928.75 - 41521 Correction of auditory canal stenosis, including meatoplasty, with or without grafting (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 988.85 - 41524 Reconstruction of external auditory canal, being a service associated with a service to which items 41557, 41560 and 41563 apply (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 285.70 - 41527 Myringoplasty, trans‑canal approach (Rosen incision) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 587.60 - 41530 Myringoplasty, post‑aural or endaural approach with or without mastoid inspection (H) (Anaes.) 957.30 - 41533 Atticotomy without reconstruction of the bony defect, with or without myringoplasty (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,144.30 - 41536 Atticotomy with reconstruction of the bony defect with or without myringoplasty (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,281.70 - 41539 Ossicular chain reconstruction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,089.90 - 41542 Ossicular chain reconstruction and myringoplasty (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,194.25 - 41545 Mastoidectomy (cortical) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 521.25 - 41548 Obliteration of the mastoid cavity (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 691.75 - 41551 Mastoidectomy, intact wall technique, with myringoplasty (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,593.05 - 41554 Mastoidectomy, intact wall technique, with myringoplasty and ossicular chain reconstruction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,876.95 - 41557 Mastoidectomy (radical or modified radical) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,089.90 - 41560 Mastoidectomy (radical or modified radical) and myringoplasty (H) (Anaes.) 1,194.25 - 41563 Mastoidectomy (radical or modified radical), myringoplasty and ossicular chain reconstruction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,478.40 - 41564 Mastoidectomy (radical or modified radical), obliteration of the mastoid cavity, blind sac closure of external auditory canal and obliteration of eustachian tube (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,911.80 - 41566 Revision of mastoidectomy (radical, modified radical or intact wall), including myringoplasty (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,089.90 - 41569 Decompression of facial nerve in its mastoid portion (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,194.25 - 41572 Labyrinthotomy or destruction of labyrinth (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,033.20 - 41575 Cerebello‑pontine angle tumour, removal of by 2 surgeons operating conjointly, by transmastoid, translabyrinthine or retromastoid approach—transmastoid, translabyrinthine or retromastoid procedure (including after‑care) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,435.70 - 41576 Cerebello‑pontine angle tumour, removal of, by transmastoid, translabyrinthine or retromastoid approach (intracranial procedure) (including after‑care) other than a service to which item 41578 or 41579 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,653.60 - 41578 Cerebello‑pontine angle tumour, removal of, by transmastoid, translabyrinthine or retromastoid approach (intracranial procedure)—conjoint surgery, principal surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,435.70 - 41579 Cerebello‑pontine angle tumour, removal of, by transmastoid, translabyrinthine or retromastoid approach (intracranial procedure)—conjoint surgery, co‑surgeon (H) (Assist.) 1,826.75 - 41581 Tumour involving infra‑emporal fossa, removal of, involving craniotomy and radical excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,801.55 - 41584 Partial temporal bone resection for removal of tumour involving mastoidectomy with or without decompression of facial nerve (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,922.65 - 41587 Total temporal bone resection for removal of tumour (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,618.60 - 41590 Endolymphatic sac, transmastoid decompression with or without drainage of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,194.25 - 41593 Translabyrinthine vestibular nerve section (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,556.50 - 41596 Retrolabyrinthine vestibular nerve section or cochlear nerve section, or both (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,739.50 - 41599 Internal auditory meatus, exploration by middle cranial fossa approach with cranial nerve decompression (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,739.50 - 41603 Osseo‑integration procedure—implantation of titanium fixture for use with implantable bone conduction hearing system device, in a patient:(a) with a permanent or long term hearing loss; and(b) unable to utilise conventional air or bone conduction hearing aid for medical or audiological reasons; and(c) with bone conduction thresholds that accord with recognised surgical criteria for the implantable bone conduction hearing system devices;other than a service associated with a service to which item 41554, 45794 or 45797 applies 503.85 - 41604 Osseo‑integration procedure—fixation of transcutaneous abutment implantation of titanium fixture for use with implantable bone conduction hearing system device, in a patient:(a) with a permanent or long term hearing loss; and(b) unable to utilise conventional air or bone conduction hearing aid for medical or audiological reasons; and(c) with bone conduction thresholds that accord with recognised surgical criteria for the implantable bone conduction hearing system devices;other than a service associated with a service to which item 41554, 45794 or 45797 applies 186.50 - 41608 Stapedectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,089.90 - 41611 Stapes mobilisation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 701.30 - 41614 Round window surgery including repair of cochleotomy (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,089.90 - 41615 Oval window surgery, including repair of fistula, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,089.90 - 41617 Cochlear implant, insertion of, including mastoidectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,895.20 - 41618 Middle ear implant, partially implantable, insertion of, via mastoidectomy, for patients with:(a) stable sensorineural hearing loss; and(b) outer ear pathology that prevents the use of a conventional hearing aid; and(c) a PTA4 of less than 80 dBHL; and(d) bilateral, symmetrical hearing loss with PTA thresholds in both ears within 20 dBHL (0.5‑4kHz) of each other; and(e) speech perception discrimination of at least 65% correct for word lists with appropriately amplified sound; and(f) a normal middle ear; and(g) normal tympanometry; and(h) on audiometry, an air‑bone gap of less than 10 dBHL (0.5‑4kHz) across all frequencies; and(i) no other inner ear disorders(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,876.95 - 41620 Glomus tumour, transtympanic removal of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 824.55 - 41623 Glomus tumour, transmastoid removal of, including mastoidectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,194.25 - 41626 Abscess or inflammation of middle ear, operation for (excluding after‑care) (Anaes.) 144.00 - 41629 Middle ear, exploration of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 521.25 - 41632 Middle ear, insertion of tube for drainage of (including myringotomy) (Anaes.) 238.80 - 41635 Clearance of middle ear for granuloma, cholesteatoma and polyp, one or more, with or without myringoplasty (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,144.30 - 41638 Clearance of middle ear for granuloma, cholesteatoma and polyp, one or more, with or without myringoplasty with ossicular chain reconstruction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,428.35 - 41641 Perforation of tympanum, cauterisation or diathermy of (Anaes.) 47.45 - 41644 Excision of rim of eardrum perforation, other than a service associated with myringoplasty (Anaes.) 142.80 - 41647 Ear toilet requiring use of operating microscope and microinspection of tympanic membrane with or without general anaesthesia (Anaes.) 109.90 - 41650 Tympanic membrane, microinspection of one or both ears under general anaesthesia, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 109.90 - 41653 Examination of nasal cavity or post‑nasal space or nasal cavity and post‑nasal space, under general anaesthesia, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 71.95 - 41656 Nasal haemorrhage, posterior, arrest of, with posterior nasal packing with or without cauterisation and with or without anterior pack (excluding after‑care) (Anaes.) 122.85 - 41659 Nose, removal of foreign body in, other than by simple probing (Anaes.) 77.55 - 41662 Nasal polyp or polypi (simple), removal of 82.50 - 41668 Nasal polyp or polypi, removal of (H) (Anaes.) 219.95 - 41671 Nasal septum, septoplasty, submucous resection or closure of septal perforation (H) (Anaes.) 483.25 - 41672 Nasal septum, reconstruction of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 602.85 - 41674 Cauterisation (other than by chemical means) or cauterisation by chemical means when performed under general anaesthesia or diathermy of septum or turbinates—one or more of these procedures (including any consultation on the same occasion) other than a service associated with another operation on the nose (Anaes.) 100.50 - 41677 Nasal haemorrhage, arrest of during an episode of epistaxis by cauterisation or nasal cavity packing or both (Anaes.) 90.00 - 41683 Division of nasal adhesions, with or without stenting other than a service associated with another operation on the nose and not performed during the post‑operative period of a nasal operation (Anaes.) 117.20 - 41686 Dislocation of turbinate or turbinates, one or both sides, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 71.95 - 41689 Turbinectomy or turbinectomies, partial or total, unilateral (H) (Anaes.) 136.50 - 41692 Turbinates, submucous resection of, unilateral (H) (Anaes.) 178.05 - 41698 Maxillary antrum, proof puncture and lavage of (Anaes.) 32.55 - 41701 Maxillary antrum, proof puncture and lavage of—under general anaesthesia, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) 91.90 - 41704 Maxillary antrum, lavage of—each attendance at which the procedure is performed, including any associated consultation (Anaes.) 36.30 - 41707 Maxillary artery, transantral ligation of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 448.55 - 41710 Antrostomy (radical) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 521.25 - 41713 Antrostomy (radical) with transantral ethmoidectomy or transantral vidian neurectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 606.50 - 41716 Antrum, intranasal operation on or removal of foreign body from (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 295.70 - 41719 Antrum, drainage of, through tooth socket (Anaes.) 117.55 - 41722 Oro‑antral fistula, plastic closure of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 587.60 - 41725 Ethmoidal artery or arteries, transorbital ligation of (unilateral) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 448.55 - 41728 Lateral rhinotomy with removal of tumour (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 897.30 - 41729 Dermoid of nose, excision of, with intranasal extension (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 568.65 - 41731 Fronto‑nasal ethmoidectomy by external approach with or without sphenoidectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 777.10 - 41734 Radical fronto‑ethmoidectomy with osteoplastic flap (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,014.05 - 41737 Frontal sinus, or ethmoidal sinuses on the one side, intranasal operation on (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 483.25 - 41740 Frontal sinus, catheterisation of (H) (Anaes.) 58.80 - 41743 Frontal sinus, trephine of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 337.45 - 41746 Frontal sinus, radical obliteration of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 777.10 - 41749 Ethmoidal sinuses, external operation on (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 606.50 - 41752 Sphenoidal sinus, intranasal operation on (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 295.70 - 41755 Eustachian tube, catheterisation of (Anaes.) 46.50 - 41764 Nasendoscopy or sinoscopy or fibreoptic examination of nasopharynx and larynx, one or more of these procedures, unilateral or bilateral examination of (Anaes.) 122.85 - 41767 Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma, removal of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 737.00 - 41770 Pharyngeal pouch, removal of, with or without cricopharyngeal myotomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 701.30 - 41773 Pharyngeal pouch, endoscopic resection of (Dohlman’s operation) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 587.60 - 41776 Cricopharyngeal myotomy with or without inversion of pharyngeal pouch (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 585.90 - 41779 Pharyngotomy (lateral), with or without total excision of tongue (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 701.30 - 41782 Partial pharyngectomy via pharyngotomy (Anaes.) (Assist.) 952.10 - 41785 Partial pharyngectomy via pharyngotomy with partial or total glossectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,181.15 - 41786 Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty, with or without tonsillectomy, by any means (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 737.00 - 41787 Uvulectomy and partial palatectomy with laser incision of the palate, with or without tonsillectomy, one or more stages, including any revision procedures within 12 months (Anaes.) (Assist.) 568.65 - 41789 Tonsils or tonsils and adenoids, removal of, in a person aged less than 12 years (including any examination of the postnasal space and nasopharynx and the infiltration of local anaesthetic), not being a service to which item 41764 applies (H) (Anaes.) 295.70 - 41793 Tonsils or tonsils and adenoids, removal of, in a person 12 years of age or over (including any examination of the postnasal space and nasopharynx and the infiltration of local anaesthetic), not being a service to which item 41764 applies (H) (Anaes.) 371.50 - 41797 Tonsils or tonsils and adenoids, arrest of haemorrhage requiring general anaesthesia, following removal of (H) (Anaes.) 144.00 - 41801 Adenoids, removal of (including any examination of the postnasal space and nasopharynx and the infiltration of local anaesthetic), not being a service to which item 41764 applies (H) (Anaes.) 162.95 - 41804 Lingual tonsil or lateral pharyngeal bands, removal of (H) (Anaes.) 90.00 - 41807 Peritonsillar abscess (quinsy), incision of (Anaes.) 70.10 - 41810 Uvulotomy or uvulectomy (Anaes.) 35.60 - 41813 Vallecular or pharyngeal cysts, removal of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 356.35 - 41816 Oesophagoscopy (with rigid oesophagoscope) (Anaes.) 185.60 - 41822 Oesophagoscopy (with rigid oesophagoscope) with biopsy (H) (Anaes.) 238.80 - 41825 Oesophagoscopy (with rigid oesophagoscope) with removal of foreign body (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 356.35 - 41828 Oesophageal stricture, dilatation of, without oesophagoscopy (Anaes.) 52.20 - 41831 Oesophagus, endoscopic pneumatic dilatation of, for treatment of achalasia (Anaes.) (Assist.) 357.00 - 41832 Oesophagus, balloon dilatation of, using interventional imaging techniques (Anaes.) 228.50 - 41834 Laryngectomy (total) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,289.15 - 41837 Vertical hemi‑laryngectomy including tracheostomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,236.05 - 41840 Supraglottic laryngectomy including tracheostomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,519.80 - 41843 Laryngopharyngectomy or primary restoration of alimentary continuity after laryngopharyngectomy using stomach or bowel (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,336.45 - 41846 Larynx, direct examination of the supraglottic, glottic and subglottic regions, other than a service associated with another procedure on the larynx or with the administration of a general anaesthetic (Anaes.) 185.60 - 41855 Microlaryngoscopy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 288.20 - 41858 Microlaryngoscopy with removal of juvenile papillomata (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 494.15 - 41861 Microlaryngoscopy with removal of benign lesions of the larynx by laser surgery (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 604.30 - 41864 Microlaryngoscopy with removal of tumour (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 407.50 - 41867 Microlaryngoscopy with arytenoidectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 613.40 - 41868 Laryngeal web, division of, using microlarygoscopic techniques (H) (Anaes.) 388.70 - 41870 Injection of vocal cord by teflon, fat, collagen or gelfoam (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 454.85 - 41873 Larynx, fractured, operation for (Anaes.) (Assist.) 587.60 - 41876 Larynx, external operation on, or laryngofissure, with or without cordectomy (Anaes.) (Assist.) 587.60 - 41879 Laryngoplasty or tracheoplasty, including tracheostomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 952.10 - 41880 Tracheostomy by a percutaneous technique using sequential dilatation or partial splitting method to allow insertion of a cuffed tracheostomy tube (H) (Anaes.) 254.15 - 41881 Tracheostomy by open exposure of the trachea, including separation of the strap muscles or division of the thyroid isthmus, if performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 401.75 - 41884 Cricothyrostomy by direct stab or Seldinger technique, using mini tracheostomy device (H) (Anaes.) 91.05 - 41885 Trache‑oesophageal fistula, formation of, as a secondary procedure following laryngectomy, including associated endoscopic procedures (Anaes.) (Assist.) 287.90 - 41886 Trachea, removal of foreign body in (Anaes.) 178.05 - 41889 Bronchoscopy, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 178.05 - 41892 Bronchoscopy with one or more endobronchial biopsies or other diagnostic or therapeutic procedures (Anaes.) 235.05 - 41895 Bronchus, removal of foreign body in (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 367.75 - 41898 Fibreoptic bronchoscopy with one or more transbronchial lung biopsies, with or without bronchial or broncho‑alveolar lavage, with or without the use of interventional imaging (Anaes.) (Assist.) 256.95 - 41901 Endoscopic laser resection of endobronchial tumours for relief of obstruction including any associated endoscopic procedures (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 604.30 - 41904 Bronchoscopy with dilatation of tracheal stricture (Anaes.) 246.50 - 41905 Trachea or bronchus, dilatation of stricture and endoscopic insertion of stent (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 453.35 - 41907 Nasal septum button, insertion of (Anaes.) 122.85 - 41910 Duct of major salivary gland, transposition of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 390.25 - Subgroup 9—Ophthalmology - 42503 Ophthalmological examination under general anaesthesia, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) 102.50 - 42506 Eye, enucleation of, with or without sphere implant (Anaes.) (Assist.) 481.25 - 42509 Eye, enucleation of, with insertion of integrated implant (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 609.05 - 42510 Eye, enucleation of, with insertion of hydroxy apatite implant or similar coralline implant (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 702.05 - 42512 Globe, evisceration of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 481.25 - 42515 Globe, evisceration of, and insertion of intrascleral ball or cartilage (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 609.05 - 42518 Anophthalmic orbit, insertion of cartilage or artificial implant as a delayed procedure, or removal of implant from socket, or placement of a motility integrating peg by drilling into existing orbital implant (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 353.35 - 42521 Anophthalmic socket, treatment of, by insertion of a wired‑in conformer, integrated implant or dermofat graft, as a secondary procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,203.20 - 42524 Orbit, skin graft to, as a delayed procedure (Anaes.) 204.60 - 42527 Contracted socket, reconstruction including mucous membrane grafting and stent mould (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 406.05 - 42530 Orbit, exploration with or without biopsy, requiring removal of bone (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 631.75 - 42533 Orbit, exploration of, with drainage or biopsy not requiring removal of bone (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 406.05 - 42536 Orbit, exenteration of, with or without skin graft and with or without temporalis muscle transplant (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 834.60 - 42539 Orbit, exploration of, with removal of tumour or foreign body, requiring removal of bone (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,188.20 - 42542 Orbit, exploration of anterior aspect with removal of tumour or foreign body (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 503.85 - 42543 Orbit, exploration of retrobulbar aspect with removal of tumour or foreign body (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 883.85 - 42545 Orbit, decompression of, for dysthyroid eye disease, by fenestration of 2 or more walls, or by the removal of intraorbital peribulbar and retrobulbar fat from each quadrant of the orbit, one eye (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,278.35 - 42548 Optic nerve meninges, incision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 759.40 - 42551 Eye, penetrating wound or rupture of, not involving intraocular structures—repair involving suture of cornea or sclera, or both, other than a service to which item 42632 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 631.75 - 42554 Eye, penetrating wound or rupture of, with incarceration or prolapse of uveal tissue—repair (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 737.00 - 42557 Eye, penetrating wound or rupture of, with incarceration of lens or vitreous—repair (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,030.20 - 42563 Intraocular foreign body, removal from anterior segment (Anaes.) (Assist.) 519.00 - 42569 Intraocular foreign body, removal from posterior segment (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,030.20 - 42572 Orbital abscess or cyst, drainage of (Anaes.) 117.35 - 42573 Dermoid, periorbital, excision of, on a person 10 years of age or over (Anaes.) 227.45 - 42574 Dermoid, orbital, excision of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 483.25 - 42575 Tarsal cyst, extirpation of (Anaes.) 82.75 - 42576 Dermoid, periorbital, excision of, on a person under 10 years of age (Anaes.) 295.70 - 42581 Ectropion or entropion, tarsal cauterisation of (Anaes.) 117.35 - 42584 Tarsorrhaphy (Anaes.) (Assist.) 276.80 - 42587 Trichiasis (due to causes other than trachoma), treatment of by cryotherapy, laser or electrolysis—each eyelid (Anaes.) 51.95 - 42588 Trichiasis (due to trachoma), treatment of by cryotherapy, laser or electrolysis—each eyelid (Anaes.) 51.95 - 42590 Canthoplasty, medial or lateral (Anaes.) (Assist.) 338.35 - 42593 Lacrimal gland, excision of palpebral lobe (H) (Anaes.) 204.60 - 42596 Lacrimal sac, excision of, or operation on (Anaes.) (Assist.) 503.85 - 42599 Lacrimal canalicular system, establishment of patency by closed operation using silicone tubes or similar, one eye (Anaes.) (Assist.) 631.75 - 42602 Lacrimal canalicular system, establishment of patency by open operation, one eye (Anaes.) (Assist.) 631.75 - 42605 Lacrimal canaliculus, immediate repair of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 466.10 - 42608 Lacrimal drainage by insertion of glass tube, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) (Assist.) 300.75 - 42610 Nasolacrimal tube (unilateral), removal or replacement of, or lacrimal passages, probing for obstruction, unilateral, with or without lavage—under general anaesthesia (Anaes.) 96.25 - 42611 Nasolacrimal tube (bilateral), removal or replacement of, or lacrimal passages, probing for obstruction, bilateral, with or without lavage—under general anaesthesia (Anaes.) 144.35 - 42614 Nasolacrimal tube (unilateral), removal or replacement of, or lacrimal passages, probing to establish patency of, or probing for obstruction (or both), unilateral, including lavage, other than a service associated with a service to which item 42610 applies (excluding after‑care) 48.30 - 42615 Nasolacrimal tube (bilateral), removal or replacement of, or lacrimal passages, probing for obstruction, bilateral, including lavage, other than a service associated with a service to which item 42611 applies (excluding after‑care) 72.25 - 42617 Punctum snip operation (Anaes.) 136.95 - 42620 Punctum, occlusion of, by use of a plug (Anaes.) 52.65 - 42622 Punctum, permanent occlusion of, by use of electrical cautery (Anaes.) 82.75 - 42623 Dacryocystorhinostomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 699.45 - 42626 Dacryocystorhinostomy if a previous dacryocystorhinostomy has been performed (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,128.05 - 42629 Conjunctivorhinostomy including dacryocystorhinostomy and fashioning of conjunctival flaps (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 849.70 - 42632 Conjunctival peritomy or repair of corneal laceration by conjunctival flap (Anaes.) 117.35 - 42635 Corneal perforations, sealing of, with tissue adhesive (Anaes.) (Assist.) 300.75 - 42638 Conjunctival graft over cornea (Anaes.) (Assist.) 376.00 - 42641 Autoconjunctival transplant, or mucous membrane graft (Anaes.) (Assist.) 488.75 - 42644 Cornea or sclera, complete removal of embedded foreign body from—not more than once on the same day by the same practitioner (excluding after‑care) (Anaes.) 72.15 - 42647 Corneal scars, removal of, by partial keratectomy, other than a service associated with a service to which item 42686 applies (Anaes.) 204.60 - 42650 Cornea, epithelial debridement for corneal ulcer or corneal erosion (excluding after‑care) (Anaes.) 72.15 - 42651 Cornea, epithelial debridement for eliminating band keratopathy (Anaes.) 160.80 - 42652 Corneal collagen cross linking, on a person with a corneal ectatic disorder, with evidence of progression—per eye (Anaes.) 1,200.00 - 42653 Cornea, transplantation of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,307.75 - 42656 Cornea, transplantation of, second and subsequent procedures (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,669.45 - 42662 Sclera, transplantation of, full thickness, including collection of donor material (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 902.30 - 42665 Sclera, transplantation of, superficial or lamellar, including collection of donor material (Anaes.) (Assist.) 601.65 - 42667 Running corneal suture, manipulation of, performed within 4 months of corneal grafting, to reduce astigmatism, if a reduction of 2 dioptres of astigmatism is obtained, including any associated consultation 141.95 - 42668 Corneal sutures, removal of, not earlier than 6 weeks after operation requiring use of slit lamp or operating microscope (Anaes.) 75.30 - 42672 Corneal incisions, to correct corneal astigmatism of more than 11/2 diopters following anterior segment surgery, including appropriate measurements and calculations, performed as an independent procedure (Anaes.) (Assist.) 902.30 - 42673 Additional corneal incisions, to correct corneal astigmatism of more than 11/2 diopters, including appropriate measurements and calculations, performed in conjunction with other anterior segment surgery (Anaes.) (Assist.) 451.10 - 42676 Conjunctiva, biopsy of, as an independent procedure 115.70 - 42677 Conjunctiva, cautery of, including treatment of pannus—each attendance at which treatment is given including any associated consultation (Anaes.) 60.95 - 42680 Conjunctiva, cryotherapy to, for melanotic lesions or similar using CO2 or N20 (Anaes.) 300.75 - 42683 Conjunctival cysts, removal of (H) (Anaes.) 120.35 - 42686 Pterygium, removal of (Anaes.) 273.65 - 42689 Pinguecula, removal of, other than a service associated with the fitting of contact lenses (Anaes.) 117.35 - 42692 Limbic tumour, removal of, excluding Pterygium (Anaes.) (Assist.) 276.80 - 42695 Limbic tumour, excision of, requiring keratectomy or sclerectomy, excluding Pterygium (Anaes.) (Assist.) 451.10 - 42698 Lens extraction, excluding surgery performed to correct a refractive error, other than anisometropia that exceeds 3 dioptres and develops after the removal of cataract in the first eye (Anaes.) 594.75 - 42701 Intraocular lens, insertion of, excluding surgery performed to correct a refractive error, other than anisometropia that exceeds 3 dioptres and develops after the removal of cataract in the first eye (Anaes.) 331.70 - 42702 Lens extraction and insertion of intraocular lens, excluding surgery performed to correct a refractive error, other than anisometropia that exceeds 3 dioptres and develops after the removal of cataract in the first eye (Anaes.) 760.65 - 42703 Intraocular lens or iris prosthesis, insertion of, into the posterior chamber with fixation to the iris or sclera (Anaes.) (Assist.) 572.05 - 42704 Intraocular lens, removal or repositioning of by open operation—other than a service associated with a service to which item 42701 applies (Anaes.) 466.10 - 42707 Intraocular lens, removal of and replacement with a different lens, excluding surgery performed to correct a refractive error, other than anisometropia that exceeds 3 dioptres and develops after the removal of cataract in the first eye (Anaes.) 797.10 - 42710 Intraocular lens, removal of, and replacement with a lens inserted into the posterior chamber and fixated to the iris or sclera (Anaes.) (Assist.) 902.30 - 42713 Iris suturing, McCannell technique or similar, for fixation of intraocular lens or repair of iris defect (Anaes.) (Assist.) 376.00 - 42716 Cataract, juvenile, removal of, including subsequent needlings (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,195.70 - 42719 Either or both of the following, via a limbal approach by any method:(a) removal of capsular or lens material;(b) removal of vitreous;other than a service associated with a service to which item 42698, 42702, 42716, 42725 or 42731 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 519.00 - 42725 Vitrectomy via pars plana sclerotomy, including one or more of the following:(a) removal of vitreous;(b) division of vitreous bands;(c) removal of epiretinal membranes;(d) capsulotomy(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,338.45 - 42731 Limbal or pars plana lensectomy combined with vitrectomy, other than a service associated with item 42698, 42702, 42719 or 42725 (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,519.00 - 42734 Capsulotomy, other than by laser, and other than a service associated with a service to which item 42725 or 42731 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 300.75 - 42738 Paracentesis of anterior chamber or vitreous cavity, or both, for the injection of therapeutic substances, or the removal of aqueous or vitreous humours for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes, one or more of, as an independent procedure 300.75 - 42739 Paracentesis of anterior chamber or vitreous cavity, or both, for the injection of therapeutic substances, or the removal of aqueous or vitreous humours for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes, one or more of, as an independent procedure, for a patient requiring anaesthetic services (Anaes.) 300.75 - 42740 Intravitreal injection of therapeutic substances, or the removal of vitreous humour for diagnostic purposes, one or more of, as a procedure associated with other intraocular surgery (Anaes.) 300.75 - 42741 Posterior juxtascleral depot injection of a therapeutic substance, for the treatment of subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation due to age‑related macular degeneration, one or more of (Anaes.) 300.75 - 42743 Anterior chamber, irrigation of blood from, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) (Assist.) 631.75 - 42744 Needle revision of glaucoma filtration bleb, following glaucoma filtering procedure (Anaes.) 300.55 - 42746 Glaucoma, filtering operation for, if conservative therapies have failed, are likely to fail, or are contraindicated (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 955.00 - 42749 Glaucoma, filtering operation for, if previous filtering operation has been performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,195.70 - 42752 Glaucoma, insertion of drainage device incorporating an extraocular reservoir for, such as a Molteno device (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,338.45 - 42755 Glaucoma, removal of drainage device incorporating an extraocular reservoir for, such as a Molteno device (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 165.45 - 42758 Goniotomy for the treatment of primary congenital glaucoma, excluding the minimally invasive implantation of glaucoma drainage devices (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 699.45 - 42761 Division of anterior or posterior synechiae, as an independent procedure, other than by laser (Anaes.) (Assist.) 519.00 - 42764 Iridectomy (including excision of tumour of iris) or iridotomy, as an independent procedure, other than by laser (Anaes.) (Assist.) 519.00 - 42767 Tumour, involving ciliary body or ciliary body and iris, excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,090.35 - 42770 Cyclodestructive procedures for the treatment of intractable glaucoma, treatment to one eye, to a maximum of 2 treatments to that eye in a 2 year period (Anaes.) (Assist.) 294.80 - 42773 Detached retina, pneumatic retinopexy for, other than a service associated with a service to which item 42776 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 902.30 - 42776 Detached retina, buckling or resection operation for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,338.45 - 42779 Detached retina, revision of scleral buckling operation for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,669.45 - 42782 Laser trabeculoplasty, for the treatment of glaucoma—each treatment to one eye, to a maximum of 4 treatments to that eye in a 2 year period (Anaes.) (Assist.) 451.10 - 42785 Laser iridotomy—each treatment episode to one eye, to a maximum of 3 treatments to that eye in a 2 year period (Anaes.) (Assist.) 353.35 - 42788 Laser capsulotomy—each treatment episode to one eye, to a maximum of 2 treatments to that eye in a 2 year period—other than a service associated with a service to which item 42702 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 353.35 - 42791 Laser vitreolysis or corticolysis of lens material or fibrinolysis, excluding vitreolysis in the posterior vitreous cavity—each treatment to one eye, to a maximum of 3 treatments to that eye in a 2 year period (Anaes.) (Assist.) 353.35 - 42794 Division of suture by laser following glaucoma filtration surgery, each treatment to one eye, to a maximum of 2 treatments to that eye in a 2 year period (Anaes.) 67.65 - 42801 Episcleral radioactive plaque (Ruthenium 106 or Iodine 125), for the treatment of choroidal melanomas, insertion of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,049.70 - 42802 Episcleral radioactive plaque (Ruthenium 106 or Iodine 125), for the treatment of choroidal melanomas, removal of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 524.70 - 42805 Tantalum markers, surgical insertion to the sclera to localise the tumour base and to assist in planning radiotherapy of choroidal melanomas—one or more (Anaes.) 586.50 - 42806 Iris tumour, laser photocoagulation of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 353.35 - 42807 Photomydriasis, laser 355.80 - 42808 Laser peripheral iridoplasty 355.80 - 42809 Retina, photocoagulation of, other than a service associated with photodynamic therapy with verteporfin (Anaes.) (Assist.) 451.10 - 42810 Phototherapeutic keratectomy, by laser, for corneal scarring or disease, excluding surgery for refractive error (Anaes.) 567.70 - 42811 Transpupillary thermotherapy, for choroidal and retinal tumours or vascular malformations (Anaes.) 451.10 - 42812 Removal of scleral buckling material, from an eye having undergone previous scleral buckling surgery (Anaes.) 165.45 - 42815 Vitreous cavity, removal of silicone oil or other liquid vitreous substitutes from, during a procedure other than that in which the vitreous substitute is inserted (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 631.75 - 42818 Retina, cryotherapy to, as an independent procedure, or when performed in association with item 42770 or 42809 (Anaes.) 586.50 - 42821 Ocular transillumination, for the diagnosis and measurement of intraocular tumours (Anaes.) 90.35 - 42824 Retrobulbar injection of alcohol or other drug, as an independent procedure 69.90 - 42833 Squint, operation for, on one or both eyes, the operation involving a total of one or 2 muscles on a patient aged 15 years or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 586.50 - 42836 Squint, operation for, on one or both eyes, the operation involving a total of one or 2 muscles:(a) on a patient aged 14 years or under; or(b) if the patient has had previous squint, retinal or extra ocular operations on the eye or eyes; or(c) on a patient with concurrent thyroid eye disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 729.45 - 42839 Squint, operation for, on one or both eyes, the operation involving a total of 3 or more muscles on a patient aged 15 years or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 699.45 - 42842 Squint, operation for, on one or both eyes, the operation involving a total of 3 or more muscles:(a) on a patient aged 14 years or under; or(b) if the patient has had previous squint, retinal or extra ocular operations on the eye or eyes; or(c) on a patient with concurrent thyroid eye disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 872.30 - 42845 Readjustment of adjustable sutures, one or both eyes, as an independent procedure following an operation for correction of squint (Anaes.) 189.40 - 42848 Squint, muscle transplant for (Hummelsheim type, or similar operation) on a patient aged 15 years or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 699.45 - 42851 Squint, muscle transplant for (Hummelsheim type, or similar operation) on a patient who:(a) is aged 14 years or under; or(b) has had previous squint, retinal or extra‑ocular operations on his or her eye or eyes; or(c) has concurrent thyroid eye disease (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 872.30 - 42854 Ruptured medial palpebral ligament or ruptured extra‑ocular muscle, repair of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 406.05 - 42857 Resuturing of wound following intraocular procedures with or without excision of prolapsed iris (Anaes.) (Assist.) 406.05 - 42860 Eyelid (upper or lower), scleral or Goretex or other non‑autogenous graft to, with recession of the lid retractors (Anaes.) (Assist.) 902.30 - 42863 Eyelid, recession of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 774.55 - 42866 Entropion or tarsal ectropion, repair of, by tightening, shortening or repair of inferior retractors by open operation across the entire width of the eyelid (Anaes.) (Assist.) 751.85 - 42869 Eyelid closure in facial nerve paralysis, insertion of foreign implant for (Anaes.) (Assist.) 549.00 - 42872 Eyebrow, elevation of, by skin excision, to correct for a reduced field of vision caused by paretic, involutional, or traumatic eyebrow descent/ptosis to a position below the superior orbital rim (Anaes.) 240.70 - 43021 Photodynamic therapy, one eye, including the infusion of vertoporfin continuously through a peripheral vein, using a non‑thermal laser at a wavelength of 689 nm, for the treatment of choroidal neovascularisation 455.05 - 43022 Photodynamic therapy, both eyes, including the infusion of vertoporfin continuously through a peripheral vein, using a non‑thermal laser at a wavelength of 689 nm, for the treatment of choroidal neovascularisation 546.15 - 43023 Infusion of vertoporfin for discontinued photodynamic therapy, if a session of therapy that would have been provided under item 43021 or 43022 has been discontinued on medical grounds 88.50 - Subgroup 10—Operations for osteomyelitis - 43500 Operation on phalanx (for acute osteomyelitis) (H) (Anaes.) 123.35 - 43503 Operation on sternum, clavicle, rib, ulna, radius, carpus, tibia, fibula, tarsus, skull, mandible or maxilla (other than alveolar margins) (for acute osteomyelitis)—one bone (H) (Anaes.) 204.70 - 43506 Operation on humerus or femur (for acute osteomyelitis)—one bone (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 356.35 - 43509 Operation on spine or pelvic bones (for acute osteomyelitis)—one bone (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 356.35 - 43512 Operation on scapula, sternum, clavicle, rib, ulna, radius, metacarpus, carpus, phalanx, tibia, fibula, metatarsus, tarsus, mandible or maxilla (other than alveolar margins) (for chronic osteomyelitis)—one bone or any combination of adjoining bones (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 356.35 - 43515 Operation on humerus or femur (for chronic osteomyelitis)—one bone (Anaes.) (Assist.) 356.35 - 43518 Operation on spine or pelvic bones (for chronic osteomyelitis)—one bone (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 587.60 - 43521 Operation on skull (for chronic osteomyelitis) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 464.50 - 43524 Operation on any combination of adjoining bones, being bones referred to in item 43515, 43518 or 43521 (for chronic osteomyelitis) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 587.60 - Subgroup 11—Paediatric - 43801 Intestinal malrotation with or without volvulus, laparotomy for, not involving bowel resection (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 957.30 - 43804 Intestinal malrotation with or without volvulus, laparotomy for, with bowel resection and anastomosis, with or without formation of stoma (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,019.25 - 43805 Umbilical, epigastric or linea alba hernia, repair of, on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) 356.35 - 43807 Duodenal atresia or stenosis, duodenoduodenostomy or duodenojejunostomy for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,112.00 - 43810 Jejunal atresia, bowel resection and anastomosis for, with or without tapering (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,297.35 - 43813 Meconium ileus, laparotomy for, complicated by one or more of associated volvulus, atresia, intestinal perforation with or without meconium peritonitis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,297.35 - 43816 Ileal atresia, colonic atresia or meconium ileus other than a service associated with a service to which item 43813 applies, laparotomy for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,204.60 - 43819 Aganglionosis Coli, laparotomy for, with or without frozen section biopsies and formation of stoma (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 972.95 - 43822 Anorectal malformation, laparotomy and colostomy for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 972.95 - 43825 Neonatal alimentary obstruction, laparotomy for, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,112.00 - 43828 Acute neonatal necrotising enterocolitis, laparotomy for, with resection, including any anastomoses or stoma formation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,228.55 - 43831 Acute neonatal necrotising enterocolitis, if no definitive procedure is possible, laparotomy for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 957.30 - 43832 Branchial fistula, removal of, on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 652.95 - 43834 Bowel resection for necrotising enterocolitis stricture or strictures, including any anastomoses or stoma formation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,112.00 - 43835 Strangulated, incarcerated or obstructed hernia, repair of, without bowel resection, on a person under 10 years of age (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 677.65 - 43837 Congenital diaphragmatic hernia, repair by thoracic or abdominal approach, with diagnosis confirmed in the first 24 hours of life (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,389.90 - 43838 Diaphragmatic hernia, congenital, repair of, by thoracic or abdominal approach, on a person under 10 years of age, not being a service to which any of items 31569 to 31581 apply (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,244.50 - 43840 Congenital diaphragmatic hernia, repair by thoracic or abdominal approach, diagnosed after the first day of life and before 20 days of age (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,204.60 - 43841 Femoral or inguinal hernia or infantile hydrocele, repair of, on a person under 10 years of age, other than a service to which item 30403 or 43835 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 603.85 - 43843 Oesophageal atresia (with or without repair of tracheo‑oesophageal fistula), complete correction of, other than a service to which item 43846 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,853.35 - 43846 Oesophageal atresia (with or without repair of tracheo‑oesophageal fistula), complete correction of, in infant of birth weight less than 1,500 gms (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,992.30 - 43849 Oesophageal atresia, gastrostomy for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 509.65 - 43852 Oesophageal atresia, thoracotomy for, and division of tracheo‑oesophageal fistula without anastomosis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,621.55 - 43855 Oesophageal atresia, delayed primary anastomosis for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,714.35 - 43858 Oesophageal atresia, cervical oesophagostomy for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 602.25 - 43861 Congenital cystadenomatoid malformation or congenital lobar emphysema, thoracotomy and lung resection for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,668.05 - 43864 Gastroschisis, operation for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,251.05 - 43867 Gastroschisis or exomphalos, secondary operation for, with removal of silo (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 695.00 - 43870 Exomphalos containing small bowel only, operation for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 972.95 - 43873 Exomphalos containing small bowel and other viscera, operation for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,297.35 - 43876 Sacrococcygeal teratoma, excision of, by posterior approach (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,112.00 - 43879 Sacrococcygeal teratoma, excision of, by combined posterior and abdominal approach (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,297.35 - 43882 Cloacal exstrophy, operation for (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,668.05 - 43900 Tracheo‑oesophageal fistula without atresia, division and repair of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,112.00 - 43903 Oesophageal atresia or corrosive oesophageal stricture, oesophageal replacement for, utilising gastric tube, jejunum or colon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,853.35 - 43906 Oesophagus, resection of congenital, anastomic or corrosive stricture and anastomosis, other than a service to which item 43903 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,621.55 - 43909 Tracheomalacia, aortopexy for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,621.55 - 43912 Thoracotomy and excision of one or more of bronchogenic or enterogenous cyst or mediastinal teratoma (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,532.00 - 43915 Eventration, plication of diaphragm for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,158.30 - 43930 Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, pyloromyotomy for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 445.40 - 43933 Idiopathic intussusception, laparotomy and manipulative reduction of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 521.40 - 43936 Intussusception, laparotomy and resection with anastomosis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 972.95 - 43939 Ventral hernia following neonatal closure of exomphalos or gastroschisis, repair of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 741.30 - 43942 Abdominal wall vitello intestinal remnant, excision of (H) (Anaes.) 231.70 - 43945 Patent vitello intestinal duct, excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 972.95 - 43948 Umbilical granuloma, excision of, under general anaesthesia (H) (Anaes.) 139.10 - 43951 Gastro‑oesophageal reflux with or without hiatus hernia, laparotomy and fundoplication for, without gastrostomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 871.30 - 43954 Gastro‑oesophageal reflux with or without hiatus hernia, laparotomy and fundoplication for, with gastrostomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,065.75 - 43957 Gastro‑oesophageal reflux, laparotomy and fundoplication for, with or without hiatus hernia, in child with neurological disease, with gastrostomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,158.30 - 43960 Anorectal malformation, perineal anoplasty of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 407.50 - 43963 Anorectal malformation, posterior sagittal anorectoplasty of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,621.55 - 43966 Anorectal malformation, posterior sagittal anorectoplasty of, with laparotomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,853.35 - 43969 Persistent cloaca, total correction of, with genital repair using posterior sagittal approach, with or without laparotomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,548.35 - 43972 Choledochal cyst, resection of, with one duct anastomosis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,853.35 - 43975 Choledochal cyst, resection of, with 2 duct anastomoses (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,177.70 - 43978 Biliary atresia, portoenterostomy for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,853.35 - 43981 Nephroblastoma, neuroblastoma or other malignant tumour, laparotomy (exploratory), including associated biopsies, if no other intra‑abdominal procedure is performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 509.65 - 43984 Nephroblastoma, radical nephrectomy for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,297.35 - 43987 Neuroblastoma, radical excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,436.40 - 43990 Aganglionosis Coli, definitive resection with pull‑through anastomosis, with or without frozen section biopsies, when aganglionic segment extends to sigmoid colon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,760.75 - 43993 Aganglionosis Coli, definitive resection with pull‑through anastomosis, with or without frozen section biopsies, when aganglionic segment extends into descending or transverse colon with or without resiting of stoma (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,899.65 - 43996 Aganglionosis Coli, total colectomy for total colonic aganglionosis with ileoanal pull‑through, with or without side to side ileocolonic anastomosis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,131.35 - 43999 Aganglionosis Coli, anal sphincterotomy as an independent procedure for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 266.55 - 44101 Rectum, examination of, under general anaesthesia with full thickness biopsy or removal of polyp or similar lesion, on a person under 2 years of age (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 334.05 - 44102 Rectum, examination of, under general anaesthesia with full thickness biopsy or removal of polyp or similar lesion, on a person 2 years of age or over (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 256.95 - 44104 Rectal prolapse, submucosal or perirectal injection for, under general anaesthesia, on a person under 2 years of age (Anaes.) 58.65 - 44105 Rectal prolapse, submucosal or perirectal injection for, under general anaesthesia, on a person 2 years of age or over (Anaes.) 45.10 - 44108 Inguinal hernia repair at age less than 12 months (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 491.45 - 44111 Obstructed or strangulated inguinal hernia, repair of, at age less than 12 months, including orchidopexy when performed (Anaes.) (Assist.) 575.65 - 44114 Inguinal hernia repair at age less than 12 months when orchidopexy also required (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 575.65 - 44130 Lymphadenectomy, for atypical mycobacterial infection or other granulomatous disease (Anaes.) (Assist.) 463.30 - 44133 Torticollis, open division of sternomastoid muscle for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 367.75 - 44136 Ingrown toe nail, operation for, under general anaesthesia (Anaes.) 169.50 Subdivision F—Subgroups 12 and 13 of Group T8 2.45.20  Meaning of amount under clause 2.45.20   In item 44376: amount under clause 2.45.20 means an amount equal to 75% of the fee mentioned for the item relating to an original amputation (any of items 44325 to 44373) of the body part for which the reamputation is performed. 2.45.20A  Meaning of NOSE Scale   In items 45632 to 45650: NOSE Scale means the Nasal Obstruction Symptom Evaluation Scale, developed by Stewart et al, as published in the Otolaryngology‑Head and Neck Surgery, 130: 2, as existing on 1 November 2018. 2.45.21  Meaning of maxilla   In items 45720 to 45752: maxilla includes the zygoma.   - Subgroup 12—Amputations - 44325 Hand, midcarpal or transmetacarpal, amputation of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 295.70 - 44328 Hand, forearm or through arm, amputation of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 356.35 - 44331 Amputation at shoulder (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 587.60 - 44334 Interscapulothoracic amputation (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,194.25 - 44338 one digit of foot, amputation of (Anaes.) 144.00 - 44342 2 digits of one foot, amputation of (H) (Anaes.) 219.95 - 44346 3 digits of one foot, amputation of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 254.00 - 44350 4 digits of one foot, amputation of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 288.20 - 44354 5 digits of one foot, amputation of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 329.80 - 44358 Toe, including metatarsal or part of metatarsal—each toe, amputation of (H) (Anaes.) 183.90 - 44359 One or more toes of one foot, amputation of, including if performed, excision of one or more metatarsal bones of the foot, performed for diabetic or other microvascular disease, excluding after‑care (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 263.95 - 44361 Foot at ankle (Syme, Pirogoff types), amputation of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 356.35 - 44364 Foot, midtarsal or transmetatarsal, amputation of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 295.70 - 44367 Amputation through thigh, at knee or below knee (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 521.95 - 44370 Amputation at hip (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 720.20 - 44373 Hindquarter, amputation of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,478.40 - 44376 Amputation stump, re‑amputation of, to provide adequate skin and muscle cover (Anaes.) (Assist.) Amount under clause 2.45.20 - Subgroup 13—Plastic and reconstructive surgery - 45000 Single stage local muscle flap repair, on eyelid, nose, lip, neck, hand, thumb, finger or genitals—not in association with any of items 31356 to 31376 (Anaes.) 541.35 - 45003 Single stage local myocutaneous flap repair to one defect, simple and small—not in association with any of items 31356 to 31376 (Anaes.) 601.65 - 45006 Single stage large myocutaneous flap repair to one defect (pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, or similar large muscle) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,037.65 - 45009 Single stage local muscle flap repair to one defect, simple and small (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 379.05 - 45012 Single stage large muscle flap repair to one defect (pectoralis major, gastrocnemius, gracilis or similar large muscle) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 635.00 - 45015 Muscle or myocutaneous flap, delay of (H) (Anaes.) 300.75 - 45018 Dermis, dermofat or fascia graft (excluding transfer of fat by injection), if the service is not associated with neurosurgical services for spinal disorders mentioned in any of items 51011 to 51171 (Anaes.) (Assist.) 473.65 - 45019 Full face chemical peel for severely sun‑damaged skin, if:(a) the damage affects at least 75% of the facial skin surface area; and(b) the damage involves photo‑damage (dermatoheliosis); and(c) the photo‑damage involves:(i) a solar keratosis load exceeding 30 individual lesions; or(ii) solar lentigines; or(iii) freckling, yellowing or leathering of the skin; or(iv) solar kertoses which have proven refractory to, or recurred following, medical therapies; and(d) at least medium depth peeling agents are used; and(e) the chemical peel is performed in the operating theatre of a hospital by a medical practitioner recognised as a specialist in the specialty of dermatology or plastic surgery.Applicable once only in any 12 month period (H) (Anaes.) 396.70 - 45021 Abrasive therapy for severely disfiguring scarring resulting from trauma, burns or acne—limited to one aesthetic area (Anaes.) 177.35 - 45024 Abrasive therapy for severely disfiguring scarring resulting from trauma, burns or acne—more than one aesthetic area (Anaes.) 398.55 - 45025 Carbon dioxide laser or erbium laser resurfacing of the face or neck for severely disfiguring scarring resulting from trauma, burns or acne (not including fractional laser therapy)—limited to one aesthetic area (Anaes.) 177.35 - 45026 Carbon dioxide laser or erbium laser resurfacing of the face or neck for severely disfiguring scarring resulting from trauma, burns or acne (not including fractional laser therapy)—more than one aesthetic area (Anaes.) 398.55 - 45027 Angioma, cauterisation of or injection into, if undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital (Anaes.) 120.35 - 45030 Angioma (haemangioma or lymphangioma or both) of skin and subcutaneous tissue (excluding facial muscle or breast) or mucous surface, small, excision and suture of (Anaes.) 129.25 - 45033 Angioma (haemangioma or lymphangioma or both), large or involving deeper tissue including facial muscle or breast, excision and suture of (Anaes.) 240.70 - 45035 Angioma (haemangioma or lymphangioma or both) large and deep, involving muscles or nerves, excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 702.05 - 45036 Angioma (haemangioma or lymphangioma or both) of neck, deep, excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,128.05 - 45039 Arteriovenous malformation (3 cm or less) of superficial tissue, excision of (Anaes.) 240.70 - 45042 Arteriovenous malformation, (greater than 3 cm), excision of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 308.40 - 45045 Arteriovenous malformation on eyelid, nose, lip, ear, neck, hand, thumb, finger or genitals, excision of (Anaes.) 308.40 - 45048 Lymphoedematous tissue or lymphangiectasis, of lower leg and foot, or thigh, or upper arm, or forearm and hand, major excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 774.55 - 45051 Contour reconstruction by open repair of contour defects, due to deformity, if:(a) contour reconstructive surgery is indicated because the deformity is secondary to congenital absence of tissue or has arisen from trauma (other than trauma from previous cosmetic surgery); and(b) insertion of a non‑biological implant is required, other than one or more of the following:(i) insertion of a non‑biological implant that is a component of another service specified in Group T8;(ii) injection of liquid or semisolid material;(iii) an oral and maxillofacial implant service to which item 52321 applies;(iv) a service to insert mesh; and(c) photographic and/or diagnostic imaging evidence demonstrating the clinical need for this service is documented in the patient notes(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 473.75 - 45054 Limb or chest, decompression escharotomy of (including all incisions), for acute compartment syndrome secondary to burn (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 246.10 - 45060 Developmental breast abnormality, single stage correction of, if:(a) the correction involves either:(i) bilateral mastopexy for symmetrical tubular breasts; or(ii) surgery on both breasts with a combination of insertion of one or more implants (which must have at least a 10% volume difference), mastopexy or reduction mammaplasty, if there is a difference in breast volume, as demonstrated by an appropriate volumetric measurement technique, of at least 20% in normally shaped breasts, or 10% in tubular breasts or in breasts with abnormally high inframammary folds; and(b) photographic and/or diagnostic imaging evidence demonstrating the clinical need for this service is documented in the patient notesApplicable only once per occasion on which the service is provided (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,271.30 - 45061 Developmental breast abnormality, 2 stage correction of, first stage, involving surgery on both breasts with a combination of insertion of one or more tissue expanders, mastopexy or reduction mammaplasty, if:(a) there is a difference in breast volume, as demonstrated by an appropriate volumetric measurement technique, of at least:(i) 20% in normally shaped breasts; or(ii) 10% in tubular breasts or in breasts with abnormally high inframammary folds; and(b) photographic and/or diagnostic imaging evidence demonstrating the clinical need for this service is documented in the patient notes.Applicable only once per occasion on which the service is provided (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,271.30 - 45062 Developmental breast abnormality, 2 stage correction of, second stage, involving surgery on both breasts with a combination of exchange of one or more tissue expanders for one or more implants (which must have at least a 10% volume difference), mastopexy or reduction mammaplasty, if:(a) there is a difference in breast volume, as demonstrated by an appropriate volumetric measurement technique, of at least:(i) 20% in normally shaped breasts; or(ii) 10% in tubular breasts or in breasts with abnormally high inframammary folds; and(b) photographic and/or diagnostic imaging evidence demonstrating the clinical need for this service is documented in the patient notes.Applicable only once per occasion on which the service is provided (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 920.00 - 45200 Single stage local flap, if indicated to repair one defect, simple and small, excluding flap for male pattern baldness and excluding H‑flap or double advancement flap—not in association with any of items 31356 to 31376 (Anaes.) 284.35 - 45201 Muscle, myocutaneous or skin flap, if clinically indicated to repair one surgical excision made in the removal of a malignant or non‑malignant skin lesion (only in association with items 31000, 31001, 31002, 31003, 31004, 31005, 31358, 31359, 31360, 31363, 31364, 31369, 31370, 31371, 31373 or 31376)—may be claimed only once per defect (Anaes.) 413.95 - 45202 Muscle, myocutaneous or skin flap, if clinically indicated to repair one surgical excision made in the removal of a malignant or non‑malignant skin lesion in a patient, if the clinical relevance of the procedure is clearly annotated in the patient’s record and either:(a) item 45201 applies and additional flap repair is required for the same defect; or(b) item 45201 does not apply and either:(i) the patient has severe pre‑existing scarring, severe skin atrophy or sclerodermoid changes; or(ii) the repair is contiguous with a free margin(Anaes.) 413.95 - 45203 Single stage local flap, if indicated to repair one defect, complicated or large, excluding flap for male pattern baldness and excluding H‑flap or double advancement flap—not in association with any of items 31356 to 31376 (Anaes.) (Assist.) 406.05 - 45206 Single stage local flap if indicated to repair one defect, on eyelid, nose, lip, ear, neck, hand, thumb, finger or genitals and excluding H‑flap or double advancement flap—not in association with any of items 31356 to 31376 (Anaes.) 383.55 - 45207 H‑flap or double advancement flap if indicated to repair one defect, on eyelid, eyebrow or forehead—not in association with any of items 31356 to 31376 (Anaes.) 383.55 - 45209 Direct flap repair (cross arm, abdominal or similar), first stage (Anaes.) (Assist.) 473.75 - 45212 Direct flap repair (cross arm, abdominal or similar), second stage (Anaes.) 235.05 - 45215 Direct flap repair, cross leg, first stage (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,014.05 - 45218 Direct flap repair, cross leg, second stage (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 454.85 - 45221 Direct flap repair, small (cross finger or similar), first stage (Anaes.) 261.55 - 45224 Direct flap repair, small (cross finger or similar), second stage (Anaes.) 117.55 - 45227 Indirect flap or tubed pedicle, formation of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 445.40 - 45230 Direct or indirect flap or tubed pedicle, delay of (Anaes.) 222.75 - 45233 Indirect flap or tubed pedicle, preparation of intermediate or final site and attachment to the site (Anaes.) (Assist.) 473.75 - 45236 Indirect flap or tubed pedicle, spreading of pedicle, as a separate procedure (H) (Anaes.) 371.50 - 45239 Direct, indirect or local flap, revision of, by incision and suture, other than a service to which item 45240 applies (Anaes.) 261.55 - 45240 Direct, indirect or local flap, revision of, by liposuction, other than a service to which item 45239, 45497, 45498 or 45499 applies (Anaes.) 261.55 - 45400 Free grafting (split skin) of a granulating area, small (Anaes.) 204.70 - 45403 Free grafting (split skin) of a granulating area, extensive (Anaes.) (Assist.) 407.50 - 45406 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue—involving not more than 3% of total body surface (Anaes.) (Assist.) 451.10 - 45409 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue—involving 3% or more but less than 6% of total body surface (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 601.65 - 45412 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue—involving 6% or more but less than 9% of total body surface (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 827.30 - 45415 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue—involving 9% or more but less than 12% of total body surface (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 902.30 - 45418 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue—involving 12% or more but less than 15% of total body surface (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 977.55 - 45439 Free grafting (split skin) to one defect, including elective dissection, small (Anaes.) 284.35 - 45442 Free grafting (split skin) to one defect, including elective dissection, extensive (Anaes.) (Assist.) 586.50 - 45445 Free grafting (split skin) as inlay graft to one defect including elective dissection using a mould (including insertion of and removal of mould) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 556.60 - 45448 Free grafting (split skin) to one defect, including elective dissection on eyelid, nose, lip, ear, neck, hand, thumb, finger or genitals, other than a service to which item 45442 or 45445 applies (Anaes.) 376.00 - 45451 Free grafting (full thickness) to one defect, excluding grafts for male pattern baldness (Anaes.) (Assist.) 473.75 - 45460 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue, involving 15% or more but less than 20% of total body surface—one surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,253.30 - 45461 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue, involving 15% or more but less than 20% of total body surface—conjoint surgery, principal surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 893.25 - 45462 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue, involving 15% or more but less than 20% of total body surface—conjoint surgery, co‑surgeon (H) (Assist.) 674.05 - 45464 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue, involving 20% or more but less than 30% of total body surface—one surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,913.10 - 45465 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue, involving 20% or more but less than 30% of total body surface—conjoint surgery, principal surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,363.00 - 45466 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue, involving 20% or more but less than 30% of total body surface—conjoint surgery, co‑surgeon (H) (Assist.) 1,027.95 - 45468 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue, involving 30% or more but less than 40% of total body surface—conjoint surgery, principal surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,832.65 - 45469 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue, involving 30% or more but less than 40% of total body surface—conjoint surgery, co‑surgeon (H) (Assist.) 1,382.70 - 45471 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue, involving 40% or more but less than 50% of total body surface—conjoint surgery, principal surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,303.65 - 45472 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue, involving 40% or more but less than 50% of total body surface—conjoint surgery, co‑surgeon (H) (Assist.) 1,737.60 - 45474 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue, involving 50% or more but less than 60% of total body surface—conjoint surgery, principal surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,773.30 - 45475 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue, involving 50% or more but less than 60% of total body surface—conjoint surgery, co‑surgeon (H) (Assist.) 2,092.45 - 45477 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue, involving 60% or more but less than 70% of total body surface—conjoint surgery, principal surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,243.00 - 45478 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue, involving 60% or more but less than 70% of total body surface—conjoint surgery, co‑surgeon (H) (Assist.) 2,446.05 - 45480 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue, involving 70% or more but less than 80% of total body surface—conjoint surgery, principal surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,712.60 - 45481 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue, involving 70% or more but less than 80% of total body surface—conjoint surgery, co‑surgeon (H) (Assist.) 2,801.10 - 45483 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue, involving 80% or more of total body surface—conjoint surgery, principal surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 4,229.95 - 45484 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue, involving 80% or more of total body surface—conjoint surgery, co‑surgeon (H) (Assist.) 3,191.50 - 45485 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue—upper eyelid, nose, lip, ear or palm of the hand (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 527.70 - 45486 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue—forehead, cheek, anterior aspect of the neck, chin, plantar aspect of the foot, heel or genitalia (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 451.10 - 45487 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue—whole of toe (Anaes.) (Assist.) 406.05 - 45488 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue—the whole of one digit of the hand (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 451.10 - 45489 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue—the whole of 2 digits of the hand (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 676.80 - 45490 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue—the whole of 3 digits of the hand (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 902.50 - 45491 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue—the whole of 4 digits of the hand (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,128.05 - 45492 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue—the whole of 5 digits of the hand (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,353.60 - 45493 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue—portion of digit of hand (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 406.05 - 45494 Free grafting (split skin) to burns, including excision of burnt tissue—whole of face (excluding ears) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,638.70 - 45496 Flap, free tissue transfer using microvascular techniques—revision of, by open operation (H) (Anaes.) 416.05 - 45497 Flap, free tissue transfer using microvascular techniques or any breast reconstruction—complete revision of, by liposuction (H) (Anaes.) 324.95 - 45498 Flap, free tissue transfer using microvascular techniques or any breast reconstruction—staged revision of, by liposuction (first stage) (H) (Anaes.) 261.55 - 45499 Flap, free tissue transfer using microvascular techniques or any breast reconstruction—staged revision of, by liposuction (second stage) (H) (Anaes.) 195.00 - 45500 Microvascular repair using microsurgical techniques, with restoration of continuity of artery or vein of distal extremity or digit (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,090.35 - 45501 Microvascular anastomosis of artery using microsurgical techniques, for re‑implantation of limb or digit (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,774.70 - 45502 Microvascular anastomosis of vein using microsurgical techniques, for re‑implantation of limb or digit (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,774.70 - 45503 Micro‑arterial or micro‑venous graft using microsurgical techniques (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,030.35 - 45504 Microvascular anastomosis of artery using microsurgical techniques, for free transfer of tissue including setting in of free flap (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,774.70 - 45505 Microvascular anastomosis of vein using microsurgical techniques, for free transfer of tissue including setting in of free flap (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,774.70 - 45506 Scar, of face or neck, not more than 3 cm in length, revision of, if:(a) undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital; or(b) performed by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty (Anaes.) 219.95 - 45512 Scar, of face or neck, more than 3 cm in length, revision of, if:(a) undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital; or(b) performed by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty (Anaes.) 295.70 - 45515 Scar, other than on face or neck, not more than 7 cm in length, revision of, as an independent procedure, if:(a) undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital; or(b) performed by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty (Anaes.) 186.50 - 45518 Scar, other than on face or neck, more than 7 cm in length, revision of, as an independent procedure, if:(a) undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital; or(b) performed by a specialist in the practice of his or her speciality (Anaes.) 225.70 - 45519 Extensive burn scars of skin (more than 1% of body surface area), excision of, for correction of scar contracture (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 429.05 - 45520 Reduction mammaplasty (unilateral) with surgical repositioning of nipple, in the context of breast cancer or developmental abnormality of the breast (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 900.45 - 45522 Reduction mammaplasty (unilateral) without surgical repositioning of the nipple:(a) excluding the treatment of gynaecomastia; and(b) not with insertion of any prosthesis(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 631.75 - 45523 Reduction mammaplasty (bilateral) with surgical repositioning of the nipple:(a) for patients with macromastia and experiencing pain in the neck or shoulder region; and(b) not with insertion of any prosthesis(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,350.70 - 45524 Mammaplasty, augmentation (unilateral) in the context of:(a) breast cancer; or(b) developmental abnormality of the breast, if there is a difference in breast volume, as demonstrated by an appropriate volumetric measurement technique, of at least:(i) 20% in normally shaped breasts; or(ii) 10% in tubular breasts or in breasts with abnormally high inframammary folds.Applicable only once per occasion on which the service is provided(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 741.65 - 45527 Breast reconstruction (unilateral), following mastectomy, using a permanent prosthesis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 741.65 - 45528 Mammaplasty, augmentation, bilateral (other than a service to which item 45527 applies), if:(a) reconstructive surgery is indicated because of:(i) developmental malformation of breast tissue (excluding hypomastia); or(ii) disease of or trauma to the breast (other than trauma resulting from previous elective cosmetic surgery); or(iii) amastia secondary to a congenital endocrine disorder; and(b) photographic and/or diagnostic imaging evidence demonstrating the clinical need for this service is documented in the patient notes(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,112.35 - 45530 Breast reconstruction (unilateral), using a latissimus dorsi or other large muscle or myocutaneous flap, including repair of secondary skin defect, if required, excluding repair of muscular aponeurotic layer, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30165, 30168, 30171, 30172, 30176, 30177 or 30179 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,099.40 - 45533 Breast reconstruction using breast sharing technique (first stage) including breast reduction, transfer of complex skin and breast tissue flap, split skin graft to pedicle of flap and other similar procedures (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,245.10 - 45536 Breast reconstruction using breast sharing technique (second stage) including division of pedicle, insetting of breast flap, with closure of donor site or other similar procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 457.85 - 45539 Breast reconstruction (unilateral), following mastectomy, using tissue expansion—insertion of tissue expansion unit and all attendances for subsequent expansion injections (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,071.20 - 45542 Breast reconstruction (unilateral), following mastectomy, using tissue expansion—removal of tissue expansion unit and insertion of permanent prosthesis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 613.40 - 45545 Nipple or areola or both, reconstruction of, by any surgical technique (Anaes.) (Assist.) 622.55 - 45546 Nipple or areola or both, intradermal colouration of, following breast reconstruction after mastectomy or for congenital absence of nipple 197.85 - 45548 Breast prosthesis, removal of, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 276.80 - 45551 Breast prosthesis, removal of, with excision of at least half of the fibrous capsule, not with insertion of any prosthesis. The excised specimen must be sent for histopathology and the volume removed must be documented in the histopathology report (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 443.70 - 45553 Breast prosthesis, removal of and replacement with another prosthesis, following medical complications (for rupture, migration of prosthetic material or symptomatic capsular contracture), if:(a) either:(i) it is demonstrated by intra‑operative photographs post‑removal that removal alone would cause unacceptable deformity; or(ii) the original implant was inserted in the context of breast cancer or developmental abnormality; and(b) photographic and/or diagnostic imaging evidence demonstrating the clinical need for this service is documented in the patient notes(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 571.60 - 45554 Breast prosthesis, removal and replacement with another prosthesis, following medical complications (for rupture, migration of prosthetic material or symptomatic capsular contracture), including excision of at least half of the fibrous capsule or formation of a new pocket, or both, if:(a) either:(i) it is demonstrated by intra‑operative photographs post‑removal that removal alone would cause unacceptable deformity; or(ii) the original implant was inserted in the context of breast cancer or developmental abnormality; and(b) the excised specimen is sent for histopathology and the volume removed is documented in the histopathology report; and(c) photographic and/or diagnostic imaging evidence demonstrating the clinical need for this service is documented in the patient notes(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 699.45 - 45556 Breast ptosis, correction of (unilateral), in the context of breast cancer or developmental abnormality, if photographic evidence (including anterior, left lateral and right lateral views) and/or diagnostic imaging evidence demonstrating the clinical need for this service is documented in the patient notesApplicable only once per occasion on which the service is provided (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 766.05 - 45558 Breast ptosis, correction by mastopexy of (bilateral), if:(a) at least two‑thirds of the breast tissue, including the nipple, lies inferior to the infra‑mammary fold where the nipple is located at the most dependent, inferior part of the breast contour; and(b) if the patient has been pregnant—the correction is performed not less than 1 year, or more than 7 years, after completion of the most recent pregnancy of the patient; and(c) photographic evidence (including anterior, left lateral and right lateral views), with a marker at the level of the inframammary fold, demonstrating the clinical need for this service, is documented in the patient notesApplicable only once per lifetime (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,148.95 - 45560 Hair transplantation for the treatment of alopecia of congenital or traumatic origin or due to disease, excluding male pattern baldness, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 473.65 - 45561 Microvascular anastomosis of artery or vein using microsurgical techniques, for supercharging of pedicled flaps (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,774.70 - 45562 Free transfer of tissue involving raising of tissue on vascular or neurovascular pedicle, including direct repair of secondary cutaneous defect if performed, excluding flap for male pattern baldness (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,099.40 - 45563 Neurovascular island flap, including direct repair of secondary cutaneous defect if performed, excluding flap for male pattern baldness (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,099.40 - 45564 Free transfer of tissue reconstructive surgery for the repair of major tissue defect due to congenital deformity, surgery or trauma, involving anastomoses of up to 2 vessels using microvascular techniques and including raising of tissue on a vascular or neurovascular pedicle, preparation of recipient vessels, transfer of tissue, insetting of tissue at recipient site and direct repair of secondary cutaneous defect if performed, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30165, 30168, 30171, 30172, 30176, 30177, 30179, 45501, 45502, 45504, 45505 or 45562 applies—conjoint surgery, principal specialist surgeon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,546.30 - 45565 Free transfer of tissue reconstructive surgery for the repair of major tissue defect due to congenital deformity, surgery or trauma, involving anastomoses of up to 2 vessels using microvascular techniques and including raising of tissue on a vascular or neurovascular pedicle, preparation of recipient vessels, transfer of tissue, insetting of tissue at recipient site and direct repair of secondary cutaneous defect if performed, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30165, 30168, 30171, 30172, 30176, 30177, 30179, 45501, 45502, 45504, 45505 or 45562 applies—conjoint surgery, conjoint specialist surgeon (H) (Assist.) 1,909.80 - 45566 Tissue expansion other than a service to which item 45539 or 45542 applies—insertion of tissue expansion unit and all attendances for subsequent expansion injections (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,071.20 - 45568 Tissue expander, removal of, with complete excision of fibrous capsule (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 443.70 - 45569 Closure of abdomen with reconstruction of umbilicus, with or without lipectomy, being a service associated with items 45562, 45530, 45564 or 45565 (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 677.60 - 45570 Closure of abdomen, repair of musculoaponeurotic layer, being a service associated with item 45569 (Anaes.) (Assist.) 914.95 - 45572 Intra‑operative tissue expansion performed during an operation when combined with a service to which another item in Group T8 applies including expansion injections and excluding treatment of male pattern baldness (Anaes.) 291.70 - 45575 Facial nerve paralysis, free fascia graft for (Anaes.) (Assist.) 720.20 - 45578 Facial nerve paralysis, muscle transfer for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 834.05 - 45581 Facial nerve palsy, excision of tissue for (Anaes.) 276.80 - 45584 Liposuction (suction assisted lipolysis) to one regional area (one limb or trunk), for treatment of post‑traumatic pseudolipoma, if photographic and/or diagnostic imaging evidence demonstrating the clinical need for this service is documented in the patient notes (H) (Anaes.) 631.75 - 45585 Liposuction (suction assisted lipolysis) to one regional area (one limb or trunk), other than a service associated with a service to which item 31525 applies, if:(a) the liposuction is for:(i) the treatment of Barraquer‑Simons syndrome, lymphoedema or macrodystrophia lipomatosa; or(ii) the reduction of a buffalo hump that is secondary to an endocrine disorder or pharmacological treatment of a medical condition; and(b) photographic and/or diagnostic imaging evidence demonstrating the clinical need for this service is documented in the patient notes(H) (Anaes.) 631.75 - 45587 Meloplasty for correction of facial asymmetry if:(a) the asymmetry is secondary to trauma (including previous surgery), a congenital condition or a medical condition (such as facial nerve palsy); and(b) the meloplasty is limited to one side of the face(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 890.85 - 45588 Meloplasty (excluding browlifts and chinlift platysmaplasties), bilateral, if:(a) surgery is indicated to correct a functional impairment due to a congenital condition, disease (excluding post‑acne scarring) or trauma (other than trauma resulting from previous elective cosmetic surgery); and(b) photographic and/or diagnostic imaging evidence demonstrating the clinical need for this service is documented in the patient notes(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,336.40 - 45590 Orbital cavity, reconstruction of a wall or floor, with or without foreign implant (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 483.25 - 45593 Orbital cavity, bone or cartilage graft to orbital wall or floor including reduction of prolapsed or entrapped orbital contents (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 567.65 - 45596 Maxilla, total resection of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 900.45 - 45597 Maxilla, total resection of both maxillae (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,205.40 - 45599 Mandible, total resection of both sides, including condylectomies, if performed (Anaes.) (Assist.) 936.55 - 45602 Mandible, including lower border, or maxilla, sub‑total resection of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 699.45 - 45605 Mandible or maxilla, segmental resection of, for tumours or cysts (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 587.60 - 45608 Mandible, hemi‑mandibular reconstruction with bone graft, other than a service associated with a service to which item 45599 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 827.30 - 45611 Mandible, condylectomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 473.75 - 45614 Eyelid, whole thickness reconstruction of, other than by direct suture only (Anaes.) (Assist.) 587.60 - 45617 Upper eyelid, reduction of, if:(a) the reduction is for any of the following:(i) skin redundancy that causes a visual field defect (confirmed by an optometrist or ophthalmologist) or intertriginous inflammation of the eyelid;(ii) herniation of orbital fat in exophthalmos;(iii) facial nerve palsy;(iv) post‑traumatic scarring;(v) the restoration of symmetry of contralateral upper eyelid in respect of one of the conditions mentioned in subparagraphs (i) to (iv); and(b) photographic and/or diagnostic imaging evidence demonstrating the clinical need for this service is documented in the patient notes(Anaes.) 235.05 - 45620 Lower eyelid, reduction of, if:(a) the reduction is for:(i) herniation of orbital fat in exophthalmos, facial nerve palsy or post‑traumatic scarring; or(ii) the restoration of symmetry of the contralateral lower eyelid in respect of one of these conditions; and(b) photographic and/or diagnostic imaging evidence demonstrating the clinical need for this service is documented in the patient notes(Anaes.) 326.05 - 45623 Ptosis of upper eyelid (unilateral), correction of, by:(a) sutured elevation of the tarsal plate on the eyelid retractors (Muller’s or levator muscle or levator aponeurosis); or(b) sutured suspension to the brow/frontalis muscle;Not applicable to a service for repair of mechanical ptosis to which item 45617 applies(Anaes.) (Assist.) 723.05 - 45624 Ptosis of upper eyelid, correction of, by:(a) sutured elevation of the tarsal plate on the eyelid retractors (Muller’s or levator muscle or levator aponeurosis); or(b) sutured suspension to the brow/frontalis muscle;if a previous ptosis surgery has been performed on that side(Anaes.) (Assist.) 937.40 - 45625 Ptosis of eyelid, correction of eyelid height by revision of levator sutures within one week of primary repair by levator resection or advancement, performed in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 187.55 - 45626 Ectropion or entropion, correction of (unilateral) (Anaes.) 326.05 - 45629 Symblepharon, grafting for (Anaes.) (Assist.) 473.75 - 45632 Rhinoplasty, partial, involving correction of lateral or alar cartilages, if:(a) the indication for surgery is:(i) airway obstruction and the patient has a self‑reported NOSE Scale score of greater than 45; or(ii) significant acquired, congenital or developmental deformity; and(b) photographic and/or NOSE Scale evidence demonstrating the clinical need for this service is documented in the patient notes(Anaes.) 511.95 - 45635 Rhinoplasty, partial, involving correction of bony vault only, if:(a) the indication for surgery is:(i) airway obstruction and the patient has a self‑reported NOSE Scale score of greater than 45; or(ii) significant acquired, congenital or developmental deformity; and(b) photographic and/or NOSE Scale evidence demonstrating the clinical need for this service is documented in the patient notes(Anaes.) 587.60 - 45641 Rhinoplasty, total, including correction of all bony and cartilaginous elements of the external nose, with or without autogenous cartilage or bone graft from a local site (nasal), if:(a) the indication for surgery is:(i) airway obstruction and the patient has a self‑reported NOSE Scale score of greater than 45; or(ii) significant acquired, congenital or developmental deformity; and(b) photographic and/or NOSE Scale evidence demonstrating the clinical need for this service is documented in the patient notes(H) (Anaes.) 1,066.00 - 45644 Rhinoplasty, total, including correction of all bony and cartilaginous elements of the external nose involving autogenous bone or cartilage graft obtained from distant donor site, including obtaining of graft, if:(a) the indication for surgery is:(i) airway obstruction and the patient has a self‑reported NOSE Scale score of greater than 45; or(ii) significant acquired, congenital or developmental deformity; and(b) photographic and/or NOSE Scale evidence demonstrating the clinical need for this service is documented in the patient notes(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,279.45 - 45645 Choanal atresia, repair of by puncture and dilatation (H) (Anaes.) 223.60 - 45646 Choanal atresia, correction by open operation with bone removal (Anaes.) (Assist.) 900.45 - 45647 Face, contour restoration of one region, using autogenous bone or cartilage graft (other than a service to which item 45644 applies) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,279.45 - 45650 Rhinoplasty, revision of, if:(a) the indication for surgery is:(i) airway obstruction and the patient has a self‑reported NOSE Scale score of greater than 45; or(ii) significant acquired, congenital or developmental deformity; and(b) photographic and/or NOSE Scale evidence demonstrating the clinical need for this service is documented in the patient notes(Anaes.) 147.80 - 45652 Rhinophyma of a moderate or severe degree, carbon dioxide laser or erbium laser excision—ablation of (Anaes.) 356.35 - 45653 Rhinophyma, shaving of (Anaes.) 356.35 - 45656 Composite graft (chondro‑cutaneous or chondro‑mucosal) to nose, ear or eyelid (Anaes.) (Assist.) 502.25 - 45659 Correction of a congenital deformity of the ear if:(a) the patient is less than 18 years of age; and(b) the deformity is characterised by an absence of the antihelical fold and/or large scapha and/or large concha; and(c) photographic evidence demonstrating the clinical need for this service is documented in the patient notes(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 521.25 - 45660 External ear, complex total reconstruction of, using multiple costal cartilage grafts to form a framework, including the harvesting and sculpturing of the cartilage and its insertion, for congenital absence, microtia or post‑traumatic loss of entire or substantial portion of pinna (first stage)—performed by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,878.75 - 45661 External ear, complex total reconstruction of, elevation of costal cartilage framework using cartilage previously stored in abdominal wall, including the use of local skin and fascia flaps and full thickness skin graft to cover cartilage (second stage)—performed by a specialist in the practice of his or her specialty (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,279.45 - 45662 Congenital atresia, reconstruction of external auditory canal (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 701.30 - 45665 Lip, eyelid or ear, full thickness wedge excision of, with repair by direct sutures (Anaes.) 326.05 - 45668 Vermilionectomy, by surgical excision (Anaes.) 326.05 - 45669 Vermilionectomy for biopsy‑confirmed cellular atypia, using carbon dioxide laser or erbium laser excision—ablation (Anaes.) 326.05 - 45671 Lip or eyelid reconstruction using full thickness flap (Abbe or similar), first stage (Anaes.) (Assist.) 834.05 - 45674 Lip or eyelid reconstruction using full thickness flap (Abbe or similar), second stage (Anaes.) 242.55 - 45675 Macrocheilia or macroglossia, operation for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 483.25 - 45676 Macrostomia, operation for (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 575.30 - 45677 Cleft lip, unilateral—primary repair, one stage, without anterior palate repair (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 541.35 - 45680 Cleft lip, unilateral—primary repair, one stage, with anterior palate repair (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 676.80 - 45683 Cleft lip, bilateral—primary repair, one stage, without anterior palate repair (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 751.85 - 45686 Cleft lip, bilateral—primary repair, one stage, with anterior palate repair (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 887.50 - 45689 Cleft lip, lip adhesion procedure, unilateral or bilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 261.75 - 45692 Cleft lip, partial revision, including minor flap revision alignment and adjustment, including revision of minor whistle deformity if performed (Anaes.) 300.75 - 45695 Cleft lip, total revision, including major flap revision, muscle reconstruction and revision of major whistle deformity (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 488.75 - 45698 Cleft lip, primary columella lengthening procedure, bilateral (H) (Anaes.) 458.75 - 45701 Cleft lip reconstruction using full thickness flap (Abbe or similar), first stage (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 827.30 - 45704 Cleft lip reconstruction using full thickness flap (Abbe or similar), second stage (Anaes.) 300.75 - 45707 Cleft palate, primary repair (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 781.95 - 45710 Cleft palate, secondary repair, closure of fistula using local flaps (H) (Anaes.) 488.75 - 45713 Cleft palate, secondary repair, lengthening procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 556.60 - 45714 Oro‑nasal fistula, plastic closure of, including services to which item 45200, 45203 or 45239 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 781.95 - 45716 Velo‑pharyngeal incompetence, pharyngeal flap for, or pharyngoplasty for (H) (Anaes.) 781.95 - 45720 Mandible or maxilla, unilateral osteotomy or osteectomy of, including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 966.80 - 45723 Mandible or maxilla, unilateral osteotomy or osteectomy of, including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site and stabilisation with fixation by wires, screws, plates or pins, or any combination, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,090.35 - 45726 Mandible or maxilla, bilateral osteotomy or osteectomy of, including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,232.05 - 45729 Mandible or maxilla, bilateral osteotomy or osteectomy of, including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site and stabilisation with fixation by wires, screws, plates or pins, or any combination, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,383.65 - 45731 Mandible or maxilla, osteotomies or osteectomies of, involving 3 or more such procedures on the one jaw, including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,402.70 - 45732 Mandible or maxilla, osteotomies or osteectomies of, involving 3 or more such procedures on the one jaw, including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site and stabilisation with fixation by wires, screws, plates or pins, or any combination, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,579.20 - 45735 Mandible and maxilla, osteotomies or osteectomies of, involving 2 such procedures of each jaw, including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,611.05 - 45738 Mandible and maxilla, osteotomies or osteectomies of, involving 2 such procedures of each jaw, including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site and stabilisation with fixation by wires, screws, plates or pins, or any combination, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,812.40 - 45741 Mandible and maxilla, complex bilateral osteotomies or osteectomies of, involving 3 or more such procedures of one jaw and 2 such procedures of the other jaw, including genioplasty when performed and transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,772.30 - 45744 Mandible and maxilla, complex bilateral osteotomies or osteectomies of, involving 3 or more such procedures of one jaw and 2 such procedures of the other jaw, including genioplasty when performed and transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site and stabilisation with fixation by wires, screws, plates or pins, or any combination, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,992.70 - 45747 Mandible and maxilla, complex bilateral osteotomies or osteectomies of, involving 3 or more such procedures of each jaw, including genioplasty (when performed) and transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,933.55 - 45752 Mandible and maxilla, complex bilateral osteotomies or osteectomies of, involving 3 or more such procedures of each jaw, including genioplasty when performed and transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site and stabilisation with fixation by wires, screws, plates or pins, or any combination, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,165.75 - 45753 Midfacial osteotomies—Le Fort II, Modified Le Fort III (Nasomalar), Modified Le Fort III (Malar‑Maxillary), Le Fort III involving 3 or more osteotomies of the midface including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,178.60 - 45754 Midfacial osteotomies—Le Fort II, Modified Le Fort III (Nasomalar), Modified Le Fort III (Malar‑Maxillary), Le Fort III involving 3 or more osteotomies of the midface including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site and stabilisation with fixation by wires, screws, plates or pins, or any combination (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,611.60 - 45755 Temporo‑mandibular partial or total meniscectomy (Anaes.) (Assist.) 367.75 - 45758 Temporo‑mandibular joint, arthroplasty (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 658.05 - 45761 Genioplasty, including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 748.65 - 45767 Hypertelorism, correction of, intra‑cranial (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,511.65 - 45770 Hypertelorism, correction of, sub‑cranial (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,923.90 - 45773 Treacher Collins Syndrome, periorbital correction of, with rib and iliac bone grafts (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,753.40 - 45776 Orbital dystopia (unilateral), correction of, with total repositioning of one orbit, intra‑cranial (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,753.40 - 45779 Orbital dystopia (unilateral), correction of, with total repositioning of one orbit, extra‑cranial (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,289.15 - 45782 Fronto‑orbital advancement, unilateral (Anaes.) (Assist.) 985.70 - 45785 Cranial vault reconstruction for oxycephaly, brachycephaly, turricephaly or similar condition—(bilateral fronto‑orbital advancement) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,668.10 - 45788 Glenoid fossa, zygomatic arch and temporal bone, reconstruction of, (Obwegeser technique) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,649.10 - 45791 Absent condyle and ascending ramus in hemifacial microsomia, construction of, not including harvesting of graft material (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 890.85 - 45794 Osseo‑integration procedure—extra‑oral, implantation of titanium fixture, not for implantable bone conduction hearing system device (Anaes.) 503.85 - 45797 Osseo‑integration procedure, fixation of transcutaneous abutment, not for implantable bone conduction hearing system device (Anaes.) 186.50 - 45799 Aspiration biopsy of one or more jaw cysts as an independent procedure to obtain material for diagnostic purposes, other than a service associated with an operative procedure on the same day (Anaes.) 29.45 - 45801 Tumour, cyst, ulcer or scar (other than a scar removed during the surgical approach at an operation), in the oral and maxillofacial region, up to 3 cm in diameter, removal from cutaneous or subcutaneous tissue or from mucous membrane, if the removal is by surgical excision and suture, other than a service to which item 45803 applies (Anaes.) 126.90 - 45803 Tumour, cyst, ulcers or scar (other than a scar removed during the surgical approach at an operation), in the oral and maxillofacial region, up to 3 cm in diameter, removal from cutaneous or subcutaneous tissue or from mucous membrane, if the removal is by surgical excision and suture, and the procedure is performed on more than 3 but not more than 10 lesions (Anaes.) (Assist.) 326.05 - 45805 Tumour, cyst, ulcer or scar (other than a scar removed during the surgical approach at an operation), in the oral and maxillofacial region, more than 3 cm in diameter, removal from cutaneous or subcutaneous tissue or from mucous membrane (Anaes.) 172.50 - 45807 Tumour, cyst (other than a cyst associated with a tooth or tooth fragment unless it has been established by radiological examination that there is a minimum of 5 mm separation between the cyst lining and tooth structure or if a tumour or cyst has been proven by positive histopathology), ulcer or scar (other than a scar removed during the surgical approach at an operation), in the oral and maxillofacial region, removal of, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies, involving muscle, bone, or other deep tissue (Anaes.) 246.50 - 45809 Tumour or deep cyst (other than a cyst associated with a tooth or tooth fragment unless it has been established by radiological examination that there is a minimum of 5 mm separation between the cyst lining and tooth structure or if a tumour or cyst has been proven by positive histopathology), in the oral and maxillofacial region, removal of, requiring wide excision, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 371.50 - 45811 Tumour, in the oral and maxillofacial region, removal of, from soft tissue (including muscle, fascia and connective tissue), extensive excision of, without skin or mucosal graft (Anaes.) (Assist.) 502.25 - 45813 Tumour, in the oral and maxillofacial region, removal of, from soft tissue (including muscle, fascia and connective tissue), extensive excision of, with skin or mucosal graft (Anaes.) (Assist.) 587.60 - 45815 Operation on mandible or maxilla (other than alveolar margins) for chronic osteomyelitis—one bone or in combination with adjoining bones (Anaes.) (Assist.) 356.35 - 45817 Operation on skull for osteomyelitis (Anaes.) (Assist.) 464.50 - 45819 Operation on any combination of adjoining bones in the oral and maxillofacial region, being bones referred to in item 45817 (Anaes.) (Assist.) 587.55 - 45821 Bone growth stimulator in the oral and maxillofacial region, insertion of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 380.80 - 45823 Arch bars, one or more, that were inserted for dental fixation purposes to the maxilla or mandible, removal of, requiring general anaesthesia, if undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 108.90 - 45825 Mandibular or palatal exostosis, excision of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 338.35 - 45827 Mylohyoid ridge, reduction of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 323.40 - 45829 Maxillary tuberosity, reduction of (Anaes.) 246.70 - 45831 Papillary hyperplasia of the palate, removal of—less than 5 lesions (Anaes.) (Assist.) 323.40 - 45833 Papillary hyperplasia of the palate, removal of—5 to 20 lesions (Anaes.) (Assist.) 406.05 - 45835 Papillary hyperplasia of the palate, removal of—more than 20 lesions (Anaes.) (Assist.) 503.85 - 45837 Vestibuloplasty, submucosal or open, including excision of muscle and skin or mucosal graft when performed—unilateral or bilateral (Anaes.) (Assist.) 586.50 - 45839 Floor of mouth lowering (Obwegeser or similar procedure), including excision of muscle and skin or mucosal graft when performed—unilateral (Anaes.) (Assist.) 586.50 - 45841 Alveolar ridge augmentation with bone or alloplast or both—unilateral (Anaes.) (Assist.) 473.65 - 45843 Alveolar ridge augmentation—unilateral, insertion of tissue expanding device into maxillary or mandibular alveolar ridge region (Anaes.) (Assist.) 290.50 - 45845 Osseo‑integration procedure—intra‑oral implantation of titanium fixture to facilitate restoration of the dentition following resection of part of the maxilla or mandible for benign or malignant tumours (Anaes.) 503.85 - 45847 Osseo‑integration procedure—fixation of transmucosal abutment to fixtures placed following resection of part of the maxilla or mandible for benign or malignant tumours (Anaes.) 186.50 - 45849 Maxillary sinus, bone graft to floor of maxillary sinus following elevation of mucosal lining (sinus lift procedure), unilateral (Anaes.) (Assist.) 580.90 - 45851 Temporomandibular joint, manipulation of, performed in the operating theatre of a hospital, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies (H) (Anaes.) 142.95 - 45853 Absent condyle and ascending ramus in hemifacial microsomia, construction of, not including harvesting of graft material (Anaes.) (Assist.) 890.85 - 45855 Temporomandibular joint, arthroscopy of, with or without biopsy, other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of that joint (Anaes.) (Assist.) 408.70 - 45857 Temporomandibular joint, arthroscopy of, removal of loose bodies, debridement, or treatment of adhesions—one or more of such procedures, other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the temporomandibular joint (Anaes.) (Assist.) 653.80 - 45859 Temporomandibular joint, arthrotomy of, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 329.60 - 45861 Temporomandibular joint, open surgical exploration of, with or without microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 872.30 - 45863 Temporomandibular joint, open surgical exploration of, with condylectomy or condylotomy, with or without microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 967.00 - 45865 Arthrocentesis, irrigation of temporomandibular joint after insertion of 2 cannuli into the appropriate joint space(s) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 290.50 - 45867 Temporomandibular joint, synovectomy of, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 312.30 - 45869 Temporomandibular joint, open surgical exploration of, with or without meniscus or capsular surgery, including partial or total meniscectomy when performed, with or without microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,188.20 - 45871 Temporomandibular joint, open surgical exploration of, with meniscus, capsular and condylar head surgery, with or without microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,338.45 - 45873 Temporomandibular joint, surgery of, involving procedures to which item 45863, 45867, 45869 or 45871 applies and also involving the use of tissue flaps, or cartilage graft, or allograft implants, with or without microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,504.05 - 45875 Temporomandibular joint, stabilisation of, involving one or more of: repair of capsule, repair of ligament or internal fixation, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 470.70 - 45877 Temporomandibular joint, arthrodesis of, with synovectomy if performed, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 470.70 - 45879 Temporomandibular joint or joints, application of external fixator to, other than for treatment of fractures (Anaes.) (Assist.) 312.30 - 45882 Treatment of a premalignant lesion of the oral mucosa using cryotherapy, diathermy or carbon dioxide laser 43.00 - 45885 Ligation of a facial, mandibular or lingual artery or vein, or artery and vein 443.70 - 45888 Removal of a deep foreign body using interventional imaging techniques 413.55 - 45891 Repair to one defect using temporalis muscle by a single stage local flap 602.45 - 45894 Free grafting of a granulating area (mucosa or split skin) 204.70 - 45897 Grafting of, including plastic closure of associated oro‑nasal fistulae and ridge augmentation, a unilateral alveolar cleft (congenital) 1,069.10 - 45900 Fixation of the mandible by intermaxillary wiring, excluding wiring for obesity 241.15 - 45939 Cryosurgery of the peripheral branches of the trigeminal nerve for pain relief 447.10 - 45945 Treatment of a dislocation of the mandible requiring open reduction 118.70 - 45975 Treatment of a fracture of the unilateral or bilateral maxilla, not requiring splinting 129.20 - 45978 Treatment of a fracture of the mandible, not requiring splinting 157.85 - 45981 Treatment of the zygomatic bone, not requiring surgical reduction 85.65 - 45984 Treatment of a complicated fracture of the maxilla involving viscera, blood vessels or nerves, requiring open reduction not involving the use of a plate 616.65 - 45987 Treatment of a complicated fracture of the mandible involving viscera, blood vessels or nerves, requiring open reduction not involving the use of a plate 616.65 - 45990 Treatment of a complicated fracture of the maxilla including viscera, blood vessels or nerves, requiring open reduction involving the use of a plate 842.25 - 45993 Treatment of a complicated fracture of the mandible involving viscera, blood vessels or nerves, requiring open reduction involving the use of a plate 842.25 - 45996 Treatment of a closed fracture of the mandible involving a joint surface 238.80 Subdivision G—Subgroup 14 of Group T8 2.45.22  Items 46300 to 46534 apply only in certain circumstances   Items 46300 to 46534 apply only to a service provided in the course of an operation on a hand or hands.   - Subgroup 14—Hand surgery - 46300 Interphalangeal joint or metacarpophalangeal joint, arthrodesis of, with synovectomy if performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 338.40 - 46303 Carpometacarpal joint, arthrodesis of, with synovectomy if performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 376.10 - 46306 Interphalangeal joint or metacarpophalangeal joint—interposition arthroplasty of and including tendon transfers or realignment on the one ray (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 526.50 - 46307 Interphalangeal joint or metacarpophalangeal joint—volar plate arthroplasty for traumatic deformity including tendon transfers or realignment on the one ray (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 526.50 - 46309 Interphalangeal joint or metacarpophalangeal joint, total replacement arthroplasty or hemiarthroplasty of, including associated synovectomy, tendon transfer or realignment—one joint (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 526.50 - 46312 Interphalangeal joint or metacarpophalangeal joint, total replacement arthroplasty or hemiarthroplasty of, including associated synovectomy, tendon transfer or realignment—2 joints (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 676.95 - 46315 Interphalangeal joint or metacarpophalangeal joint, total replacement arthroplasty or hemiarthroplasty of, including associated synovectomy, tendon transfer or realignment—3 joints (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 902.55 - 46318 Interphalangeal joint or metacarpophalangeal joint, total replacement arthroplasty or hemiarthroplasty of, including associated synovectomy, tendon transfer or realignment—4 joints (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,128.25 - 46321 Interphalangeal joint or metacarpophalangeal joint, total replacement arthroplasty or hemiarthroplasty of, including associated synovectomy, tendon transfer or realignment—5 or more joints (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,353.90 - 46324 Carpal bone replacement arthroplasty including associated tendon transfer or realignment when performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 807.35 - 46325 Carpal bone replacement or resection arthroplasty using adjacent tendon or other soft tissue including associated tendon transfer or realignment when performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 842.50 - 46327 Interphalangeal joint or metacarpophalangeal joint, arthrotomy of (Anaes.) 203.15 - 46330 Interphalangeal joint or metacarpophalangeal joint, ligamentous or capsular repair, with or without arthrotomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 346.10 - 46333 Interphalangeal joint or metacarpophalangeal joint, ligamentous repair of, using free tissue graft or implant (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 564.05 - 46336 Interphalangeal joint or metacarpophalangeal joint, synovectomy, capsulectomy or debridement of, other than a service associated with another procedure related to that joint (Anaes.) (Assist.) 263.30 - 46339 Extensor tendons or flexor tendons of hand or wrist, synovectomy of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 466.20 - 46342 Distal radioulnar joint or carpometacarpal joint or joints, synovectomy of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 466.20 - 46345 Distal radioulnar joint, reconstruction or stabilisation of, including fusion, or ligamentous arthroplasty and excision of distal ulna, when performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 564.05 - 46348 Digit, synovectomy of flexor tendon or tendons—one digit (Anaes.) 244.45 - 46351 Digit, synovectomy of flexor tendon or tendons—2 digits (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 364.80 - 46354 Digit, synovectomy of flexor tendon or tendons—3 digits (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 488.85 - 46357 Digit, synovectomy of flexor tendon or tendons—4 digits (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 609.20 - 46360 Digit, synovectomy of flexor tendon or tendons—5 digits (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 733.35 - 46363 Tendon sheath of hand or wrist, open operation on, for stenosing tenovaginitis (Anaes.) 210.60 - 46366 Dupuytren’s contracture, subcutaneous fasciotomy for—each hand (Anaes.) 127.90 - 46369 Dupuytren’s contracture, palmar fasciectomy for—one hand (Anaes.) 210.60 - 46372 Dupuytren’s contracture, fasciectomy for, from one ray, including dissection of nerves—one hand (Anaes.) (Assist.) 427.95 - 46375 Dupuytren’s contracture, fasciectomy for, from 2 rays, including dissection of nerves—one hand (Anaes.) (Assist.) 507.70 - 46378 Dupuytren’s contracture, fasciectomy for, from 3 or more rays, including dissection of nerves—one hand (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 676.95 - 46381 Interphalangeal joint, joint capsule release when performed in conjunction with operation for Dupuytren’s contracture—each procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 300.80 - 46384 Z plasty (or similar local flap procedure) when performed in conjunction with operation for Dupuytren’s contracture—one such procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 300.80 - 46387 Dupuytren’s contracture, fasciectomy for, from one ray, including dissection of nerves—operation for recurrence in that ray (Anaes.) (Assist.) 620.60 - 46390 Dupuytren’s contracture, fasciectomy for, from 2 rays, including dissection of nerves—operation for recurrence in those rays (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 827.50 - 46393 Dupuytren’s contracture, fasciectomy for, from 3 or more rays, including dissection of nerves—operation for recurrence in those rays (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 959.00 - 46396 Phalanx or metacarpal of the hand, osteotomy or osteectomy of, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 329.60 - 46399 Phalanx or metacarpal of the hand, osteotomy of, with internal fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 517.80 - 46402 Phalanx or metacarpal, bone grafting of, for pseudarthrosis (non‑union), including obtaining of graft material (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 517.80 - 46405 Phalanx or metacarpal, bone grafting of, for pseudarthrosis (non‑union), involving internal fixation and including obtaining of graft material (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 631.90 - 46408 Tendon, reconstruction of, by tendon graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 692.00 - 46411 Flexor tendon pulley, reconstruction of, by graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 406.15 - 46414 Artificial tendon prosthesis, insertion of, in preparation for tendon grafting (Anaes.) (Assist.) 526.40 - 46417 Tendon transfer for restoration of hand function, each transfer (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 488.85 - 46420 Extensor tendon of hand or wrist, primary repair of, each tendon (Anaes.) 204.60 - 46423 Extensor tendon of hand or wrist, secondary repair of, each tendon (Anaes.) (Assist.) 327.15 - 46426 Flexor tendon of hand or wrist, primary repair of, proximal to A1 pulley, each tendon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 338.40 - 46429 Flexor tendon of hand or wrist, secondary repair of, proximal to A1 pulley, each tendon (Anaes.) (Assist.) 413.65 - 46432 Flexor tendon of hand, primary repair of, distal to A1 pulley, each tendon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 451.35 - 46435 Flexor tendon of hand, secondary repair of, distal to A1 pulley, each tendon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 526.50 - 46438 Mallet finger, closed pin fixation of (Anaes.) 135.45 - 46441 Mallet finger, open repair of, including pin fixation when performed (Anaes.) (Assist.) 327.15 - 46442 Mallet finger with intra‑articular fracture involving more than one‑third of base of terminal phalanx—open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 280.85 - 46444 Boutonniere deformity without joint contracture, reconstruction of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 488.85 - 46447 Boutonniere deformity with joint contracture, reconstruction of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 609.20 - 46450 Extensor tendon, tenolysis of, following tendon injury, repair or graft (H) (Anaes.) 225.70 - 46453 Flexor tendon, tenolysis of, following tendon injury, repair or graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 376.10 - 46456 Finger, percutaneous tenotomy of (Anaes.) 97.80 - 46459 Operation for osteomyelitis on distal phalanx (Anaes.) 188.05 - 46462 Operation for osteomyelitis on middle or proximal phalanx, metacarpal or carpus (Anaes.) (Assist.) 300.80 - 46464 Amputation of a supernumerary complete digit (Anaes.) 225.70 - 46465 Amputation of single digit, proximal to nail bed, involving section of bone or joint and requiring soft tissue cover (Anaes.) 225.70 - 46468 Amputation of 2 digits, proximal to nail bed, involving section of bone or joint and requiring soft tissue cover (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 394.90 - 46471 Amputation of 3 digits, proximal to nail bed, involving section of bone or joint and requiring soft tissue cover (Anaes.) (Assist.) 564.05 - 46474 Amputation of 4 digits, proximal to nail bed, involving section of bone or joint and requiring soft tissue cover (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 733.35 - 46477 Amputation of 5 digits, proximal to nail bed, involving section of bone or joint and requiring soft tissue cover (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 902.55 - 46480 Amputation of single digit, proximal to nail bed, involving section of bone or joint and requiring soft tissue cover, including metacarpal (Anaes.) (Assist.) 376.10 - 46483 Revision of amputation stump to provide adequate soft tissue cover (Anaes.) (Assist.) 300.80 - 46486 Nail bed, accurate reconstruction of nail bed laceration using magnification, undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 225.70 - 46489 Nail bed, secondary exploration and accurate repair of nail bed deformity using magnification, undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 263.30 - 46492 Contracture of digits of hand, flexor or extensor, correction of, involving tissues deeper than skin and subcutaneous tissue (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 361.05 - 46494 Ganglion of hand, excision of, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 219.95 - 46495 Ganglion or mucous cyst of distal digit, excision of, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30107 applies (Anaes.) 203.15 - 46498 Ganglion of flexor tendon sheath, excision of, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30107 applies (Anaes.) 219.95 - 46500 Ganglion of dorsal wrist joint, excision of, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30107 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 263.30 - 46501 Ganglion of volar wrist joint, excision of, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30107 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 329.20 - 46502 Recurrent ganglion of dorsal wrist joint, excision of, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30107 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 302.95 - 46503 Recurrent ganglion of volar wrist joint, excision of, other than a service associated with a service to which item 30107 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 378.40 - 46504 Neurovascular island flap, for pulp innervation (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,105.55 - 46507 Digit or ray, transposition or transfer of, on vascular pedicle, complete procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,286.20 - 46510 Macrodactyly, surgical reduction of enlarged elements—each digit (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 351.00 - 46513 Digital nail of finger or thumb, removal of, other than a service to which item 46516 applies (Anaes.) 56.50 - 46516 Digital nail of finger or thumb, removal of, in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 112.85 - 46519 Middle palmar, thenar or hypothenar spaces of hand, drainage of (excluding after‑care) (Anaes.) 141.25 - 46522 Flexor tendon sheath of finger or thumb—open operation and drainage for infection (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 421.20 - 46525 Pulp space infection, paronychia of hand, incision for, when performed in an operating theatre of a hospital, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (excluding after‑care) (Anaes.) 56.50 - 46528 Ingrowing nail of finger or thumb, wedge resection for, including removal of segment of nail, ungual fold and portion of the nail bed (Anaes.) 169.50 - 46531 Ingrowing nail of finger or thumb, partial resection of nail, including phenolisation but not including excision of nail bed (Anaes.) 85.15 - 46534 Nail plate injury or deformity, radical excision of nail germinal matrix (Anaes.) 235.50 Subdivision H—Subgroups 15, 16 and 17 of Group T8 2.45.23  Limitation of item 50303   A service described in item 50303 is applicable once in any 12 month period for each limb. 2.45.24  Application of items 51011 to 51171   Items 51011 to 51171 do not apply to a service performed in conjunction with a service to which another item in Group T8 (other than an item in Subgroup 17) applies if the service in the other item is for the purpose of spinal surgery. 2.45.25  Application of items 51061 to 51066   Items 51061 to 51066 do not apply to a service performed in conjunction with a service to which any of items 51020 to 51045 apply. 2.45.26  Meaning of motion segment   In items 51011 to 51171: motion segment includes all anatomical structures (including traversing and exiting nerve roots) between, and including, the top of the pedicle above to the bottom of the pedicle below.   - Subgroup 15—Orthopaedic - 47000 Mandible, treatment of dislocation of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) 70.65 - 47003 Clavicle, treatment of dislocation of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) 84.80 - 47006 Clavicle, treatment of dislocation of, by open reduction (Anaes.) 170.25 - 47009 Shoulder, treatment of dislocation of, requiring general anaesthesia, other than a service to which item 47012 applies (Anaes.) 169.50 - 47012 Shoulder, treatment of dislocation of, requiring general anaesthesia, open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 338.85 - 47015 Shoulder, treatment of dislocation of, not requiring general anaesthesia 84.80 - 47018 Elbow, treatment of dislocation of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) 197.60 - 47021 Elbow, treatment of dislocation of, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 263.60 - 47024 Radioulnar joint, distal or proximal, treatment of dislocation of, by closed reduction, other than a service associated with fracture or dislocation in the same region (Anaes.) 197.60 - 47027 Radioulnar joint, distal or proximal, treatment of dislocation of, by open reduction, other than a service associated with fracture or dislocation in the same region (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 263.60 - 47030 Carpus, or carpus on radius and ulna, or carpometacarpal joint, treatment of dislocation of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) 197.60 - 47033 Carpus, or carpus on radius and ulna, or carpometacarpal joint, treatment of dislocation of, by open reduction (Anaes.) (Assist.) 263.60 - 47036 Interphalangeal joint, treatment of dislocation of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) 84.80 - 47039 Interphalangeal joint, treatment of dislocation of, by open reduction (Anaes.) 112.85 - 47042 Metacarpophalangeal joint, treatment of dislocation of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) 112.85 - 47045 Metacarpophalangeal joint, treatment of dislocation of, by open reduction (Anaes.) 150.75 - 47048 Hip, treatment of dislocation of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) 324.80 - 47051 Hip, treatment of dislocation of, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 432.95 - 47054 Knee, treatment of dislocation of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) (Assist.) 324.80 - 47057 Patella, treatment of dislocation of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) 127.00 - 47060 Patella, treatment of dislocation of, by open reduction (Anaes.) 169.50 - 47063 Ankle or tarsus, treatment of dislocation of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) 254.20 - 47066 Ankle or tarsus, treatment of dislocation of, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 338.85 - 47069 Toe, treatment of dislocation of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) 70.65 - 47072 Toe, treatment of dislocation of, by open reduction (Anaes.) 94.00 - 47301 Phalanx, middle or proximal, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction, requiring anaesthesia, not provided on the same occasion as a service described in item 47304, 47307, 47310, 47313, 47316 or 47319 (Anaes.) 86.80 - 47304 Metacarpal, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction, requiring anaesthesia, not provided on the same occasion as a service described in item 47301, 47307, 47310, 47313, 47316 or 47319 (H) (Anaes.) 98.90 - 47307 Phalanx or metacarpal, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction with percutaneous K‑wire fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 200.00 - 47310 Phalanx or metacarpal, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction with fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 330.00 - 47313 Phalanx or metacarpal, treatment of intra‑articular fracture of, by closed reduction with percutaneous K‑wire fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 320.00 - 47316 Phalanx or metacarpal, treatment of intra‑articular fracture of, by open reduction with fixation, not provided on the same occasion as a service to which item 47319 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 635.00 - 47319 Middle phalanx, proximal end, treatment of intra‑articular fracture of, by open reduction with fixation, not provided on the same occasion as a service to which item 47316 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 650.00 - 47348 Carpus (excluding scaphoid), treatment of fracture of, other than a service to which item 47351 applies (Anaes.) 94.00 - 47351 Carpus (excluding scaphoid), treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (Anaes.) 235.50 - 47354 Carpal scaphoid, treatment of fracture of, other than a service to which item 47357 applies (Anaes.) 169.50 - 47357 Carpal scaphoid, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (Anaes.) (Assist.) 376.55 - 47361 Radius or ulna, or radius and ulna, distal end of, treatment of fracture of, by cast immobilisation, other than a service associated with a service to which item 47362, 47364, 47367, 47370 or 47373 applies 131.85 - 47362 Radius or ulna, or radius and ulna, distal end of, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction, requiring general or major regional anaesthesia, but excluding local infiltration, other than a service associated with a service to which item 47361, 47364, 47367, 47370 or 47373 applies (Anaes.) 197.60 - 47364 Radius or ulna, distal end of, not involving joint surface, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction with fixation, other than a service associated with a service to which item 47361 or 47362 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 280.00 - 47367 Radius, distal end of, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction with percutaneous fixation, other than a service associated with a service to which item 47361 or 47362 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 223.60 - 47370 Radius, distal end of, treatment of intra‑articular fracture of, by open reduction with fixation, other than a service associated with a service to which item 47361 or 47362 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 406.00 - 47373 Ulna, distal end of, treatment of intra‑articular fracture of, by open reduction with fixation, other than a service associated with a service to which item 47361 or 47362 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 290.00 - 47378 Radius or ulna, shaft of, treatment of fracture of, by cast immobilisation, other than a service to which item 47381, 47384, 47385 or 47386 applies (Anaes.) 169.50 - 47381 Radius or ulna, shaft of, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 254.20 - 47384 Radius or ulna, shaft of, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 338.85 - 47385 Radius or ulna, shaft of, treatment of fracture of, in conjunction with dislocation of distal radio‑ulnar joint or proximal radio‑humeral joint (Galeazzi or Monteggia injury), by closed reduction undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 291.75 - 47386 Radius or ulna, shaft of, treatment of fracture of, in conjunction with dislocation of distal radio‑ulnar joint or proximal radio‑humeral joint (Galeazzi or Monteggia injury), by open reduction or internal fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 470.70 - 47387 Radius and ulna, shafts of, treatment of fracture of, by cast immobilisation, other than a service to which item 47390 or 47393 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 272.95 - 47390 Radius and ulna, shafts of, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction, undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 409.55 - 47393 Radius and ulna, shafts of, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 546.00 - 47396 Olecranon, treatment of fracture of, other than a service to which item 47399 applies (Anaes.) 188.20 - 47399 Olecranon, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 376.55 - 47402 Olecranon, treatment of fracture of, involving excision of olecranon fragment and reimplantation of tendon (Anaes.) (Assist.) 282.35 - 47405 Radius, treatment of fracture of head or neck of, closed reduction of (Anaes.) 188.20 - 47408 Radius, treatment of fracture of head or neck of, open reduction of, including internal fixation and excision, if performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 376.55 - 47411 Humerus, treatment of fracture of tuberosity of, other than a service to which item 47417 applies (Anaes.) 112.85 - 47414 Humerus, treatment of fracture of tuberosity of, by open reduction (Anaes.) 226.00 - 47417 Humerus, treatment of fracture of tuberosity of, and associated dislocation of shoulder, by closed reduction (Anaes.) (Assist.) 263.60 - 47420 Humerus, treatment of fracture of tuberosity of, and associated dislocation of shoulder, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 517.80 - 47423 Humerus, proximal, treatment of fracture of, other than a service to which item 47426, 47429 or 47432 applies (Anaes.) 216.50 - 47426 Humerus, proximal, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction, undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 324.80 - 47429 Humerus, proximal, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 432.95 - 47432 Humerus, proximal, treatment of intra‑articular fracture of, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 541.30 - 47435 Humerus, proximal, treatment of fracture of, and associated dislocation of shoulder, by closed reduction (Anaes.) (Assist.) 414.25 - 47438 Humerus, proximal, treatment of fracture of, and associated dislocation of shoulder, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 659.15 - 47441 Humerus, proximal, treatment of intra‑articular fracture of, and associated dislocation of shoulder, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 823.75 - 47444 Humerus, shaft of, treatment of fracture of, other than a service to which item 47447 or 47450 applies (Anaes.) 226.00 - 47447 Humerus, shaft of, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction, undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 338.85 - 47450 Humerus, shaft of, treatment of fracture of, by internal or external (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 451.95 - 47451 Humerus, shaft of, treatment of fracture of, by intramedullary fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 544.80 - 47453 Humerus, distal, (supracondylar or condylar), treatment of fracture of, other than a service to which item 47456 or 47459 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 263.60 - 47456 Humerus, distal (supracondylar or condylar), treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction, undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 395.50 - 47459 Humerus, distal (supracondylar or condylar), treatment of fracture of, by open reduction, undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 527.25 - 47462 Clavicle, treatment of fracture of, other than a service to which item 47465 applies (Anaes.) 112.85 - 47465 Clavicle, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (Anaes.) (Assist.) 226.00 - 47466 Sternum, treatment of fracture of, other than a service to which item 47467 applies (Anaes.) 112.85 - 47467 Sternum, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) 226.00 - 47468 Scapula, neck or glenoid region of, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (Anaes.) (Assist.) 432.95 - 47471 Ribs (one or more), treatment of fracture of—each attendance 43.00 - 47474 Pelvic ring, treatment of fracture of, not involving disruption of pelvic ring or acetabulum 188.20 - 47477 Pelvic ring, treatment of fracture of, with disruption of pelvic ring or acetabulum 235.50 - 47480 Pelvic ring, treatment of fracture of, requiring traction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 470.70 - 47483 Pelvic ring, treatment of fracture of, requiring control by external fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 564.85 - 47486 Pelvic ring, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction and involving internal fixation of anterior segment, including diastasis of pubic symphysis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 941.45 - 47489 Pelvic ring, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction and involving internal fixation of posterior segment (including sacro‑iliac joint), with or without fixation of anterior segment (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,412.20 - 47492 Acetabulum, treatment of fracture of, and associated dislocation of hip (Anaes.) 235.50 - 47495 Acetabulum, treatment of fracture of, and associated dislocation of hip, requiring traction (Anaes.) (Assist.) 470.70 - 47498 Acetabulum, treatment of fracture of, and associated dislocation of hip, requiring internal fixation, with or without traction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 706.05 - 47501 Acetabulum, treatment of single column fracture of, by open reduction and internal fixation, including any osteotomy, osteectomy or capsulotomy required for exposure and subsequent repair, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 941.45 - 47504 Acetabulum, treatment of T‑shape fracture of, by open reduction and internal fixation, including any osteotomy, osteectomy or capsulotomy required for exposure and subsequent repair, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,412.20 - 47507 Acetabulum, treatment of transverse fracture of, by open reduction and internal fixation, including any osteotomy, osteectomy or capsulotomy required for exposure and subsequent repair, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,412.20 - 47510 Acetabulum, treatment of double column fracture of, by open reduction and internal fixation, including any osteotomy, osteectomy or capsulotomy required for exposure and subsequent repair, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,412.20 - 47513 Sacro‑iliac joint disruption, treatment of, requiring internal fixation, being a service associated with a service to which items 47501 to 47510 apply (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 376.55 - 47516 Femur, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction or traction (Anaes.) (Assist.) 432.95 - 47519 Femur, treatment of trochanteric or subcapital fracture of, by internal fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 866.20 - 47522 Femur, treatment of subcapital fracture of, by hemi‑arthroplasty (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 - 47525 Femur, treatment of fracture of, for slipped capital femoral epiphysis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 866.20 - 47528 Femur, treatment of fracture of, by internal fixation or external fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 - 47531 Femur, treatment of fracture of shaft, by intramedullary fixation and cross fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 960.25 - 47534 Femur, condylar region of, treatment of intra‑articular (T‑shaped condylar) fracture of, requiring internal fixation, with or without internal fixation of one or more osteochondral fragments (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,082.70 - 47537 Femur, condylar region of, treatment of fracture of, requiring internal fixation of one or more osteochondral fragments, other than a service associated with a service to which item 47534 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 432.95 - 47540 Hip spica or shoulder spica, application of, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 216.50 - 47543 Tibia, plateau of, treatment of medial or lateral fracture of, other than a service to which item 47546 or 47549 applies (Anaes.) 226.00 - 47546 Tibia, plateau of, treatment of medial or lateral fracture of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) 338.85 - 47549 Tibia, plateau of, treatment of medial or lateral fracture of, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 451.95 - 47552 Tibia, plateau of, treatment of both medial and lateral fractures of, other than a service to which item 47555 or 47558 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 376.55 - 47555 Tibia, plateau of, treatment of both medial and lateral fractures of, by closed reduction (H) (Anaes.) 564.85 - 47558 Tibia, plateau of, treatment of both medial and lateral fractures of, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 - 47561 Tibia, shaft of, treatment of fracture of, by cast immobilisation, other than a service to which item 47564, 47567, 47570 or 47573 applies (Anaes.) 272.95 - 47564 Tibia, shaft of, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction, with or without treatment of fibular fracture (Anaes.) 409.55 - 47565 Tibia, shaft of, treatment of fracture of, by internal fixation or external fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 712.40 - 47566 Tibia, shaft of, treatment of fracture of, by intramedullary fixation and cross fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 908.05 - 47567 Tibia, shaft of, treatment of intra‑articular fracture of, by closed reduction, with or without treatment of fibular fracture (Anaes.) (Assist.) 475.35 - 47570 Tibia, shaft of, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction, with or without treatment of fibular fracture (Anaes.) (Assist.) 546.00 - 47573 Tibia, shaft of, treatment of intra‑articular fracture of, by open reduction, with or without treatment of fibular fracture (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 682.55 - 47576 Fibula, treatment of fracture of (Anaes.) 112.85 - 47579 Patella, treatment of fracture of, other than a service to which item 47582 or 47585 applies (Anaes.) 160.05 - 47582 Patella, treatment of fracture of, by excision of patella or pole with reattachment of tendon (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 329.60 - 47585 Patella, treatment of fracture of, by internal fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 423.75 - 47588 Knee joint, treatment of fracture of, by internal fixation of intra‑articular fractures of femoral condylar or tibial articular surfaces and requiring repair or reconstruction of one or more ligaments (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,317.80 - 47591 Knee joint, treatment of fracture of, by internal fixation of intra‑articular fractures of femoral condylar and tibial articular surfaces and requiring repair or reconstruction of one or more ligaments (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,600.65 - 47594 Ankle joint, treatment of fracture of, other than a service to which item 47597 applies (Anaes.) 216.50 - 47597 Ankle joint, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) 324.80 - 47600 Ankle joint, treatment of fracture of, by internal fixation of one of malleolus, fibula or diastasis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 432.95 - 47603 Ankle joint, treatment of fracture of, by internal fixation of more than one of malleolus, fibula or diastasis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 564.85 - 47606 Calcaneum or talus, treatment of fracture of, other than a service to which item 47609, 47612, 47615 or 47618 applies, with or without dislocation (Anaes.) 235.50 - 47609 Calcaneum or talus, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction, with or without dislocation (Anaes.) (Assist.) 353.05 - 47612 Calcaneum or talus, treatment of intra‑articular fracture of, by closed reduction, with or without dislocation (Anaes.) (Assist.) 409.55 - 47615 Calcaneum or talus, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction, with or without dislocation (Anaes.) (Assist.) 470.70 - 47618 Calcaneum or talus, treatment of intra‑articular fracture of, by open reduction, with or without dislocation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 588.45 - 47621 Tarso‑metatarsal, treatment of intra‑articular fracture of, by closed reduction, with or without dislocation (Anaes.) (Assist.) 409.55 - 47624 Tarso‑metatarsal, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction, with or without dislocation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 564.85 - 47627 Tarsus (excluding calcaneum or talus), treatment of fracture of (Anaes.) 160.05 - 47630 Tarsus (excluding calcaneum or talus), treatment of fracture of, by open reduction, with or without dislocation (Anaes.) (Assist.) 338.85 - 47633 Metatarsal, one of, treatment of fracture of (Anaes.) 112.85 - 47636 Metatarsal, one of, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) 169.50 - 47639 Metatarsal, one of, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (Anaes.) 226.00 - 47642 Metatarsals, 2 of, treatment of fracture of (Anaes.) 150.75 - 47645 Metatarsals, 2 of, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) 226.00 - 47648 Metatarsals, 2 of, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 301.05 - 47651 Metatarsals, 3 or more of, treatment of fracture of (Anaes.) 235.50 - 47654 Metatarsals, 3 or more of, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) (Assist.) 353.05 - 47657 Metatarsals, 3 or more of, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 470.70 - 47663 Phalanx of great toe, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) 141.25 - 47666 Phalanx of great toe, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (Anaes.) 235.50 - 47672 Phalanx of toe (other than great toe), one of, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (Anaes.) 112.85 - 47678 Phalanx of toe (other than great toe), more than one of, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (Anaes.) 169.50 - 47726 Bone graft, harvesting of, via separate incision, in conjunction with another service, autogenous, small quantity (H) (Anaes.) 141.25 - 47729 Bone graft, harvesting of, via separate incision, in conjunction with another service, autogenous, large quantity (H) (Anaes.) 235.50 - 47732 Vascularised pedicle bone graft, harvesting of, in conjunction with another service (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 376.55 - 47735 Nasal bones, treatment of fracture of, other than a service to which item 47738 or 47741 applies—each attendance 43.05 - 47738 Nasal bones, treatment of fracture of, by reduction (Anaes.) 235.50 - 47741 Nasal bones, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction involving osteotomies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 480.35 - 47753 Maxilla, treatment of fracture of, requiring splinting, wiring of teeth, circumosseous fixation or external fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 406.65 - 47756 Mandible, treatment of fracture of, requiring splinting, wiring of teeth, circumosseous fixation or external fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 406.65 - 47762 Zygomatic bone, treatment of fracture of, requiring surgical reduction by a temporal, intra‑oral or other approach (Anaes.) 238.80 - 47765 Zygomatic bone, treatment of fracture of, requiring surgical reduction and involving internal or external fixation at one site (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 392.10 - 47768 Zygomatic bone, treatment of fracture of, requiring surgical reduction and involving internal or external fixation or both at 2 sites (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 480.35 - 47771 Zygomatic bone, treatment of fracture of, requiring surgical reduction and involving internal or external fixation or both at 3 sites (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 551.85 - 47774 Maxilla, treatment of fracture of, requiring open operation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 435.65 - 47777 Mandible, treatment of fracture of, requiring open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 435.65 - 47780 Maxilla, treatment of fracture of, requiring open reduction and internal fixation not involving a plate (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 566.35 - 47783 Mandible, treatment of fracture of, requiring open reduction and internal fixation not involving a plate (Anaes.) (Assist.) 566.35 - 47786 Maxilla, treatment of fracture of, requiring open reduction and internal fixation involving a plate (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 718.75 - 47789 Mandible, treatment of fracture of, requiring open reduction and internal fixation involving a plate (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 718.75 - 47900 Bone cyst, injection into or aspiration of (Anaes.) 169.50 - 47903 Epicondylitis, open operation for (Anaes.) 235.50 - 47904 Digital nail of toe, removal of, other than a service to which item 47906 applies (Anaes.) 56.50 - 47906 Digital nail of toe, removal of, in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 112.85 - 47912 Pulp space infection, paronychia of foot, incision for, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (excluding after‑care) (Anaes.) 56.50 - 47915 Ingrowing nail of toe, wedge resection for, with removal of segment of nail, ungual fold and portion of the nail bed (Anaes.) 169.50 - 47916 Ingrowing nail of toe, partial resection of nail, with destruction of nail matrix by phenolisation, electrocautery, laser, sodium hydroxide or acid but not including excision of nail bed (Anaes.) 85.15 - 47918 Ingrowing toenail, radical excision of nailbed (Anaes.) 235.50 - 47920 Bone growth stimulator, insertion of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 380.80 - 47921 Orthopaedic pin or wire, insertion of, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 112.85 - 47924 Buried wire, pin or screw, one or more of, which were inserted for internal fixation purposes, removal of requiring incision and suture, other than a service to which item 47927 or 47930 applies—per bone (Anaes.) 37.65 - 47927 Buried wire, pin or screw, one or more of, which were inserted for internal fixation purposes, removal of, in the operating theatre of a hospital—per bone (H) (Anaes.) 141.25 - 47930 Plate, rod or nail and associated wires, pins or screws, one or more of, all of which were inserted for internal fixation purposes, removal of, other than a service associated with a service to which item 47924 or 47927 applies—per bone (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 263.60 - 47933 Small exostosis (not more than 20 mm of growth above bone), excision of, or simple removal of bunion and any associated bursa, other than a service associated with a service for removal of bursa (Anaes.) 207.00 - 47936 Large exostosis (greater than 20 mm growth above bone), excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 254.20 - 47948 External fixation, removal of, in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 160.05 - 47951 External fixation, removal of, in conjunction with operations involving internal fixation or bone grafting or both (Anaes.) 188.20 - 47954 Tendon, repair of, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) (Assist.) 376.55 - 47957 Tendon, large, lengthening of, as an independent procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 282.35 - 47960 Tenotomy, subcutaneous, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 131.85 - 47963 Tenotomy, open, with or without tenoplasty, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 216.50 - 47966 Tendon or ligament transfer, as an independent procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 432.95 - 47969 Tenosynovectomy, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 263.60 - 47972 Tendon sheath, open operation for teno‑vaginitis, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) 210.60 - 47975 Forearm or calf, decompression fasciotomy of, for acute compartment syndrome, requiring excision of muscle and deep tissue (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 369.15 - 47978 Forearm or calf, decompression fasciotomy of, for chronic compartment syndrome, requiring excision of muscle and deep tissue (H) (Anaes.) 224.20 - 47981 Forearm, calf or interosseous muscle space of hand, decompression fasciotomy of, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 150.55 - 47982 Forage (Drill decompression), of neck or head of femur, or both (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 364.90 - 48200 Femur, bone graft to (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 - 48203 Femur, bone graft to, with internal fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 913.25 - 48206 Tibia, bone graft to (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 565.45 - 48209 Tibia, bone graft to, with internal fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 724.95 - 48212 Humerus, bone graft to (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 565.45 - 48215 Humerus, bone graft to, with internal fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 724.95 - 48218 Radius or ulna, bone graft to (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 565.45 - 48221 Radius and ulna, bone graft to, with internal fixation of one or both bones (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 - 48224 Radius or ulna, bone graft to (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 376.55 - 48227 Radius or ulna, bone graft to, with internal fixation of one or both bones (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 489.55 - 48230 Scaphoid, bone graft to, for non‑union (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 423.75 - 48233 Scaphoid, bone graft to, for non‑union, with internal fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 611.90 - 48236 Scaphoid, bone graft to, for mal‑union, including osteotomy, bone graft and internal fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 800.20 - 48239 Bone graft, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 442.45 - 48242 Bone graft, with internal fixation, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 611.90 - 48400 Phalanx, metatarsal, accessory bone or sesamoid bone, osteotomy or osteectomy of, excluding services to which item 49848 or 49851 applies, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 329.60 - 48403 Phalanx or metatarsal, osteotomy or osteectomy of, with internal fixation, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 517.80 - 48406 Fibula, radius, ulna, clavicle, scapula (other than acromion), rib, tarsus or carpus, osteotomy or osteectomy of, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 329.60 - 48409 Fibula, radius, ulna, clavicle, scapula (other than acromion), rib, tarsus or carpus, osteotomy or osteectomy, with internal fixation, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 517.80 - 48412 Humerus, osteotomy or osteectomy of, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 630.65 - 48415 Humerus, osteotomy or osteectomy of, with internal fixation, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 800.20 - 48418 Tibia, osteotomy or osteectomy of, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 630.65 - 48421 Tibia, osteotomy or osteectomy of, with internal fixation, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 800.20 - 48424 Femur or pelvis, osteotomy or osteectomy of, other than a service:(a) associated with surgery for femoroacetabular impingement; or(b) to which item 47933 or 47936 applies(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 - 48427 Femur or pelvis, osteotomy or osteectomy of, with internal fixation, excluding services to which item 47933 or 47936 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 913.25 - 48500 Femur, epiphysiodesis of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 329.60 - 48503 Tibia and fibula, epiphysiodesis of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 329.60 - 48506 Femur, tibia and fibula, epiphysiodesis of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 489.55 - 48509 Epiphysiodesis, staple arrest of hemi‑epiphysis (H) (Anaes.) 235.50 - 48512 Epiphysiolysis, operation to prevent closure of plate (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 894.40 - 48900 Shoulder, excision of coraco‑acromial ligament or removal of calcium deposit from cuff or both (Anaes.) (Assist.) 282.35 - 48903 Shoulder, decompression of subacromial space by acromioplasty, excision of coraco‑acromial ligament and distal clavicle, or any combination (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 564.85 - 48906 Shoulder, repair of rotator cuff, including excision of coraco‑acromial ligament or removal of calcium deposit from cuff, or both—other than a service associated with a service to which item 48900 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 564.85 - 48909 Shoulder, repair of rotator cuff, including decompression of subacromial space by acromioplasty, excision of coraco‑acromial ligament and distal clavicle, or any combination, other than a service associated with a service to which item 48903 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 - 48912 Shoulder, arthrotomy of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 329.60 - 48915 Shoulder, hemi‑arthroplasty of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 - 48918 Shoulder, total replacement arthroplasty of, including any associated rotator cuff repair (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,506.45 - 48921 Shoulder, total replacement arthroplasty, revision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,553.40 - 48924 Shoulder, total replacement arthroplasty, revision of, requiring bone graft to scapula or humerus, or both (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,788.85 - 48927 Shoulder prosthesis, removal of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 367.05 - 48930 Shoulder, stabilisation procedure for recurrent anterior or posterior dislocation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 - 48933 Shoulder, stabilisation procedure for multi‑directional instability, anterior or posterior (or both) repair when performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 988.55 - 48936 Shoulder, synovectomy of, as an independent procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 - 48939 Shoulder, arthrodesis of, with synovectomy if performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,082.70 - 48942 Shoulder, arthrodesis of, with synovectomy if performed, with removal of prosthesis, requiring bone grafting or internal fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,412.20 - 48945 Shoulder, diagnostic arthroscopy of (including biopsy)—other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the shoulder region (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 272.95 - 48948 Shoulder, arthroscopic surgery of, involving any one or more of: removal of loose bodies; decompression of calcium deposit; debridement of labrum, synovium or rotator cuff; or chondroplasty—other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the shoulder region (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 611.90 - 48951 Shoulder, arthroscopic division of coraco‑acromial ligament including acromioplasty—other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the shoulder region (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 894.40 - 48954 Shoulder, arthroscopic total synovectomy of, including release of contracture when performed—other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the shoulder region (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 941.45 - 48957 Shoulder, arthroscopic stabilisation of, for recurrent instability including labral repair or reattachment when performed—other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the shoulder region (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,082.70 - 48960 Shoulder, reconstruction or repair of, including repair of rotator cuff by arthroscopic, arthroscopic assisted or mini open means; arthroscopic acromioplasty; or resection of acromioclavicular joint by separate approach when performed—other than a service associated with another procedure of the shoulder region (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 941.45 - 49100 Elbow, arthrotomy of, involving one or more of lavage, removal of loose body or division of contracture (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 329.60 - 49103 Elbow, ligamentous stabilisation of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 706.05 - 49106 Elbow, arthrodesis of, with synovectomy if performed (Anaes.) (Assist.) 941.45 - 49109 Elbow, total synovectomy of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 706.05 - 49112 Elbow, silastic or other replacement of radial head (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 706.05 - 49115 Elbow, total joint replacement of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,129.65 - 49116 Elbow, total replacement arthroplasty of, revision procedure, including removal of prosthesis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,491.15 - 49117 Elbow, total replacement arthroplasty of, revision procedure, requiring bone grafting, including removal of prosthesis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,789.35 - 49118 Elbow, diagnostic arthroscopy of, including biopsy and lavage, other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the elbow (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 272.95 - 49121 Elbow, arthroscopic surgery involving any one or more of: drilling of defect; removal of loose body; release of contracture or adhesions; chondroplasty; or osteoplasty—other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the elbow (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 611.90 - 49200 Wrist, arthrodesis of, with synovectomy if performed, with or without bone graft and internal fixation of the radiocarpal joint (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 818.95 - 49203 Wrist, limited arthrodesis of the intercarpal joint, with synovectomy if performed, with or without bone graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 611.90 - 49206 Wrist, proximal carpectomy of, including styloidectomy when performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 564.85 - 49209 Wrist, total replacement arthroplasty of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 - 49210 Wrist, total replacement arthroplasty of, revision procedure, including removal of prosthesis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 994.30 - 49211 Wrist, total replacement arthroplasty of, revision procedure, requiring bone grafting, including removal of prosthesis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,193.15 - 49212 Wrist, arthrotomy of (H) (Anaes.) 235.50 - 49215 Wrist, reconstruction of, including repair of single or multiple ligaments or capsules, including associated arthrotomy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 649.70 - 49218 Wrist, diagnostic arthroscopy of, including radiocarpal or midcarpal joints, or both (including biopsy)—other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the wrist joint (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 272.95 - 49221 Wrist, arthroscopic surgery of, involving any one or more of: drilling of defect; removal of loose body, release of adhesions; local synovectomy; or debridement of one area—other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the wrist joint (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 611.90 - 49224 Wrist, arthroscopic debridement of: 2 or more distinct areas; or osteoplasty including excision of the distal ulna; or total synovectomy, other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the wrist (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 706.05 - 49227 Wrist, arthroscopic pinning of osteochondral fragment or stabilisation procedure for ligamentous disruption—other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the wrist joint (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 706.05 - 49300 Sacro‑iliac joint—arthrodesis of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 521.25 - 49303 Hip, arthrotomy of, including lavage, drainage or biopsy when performed, other than a service associated with surgery for femoroacetabular impingement (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 546.00 - 49306 Hip‑arthrodesis of, with synovectomy if performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,082.70 - 49309 Hip, arthrectomy or excision arthroplasty of, including removal of prosthesis (Austin Moore or similar (non cement)) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 - 49312 Hip, arthrectomy or excision arthroplasty of, including removal of prosthesis (cemented, porous coated or similar) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 941.45 - 49315 Hip, arthroplasty of, unipolar or bipolar (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 847.35 - 49318 Hip, total replacement arthroplasty of, including minor bone grafting (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,317.80 - 49319 Hip, total replacement arthroplasty of, including associated minor grafting, if performed—bilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,315.30 - 49321 Hip, total replacement arthroplasty of, including major bone grafting, including obtaining of graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,600.65 - 49324 Hip, total replacement arthroplasty of, revision procedure including removal of prosthesis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,882.95 - 49327 Hip, total replacement arthroplasty of, revision procedure requiring bone grafting to acetabulum, including obtaining of graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,165.35 - 49330 Hip, total replacement arthroplasty of, revision procedure requiring bone grafting to femur, including obtaining of graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,165.35 - 49333 Hip, total replacement arthroplasty of, revision procedure requiring bone grafting to both acetabulum and femur, including obtaining of graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,447.85 - 49336 Hip, treatment of a fracture of the femur if revision total hip replacement is required as part of the treatment of the fracture (not including intra‑operative fracture), being a service associated with a service to which items 49324 to 49333 apply (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 357.70 - 49339 Hip, revision total replacement of, requiring anatomic specific allograft of proximal femur greater than 5 cm in length (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,777.30 - 49342 Hip, revision total replacement of, requiring anatomic specific allograft of acetabulum (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,777.30 - 49345 Hip, revision total replacement of, requiring anatomic specific allograft of both femur and acetabulum (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,295.10 - 49346 Hip, revision arthroplasty with replacement of acetabular liner or ceramic head, not requiring removal of femoral component or acetabular shell (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 847.35 - 49360 Hip, diagnostic arthroscopy of, other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the hip (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 343.95 - 49363 Hip, diagnostic arthroscopy of, with synovial biopsy, other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the hip (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 414.20 - 49366 Hip, arthroscopic surgery of, other than a service associated with:(a) another arthroscopic procedure of the hip; or(b) surgery for femoroacetabular impingement(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 611.90 - 49500 Knee, arthrotomy of, involving one or more of; capsular release, biopsy or lavage, or removal of loose body or foreign body (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 376.55 - 49503 Knee, partial or total meniscectomy of, repair of collateral or cruciate ligament, patellectomy of, chondroplasty of, osteoplasty of, patello‑femoral stabilisation or single transfer of ligament or tendon (other than a service to which another item in this Group applies)—any one procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 489.55 - 49506 Knee, partial or total meniscectomy of, repair of collateral or cruciate ligament, patellectomy of, chondroplasty of, osteoplasty of, patello‑femoral stabilisation or single transfer of ligament or tendon (other than a service to which another item in this Group applies)—any 2 or more procedures (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 734.40 - 49509 Knee, total synovectomy or arthrodesis with synovectomy if performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 - 49512 Knee, arthrodesis of, with synovectomy if performed, with removal of prosthesis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,082.70 - 49515 Knee, removal of prosthesis, cemented or uncemented, including associated cement, as the first stage of a 2 stage procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 847.35 - 49517 Knee, hemiarthroplasty of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,206.35 - 49518 Knee, total replacement arthroplasty of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,317.80 - 49519 Knee, total replacement arthroplasty of, including associated minor grafting, if performed—bilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,315.30 - 49521 Knee, total replacement arthroplasty of, requiring major bone grafting to femur or tibia, including obtaining of graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,600.65 - 49524 Knee, total replacement arthroplasty of, requiring major bone grafting to femur and tibia, including obtaining of graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,882.95 - 49527 Knee, total replacement arthroplasty of, revision procedure, including removal of prosthesis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,600.65 - 49530 Knee, total replacement arthroplasty of, revision procedure, requiring bone grafting to femur or tibia, including obtaining of graft and including removal of prosthesis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,977.20 - 49533 Knee, total replacement arthroplasty of, revision procedure, requiring bone grafting to both femur and tibia, including obtaining of graft and including removal of prosthesis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,259.65 - 49534 Knee, patello‑femoral joint of, total replacement arthroplasty as a primary procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 449.55 - 49536 Knee, repair or reconstruction of, for chronic instability (open or arthroscopic, or both) involving either cruciate or collateral ligaments, including notchplasty when performed, other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the knee (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 941.45 - 49539 Knee, reconstructive surgery of cruciate ligament or ligaments (open or arthroscopic, or both), including notchplasty when performed and surgery to other internal derangements, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies or a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the knee (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 941.45 - 49542 Knee, reconstructive surgery of cruciate ligament or ligaments (open or arthroscopic, or both), including notchplasty, meniscus repair, extracapsular procedure and debridement when performed, other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the knee (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,317.80 - 49545 Knee, revision arthrodesis of, with synovectomy if performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 - 49548 Knee, revision of patello‑femoral stabilisation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 941.45 - 49551 Knee, revision of procedures to which item 49536, 49539 or 49542 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,317.80 - 49554 Knee, revision of total replacement of, by anatomic specific allograft of tibia or femur (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,882.95 - 49557 Knee, diagnostic arthroscopy of (including biopsy, simple trimming of meniscal margin or plica)—other than a service associated with:(a) autologous chondrocyte implantation; or(b) matrix‑induced autologous chondrocyte implantation; or(c) another arthroscopic procedure of the knee region (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 272.95 - 49558 Knee, arthroscopic surgery of, involving one or more of debridement, osteoplasty or chrondroplasty—not associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the knee region (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 272.95 - 49559 Knee, arthroscopic surgery of, involving chrondroplasty requiring multiple drilling or carbon fibre (or similar) implant, including any associated debridement or osteoplasty—not associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the knee region (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 408.70 - 49560 Knee, arthroscopic surgery of, involving one or more of partial or total meniscectomy, removal of loose body or lateral release—other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the knee region (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 551.60 - 49561 Knee, arthroscopic surgery of, involving one or more of partial or total meniscectomy, removal of loose body or lateral release, if the procedure includes associated debridement, osteoplasty or chrondroplasty—not associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the knee region (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 674.00 - 49562 Knee, arthroscopic surgery of, involving one or more of partial or total meniscectomy, removal of loose body or lateral release, if the procedure includes chondroplasty requiring multiple drilling or carbon fibre (or similar) implant and associated debridement or osteoplasty—not associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the knee region (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 735.50 - 49563 Knee, arthroscopic surgery of, involving one or more of:(a) meniscus repair; or(b) osteochondral graft; or(c) chondral graft—excluding autologous chondrocyte implantation or matrix‑induced autologous chondrocyte implantation and not associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the knee region (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 796.70 - 49564 Knee, patello‑femoral stabilisation of, combined arthroscopic and open procedure, including lateral release, medial capsulorrhaphy and tendon transfer, other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the knee (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 919.05 - 49566 Knee, arthroscopic total synovectomy of, other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the knee (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 - 49569 Knee, mobilisation for post‑traumatic stiffness, by multiple muscle or tendon release (quadricepsplasty) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 - 49700 Ankle, diagnostic arthroscopy of, including biopsy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 272.95 - 49703 Ankle, arthroscopic surgery of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 611.90 - 49706 Ankle, arthrotomy of, involving one or more of: lavage, removal of loose body or division of contracture (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 329.60 - 49709 Ankle, ligamentous stabilisation of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 706.05 - 49712 Ankle, arthrodesis of, with synovectomy if performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 - 49715 Ankle, total joint replacement of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,129.65 - 49716 Ankle, total replacement arthroplasty of, revision procedure, including removal of prosthesis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,491.15 - 49717 Ankle, total replacement arthroplasty of, revision procedure, requiring bone grafting, including removal of prosthesis (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,789.35 - 49718 Ankle, Achilles’ tendon or other major tendon, repair of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 376.55 - 49721 Ankle, Achilles’ tendon rupture managed by non‑operative treatment 235.50 - 49724 Ankle, Achilles’ tendon, secondary repair or reconstruction of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 659.15 - 49727 Ankle, Achilles’ tendon, operation for lengthening (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 282.35 - 49728 Ankle, lengthening of the gastrocnemius aponeurosis and soleus fascia, for the correction of equinus deformity in children with cerebral palsy (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 564.70 - 49800 Foot, flexor or extensor tendon, primary repair of (Anaes.) 131.85 - 49803 Foot, flexor or extensor tendon, secondary repair of (Anaes.) 169.50 - 49806 Foot, subcutaneous tenotomy of, one or more tendons (Anaes.) 131.85 - 49809 Foot, open tenotomy of, with or without tenoplasty (H) (Anaes.) 216.50 - 49812 Foot, tendon or ligament transplantation of, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 432.95 - 49815 Foot, triple arthrodesis of, with synovectomy if performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 - 49818 Foot, excision of calcaneal spur (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 272.95 - 49821 Foot, correction of hallux valgus or hallux rigidus by excision arthroplasty (Keller’s or similar procedure)—unilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 432.95 - 49824 Foot, correction of hallux valgus or hallux rigidus by excision arthroplasty (Keller’s or similar procedure)—bilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 757.95 - 49827 Foot, correction of hallux valgus by transfer of adductor hallucis tendon—unilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 470.70 - 49830 Foot, correction of hallux valgus by transfer of adductor hallucis tendon—bilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 823.75 - 49833 Foot, correction of hallus valgus by osteotomy of first metatarsal with or without internal fixation and with or without excision of exostoses associated with the first metatarsophalangeal joint—unilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 517.80 - 49836 Foot, correction of hallus valgus by osteotomy of first metatarsal with or without internal fixation and with or without excision of exostoses associated with the first metatarsophalangeal joint—bilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 894.40 - 49837 Foot, correction of hallus valgus by osteotomy of first metatarsal and transfer of adductor hallicus tendon, with or without internal fixation and with or without excision of exostoses associated with the first metatarsal joint—unilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 647.25 - 49838 Foot, correction of hallus valgus by osteotomy of first metatarsal and transfer of adductor hallicus tendon, with or without internal fixation and with or without excision of exostoses associated with the first metatarsal joint—bilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,117.75 - 49839 Foot, correction of hallux rigidus or hallux valgus by prosthetic arthroplasty—unilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 517.80 - 49842 Foot, correction of hallux rigidus or hallux valgus by prosthetic arthroplasty—bilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 894.40 - 49845 Foot, arthrodesis of, first metatarso‑phalangeal joint, with synovectomy if performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 470.70 - 49848 Foot, correction of claw or hammer toe (Anaes.) 160.05 - 49851 Foot, correction of claw or hammer toe with internal fixation (H) (Anaes.) 207.00 - 49854 Foot, radical plantar fasciotomy or fasciectomy of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 376.55 - 49857 Foot, metatarso‑phalangeal joint replacement (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 348.35 - 49860 Foot, synovectomy of metatarso‑phalangeal joint, single joint (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 282.35 - 49863 Foot, synovectomy of metatarso‑phalangeal joint, 2 or more joints (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 423.75 - 49866 Foot, neurectomy for plantar or digital neuritis (Morton’s or Bett’s syndrome) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 301.05 - 49878 Talipes equinovarus, calcaneo valgus or metatarsus varus, treatment by cast, splint or manipulation—each attendance (Anaes.) 56.50 - 50100 Joint, diagnostic arthroscopy of (including biopsy), other than a service to which another item in this Group applies and other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure (Anaes.) (Assist.) 272.95 - 50102 Joint, arthroscopic surgery of, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 611.90 - 50103 Joint, arthrotomy of, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 329.60 - 50104 Joint, synovectomy of, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 312.30 - 50106 Joint, stabilisation of, involving one or more of: repair of capsule, repair of ligament or internal fixation, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 470.70 - 50109 Joint, arthrodesis of, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies, with synovectomy if performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 470.70 - 50112 Cicatricial flexion or extension contraction of joint, correction of, involving tissues deeper than skin and subcutaneous tissue, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 361.05 - 50115 Joint or joints, manipulation of, performed in the operating theatre of a hospital, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) 142.95 - 50118 Subtalar joint, arthrodesis of, with synovectomy if performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 432.95 - 50121 Greater trochanter, transplantation of ileopsoas tendon to (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 847.35 - 50127 Joint or joints, arthroplasty of, by any technique other than a service to which another item applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 702.50 - 50130 Joint or joints, application of external fixator to, other than for treatment of fractures (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 312.30 - 50200 Aggressive or potentially malignant bone or deep soft tissue tumour, biopsy of (not including after‑care) (Anaes.) 188.20 - 50201 Aggressive or potentially malignant bone or deep soft tissue tumour involving neurovascular structures, open biopsy of (not including after‑care) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 329.50 - 50203 Bone or malignant deep soft tissue tumour, lesional or marginal excision of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 414.25 - 50206 Bone tumour, lesional or marginal excision of, combined with any one of the following:(a) liquid nitrogen freezing;(b) autograft;(c) allograft;(d) cementation(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 611.90 - 50209 Bone tumour, lesional or marginal excision of, combined with any 2 or more of the following:(a) liquid nitrogen freezing;(b) autograft;(c) allograft;(d) cementation(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 - 50212 Malignant or aggressive soft tissue tumour affecting the long bones of leg or arm, enbloc resection of, with compartmental or wide excision of soft tissue, without reconstruction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,647.55 - 50215 Malignant or aggressive soft tissue tumour affecting the long bones of leg or arm, enbloc resection of, with compartmental or wide excision of soft tissue, with intercalary reconstruction (prosthesis, allograft or autograft) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,071.20 - 50218 Malignant tumour of long bone, enbloc resection of, with replacement or arthrodesis of adjacent joint, with synovectomy if performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,730.30 - 50221 Malignant or aggressive soft tissue tumour of pelvis, sacrum or spine; or scapula and shoulder, enbloc resection of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,541.85 - 50224 Malignant or aggressive soft tissue tumour of pelvis, sacrum or spine; or scapula and shoulder, enbloc resection of, with reconstruction by prosthesis, allograft or autograft (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,824.35 - 50227 Malignant bone tumour, enbloc resection of, with massive anatomic specific allograft or autograft, with or without prosthetic replacement (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,295.10 - 50230 Benign tumour, resection of, requiring anatomic specific allograft, with or without internal fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,694.60 - 50233 Malignant tumour, amputation for, hemipelvectomy or interscapulo‑thoracic (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,165.35 - 50236 Malignant tumour, amputation for, hip disarticulation, shoulder disarticulation or proximal third femur (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,694.60 - 50239 Malignant tumour, amputation for, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,129.65 - 50300 Joint deformity, slow correction of, using ring fixator or similar device, including all associated attendances—applicable once in a 12 month period (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,157.70 - 50303 Limb lengthening, not more than 5 cm, by gradual distraction, applying an external fixator or intra medullary device in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,580.60 - 50306 Limb lengthening, if:(a) the lengthening is bipolar; or(b) bone transport is carried out; or(c) the fixator is extended to correct an adjacent joint deformity; or(d) the lengthening is more than 5cm(Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,467.90 - 50309 Ring fixator or similar device, adjustment of, with or without insertion or removal of fixation pins, performed under general anaesthesia in the operating theatre of a hospital, other than a service to which item 50303 or 50306 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 305.05 - 50312 Ankle, synovectomy of, by arthroscopic or other means—not associated with another arthroscopic procedure of the ankle (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 700.10 - 50315 Talipes equinovarus, posterior release of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 693.30 - 50318 Talipes equinovarus, medial release of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 693.30 - 50321 Talipes equinovarus, combined postero‑medial release of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 928.85 - 50324 Talipes equinovarus, combined postero‑medial release of, revision procedure (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,324.15 - 50327 Talipes equinovarus, bilateral procedures (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,615.15 - 50330 Talipes equinovarus, or talus, vertical congenital—post operative manipulation and change of plaster, performed under general anaesthesia in the operating theatre of a hospital, other than a service to which item 50315, 50318, 50321, 50324 or 50327 applies (H) (Anaes.) 228.70 - 50333 Tarsal coalition, excision of, with interposition of muscle, fat graft or similar graft (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 616.85 - 50336 Talus, vertical, congenital, combined anterior and posterior reconstruction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 922.05 - 50339 Foot and ankle, tibialis anterior tendon (split or whole) transfer to lateral column (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 561.55 - 50342 Foot and ankle, tibialis or tibialis posterior tendon transfer, through the interosseous membrane to anterior or posterior aspect of foot (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 651.60 - 50345 Hyperextension deformity of toe, release incorporating V‑Y plasty of skin, lengthening of extensor tendons and release of capsule contracture (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 346.65 - 50348 Knee, deformity of, post‑operative manipulation and change of plaster, performed under general anaesthesia in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 228.70 - 50349 Hip, congenital dislocation of, treatment of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) (Assist.) 320.15 - 50351 Hip, developmental dislocation of, open reduction of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,597.25 - 50352 Hip, congenital dislocation of, treatment of, involving supervision of splint, harness or cast—each attendance (Anaes.) 56.50 - 50353 Hip spica, initial application of, for congenital dislocation of hip (excluding after‑care) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 354.80 - 50354 Tibia, pseudarthrosis of, congenital, resection and internal fixation (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,310.15 - 50357 Knee, leg or thigh, rectus femoris tendon transfer or medial or lateral hamstring tendon transfer (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 561.55 - 50360 Knee, leg or thigh, combined medial and lateral hamstring tendon transfer (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 651.60 - 50363 Knee, contracture of, posterior release involving multiple tendon lengthening or tenotomies, unilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 499.05 - 50366 Knee, contracture of, posterior release involving multiple tendon lengthening or tenotomies, bilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 873.45 - 50369 Knee, contracture of, posterior release involving multiple tendon lengthening with or without tenotomies and release of joint capsule with or without cruciate ligaments, unilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 651.60 - 50372 Knee, contracture of, posterior release involving multiple tendon lengthening with or without tenotomies and release of joint capsule with or without cruciate ligaments, bilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,143.80 - 50375 Hip, contracture of, medial release, involving lengthening of, or division of, the adductors and psoas with or without division of the obturator nerve, unilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 499.05 - 50378 Hip, contracture of, medial release, involving lengthening of, or division of the adductors and psoas with or without division of the obturator nerve, bilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 873.45 - 50381 Hip, contracture of, anterior release, involving lengthening of, or division of the hip flexors and psoas with or without division of the joint capsule, unilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 651.60 - 50384 Hip, contracture of, anterior release, involving lengthening of, or division of the hip flexors and psoas with or without division of the joint capsule, bilateral (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,143.80 - 50387 Hip, iliopsoas tendon transfer to greater trochanter, or transfer of abdominal musculature to greater trochanter, or transfer or adductors to ischium (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 651.60 - 50390 Perthes, cerebral palsy, or other neuromuscular conditions, affecting hips or knees, application of cast under general anaesthesia, performed in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 228.70 - 50393 Pelvis, bone graft or shelf procedures for acetabular dysplasia (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 845.60 - 50394 Acetabular dysplasia, treatment of, by multiple peri‑acetabular osteotomy, including internal fixation, if performed (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,777.30 - 50396 Hand, congenital abnormalities or duplication of digits, amputation or splitting of phalanx or phalanges, with ligament or joint reconstruction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 464.55 - 50399 Forearm, radial aplasia or dysplasia (radial club hand), centralisation or radialisation of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 922.05 - 50402 Torticollis, bipolar release of sternocleidomastoid muscle and associated soft tissue (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 422.95 - 50405 Elbow, flexorplasty, or tendon transfer to restore elbow function (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 575.40 - 50408 Shoulder, congenital or developmental dislocation, open reduction of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 998.25 - 50411 Lower limb deficiency, treatment of congenital deficiency of the femur by resection of the distal femur and proximal tibia followed by knee fusion (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,310.15 - 50414 Lower limb deficiency, treatment of congenital deficiency of the femur by resection of the distal femur and proximal tibia followed by knee fusion and rotationplasty (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,767.60 - 50417 Lower limb deficiency, treatment of congenital deficiency of the tibia by reconstruction of the knee, involving transfer of fibula or tibia, and repair of quadriceps mechanism (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,310.15 - 50420 Patella, congenital dislocation of, reconstruction of the quadriceps (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,081.35 - 50423 Tibia, fibula or both, congenital deficiency of, transfer of the fibula to tibia, with internal fixation (Anaes.) (Assist.) 998.25 - 50426 Diaphyseal aclasia, removal of lesion or lesions from bone—one approach (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 464.55 - 50450 Unilateral single event multilevel surgery, for a patient less than 18 years of age with hemiplegic cerebral palsy, comprising 3 or more of the following:(a) lengthening of a contracted muscle tendon unit or units by tendon lengthening, muscle recession, fractional lengthening or intramuscular lengthening;(b) correction of muscle imbalance by transfer of a tendon or tendons;(c) correction of femoral torsion by rotational osteotomy of the femur;(d) correction of tibial torsion by rotational osteotomy of the tibia;(e) correction of joint instability by varus derotation osteotomy of the femur, subtalar arthrodesis with synovectomy if performed, or os calcis lengthening;conjoint surgery, principal specialist surgeon, including fluoroscopy and aftercare (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,226.90 - 50451 Unilateral single event multilevel surgery, for a patient less than 18 years of age with hemiplegic cerebral palsy, comprising 3 or more of the following:(a) lengthening of a contracted muscle tendon unit or units by tendon lengthening, muscle recession, fractional lengthening or intramuscular lengthening;(b) correction of muscle imbalance by transfer of a tendon or tendons;(c) correction of femoral torsion by rotational osteotomy of the femur;(d) correction of tibial torsion by rotational osteotomy of the tibia;(e) correction of joint instability by varus derotation osteotomy of the femur, subtalar arthrodesis with synovectomy if performed, or os calcis lengthening;conjoint surgery, conjoint specialist surgeon, including fluoroscopy and excluding aftercare (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,226.90 - 50455 Bilateral single event multilevel surgery, for a patient less than 18 years of age with diplegic cerebral palsy, that comprises:(a) lengthening of a contracted muscle tendon unit or units by tendon lengthening, muscle recession, fractional lengthening or intramuscular lengthening; and(b) correction of muscle imbalance by transfer of a tendon or tendons;conjoint surgery, principal specialist surgeon, including fluoroscopy and aftercare (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,389.40 - 50456 Bilateral single event multilevel surgery, for a patient less than 18 years of age with diplegic cerebral palsy, that comprises:(a) lengthening of a contracted muscle tendon unit or units by tendon lengthening, muscle recession, fractional lengthening or intramuscular lengthening; and(b) correction of muscle imbalance by transfer of a tendon or tendons;conjoint surgery, conjoint specialist surgeon, including fluoroscopy and excluding aftercare (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,389.40 - 50460 Bilateral single event multilevel surgery, for a patient less than 18 years of age with diplegic cerebral palsy, that comprises bilateral soft tissue surgery and bilateral femoral osteotomies, with:(a) lengthening of a contracted muscle tendon unit or units by tendon lengthening, muscle recession, fractional lengthening or intramuscular lengthening; and(b) correction of muscle imbalance by transfer of a tendon or tendons; and(c) correction of torsional abnormality of the femur by rotational osteotomy and internal fixation;conjoint surgery, principal specialist surgeon, including fluoroscopy and aftercare (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,074.45 - 50461 Bilateral single event multilevel surgery, for a patient less than 18 years of age with diplegic cerebral palsy, that comprises bilateral soft tissue surgery and bilateral femoral osteotomies, with:(a) lengthening of a contracted muscle tendon unit or units by tendon lengthening, muscle recession, fractional lengthening or intramuscular lengthening; and(b) correction of muscle imbalance by transfer of a tendon or tendons; and(c) correction of torsional abnormality of the femur by rotational osteotomy and internal fixation;conjoint surgery, conjoint specialist surgeon, including fluoroscopy and excluding aftercare (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,074.45 - 50465 Bilateral single event multilevel surgery, for a patient less than 18 years of age with diplegic cerebral palsy, that comprises bilateral soft tissue surgery, bilateral femoral osteotomies and bilateral tibial osteotomies, with:(a) lengthening of a contracted muscle tendon unit or units by tendon lengthening, muscle recession, fractional lengthening or intramuscular lengthening; and(b) correction of muscle imbalance by transfer of a tendon or tendons; and(c) correction of abnormal torsion of the femur by rotational osteotomy with internal fixation; and(d) correction of abnormal torsion of the tibia by rotational osteotomy with internal fixation;conjoint surgery, principal specialist surgeon, including fluoroscopy and aftercare (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,921.80 - 50466 Bilateral single event multilevel surgery, for a patient less than 18 years of age with diplegic cerebral palsy, that comprises bilateral soft tissue surgery, bilateral femoral osteotomies and bilateral tibial osteotomies, with:(a) lengthening of a contracted muscle tendon unit or units by tendon lengthening, muscle recession, fractional lengthening or intramuscular lengthening; and(b) correction of muscle imbalance by transfer of a tendon or tendons; and(c) correction of abnormal torsion of the femur by rotational osteotomy with internal fixation; and(d) correction of abnormal torsion of the tibia by rotational osteotomy with internal fixation;conjoint surgery, conjoint specialist surgeon, including fluoroscopy and excluding aftercare (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,921.80 - 50470 Bilateral single event multilevel surgery, for a patient less than 18 years of age with cerebral palsy, that comprises bilateral soft tissue surgery, bilateral femoral osteotomies, bilateral tibial osteotomies and bilateral foot stabilisation, with:(a) lengthening of a contracted muscle tendon unit or units by tendon lengthening, muscle recession, fractional lengthening or intramuscular lengthening; and(b) correction of muscle imbalance by transfer of a tendon or tendons; and(c) correction of abnormal torsion of the femur by rotational osteotomy with internal fixation; and(d) correction of abnormal torsion of the tibia by rotational osteotomy with internal fixation; and(e) correction of bilateral pes valgus by os calcis lengthening or subtalar fusion;conjoint surgery, principal specialist surgeon, including fluoroscopy and aftercare (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,705.55 - 50471 Bilateral single event multilevel surgery, for a patient less than 18 years of age with cerebral palsy, that comprises bilateral soft tissue surgery, bilateral femoral osteotomies, bilateral tibial osteotomies and bilateral foot stabilisation, with:(a) lengthening of a contracted muscle tendon unit or units by tendon lengthening, muscle recession, fractional lengthening or intramuscular lengthening; and(b) correction of muscle imbalance by transfer of a tendon or tendons; and(c) correction of abnormal torsion of the femur by rotational osteotomy with internal fixation; and(d) correction of abnormal torsion of the tibia by rotational osteotomy with internal fixation; and(e) correction of bilateral pes valgus by os calcis lengthening or subtalar fusion;conjoint surgery, conjoint specialist surgeon, including fluoroscopy and excluding aftercare (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,705.55 - 50475 Single event multilevel surgery, for a patient less than 18 years of age with diplegic cerebral palsy, for the correction of crouch gait, including:(a) lengthening of a contracted muscle tendon unit or units by tendon lengthening, muscle recession, fractional lengthening or intramuscular lengthening; and(b) correction of muscle imbalance by transfer of a tendon or tendons; and(c) correction of flexion deformity at the knee by extension osteotomy of the distal femur including internal fixation; and(d) correction of patella alta and quadriceps insufficiency by patella tendon shortening or reconstruction; and(e) correction of tibial torsion by rotational osteotomy of the tibia with internal fixation; and(f) correction of foot instability by os calcis lengthening or subtalar fusion;conjoint surgery, principal specialist surgeon, including fluoroscopy and aftercare (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 4,275.85 - 50476 Single event multilevel surgery, for a patient less than 18 years of age with diplegic cerebral palsy, for the correction of crouch gait including:(a) lengthening of a contracted muscle tendon unit or units by tendon lengthening, muscle recession, fractional lengthening or intramuscular lengthening; and(b) correction of muscle imbalance by transfer of a tendon or tendons; and(c) correction of flexion deformity at the knee by extension osteotomy of the distal femur including internal fixation; and(d) correction of patella alta and quadriceps insufficiency by patella tendon shortening or reconstruction; and(e) correction of tibial torsion by rotational osteotomy of the tibia with internal fixation; and(f) correction of foot instability by os calcis lengthening or subtalar fusion;conjoint surgery, conjoint specialist surgeon, including fluoroscopy and excluding aftercare (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 4,275.85 - 50500 Radius or ulna, distal end of, with open growth plate, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) 276.65 - 50504 Radius or ulna, distal end of, with open growth plate, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (Anaes.) (Assist.) 369.05 - 50508 Radius, distal end of, with open growth plate, treatment of Colles’, Smith’s or Barton’s fracture of, by closed reduction (Anaes.) 395.25 - 50512 Radius, distal end of, with open growth plate, treatment of Colles’, Smith’s or Barton’s fracture of, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 527.30 - 50516 Radius or ulna, shaft of, with open growth plate, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 355.85 - 50520 Radius or ulna, shaft of, with open growth plate, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 474.40 - 50524 Radius or ulna, shaft of, with open growth plate, treatment of fracture of, in conjunction with dislocation of distal radio‑ulnar joint or proximal radio‑humeral joint (Galeazzi or Monteggia injury), by closed reduction undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 408.50 - 50528 Radius or ulna, shaft of, with open growth plate, treatment of fracture of, in conjunction with dislocation of distal radio‑ulnar joint or proximal radio‑humeral joint (Galeazzi or Monteggia injury), by reduction with or without internal fixation by open or percutaneous means (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 659.00 - 50532 Radius and ulna, shafts of, with open growth plates, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 573.40 - 50536 Radius and ulna, shafts of, with open growth plates, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 764.40 - 50540 Olecranon, with open growth plate, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 527.30 - 50544 Radius, with open growth plate, treatment of fracture of head or neck of, by closed reduction of (Anaes.) 263.60 - 50548 Radius, with open growth plate, treatment of fracture of head or neck of, by reduction with or without internal fixation by open or percutaneous means (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 527.30 - 50552 Humerus, proximal, with open growth plate, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction, undertaken in the operating theatre, neonatal unit or nursery of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 454.75 - 50556 Humerus, proximal, with open growth plate, treatment of fracture of, by open reduction (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 606.20 - 50560 Humerus, shaft of, with open growth plate, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction, undertaken in the operating theatre, neonatal unit or nursery of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 474.40 - 50564 Humerus, shaft of, with open growth plate, treatment of fracture of, by internal or external fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 632.65 - 50568 Humerus, with open growth plate, supracondylar or condylar, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction, undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 553.60 - 50572 Humerus, with open growth plate, supracondylar or condylar, treatment of fracture of, by reduction with or without internal fixation by open or percutaneous means, undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 738.10 - 50576 Femur, with open growth plate, treatment of fracture of, by closed reduction or traction (Anaes.) (Assist.) 606.20 - 50580 Tibia, with open growth plate, plateau or condyles, medial or lateral, treatment of fracture of, by reduction with or without internal fixation by open or percutaneous means (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 632.65 - 50584 Tibia, distal, with open growth plate, treatment of fracture of, by reduction with or without internal fixation by open or percutaneous means (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 606.20 - 50588 Tibia and fibula, with open growth plates, treatment of fracture of, by internal fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 790.70 - 50600 Scoliosis or kyphosis, in a child, manipulation of deformity and application of a localiser cast, under general anaesthesia, in a hospital (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 434.70 - 50604 Scoliosis or kyphosis, in a child or adolescent, spinal fusion for (without instrumentation) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,845.05 - 50608 Scoliosis or kyphosis, in a child or adolescent, treatment by segmental instrumentation and fusion of the spine, other than a service to which any of items 51011 to 51171 apply (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,426.95 - 50612 Scoliosis or kyphosis, in a child or adolescent, with spinal deformity, treatment by segmental instrumentation, utilising separate anterior and posterior approaches, other than a service to which any of items 51011 to 51171 apply (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 4,874.50 - 50616 Scoliosis, in a child or adolescent, re‑exploration for adjustment or removal of segmental instrumentation used for correction of spine deformity (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 619.35 - 50620 Scoliosis, in a child or adolescent, revision of failed scoliosis surgery, involving more than one of osteotomy, fusion, removal of instrumentation or instrumentation, other than a service to which any of items 51011 to 51171 apply (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,426.95 - 50624 Scoliosis, in a child or adolescent, anterior correction of, with fusion and segmental fixation (Dwyer, Zielke or similar)—not more than 4 levels (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,426.95 - 50628 Scoliosis, in a child or adolescent, anterior correction of, with fusion and segmental fixation (Dwyer, Zielke or similar)—more than 4 levels (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 4,233.20 - 50632 Scoliosis or kyphosis, in a child or adolescent, requiring segmental instrumentation and fusion of the spine down to and including the pelvis or sacrum, other than a service to which any of items 51011 to 51171 apply (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,558.65 - 50636 Scoliosis, in a child or adolescent, requiring anterior decompression of the spinal cord with vertebral resection and instrumentation in the presence of spinal cord involvement, other than a service to which any of items 51011 to 51171 apply (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,954.10 - 50640 Scoliosis, in a child or adolescent, congenital, resection and fusion of abnormal vertebra via an anterior or posterior approach, other than a service to which any of items 51011 to 51171 apply (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,185.80 - 50644 Spine, bone graft to, for a child or adolescent, associated with surgery for correction of scoliosis or kyphosis or both (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,108.95 - 50650 Hip dysplasia or dislocation, in a child, examination, manipulation and arthrography of the hip under anaesthesia (Anaes.) 414.75 - 50654 Hip dysplasia or dislocation, in a child, application or reapplication of a hip spica, including examination of the hip (H) (Assist.) (Anaes.) 496.65 - 50658 Hip dysplasia or dislocation, in a child, examination and manipulation of the hip under anaesthesia (Anaes.) 197.75 - Subgroup 16—Radiofrequency and microwave tissue ablation - 50950 Unresectable primary malignant tumour of the liver, destruction of, by percutaneous radiofrequency ablation or percutaneous microwave tissue ablation (including any associated imaging services), other than a service associated with a service to which item 30419 or 50952 applies (Anaes.) 817.10 - 50952 Unresectable primary malignant tumour of the liver, destruction of, by open or laparoscopic radiofrequency ablation or open or laparoscopic microwave tissue ablation (including any associated imaging services), if a multi‑disciplinary team has assessed that percutaneous radiofrequency ablation or percutaneous microwave tissue ablation cannot be performed or is not practical because of one or more of the following clinical circumstances:(a) percutaneous access cannot be achieved;(b) vital organs or tissues are at risk of damage from the percutaneous radiofrequency ablation or percutaneous microwave tissue ablation procedure;(c) resection of one part of the liver is possible, however there is at least one primary liver tumour in an unresectable portion of the liver that is suitable for radiofrequency ablation or microwave tissue ablation;other than a service associated with a service to which item 30419 or 50950 applies (Anaes.) 817.10 - Subgroup 17—Spinal surgery - 51011 Spinal decompression or exposure via partial or total laminectomy, partial vertebrectomy or posterior spinal release, one motion segment, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51012, 51013, 51014 or 51015 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,435.50 - 51012 Spinal decompression or exposure via partial or total laminectomy, partial vertebrectomy or posterior spinal release, 2 motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51011, 51013, 51014 or 51015 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,913.80 - 51013 Spinal decompression or exposure via partial or total laminectomy, partial vertebrectomy or posterior spinal release, 3 motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51011, 51012, 51014 or 51015 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,392.25 - 51014 Spinal decompression or exposure via partial or total laminectomy, partial vertebrectomy or posterior spinal release, 4 motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51011, 51012, 51013 or 51015 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,870.70 - 51015 Spinal decompression or exposure via partial or total laminectomy, partial vertebrectomy or posterior spinal release, more than 4 motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51011, 51012, 51013 or 51014 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,349.15 - 51020 Simple fixation of part of one vertebra (not motion segment) including pars interarticularis, spinous process or pedicle, or simple interspinous wiring between 2 adjacent vertebral levels, not being a service associated with:(a) interspinous dynamic stabilisation devices; or(b) a service to which item 51021, 51022, 51023, 51024, 51025 or 51026 applies(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 765.45 - 51021 Fixation of motion segment with vertebral body screw, pedicle screw or hook instrumentation including sublaminar tapes or wires, one motion segment, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51020, 51022, 51023, 51024, 51025 or 51026 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,281.20 - 51022 Fixation of motion segment with vertebral body screw, pedicle screw or hook instrumentation including sublaminar tapes or wires, 2 motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51020, 51021, 51023, 51024, 51025 or 51026 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,593.70 - 51023 Fixation of motion segment with vertebral body screw, pedicle screw or hook instrumentation including sublaminar tapes or wires, 3 or 4 motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51020, 51021, 51022, 51024, 51025 or 51026 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,896.60 - 51024 Fixation of motion segment with vertebral body screw, pedicle screw or hook instrumentation including sublaminar tapes or wires, 5 or 6 motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51020, 51021, 51022, 51023, 51025 or 51026 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,189.60 - 51025 Fixation of motion segment with vertebral body screw, pedicle screw or hook instrumentation including sublaminar tapes or wires, 7 to 12 motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51020, 51021, 51022, 51023, 51024 or 51026 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,559.20 - 51026 Fixation of motion segment with vertebral body screw, pedicle screw or hook instrumentation including sublaminar tapes or wires, more than 12 motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51020, 51021, 51022, 51023, 51024 or 51025 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,801.90 - 51031 Spine, posterior and/or posterolateral bone graft to, one motion segment, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51032, 51033, 51034, 51035 or 51036 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 941.45 - 51032 Spine, posterior and/or posterolateral bone graft to, 2 motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51031, 51033, 51034, 51035 or 51036 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,129.75 - 51033 Spine, posterior and/or posterolateral bone graft to, 3 motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51031, 51032, 51034, 51035 or 51036 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,318.05 - 51034 Spine, posterior and/or posterolateral bone graft to, 4 to 7 motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51031, 51032, 51033, 51035 or 51036 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,412.20 - 51035 Spine, posterior and/or posterolateral bone graft to, 8 to 11 motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51031, 51032, 51033, 51034 or 51036 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,506.30 - 51036 Spine, posterior and/or posterolateral bone graft to, 12 or more motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51031, 51032, 51033, 51034 or 51035 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,600.50 - 51041 Spinal fusion, anterior column (anterior, direct lateral or posterior interbody), one motion segment, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51042, 51043, 51044 or 51045 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,082.70 - 51042 Spinal fusion, anterior column (anterior, direct lateral or posterior interbody), 2 motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51041, 51043, 51044 or 51045 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,515.80 - 51043 Spinal fusion, anterior column (anterior, direct lateral or posterior interbody), 3 motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51041, 51042, 51044 or 51045 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,894.75 - 51044 Spinal fusion, anterior column (anterior, direct lateral or posterior interbody), 4 motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51041, 51042, 51043 or 51045 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,057.15 - 51045 Spinal fusion, anterior column (anterior, direct lateral or posterior interbody), 5 or more motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51041, 51042, 51043 or 51044 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,165.40 - 51051 Pedicle subtraction osteotomy, one motion segment, not being a service associated with:(a) anterior column fusion when at the same motion segment; or(b) a service to which item 51052, 51053, 51054, 51055, 51056, 51057, 51058 or 51059 applies(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,850.00 - 51052 Pedicle subtraction osteotomy, 2 motion segments, not being a service associated with:(a) anterior column fusion when at the same motion segment; or(b) a service to which item 51051, 51053, 51054, 51055, 51056, 51057, 51058 or 51059 applies(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,250.00 - 51053 Vertebral column resection osteotomy performed through single posterior approach, one motion segment, not being a service associated with:(a) anterior column fusion when at the same motion segment; or(b) a service to which item 51051, 51052, 51054, 51055, 51056, 51057, 51058 or 51059 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,560.00 - 51054 Vertebral body, piecemeal or subtotal excision of (where piecemeal or subtotal excision is defined as removal of more than 50% of the vertebral body), one vertebra, not being a service associated with:(a) anterior column fusion when at the same motion segment; or(b) a service to which item 51051, 51052, 51053, 51055, 51056, 51057, 51058 or 51059 applies(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,365.00 - 51055 Vertebral body, piecemeal or subtotal excision of (where piecemeal or subtotal excision is defined as removal of more than 50% of the vertebral body), 2 vertebrae, not being a service associated with:(a) anterior column fusion when at the same motion segment; or(b) a service to which item 51051, 51052, 51053, 51054, 51056, 51057, 51058 or 51059 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,047.50 - 51056 Vertebral body, piecemeal or subtotal excision of (where piecemeal or subtotal excision is defined as removal of more than 50% of the vertebral body), 3 or more vertebrae, not being a service associated with:(a) anterior column fusion when at the same motion segment; or(b) a service to which item 51051, 51052, 51053, 51054, 51055, 51057, 51058 or 51059 applies(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,388.75 - 51057 Vertebral body, en bloc excision of (complete spondylectomy), one vertebra, not being a service associated with:(a) anterior column fusion when at the same motion segment; or(b) a service to which item 51051, 51052, 51053, 51054, 51055, 51056, 51058 or 51059 applies(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,400.00 - 51058 Vertebral body, en bloc excision of (complete spondylectomy), 2 vertebrae, not being a service associated with:(a) anterior column fusion when at the same motion segment; or(b) a service to which item 51051, 51052, 51053, 51054, 51055, 51056, 51057 or 51059 applies(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,700.50 - 51059 Vertebral body, en bloc excision of (complete spondylectomy), 3 or more vertebrae, not being a service associated with:(a) anterior column fusion when at the same motion segment; or(b) a service to which item 51051, 51052, 51053, 51054, 51055, 51056, 51057 or 51058 applies(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,300.00 - 51061 Spine fusion, anterior and posterior, including spinal instrumentation at one motion segment, posterior and/or posterolateral bone graft, and anterior column fusion, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51062, 51063, 51064, 51065 or 51066 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,834.65 - 51062 Spine fusion, anterior and posterior, including spinal instrumentation at 2 motion segments, posterior and/or posterolateral bone graft, and anterior column fusion, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51061, 51063, 51064, 51065 or 51066 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,674.35 - 51063 Spine fusion, anterior and posterior, including spinal instrumentation at 3 motion segments, posterior and/or posterolateral bone graft, and anterior column fusion, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51061, 51062, 51064, 51065 or 51066 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 4,450.35 - 51064 Spine fusion, anterior and posterior, including spinal instrumentation at 4 to 7 motion segments, posterior and/or posterolateral bone graft, and anterior column fusion, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51061, 51062, 51063, 51065 or 51066 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 4,952.85 - 51065 Spine fusion, anterior and posterior, including spinal instrumentation at 8 to 11 motion segments, posterior and/or posterolateral bone graft, and anterior column fusion, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51061, 51062, 51063, 51064 or 51066 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 5,477.80 - 51066 Spine fusion, anterior and posterior, including spinal instrumentation at 12 or more motion segments, posterior and/or posterolateral bone graft, and anterior column fusion not being a service associated with a service to which item 51061, 51062, 51063, 51064 or 51065 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 5,767.50 - 51071 Removal of intradural lesion, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51072 or 51073 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,500.00 - 51072 Craniocervical junction lesion, transoral approach for, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51071 or 51073 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,600.00 - 51073 Removal of intramedullary tumour or arteriovenous malformation, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51071 or 51072 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 3,300.00 - 51102 Thoracoplasty in combination with thoracic scoliosis correction—3 or more ribs (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,183.40 - 51103 Odontoid screw fixation (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,079.75 - 51110 Spine, treatment of fracture, dislocation or fracture‑dislocation, with immobilisation by calipers or halo, not including application of skull tongs or calipers as part of operative positioning (Anaes.) 753.25 - 51111 Skull calipers or halo, insertion of, as an independent procedure (H) (Anaes.) 320.15 - 51112 Plaster jacket, application of, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 216.50 - 51113 Halo, application of, in addition to spinal fusion for scoliosis, or other conditions (H) (Anaes.) 240.05 - 51114 Halo‑thoracic orthosis—application of both halo and thoracic jacket (H) (Anaes.) 423.75 - 51115 Halo‑femoral traction, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 423.75 - 51120 Bone graft, harvesting of autogenous graft, via separate incision or via subcutaneous approach, in conjunction with spinal fusion, other than for the purposes of bone graft obtained from the cervical, thoracic, lumbar or sacral spine (H) (Anaes.) 235.50 - 51130 Lumbar artificial intervertebral total disc replacement, at one motion segment only, including removal of disc and marginal osteophytes:(a) for a patient who:(i) has not had prior spinal fusion surgery at the same lumbar level; and(ii) does not have vertebral osteoporosis; and(iii) has failed conservative therapy; and(b) not being a service associated with a service to which item 51011, 51012, 51013, 51014 or 51015 applies(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,793.65 - 51131 Cervical artificial intervertebral total disc replacement, at one motion segment only, including removal of disc and marginal osteophytes, for a patient who:(a) has not had prior spinal surgery at the same cervical level; and(b) is skeletally mature; and(c) has symptomatic degenerative disc disease with radiculopathy; and(d) does not have vertebral osteoporosis; and(e) has failed conservative therapy(H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,082.70 - 51140 Previous spinal fusion, re‑exploration for, involving adjustment or removal of instrumentation up to 3 motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51141 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 442.45 - 51141 Previous spinal fusion, re‑exploration for, involving adjustment or removal of instrumentation more than 3 motion segments, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51140 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 818.55 - 51145 Wound debridement or excision for post‑operative infection or haematoma following spinal surgery (H) (Anaes.) 442.45 - 51150 Coccyx, excision of (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 445.40 - 51160 Anterior exposure of thoracic or lumbar spine, one motion segment, not being a service to which item 51165 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,150.00 - 51165 Anterior exposure of thoracic or lumbar spine, more than one motion segment, not being a service to which item 51160 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,450.00 - 51170 Syringomyelia or hydromyelia, craniotomy for, with or without duraplasty, intradural dissection, plugging of obex or local cerebrospinal fluid shunt (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,184.60 - 51171 Syringomyelia or hydromyelia, treatment by direct cerebrospinal fluid shunt (for example, syringosubarachnoid shunt, syringopleural shunt or syringoperitoneal shunt) (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 917.40 Division 2.46—Group T9: Assistance at operations 2.46.1  Meaning of amount under clause 2.46.1   In item 51303: amount under clause 2.46.1, for assistance at an operation or series of operations, means 20% of the sum of the fees payable under the Act for the services provided at that operation, or series of operations, by the practitioner to whom the assistance was given. 2.46.2  Meaning of amount under clause 2.46.2   In item 51309: amount under clause 2.46.2, for assistance at a series or combination of operations, means:  (a) 20% of the sum of the fees payable under the Act for the services provided at those operations by the practitioner to whom the assistance was given; or  (b) for the caesarean section component of the operations—the fee mentioned in item 16520. 2.46.3  Meaning of amount under clause 2.46.3   In item 51312: amount under clause 2.46.3, for assistance at a procedure, means 20% of the sum of the fees payable under the Act for the services provided at that procedure by the practitioner to whom the assistance was given. 2.46.4  Meaning of previous significant surgical complication   In item 51318: previous significant surgical complication means:  (a) vitreous loss; or  (b) rupture of posterior capsule; or  (c) loss of nuclear material into the vitreous; or  (d) intraocular haemorrhage; or  (e) intraocular infection (endophthalmitis); or  (f) cystoid macular oedema; or  (g) corneal decompensation; or  (h) retinal detachment. 2.46.5  Application of Group T9   Items 51300 to 51318 do not apply to a service described in the item if the service is provided at the same time as, or in connection with, the provision of a pain pump for post‑surgical pain management. 2.46.6  Assistance at operations   Items 51300 to 51318 apply only to assistance rendered by a medical practitioner other than:  (a) the practitioner performing the operation; or  (b) the anaesthetist administering the anaesthetic in connection with the operation, if any; or  (c) the assistant anaesthetist, if any.   - Group T9—Assistance at operations - 51300 Assistance at any operation mentioned in an item in Group T8 that includes “(Assist.)” for which the fee does not exceed $558.30 or at a series or combination of operations mentioned in an item in Group T8 that include “(Assist.)” for which the aggregate fee does not exceed $558.30 86.30 - 51303 Assistance at any operation mentioned in an item in Group T8 that includes “(Assist.)” for which the fee exceeds $558.30 or at a series or combination of operations mentioned in an item in Group T8 that include “(Assist.)” for which the aggregate fee exceeds $558.30 Amount under clause 2.46.1 - 51306 Assistance at a birth involving Caesarean section 124.65 - 51309 Assistance at a series or combination of operations that include “(Assist.)” and assistance at a birth involving Caesarean section Amount under clause 2.46.2 - 51312 Assistance at any interventional obstetric procedure covered by items 16606, 16609, 16612, 16615 and 16627 Amount under clause 2.46.3 - 51315 Assistance at cataract and intraocular lens surgery covered by item 42698, 42701, 42702, 42704 or 42707, when performed in association with services covered by item 42551 to 42569, 42653, 42656, 42725, 42746, 42749, 42752, 42776 or 42779 272.40 - 51318 Assistance at cataract and intraocular lens surgery, if patient has:(a) total loss of vision, including no potential for central vision, in the fellow eye; or(b) previous significant surgical complication in the fellow eye; or(c) pseudo exfoliation, subluxed lens, iridodonesis, phacodonesis, retinal detachment, corneal scarring, pre‑existing uveitis, bound down miosed pupil, nanophthalmos, spherophakia, Marfan’s syndrome, homocysteinuria or previous blunt trauma causing intraocular damage 179.75 Division 2.47—Oral and Maxillofacial services 2.47.1  Application of Groups O1 to O11   Items 51700 to 53706 apply only to a service provided in the course of dental practice by a dental practitioner approved by the Minister before 1 November 2004 for the definition of professional service in subsection 3(1) of the Act. Division 2.48—Group O1: Consultations   - Group O1—Consultations - 51700 Professional attendance (other than a second or subsequent attendance in a single course of treatment) by an approved dental practitioner in the practice of oral and maxillofacial surgery, at consulting rooms, hospital or residential aged care facility if the patient is referred to him or her 85.55 - 51703 Professional attendance by an approved dental practitioner in the practice of oral and maxillofacial surgery, each attendance after the first in a single course of treatment at consulting rooms, hospital or residential aged care facility if the patient is referred to him or her 43.00 Division 2.49—Group O2: Assistance at operation 2.49.1  Meaning of amount under clause 2.49.1   In item 51803: amount under clause 2.49.1, for assistance at an operation or series of operations, means an amount equal to 20% of the sum of the fees payable under the Act for the services provided at that operation, or series of operations, by the practitioner to whom the assistance was given. 2.49.2  Assistance at operations   Items 51800 and 51803 apply only to assistance rendered by an approved dental practitioner other than:  (a) the practitioner performing the operation; or  (b) the anaesthetist administering the anaesthetic in connection with the operation, if any; or  (c) the assistant anaesthetist, if any.   - Group O2—Assistance at operation - 51800 Assistance by an approved dental practitioner in the practice of oral and maxillofacial surgery at any operation mentioned in an item that includes “(Assist.)” for which the fee does not exceed $558.30 or at a series or combination of operations mentioned in an item in Groups O3 to O9 that include “(Assist.)” for which the aggregate fee does not exceed $558.30 86.30 - 51803 Assistance by an approved dental practitioner in the practice of oral and maxillofacial surgery at any operation mentioned in an item that includes “(Assist.)” for which the fee exceeds $558.30 or at a series or combination of operations mentioned in an item that include “(Assist.)” if the aggregate fee exceeds $558.30 Amount under clause 2.49.1 Division 2.50—Group O3: General surgery   - Group O3—General surgery - 51900 Wound of soft tissue in the oral and maxillofacial region, deep or extensively contaminated, debridement of, under general anaesthesia or regional or field nerve block, including suturing of that wound when performed (Anaes.) (Assist.) 326.05 - 51902 Wounds of the oral and maxillofacial region, dressing of, under general anaesthesia, with or without removal of sutures, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in Groups O3 to O9 applies (Anaes.) 73.90 - 51904 Lipectomy—wedge excision of skin or fat—one excision (Anaes.) (Assist.) 454.85 - 51906 Lipectomy—wedge excision of skin or fat—2 or more excisions (Anaes.) (Assist.) 691.75 - 52000 Skin and subcutaneous tissue or mucous membrane, repair of recent wound of, on face or neck, small (not more than 7 cm long), superficial (Anaes.) 82.50 - 52003 Skin and subcutaneous tissue or mucous membrane, repair of recent wound of, on face or neck, small (not more than 7 cm long), involving deeper tissue (Anaes.) 117.55 - 52006 Skin and subcutaneous tissue or mucous membrane, repair of recent wound of, on face or neck, large (more than 7 cm long), superficial (Anaes.) 117.55 - 52009 Skin and subcutaneous tissue or mucous membrane, repair of recent wound of, on face or neck, large (more than 7 cm long), involving deeper tissue (Anaes.) 185.60 - 52010 Full thickness laceration of ear, eyelid, nose or lip, repair of, with accurate apposition of each layer of tissue (Anaes.) (Assist.) 254.00 - 52012 Superficial foreign body, removal of, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 23.50 - 52015 Subcutaneous foreign body, removal of, requiring incision and suture, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 109.90 - 52018 Foreign body in muscle, tendon or other deep tissue, removal of, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) (Assist.) 276.80 - 52021 Aspiration biopsy of one or more jaw cysts as an independent procedure to obtain material for diagnostic purposes and other than a service associated with an operative procedure on the same day (Anaes.) 29.45 - 52024 Biopsy of skin or mucous membrane, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 52.20 - 52025 Lymph node of neck, biopsy of (Anaes.) 183.90 - 52027 Biopsy of lymph gland, muscle or other deep tissue or organ, as an independent procedure and other than a service to which item 52025 applies (Anaes.) 149.75 - 52030 Sinus, excision of, involving superficial tissue only (Anaes.) 90.00 - 52033 Sinus, excision of, involving muscle and deep tissue (Anaes.) 183.90 - 52034 Premalignant lesions of the oral mucous, treatment by cryotherapy, diathermy or carbon dioxide laser 43.00 - 52035 Endoscopic laser therapy for neoplasia and benign vascular lesions of the oral cavity (Anaes.) 476.10 - 52036 Tumour, cyst, ulcer or scar (other than a scar removed during the surgical approach at an operation), up to 3 cm in diameter, removal from cutaneous or subcutaneous tissue or from mucous membrane, if the removal is by surgical excision and suture, other than a service to which item 52039 applies (Anaes.) 126.90 - 52039 Tumours, cysts, ulcers or scars (other than a scar removed during the surgical approach at an operation), up to 3 cm in diameter, removal from cutaneous or subcutaneous tissue or from mucous membrane, if the removal is by surgical excision and suture, and the procedure is performed on more than 3 but not more than 10 lesions (Anaes.) (Assist.) 326.05 - 52042 Tumour, cyst, ulcer or scar (other than a scar removed during the surgical approach at an operation), more than 3 cm in diameter, removal from cutaneous or subcutaneous tissue or from mucous membrane (Anaes.) 172.50 - 52045 Tumour, cyst (other than a cyst associated with a tooth or tooth fragment unless it has been established by radiological examination that there is a minimum of 5 mm separation between the cyst lining and tooth structure or if a tumour or cyst has been proven by positive histopathology), ulcer or scar (other than a scar removed during the surgical approach at an operation), removal of, other than a service to which another item in Groups O3 to O9 applies, involving muscle, bone, or other deep tissue (Anaes.) 246.50 - 52048 Tumour or deep cyst (other than a cyst associated with a tooth or tooth fragment unless it has been established by radiological examination that there is a minimum of 5 mm separation between the cyst lining and tooth structure or if a tumour or cyst has been proven by positive histopathology), removal of, requiring wide excision, other than a service to which another item in Groups O3 to O9 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 371.50 - 52051 Tumour, removal of, from soft tissue (including muscle, fascia and connective tissue), extensive excision of, without skin or mucosal graft (Anaes.) (Assist.) 502.25 - 52054 Tumour, removal of, from soft tissue (including muscle, fascia and connective tissue), extensive excision of, with skin or mucosal graft (Anaes.) (Assist.) 587.60 - 52055 Haematoma, small abscess or cellulitis in the oral and maxillofacial region, not requiring admission to a hospital, incision with drainage of (excluding after‑care) 27.35 - 52056 Haematoma in the oral and maxillofacial region, aspiration of (Anaes.) 27.35 - 52057 Large haematoma, large abscess, carbuncle, cellulitis or similar lesion in the oral and maxillofacial region, incision with drainage of (excluding after‑care) (H) (Anaes.) 162.95 - 52058 Percutaneous drainage of deep abscess in the oral and maxillofacial region, using interventional imaging techniques—but not including imaging (Anaes.) 237.60 - 52059 Abscess in the oral and maxillofacial region drainage tube, exchange of using interventional imaging techniques—but not including imaging (Anaes.) 267.65 - 52060 Muscle in the oral and maxillofacial region, excision of (Anaes.) 189.40 - 52061 Muscle, in the oral and maxillofacial region, ruptured, repair of (limited), not associated with external wound (Anaes.) 223.60 - 52062 Muscle, in the oral and maxillofacial region, ruptured, repair of (extensive), not associated with external wound (Anaes.) (Assist.) 295.70 - 52063 Bone tumour in the oral and maxillofacial region, innocent, excision of, other than a service to which another item in Groups O3 to O9 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 356.35 - 52064 Bone cyst in the oral and maxillofacial region, injection into or aspiration of (Anaes.) 169.50 - 52066 Submandibular gland, extirpation of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 445.40 - 52069 Sublingual gland, extirpation of (Anaes.) 198.50 - 52072 Salivary gland, dilatation or diathermy of duct (Anaes.) 58.80 - 52073 Salivary gland, repair of cutaneous fistula of (Anaes.) 149.75 - 52075 Salivary gland, removal of calculus from duct or meatotomy or marsupialisation, one or more such procedures (Anaes.) 149.75 - 52078 Tongue, partial excision of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 295.70 - 52081 Tongue tie, division or excision of frenulum (Anaes.) 46.50 - 52084 Tongue tie, mandibular frenulum or maxillary frenulum, division or excision of frenulum, in a person aged not less than 2 years (Anaes.) 119.50 - 52087 Ranula or mucous cyst of mouth, removal of (Anaes.) 204.70 - 52090 Operation on mandible or maxilla (other than alveolar margins) for chronic osteomyelitis—one bone or in combination with adjoining bones (Anaes.) (Assist.) 356.35 - 52092 Operation on skull for osteomyelitis (Anaes.) (Assist.) 464.50 - 52094 Operation on any combination of adjoining bones in the oral and maxillofacial region, being bones referred to in item 52092 (Anaes.) (Assist.) 587.55 - 52095 Bone growth stimulator in the oral and maxillofacial region, insertion of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 380.80 - 52096 Orthopaedic pin or wire, insertion of, into maxilla or mandible or zygoma, as an independent procedure (Anaes.) 112.85 - 52097 External fixation in the oral and maxillofacial region, removal of, in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 160.05 - 52098 External fixation in the oral and maxillofacial region, removal of, in conjunction with operations involving internal fixation or bone grafting or both (Anaes.) 188.20 - 52099 Buried wire, pin or screw, one or more, which were inserted for internal fixation purposes into maxilla or mandible or zygoma, removal of, requiring anaesthesia, incision, dissection and suturing, per bone, other than a service associated with a service to which item 52102 or 52105 applies (Anaes.) 141.25 - 52102 Buried wire, pin or screw, one or more, which were inserted for internal fixation purposes into maxilla or mandible or zygoma, removal of, requiring anaesthesia, incision, dissection and suturing, if undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital, per bone (Anaes.) 141.25 - 52105 Plate, one or more of, and associated screw and wire which were inserted for internal fixation purposes into maxilla or mandible or zygoma, removal of, requiring anaesthesia, incision, dissection and suturing, per bone, other than a service associated with a service to which item 52099 or 52102 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 263.60 - 52106 Arch bars, one or more, which were inserted for dental fixation purposes to the maxilla or mandible, removal of, requiring general anaesthesia if undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 108.90 - 52108 Lip, full thickness wedge excision of, with repair by direct sutures (Anaes.) (Assist.) 326.05 - 52111 Vermilionectomy (Anaes.) (Assist.) 326.05 - 52114 Mandible or maxilla, segmental resection of, for tumours or cysts (Anaes.) (Assist.) 587.60 - 52117 Mandible, including lower border, or maxilla, sub‑total resection of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 699.45 - 52120 Mandible, hemimandiblectomy of, including condylectomy, if performed (Anaes.) (Assist.) 827.30 - 52122 Mandible, hemi‑mandibular reconstruction of, or maxilla reconstruction of, with bone graft, plate, tray or alloplast, other than a service associated with a service to which item 52123 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 827.30 - 52123 Mandible, total resection of both sides, including condylectomies if performed (Anaes.) (Assist.) 936.55 - 52126 Maxilla, total resection of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 900.45 - 52129 Maxilla, total resection of both maxillae (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,205.40 - 52130 Bone graft in the oral and maxillofacial region, other than a service to which another item in Groups O3 to O9 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 442.45 - 52131 Bone graft with internal fixation, in the oral and maxillofacial region, other than a service to which another item in the range 51900 to 52186, or the range 52303 to 53460, applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 611.90 - 52132 Tracheostomy (Anaes.) 248.95 - 52133 Cricothyrostomy by direct stab or Seldinger technique, using mini tracheostomy device (Anaes.) 91.05 - 52135 Post‑operative or post‑nasal haemorrhage, or both, control of, if undertaken in the operating theatre of a hospital (H) (Anaes.) 144.35 - 52138 Maxillary artery, ligation of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 448.55 - 52141 Facial, mandibular or lingual artery or vein or artery and vein, ligation of, other than a service to which item 52138 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 443.70 - 52144 Foreign body, deep, removal of using interventional imaging techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 413.55 - 52147 Duct of major salivary gland, transposition of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 390.25 - 52148 Parotid duct, repair of, using micro‑surgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 689.80 - 52158 Submandibular ducts, relocation of, for surgical control of drooling (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,110.65 - 52180 Aggressive or potentially malignant bone or deep soft tissue tumour in the oral and maxillofacial region, biopsy of (not including after‑care) (Anaes.) 188.20 - 52182 Bone or malignant deep soft tissue tumour in the oral and maxillofacial region, lesional or marginal excision of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 414.25 - 52184 Bone tumour in the oral and maxillofacial region, lesional or marginal excision of, combined with any one of liquid nitrogen freezing, autograft, allograft or cementation (Anaes.) (Assist.) 611.90 - 52186 Bone tumour in the oral and maxillofacial region, lesional or marginal excision of, combined with any 2 or more of liquid nitrogen freezing, autograft, allograft or cementation (Anaes.) (Assist.) 753.25 Division 2.51—Group O4: Plastic and reconstructive 2.51.1  Meaning of maxilla   In items 52342 to 52375: maxilla includes the zygoma.   - Group O4—Plastic and reconstructive - 52300 Single‑stage local flap, if indicated, repair to one defect, with skin or mucosa (Anaes.) (Assist.) 284.35 - 52303 Single‑stage local flap, if indicated, repair to one defect, with buccal pad of fat (Anaes.) (Assist.) 406.05 - 52306 Single‑stage local flap, if indicated, repair to one defect, using temporalis muscle (Anaes.) (Assist.) 602.45 - 52309 Free grafting (mucosa or split skin) of a granulating area (Anaes.) 204.70 - 52312 Free grafting (mucosa, split skin or connective tissue) to one defect, including elective dissection (Anaes.) (Assist.) 284.35 - 52315 Free grafting, full thickness, to one defect (mucosa or skin) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 473.75 - 52318 Bone graft, harvesting of, via separate incision, being a service associated with a service to which another item in Groups O3 to O9 applies—Autogenous, small quantity (Anaes.) 141.25 - 52319 Bone graft, harvesting of, via separate incision, being a service associated with a service to which another item in Groups O3 to O9 applies—Autogenous, large quantity (Anaes.) 235.50 - 52321 Foreign implant (non‑biological), insertion of, for contour reconstruction of pathological deformity, other than a service associated with a service to which item 52624 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 473.75 - 52324 Direct flap repair, using tongue, first stage (Anaes.) (Assist.) 473.75 - 52327 Direct flap repair, using tongue, second stage (Anaes.) 235.05 - 52330 Palatal defect (oro‑nasal fistula), plastic closure of, including services to which item 52300, 52303, 52306 or 52324 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 781.95 - 52333 Cleft palate, primary repair (Anaes.) (Assist.) 781.95 - 52336 Cleft palate, secondary repair, closure of fistula using local flaps (Anaes.) (Assist.) 488.75 - 52337 Alveolar cleft (congenital) unilateral, grafting of, including plastic closure of associated oro‑nasal fistulae and ridge augmentation (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,069.10 - 52339 Cleft palate, secondary repair, lengthening procedure (Anaes.) (Assist.) 556.60 - 52342 Mandible or maxilla, unilateral osteotomy or osteectomy of, including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 966.80 - 52345 Mandible or maxilla, unilateral osteotomy or osteectomy of, including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site and stabilisation with fixation by wires, screws, plates or pins, or any combination (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,090.35 - 52348 Mandible or maxilla, bilateral osteotomy or osteectomy of, including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,232.05 - 52351 Mandible or maxilla, bilateral osteotomy or osteectomy of, including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site and stabilisation with fixation by wires, screws, plates or pins, or any combination (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,383.65 - 52354 Mandible or maxilla, osteotomies or osteectomies of, involving 3 or more such procedures on the one jaw, including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,402.70 - 52357 Mandible or maxilla, osteotomies or osteectomies of, involving 3 or more such procedures on the one jaw, including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site and stabilisation with fixation by wires, screws, plates or pins, or any combination (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,579.20 - 52360 Mandible and maxilla, osteotomies or osteectomies of, involving 2 such procedures of each jaw including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,611.05 - 52363 Mandible and maxilla, osteotomies or osteectomies of, involving 2 such procedures of each jaw, including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site and stabilisation with fixation by wires, screws, plates or pins, or any combination (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,812.40 - 52366 Mandible and maxilla, complex bilateral osteotomies or osteectomies of, involving 3 or more such procedures of one jaw and 2 such procedures of the other jaw, including genioplasty when performed and transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,772.30 - 52369 Mandible and maxilla, complex bilateral osteotomies or osteectomies of, involving 3 or more such procedures of one jaw and 2 such procedures of the other jaw, including genioplasty when performed and transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site and stabilisation with fixation by wires, screws, plates or pins, or any combination (H) (Anaes.)) (Assist.) 1,992.70 - 52372 Mandible and maxilla, complex bilateral osteotomies or osteectomies of, involving 3 or more such procedures of each jaw, including genioplasty when performed and transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,933.55 - 52375 Mandible and maxilla, complex bilateral osteotomies or osteectomies of, involving 3 or more such procedures of each jaw, including genioplasty when performed and transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site and stabilisation with fixation by wires, screws, plates or pins, or any combination (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,165.75 - 52378 Genioplasty including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site (Anaes.) (Assist.) 748.65 - 52379 Face, contour reconstruction of one region, using autogenous bone or cartilage graft (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,279.45 - 52380 Midfacial osteotomies—Le Fort II, Modified Le Fort III (Nasomalar), Modified Le Fort III (Malar‑Maxillary), Le Fort III involving 3 or more osteotomies of the midface including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,178.60 - 52382 Midfacial osteotomies—Le Fort II, Modified Le Fort III (Nasomalar), Modified Le Fort III (Malar‑Maxillary), Le Fort III involving 3 or more osteotomies of the midface including transposition of nerves and vessels and bone grafts taken from the same site and stabilisation with fixation by wires, screws, plates or pins, or any combination (Anaes.) (Assist.) 2,611.60 - 52420 Mandible, fixation by intermaxillary wiring, excluding wiring for obesity 241.15 - 52424 Dermis, dermofat or fascia graft (excluding transfer of fat by injection) in the oral and maxillofacial region (Anaes.) (Assist.) 473.65 - 52430 Microvascular repair of the oral and maxillofacial region using microsurgical techniques, with restoration of continuity of artery or vein of distal extremity or digit (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,090.35 - 52440 Cleft lip, unilateral—primary repair, one stage, without anterior palate repair (Anaes.) (Assist.) 541.35 - 52442 Cleft lip, unilateral—primary repair, one stage, with anterior palate repair (Anaes.) (Assist.) 676.80 - 52444 Cleft lip, bilateral—primary repair, one stage, without anterior palate repair (Anaes.) (Assist.) 751.85 - 52446 Cleft lip, bilateral—primary repair, one stage, with anterior palate repair (Anaes.) (Assist.) 887.50 - 52450 Cleft lip, partial revision, including minor flap revision alignment and adjustment, including revision of minor whistle deformity if performed (Anaes.) 300.75 - 52452 Cleft lip, total revision, including major flap revision, muscle reconstruction and revision of major whistle deformity (Anaes.) (Assist.) 488.75 - 52456 Cleft lip reconstruction using full thickness flap (Abbe or similar), first stage (Anaes.) (Assist.) 827.30 - 52458 Cleft lip reconstruction using full thickness flap (Abbe or similar), second stage (Anaes.) 300.75 - 52460 Velo‑pharyngeal incompetence, pharyngeal flap for, or pharyngoplasty for (Anaes.) 781.95 - 52480 Composite graft (chondro‑cutaneous or chondro‑mucosal) to nose, ear or eyelid (Anaes.) (Assist.) 502.25 - 52482 Macrocheilia or macroglossia, operation for (Anaes.) (Assist.) 483.25 - 52484 Macrostomia, operation for (Anaes.) (Assist.) 575.30 Division 2.52—Group O5: Preprosthetic   - Group O5—Preprosthetic - 52600 Mandibular or palatal exostosis, excision of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 338.35 - 52603 Mylohyoid ridge, reduction of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 323.40 - 52606 Maxillary tuberosity, reduction of (Anaes.) 246.70 - 52609 Papillary hyperplasia of the palate, removal of—less than 5 lesions (Anaes.) (Assist.) 323.40 - 52612 Papillary hyperplasia of the palate, removal of—5 to 20 lesions (Anaes.) (Assist.) 406.05 - 52615 Papillary hyperplasia of the palate, removal of—more than 20 lesions (Anaes.) (Assist.) 503.85 - 52618 Vestibuloplasty, submucosal or open, including excision of muscle and skin or mucosal graft when performed—unilateral or bilateral (Anaes.) (Assist.) 586.50 - 52621 Floor of mouth lowering (Obwegeser or similar procedure), including excision of muscle and skin or mucosal graft when performed—unilateral (Anaes.) (Assist.) 586.50 - 52624 Alveolar ridge augmentation with bone or alloplast or both—unilateral (Anaes.) (Assist.) 473.65 - 52626 Alveolar ridge augmentation—unilateral, insertion of tissue expanding device into maxillary or mandibular alveolar ridge region for (Anaes.) (Assist.) 290.50 - 52627 Osseo‑integration procedure—extra oral implantation of titanium fixture (Anaes.) (Assist.) 503.85 - 52630 Osseo‑integration procedure—fixation of transcutaneous abutment (Anaes.) 186.50 - 52633 Osseo‑integration procedure—intra‑oral implantation of titanium fixture to facilitate restoration of the dentition following resection of part of the maxilla or mandible for benign or malignant tumours (Anaes.) 503.85 - 52636 Osseo‑integration procedure—fixation of transmucosal abutment to fixtures placed following resection of part of the maxilla or mandible for benign or malignant tumours (Anaes.) 186.50 Division 2.53—Group O6: Neurosurgical   - Group O6—Neurosurgical - 52800 Neurolysis by open operation, without transposition, other than a service associated with a service to which item 52803 applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 276.80 - 52803 Nerve trunk, internal (interfascicular), neurolysis of, using microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 398.55 - 52806 Neurectomy, neurotomy or removal of tumour from superficial peripheral nerve (Anaes.) (Assist.) 276.80 - 52809 Neurectomy, neurotomy or removal of tumour from deep peripheral nerve (Anaes.) (Assist.) 473.75 - 52812 Nerve trunk, primary repair of, using microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 676.80 - 52815 Nerve trunk, secondary repair of, using microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 714.35 - 52818 Nerve, transposition of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 473.75 - 52821 Nerve graft to nerve trunk (cable graft) including harvesting of nerve graft using microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,030.20 - 52824 Peripheral branches of the trigeminal nerve, cryosurgery of, for pain relief (Anaes.) (Assist.) 443.70 - 52826 Injection of primary branch of trigeminal nerve with alcohol, cortisone, phenol, or similar substance (Anaes.) 237.60 - 52828 Cutaneous nerve, primary repair of, using microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 353.35 - 52830 Cutaneous nerve, secondary repair of, using microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 466.10 - 52832 Cutaneous nerve, nerve graft to, using microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 639.20 Division 2.54—Group O7: Ear, nose and throat   - Group O7—Ear, nose and throat - 53000 Maxillary antrum, proof puncture and lavage of (Anaes.) 32.55 - 53003 Maxillary antrum, proof puncture and lavage of, under general anaesthesia, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in Groups O3 to O9 applies (H) (Anaes.) 91.90 - 53004 Maxillary antrum, lavage of—each attendance at which the procedure is performed, including any associated consultation (Anaes.) 35.60 - 53006 Antrostomy (radical) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 521.25 - 53009 Antrum, intranasal operation on or removal of foreign body from (Anaes.) (Assist.) 295.70 - 53012 Antrum, drainage of, through tooth socket (Anaes.) 117.55 - 53015 Oro‑antral fistula, plastic closure of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 587.60 - 53016 Nasal septum, septoplasty, submucous resection or closure of septal perforation (Anaes.) (Assist.) 483.25 - 53017 Nasal septum, reconstruction of (Anaes.) (Assist.) 602.85 - 53019 Maxillary sinus, bone graft to floor of maxillary sinus following elevation of mucosal lining (sinus lift procedure), unilateral (Anaes.) (Assist.) 580.90 - 53052 Post‑nasal space, direct examination of, with or without biopsy (Anaes.) 122.85 - 53054 Nasendoscopy or sinoscopy or fibreoptic examination of nasopharynx—one or more of these procedures (Anaes.) 122.85 - 53056 Examination of nasal cavity or post‑nasal space, or nasal cavity and post‑nasal space, under general anaesthesia, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) 71.95 - 53058 Nasal haemorrhage, posterior, arrest of, with posterior nasal packing with or without cauterisation and with or without anterior pack (excluding after‑care) (Anaes.) 122.85 - 53060 Cauterisation (other than by chemical means) or cauterisation by chemical means when performed under general anaesthesia or diathermy of septum or turbinates for obstruction or haemorrhage secondary to surgery (or trauma)—one or more of these procedures (including any consultation on the same occasion) other than a service associated with another operation on the nose (Anaes.) 100.50 - 53062 Post‑surgical nasal haemorrhage, arrest of during an episode of epistaxis by cauterisation or nasal cavity packing or both (Anaes.) 90.00 - 53064 Cryotherapy to nose in the treatment of nasal haemorrhage (Anaes.) 162.95 - 53068 Turbinectomy or turbinectomies, partial or total, unilateral (Anaes.) 136.50 - 53070 Turbinates, submucous resection of, unilateral (Anaes.) 178.05 Division 2.55—Group O8: Temporomandibular joint   - Group O8—Temporomandibular joint - 53200 Mandible, treatment of a dislocation of, not requiring open reduction (Anaes.) 70.65 - 53203 Mandible, treatment of a dislocation of, requiring open reduction (Anaes.) 118.70 - 53206 Temporomandibular joint, manipulation of, performed in the operating theatre of a hospital, other than a service associated with a service to which another item in Groups O3 to O9 applies (H) (Anaes.) 142.95 - 53209 Glenoid fossa, zygomatic arch and temporal bone, reconstruction of (Obwegeser technique) (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,649.10 - 53212 Absent condyle and ascending ramus in hemifacial microsomia, construction of, not including harvesting of graft material (Anaes.) (Assist.) 890.85 - 53215 Temporomandibular joint, arthroscopy of, with or without biopsy, other than a service associated with another arthroscopic procedure of that joint (Anaes.) (Assist.) 408.70 - 53218 Temporomandibular joint, arthroscopy of, removal of loose bodies, debridement, or treatment of adhesions—one or more of such procedures (Anaes.) (Assist.) 653.80 - 53220 Temporomandibular joint, arthrotomy of, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 329.60 - 53221 Temporomandibular joint, open surgical exploration of, with or without microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 872.30 - 53224 Temporomandibular joint, open surgical exploration of, with condylectomy or condylotomy, with or without microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 967.00 - 53225 Arthrocentesis, irrigation of temporomandibular joint after insertion of 2 cannuli into the appropriate joint space (Anaes.) (Assist.) 290.50 - 53226 Temporomandibular joint, synovectomy of, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 312.30 - 53227 Temporomandibular joint, open surgical exploration of, with or without meniscus or capsular surgery, including meniscectomy when performed, with or without microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,188.20 - 53230 Temporomandibular joint, open surgical exploration of, with meniscus, capsular and condylar head surgery, with or without microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,338.45 - 53233 Temporomandibular joint, surgery of, involving procedures to which item 53224, 53226, 53227 or 53230 applies and also involving the use of tissue flaps, or cartilage graft, or allograft implants, with or without microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.) 1,504.05 - 53236 Temporomandibular joint, stabilisation of, involving one or more of: repair of capsule, repair of ligament or internal fixation, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 470.70 - 53239 Temporomandibular joint, arthrodesis of, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 470.70 - 53242 Temporomandibular joint or joints, application of external fixator to, other than for treatment of fractures (Anaes.) (Assist.) 312.30 Division 2.56—Group O9: Treatment of fractures   - Group O9—Treatment of fractures - 53400 Maxilla, unilateral or bilateral, treatment of fracture of, not requiring splinting 129.20 - 53403 Mandible, treatment of fracture of, not requiring splinting 157.85 - 53406 Maxilla, treatment of fracture of, requiring splinting, wiring of teeth, circumosseous fixation or external fixation (Anaes.) (Assist.) 406.65 - 53409 Mandible, treatment of fracture of, requiring splinting, wiring of teeth, circumosseous fixation or external fixation (Anaes.) (Assist.) 406.65 - 53410 Zygomatic bone, treatment of fracture of, not requiring surgical reduction 85.65 - 53411 Zygomatic bone, treatment of fracture of, requiring surgical reduction, by temporal, intra‑oral or other approach (Anaes.) 238.80 - 53412 Zygomatic bone, treatment of fracture of, requiring surgical reduction and involving internal or external fixation at one site (Anaes.) (Assist.) 392.10 - 53413 Zygomatic bone, treatment of fracture of, requiring surgical reduction and involving internal or external fixation or both at 2 sites (Anaes.) (Assist.) 480.35 - 53414 Zygomatic bone, treatment of, requiring surgical reduction and involving internal or external fixation or both at 3 sites (Anaes.) (Assist.) 551.85 - 53415 Maxilla, treatment of fracture of, requiring open reduction (Anaes.) (Assist.) 435.65 - 53416 Mandible, treatment of fracture of, requiring open reduction (Anaes.) (Assist.) 435.65 - 53418 Maxilla, treatment of fracture of, requiring open reduction and internal fixation not involving a plate (Anaes.) (Assist.) 566.35 - 53419 Mandible, treatment of fracture of, requiring open reduction and internal fixation not involving a plate (Anaes.) (Assist.) 566.35 - 53422 Maxilla, treatment of fracture of, requiring open reduction and internal fixation involving a plate (Anaes.) (Assist.) 718.75 - 53423 Mandible, treatment of fracture of, requiring open reduction and internal fixation involving a plate (Anaes.) (Assist.) 718.75 - 53424 Maxilla, treatment of a complicated fracture of, involving viscera, blood vessels or nerves, requiring open reduction not involving a plate (Anaes.) (Assist.) 616.65 - 53425 Mandible, treatment of a complicated fracture of, involving viscera, blood vessels or nerves, requiring open reduction not involving a plate (Anaes.) (Assist.) 616.65 - 53427 Maxilla, treatment of a complicated fracture of, involving viscera, blood vessels or nerves, requiring open reduction involving the use of a plate (Anaes.) (Assist.) 842.25 - 53429 Mandible, treatment of a complicated fracture of, involving viscera, blood vessels or nerves, requiring open reduction involving the use of a plate (Anaes.) (Assist.) 842.25 - 53439 Mandible, treatment of a closed fracture of, involving a joint surface (Anaes.) 238.80 - 53453 Orbital cavity, reconstruction of a wall or floor with or without foreign implant (Anaes.) (Assist.) 483.25 - 53455 Orbital cavity, bone or cartilage graft to orbital wall or floor including reduction of prolapsed or entrapped orbital contents (Anaes.) (Assist.) 567.65 - 53458 Nasal bones, treatment of fracture of, other than a service to which item 53459 or 53460 applies 43.05 - 53459 Nasal bones, treatment of fracture of, by reduction (Anaes.) 235.50 - 53460 Nasal bones, treatment of fractures of, by open reduction involving osteotomies (Anaes.) (Assist.) 480.35 Division 2.58—Group O11: Regional or field nerve blocks   - Group O11—Regional or field nerve blocks - 53700 Trigeminal nerve, primary division of, injection of an anaesthetic agent 124.85 - 53702 Trigeminal nerve, peripheral branch of, injection of an anaesthetic agent 62.50 - 53704 Facial nerve, injection of an anaesthetic agent 37.65 - 53706 Nerve branch in the oral and maxillofacial region, destruction by a neurolytic agent, other than a service to which another item in this Group applies 124.85