Domestic Animals Regulations 2025

Part 1—Preliminary

1 Objectives

The objectives of these Regulations are to prescribe—

(a) matters relating to applicable organisations and approved dog obedience training organisations; and

(b) requirements for dangerous dogs and restricted breed dogs; and

(c) matters relating to the permanent identification of animals of a prescribed class of animal; and

(d) matters relating to animal registry licences and the provision of animal registry services; and

(e) matters relating to commercial dog breeding businesses, animal sale permits and declared bird organisations; and

(f) matters relating to the information register and source numbers; and

(g) infringement penalties for infringement offences against the Domestic Animals Act 1994; and

(h) offences against these Regulations as infringement offences; and

(i) infringement penalties for prescribed infringement offences against these Regulations; and

(j) other matters for the purposes of the Domestic Animals Act 1994.

2 Authorising provision

These Regulations are made under section 100 of the Domestic Animals Act 1994.

3 Commencement

These Regulations come into operation on 23 November 2025.

4 Revocations

The Regulations listed in Schedule 1 are revoked.

5 Definitions

In these Regulations—

AS 5018:2025 means AS 5018:2025 Electronic animal identification—National coding scheme as amended from time to time;

AS 5019:2025 means AS 5019:2025 Electronic animal identification—Radiofrequency methods as amended from time to time;

code of ethics means—

(a) for an applicable organisation, a document made by the organisation that specifies the requirements with which each member of the organisation must comply when engaging in the breeding of dogs or cats; or

(b) for a dog obedience training organisation, a document made by the organisation that specifies the requirements with which each member of the organisation must comply when engaging in the training of dogs or the training and assessment of persons who train or will train dogs;

not-for-profit entity means an organisation which does not operate for the personal gain, profit or benefit of any of its members or the person in charge of the organisation;

prescribed animal means an animal of a prescribed class of animal;

qualified dog obedience trainer means a person who is a member of an approved dog obedience training organisation and who has completed a dog obedience trainer assessment program with an approved dog obedience training organisation in accordance with regulation 12;

reader means an instrument—

(a) used to scan a permanent identification device whether or not it is implanted in a prescribed animal; and

(b) that is capable of detecting and decoding the received information from a permanent identification device—

(i) that complies with the requirements in AS 5019:2025 that a transponder must meet in order to conform to that standard; and

(ii) that contains a unique identification number that complies with the requirements in AS 5018:2025 for a unique identification code transmitted from a transponder;

specified dog details, in relation to a dog, means the following details—

(a) the name of the dog;

(b) the unique identification number of the permanent identification device implanted in the dog;

(c) the sex of the dog;

(d) the breed of the dog;

(e) the colour of the dog;

(f) the birth date or age of the dog;

(g) the reproductive status of the dog;

(h) the date that the dog was acquired (if purchased) or brought onto a property for breeding;

(i) the date of the last vaccination and worming of the dog;

(j) if the dog is female—

(i) the date of any mating of the dog; and

(ii) the name, unique identification number of the permanent identification device implanted in, and breed of, any male dog mated with the dog; and

(iii) the litter number of each litter of the dog; and

(iv) the date of birth of any offspring of the dog and the number and sex of each offspring born alive or dead by the dog; and

(v) the date of the most recent breeding clearance certificate for the dog required under a relevant business code of practice; and

(vi) the date of the last general health check of the dog required under a relevant business code of practice;

(k) if the dog is male—

(i) the date of any mating of the dog; and

(ii) the date of the last general health check of the dog required under a relevant business code of practice;

(l) the retirement date of the dog if applicable;

(m) the date of disposal of the dog and the method of disposal of the dog if applicable;

the Act means the Domestic Animals Act 1994.

Part 2—Applicable organisations and dog obedience training organisations

Division 1—Fees for applicable organisations and dog obedience training organisations

6 Prescribed application fees—applicable organisation approval and dog obedience training organisation approval and renewal of approval

(1) For the purposes of section 5A(3)(e) of the Act, the prescribed application fee is 166 fee units.

(2) For the purposes of section 5B(4)(c) of the Act, the prescribed application fee is 100 fee units.

(3) For the purposes of section 5C(2)(c) of the Act—

(a) in the case of a dog obedience training organisation, the prescribed application fee is 10 fee units; or

(b) in the case of an applicable organisation, the prescribed application fee is 110 fee units.

(4) The Minister may waive in whole or in part a fee payable under subregulation (1), (2), (3)(a) or (3)(b), if the Minister is of the opinion that special circumstances apply in a particular case.

Division 2—Applicable organisations

7 Form of report for application for an applicable organisation approval

For the purposes of section 5A(3)(a) of the Act, the following details are prescribed—

(b) the names and roles of members of the board, committee or other managing body of the organisation, as applicable;

(c) the breeds of dogs or cats that the organisation represents;

(d) the number of members of the organisation that conduct breeding;

(e) the total number of members of the organisation;

(f) the number of dogs or cats, as applicable, that are registered with the organisation;

(g) a copy of the organisation's complaints policy and complaints handling procedure;

(h) a copy of the organisation's membership form that demonstrates how members agree to the conditions of membership and the organisation's code of ethics;

(i) a copy of the education and training material used by the organisation to inform members that they must comply with the Act, the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1986 and any other laws relating to the keeping of dogs or cats;

(j) a copy of the education and training program used by the organisation to ensure staff are trained to enforce the organisation's code of ethics;

(k) evidence used to demonstrate that each member of the organisation has received and agreed to the conditions of being a member of an applicable organisation;

(l) a copy of the disciplinary policy and disciplinary hearing procedure;

(m) a copy of the organisation's procedures and protocols for reporting and handling of incidents including animal cruelty, dog attacks and animal diseases;

(n) an outline of the organisation's sale guarantee required under the relevant guidelines, health management plan, any current or proposed breeding programs and other breeding-related practices.

8 Form of annual report to be submitted to the Minister and report for renewal application by an applicable organisation

(1) A report for the purposes of section 5C(2)(a) or 5D(a) of the Act in respect of an applicable organisation must contain the following prescribed details or matters—

(b) the names and roles of all members of any board, committee or other managing body of the organisation, as applicable, during the reporting period;

(c) the number of members of the organisation that conducted breeding in the reporting period;

(d) the total number of members of the organisation in the reporting period;

(e) the number of dogs or cats, as applicable, that were registered with the organisation in the reporting period;

(f) the total number of members in attendance at the preceding annual general meeting or equivalent meeting held by the organisation's board, committee or other managing body (if any);

(g) the number of litters of kittens or puppies, as applicable, registered with the organisation during the reporting period;

(h) the number of investigations into alleged breaches of the organisation's code of ethics in the reporting period;

(i) the number and type of confirmed breaches of the organisation's code of ethics in the reporting period;

(j) the number of disciplinary hearings or grievance hearings in the reporting period, including the number and type of disciplinary actions taken.

(2) A report for the purposes of section 5C(2)(a) or 5D(a) of the Act in respect of an applicable organisation must be accompanied by the following—

(a) a document that contains a summary of every complaint received by the organisation, and a summary of the responses to those complaints, in the reporting period;

(b) a copy of the organisation's membership form that demonstrates how members agree to the conditions of membership and the organisation's code of ethics;

(c) a copy of the education and training program used by the organisation in the reporting period to inform members that they must comply with the Act and the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1986 and any other laws relating to the keeping of dogs or cats;

(d) a copy of the training calendar proposed to be used by the organisation for the next year to inform members that they must comply with the Act, the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1986 and any other laws relating to the keeping of dogs or cats;

(e) a copy of the organisation's code of ethics and any amendments to the code of ethics that have been made in the reporting period;

(f) a copy of the education and training program used by the organisation to ensure staff are trained to enforce the organisation's code of ethics;

(g) a document listing the dates on which the organisation conducted inspections in the reporting period—

(i) to determine members' compliance with the organisation's code of ethics; and

(ii) in response to any complaint about the member made to the organisation;

(h) a copy of any updates made in the reporting period to current or proposed breeding programs.

(3) In this regulation—

reporting period means the previous financial year.

Division 3—Dog obedience training organisations

9 Form of report for application for dog obedience training organisation approval

(1) For the purposes of section 5B(4)(a) of the Act, the following details are prescribed—

(b) the names and roles of members of the board, committee or other managing body of the organisation, as applicable;

(c) the names of all qualified dog obedience trainers that are members of the organisation and any other dog obedience training organisations that the organisation represents;

(d) the total number of members of the organisation.

(2) An application under section 5B(4) of the Act must be accompanied by the following—

(a) a copy of the organisation's code of ethics;

(b) a copy of the organisation's complaints policy and complaints handling procedure;

(c) a copy of the organisation's disciplinary policy and disciplinary hearing procedure;

(d) a copy of the organisation's procedures and protocols for reporting and handling of incidents such as animal cruelty, dog attacks or animal diseases;

(e) evidence used to demonstrate that each member of the organisation has received and agreed to the conditions of being a member of an approved dog obedience training organisation;

(f) a copy of the dog obedience training program for dogs that is administered by the organisation that provides details of—

(i) the manner in which the skills described in regulation 11 are developed in those dogs; and

(ii) the standards to which those skills are assessed by the organisation;

(g) a copy of the dog obedience trainer assessment program for persons being trained as qualified dog obedience trainers that is administered by the organisation that provides details of—

(i) the manner in which the skills described in regulation 12(1) are developed in those persons; and

(ii) the standards to which those skills are assessed by the organisation;

(h) a copy of the organisation's membership form that demonstrates how members agree to the conditions of membership and the organisation's code of ethics;

(i) a copy of the education and training program used by the organisation to inform members that they must comply with the Act, the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1986 and any other laws relating to the keeping of dogs;

(j) a copy of the training calendar proposed to be used by the organisation for the next year to inform members that they must comply with the Act, the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1986 and any other laws relating to the keeping of dogs.

10 Form of annual report to be submitted to the Minister and report for renewal application by an approved dog obedience training organisation

(1) A report for the purposes of section 5C(2)(a) or 5D(a) of the Act in respect of an approved dog obedience training organisation must contain the following prescribed details or matters—

(b) the names and roles of all members of the board, committee or other managing body of the organisation, as applicable, during the reporting period;

(c) the total number of members in attendance at the preceding annual general meeting or equivalent meeting held by the organisation's board, committee or other managing body (if any);

(d) the names of all qualified dog obedience trainers that are members of the organisation and any other dog obedience training organisations that the organisation represents;

(e) the number of new members of the organisation in the reporting period;

(f) the total number of members of the organisation in the reporting period;

(g) the number of newly qualified dog obedience trainers that have joined the organisation in the reporting period and their names and contact details;

(h) the number of dogs assessed by or on behalf of the organisation in the reporting period;

(i) the number of dogs that successfully completed the assessment in the reporting period;

(j) the number of investigations into alleged breaches of the organisation's code of ethics in the reporting period;

(k) the number and type of confirmed breaches of the organisation's code of ethics in the reporting period;

(l) details of the number of disciplinary hearings or grievance hearings in the reporting period, including the number and type of disciplinary actions taken.

(2) A report for the purposes of section 5C(2)(a) or 5D(a) of the Act in respect of an approved dog obedience training organisation must be accompanied by the following—

(a) a document that contains a summary of every complaint received by the organisation, and a summary of the responses to those complaints, in the reporting period;

(b) a copy of the organisation's membership form that demonstrates how members agree to the conditions of membership and the organisation's code of ethics;

(c) a copy of the education and training program used by the organisation in the reporting period to inform members that they must comply with the Act, the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1986 and any other laws relating to the keeping of dogs;

(d) a copy of the training calendar proposed to be used by the organisation for the next year to inform members that they must comply with the Act, the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1986 and any other laws relating to the keeping of dogs;

(e) a copy of the organisation's code of ethics and any amendments to the code of ethics that have been made in the reporting period;

(f) a copy of any amendments to the dog obedience training program as described in regulation 11 in the reporting period;

(g) a copy of any amendments to the dog obedience trainer assessment program as described in regulation 12 for the reporting period.

(3) In this regulation—

reporting period means the previous financial year.

11 Prescribed requirements for dog obedience training program

A dog obedience training program provided by an approved dog obedience training organisation must adequately assess a dog in the following skills—

(a) heeling or walking with a handler;

(b) sociability with other dogs;

(c) staying on command (known as a stay test);

(d) coming to a handler on command (known as a recall test);

(e) absence of aggression towards humans or other animals.

12 Prescribed requirements for training of persons to provide dog obedience training

(1) A dog obedience trainer assessment program must adequately train a person in the following skills—

(a) use of appropriate dog training equipment;

(b) obedience training of dogs.

(2) A dog obedience trainer assessment program must include—

(a) a written or oral examination on the theory of dog training; and

(b) a practical examination of the person's dog training skills.

(3) A dog obedience trainer assessment program must include a probationary or learning period of at least 100 hours in which the person is under the supervision of a qualified dog obedience trainer.

(4) An approved dog obedience training organisation must give to a person who has satisfactorily completed a dog obedience trainer assessment program a certificate stating that the person has passed the program.

Part 3—Requirements for dangerous dogs and restricted breed dogs

13 Perimeter fencing for dangerous dog guarding non‑residential premises

(1) For the purposes of section 38(2)(a) of the Act, the following requirements for perimeter fencing for a dangerous dog guarding non-residential premises are prescribed—

(a) the fence has a minimum height of 1×8 m;

(b) the fence is constructed of—

(i) brick, concrete, timber, iron or similar solid materials; or

(ii) mesh that complies with subregulation (2); or

(iii) any combination of those materials referred to in subparagraphs (i) and (ii);

(c) if the fencing contains gates, the gates are kept locked when the dog is guarding the premises;

(d) the fence is constructed and maintained in a manner which prevents the dog from being able to dig or otherwise escape under, over or through the fencing;

(e) if directed by an authorised officer under subregulation (3), the fence has an inward‑facing overhang of 0×7 m angled at 35 degrees to the horizontal plane.

(2) Mesh used in the construction of perimeter fencing under this regulation must be—

(a) chain mesh manufactured from minimum 3×15 mm diameter wire to form a uniform mesh with a maximum mesh spacing of 50 mm; or

(b) welded mesh manufactured from minimum 4 mm diameter wire with a maximum mesh spacing of 50 mm.

(3) An authorised officer may direct an owner of a non-residential premises where a dangerous dog is kept, to ensure that the perimeter fencing of the premises has an inward-facing overhang of 0×7 m angled at 35 degrees to the horizontal plane, if the officer reasonably believes that the dog has previously escaped over the perimeter of the property.

14 Enclosures for dangerous dogs and restricted breed dogs

(1) For the purposes of sections 38(3)(c) and 41G(2) of the Act, an enclosure complies with these Regulations if it—

(a) has a minimum height and width of 1×8 m; and

(b) has a minimum area of 10 square metres for every such dog kept at the owner's premises; and

(c) provides a weatherproof sleeping area sufficient for all dogs in the enclosure; and

(d) in the case of an enclosure for dangerous dogs, complies with the additional requirements specified in subregulation (2); and

(e) in the case of an enclosure for restricted breed dogs, complies with the additional requirements specified in subregulation (3).

(2) For the purposes of subregulation (1)(d), the additional requirements for an enclosure for dangerous dogs are that the enclosure must—

(a) be fully enclosed; and

(b) have walls that are—

(i) fixed to the floor; and

(ii) constructed to be no more than 50 mm from the floor; and

(c) have walls, a roof and a gate that are constructed of—

(i) brick, timber, iron or similar solid materials; or

(ii) mesh that complies with subregulation (4); or

(iii) any combination of those materials referred to in subparagraphs (i) and (ii); and

(d) have a floor that is—

(i) constructed of concrete; and

(ii) graded to fall to a drain for the removal of effluent; and

(e) have a gate that—

(i) contains a self-closing and self-latching mechanism that enables the enclosure to be securely locked when the dog is in the enclosure; and

(ii) is kept locked when the dog is in the enclosure.

(3) For the purposes of subregulation (1)(e), the additional requirements for an enclosure for restricted breed dogs are that the enclosure must—

(a) if the owner of the dog is directed by an authorised officer under subregulation (5), have a perimeter with an inward-facing overhang of 0×7 m angled at 35 degrees to the horizontal plane; and

(b) be constructed of—

(i) brick, concrete, timber, iron or similar solid materials; or

(ii) mesh that complies with subregulation (4); or

(iii) any combination of those materials referred to in subparagraphs (i) and (ii); and

(c) be constructed and maintained in a manner which prevents the dog from being able to dig or otherwise escape under, over or through the perimeter of the enclosure; and

(d) be designed to prevent children from climbing into the enclosure; and

(e) if the enclosure contains gates, each gate must—

(i) contain a self-closing and self-latching mechanism that enables the enclosure to be securely locked when the dog is in the enclosure; and

(ii) be kept locked when the dog is in the enclosure; and

(iii) not be situated on premises in such a manner that people are required to pass through the enclosure.

(4) Mesh used in the construction of an enclosure must be—

(a) chain mesh manufactured from minimum 3×15 mm diameter wire to form a uniform mesh with a maximum mesh spacing of 50 mm; or

(b) welded mesh manufactured from minimum 4 mm diameter wire with a maximum mesh spacing of 50 mm.

(5) An authorised officer may direct an owner of a premises where a restricted breed dog is housed in an enclosure to ensure that the perimeter of the enclosure has an inward-facing overhang of 0×7 m angled at 35 degrees to the horizontal plane, if the officer reasonably believes that the dog has previously escaped over the perimeter of the enclosure.

Section 38 of the Act sets out the circumstances in which the owner of a dangerous dog must keep the dog in a prescribed enclosure that complies with the regulations. Section 41G of the Act sets out the circumstances in which the owner of a restricted breed dog must keep the dog in a prescribed enclosure within the meaning of section 38 of the Act.

15 Dangerous dog warning sign

(1) For the purposes of section 39 of the Act, a warning sign that complies with these Regulations is one that—

(a) is in the shape of a square with sides that are 40 cm in length; and

(b) is made of a durable material; and

(c) is similar to the sign illustrated, coloured and set out in Schedule 2; and

(d) contains at least one colour that reflects light in the dark.

(2) A person must not display on any premises, other than a premises where a dangerous dog is kept, a sign that resembles the sign set out in Schedule 2.

16 Collars for dangerous dogs and restricted breed dogs

(1) For the purposes of sections 40 and 41HA of the Act, a collar is of the kind prescribed if—

(a) it consists of red stripes alternately spaced with yellow stripes each being of a width of not less than 20 mm and not more than 30 mm and set diagonal to the rim of the collar; and

(b) at least one of the two colours reflects light in the dark; and

(c) it is made of durable materials; and

(d) it is able to be securely fastened; and

(e) it has a facility to attach a leash; and

(f) it has a minimum width of—

(i) 25 mm for a dog weighing not more than 40 kg; or

(ii) 50 mm for a dog weighing more than 40 kg.

(2) An owner of a dog must not put on a dog, other than a dangerous dog or a restricted breed dog, a collar resembling the collar prescribed by subregulation (1).

17 Warning sign for restricted breed dog

(1) For the purposes of section 41H of the Act, a warning sign that complies with these Regulations is one that—

(a) is in the shape of a rectangle with a height of 10 cm and a width of 30 cm; and

(b) is made of durable material; and

(c) is similar to the sign illustrated, coloured and set out in Schedule 3; and

(d) contains at least one colour that reflects light in the dark.

(2) A person must not display on any premises, other than a premises where a restricted breed dog is kept, a sign that resembles the sign set out in Schedule 3.

18 Prescribed fee for copy of information in register of dangerous, menacing and restricted breed dogs

For the purposes of section 44AC(3) of the Act, the prescribed fee is 1∙5 fee units.

Part 4—Permanent identification of prescribed animals

Division 1—General

19 Definition of licence holder

In this Part, licence holder means the holder of an animal registry licence.

20 Prescribed identifying information

For the purposes of the definition of prescribed identifying information in section 3(1) of the Act, the following information is prescribed—

(a) in relation to a prescribed animal implanted with a permanent identification device, the following—

(i) the species and breed of the animal;

(ii) the date of birth or age of the animal;

(iii) the colour of the animal;

(iv) the sex of the animal;

(v) the reproductive status of the animal;

(vi) if the animal is a dog or cat born after 1 July 2020, the source number of the breeder or, if the breeder cannot be identified, the source number of the Council pound, animal shelter, pet shop, foster carer, community foster care network or person that owns the animal;

(vii) the address at which the animal is or is to be kept;

(viii) the name of the municipal district at which the animal is or is to be kept;

(ix) if the animal is a dog, whether that dog is a dangerous dog, a menacing dog or a dog that has been declared to be a restricted breed dog under the Act;

(x) the unique identification number of the permanent identification device implanted in the animal;

(xi) the identification number of any other permanent identification device previously implanted in the animal;

(xii) the name and business address of the person who implanted the permanent identification device referred to in subparagraph (x) and the date the device was implanted;

(b) in relation to an owner of an animal referred to in paragraph (a), the following—

(i) the owner's given names and surname;

(ii) the owner's residential address and (if different) postal address;

(iii) the owner's telephone number;

(iv) the owner's email address;

(v) the name and telephone number of a person (other than the owner) who can be contacted in relation to the animal.

21 Council registration fees—prescribed manner of permanently identifying dogs

For the purposes of the Schedule to the Act, a hound registered with or taken to be registered with the Game Management Authority under the Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024[1] and implanted with a prescribed permanent identification device in accordance with these Regulations is a dog that is permanently identified in the prescribed manner.

22 Prescribed permanent identification device

For the purposes of the definition of prescribed permanent identification device in section 3(1) of the Act, the following classes of permanent identification device are prescribed—

(a) a permanent identification device that—

(i) is designed to transmit stored information when activated by a reader; and

(ii) complies with the requirements in AS 5019:2025 that a transponder must meet in order to conform to that standard; and

(iii) contains a unique identification number—

(A) that complies with the requirements in AS 5018:2025 for a unique identification code transmitted by a transponder; and

(B) the first 3 digits of which are the code allocated to the manufacturer of the device by the International Committee for Animal Recording;

(b) in the case of a prescribed animal that is the subject of a written agreement for sale to a person who intends to keep the animal in another country, a permanent identification device that—

(i) complies with the laws of that country relating to the permanent identification of that class of animal; and

(ii) is sold or supplied for implantation into that animal or is implanted in that animal.

23 Prescribed information to be provided to licence holders

(1) For the purposes of section 63I(1)(a) of the Act, the prescribed information is—

(a) the unique identification number of the permanent identification device sold or supplied in a 15 character numeric or 10 character hexadecimal format and linked to the manufacturer of the device and a distribution batch number; and

(b) an allocation list linking the identification number to the person to whom the device was sold or supplied for the purpose of implantation.

(2) For the purposes of section 63I(1)(a) of the Act, the prescribed manner and format in which the prescribed information is to be provided is an electronic format suitable for incorporation into the records that form part of the animal registry service provided by any licence holder provided with the information.

Division 2—Forwarding of information to Council regarding permanent identification of certain dogs

24 Owner to forward information to Council regarding permanent identification of certain classes of dog

(1) The owner of a dog that has not been implanted with a prescribed permanent identification device before any one of the following events occurs must, within 7 days of the dog being implanted with such a device, forward the prescribed identifying information to the Council with which the dog is or is to be registered—

(a) the dog by virtue of the operation of section 34A of the Act becomes a dangerous dog;

(b) the dog is declared under section 34 of the Act to be a dangerous dog and an application for review of the declaration is not made under section 98(2) of the Act to VCAT within the time specified in section 98(2A) of the Act;

(c) the dog is affirmed by VCAT as a dangerous dog;

(d) the dog is declared under section 41A of the Act to be a menacing dog and an application for review of the declaration is not made under section 98(2) of the Act to VCAT within the time specified in section 98(2A) of the Act;

(e) the dog is affirmed by VCAT as a menacing dog;

(f) the dog is declared under section 10(3) of the Act to be a restricted breed dog;

(g) the dog is declared under section 98A of the Act to be a restricted breed dog and an application for review of the declaration is not made under section 98(2AA) of the Act to VCAT within the time specified in section 98(2A) of the Act;

(h) the dog is affirmed by VCAT as a restricted breed dog.

(2) The owner of a dog that has been implanted with a prescribed permanent identification device before any one of the events referred to in subregulation (1)(a) to (h) occurs must, within 7 days of that event, forward the information required under regulations 20(a)(i) to (xi) and (b) to the Council with which the dog is or is to be registered.

Division 3—Implantation and removal of permanent identification devices

25 Implanter must obtain information before implanting device

A person must not implant a permanent identification device in a prescribed animal unless—

(a) the person has obtained the prescribed identifying information (except the information required under regulation 20(a)(x) to (xii)) from the owner of that animal or the owner's agent; and

(b) the person is provided with a declaration signed and dated by the owner of the animal or the owner's agent containing the information referred to in paragraph (a) and stating that the information is true and correct and that the person named as the owner is the legal owner of the animal.

26 Implanter must advise owner of chargeable services before implantation

Before implanting a permanent identification device in a prescribed animal, a person must advise the owner of the animal of any services for which a licence holder may charge a fee as part of providing an animal registry service in respect of that animal.

27 Scanning for permanent identification devices

(1) A person who is proposing to implant a permanent identification device in a prescribed animal must ensure that—

(a) the animal is scanned in accordance with subregulation (2) to determine whether a permanent identification device has previously been implanted in the animal; and

(b) if a permanent identification device is detected, the scanning of the animal is continued until the person is reasonably satisfied that all permanent identification devices implanted in the animal have been detected.

(2) For the purposes of subregulation (1)—

(a) in the case of a dog or cat, a person must scan the dog or cat by including two sweeps between the head to the middle of the animal's back and two sweeps over the withers from elbow to elbow with a reader that the person has confirmed is functioning correctly; and

(b) in the case of a horse, a person must scan the horse by including two sweeps close to the skin along each side of the full length of the neck, along the nuchal ligament, with a reader that the person has confirmed is functioning correctly.

28 Offences regarding animals previously implanted

(1) A person must not implant a permanent identification device into a prescribed animal if the person is aware that the animal has already been implanted with a permanent identification device unless—

(a) the person is reasonably satisfied that the implanted device is not functioning correctly; or

(b) the implanted device does not uniquely identify the animal; or

(c) the implanted device has migrated outside the areas of the animal specified in regulation 27(2); or

(d) the implanted device is a permanent identification device referred to in regulation 22(b).

(2) If a person who intends to implant, or has implanted, a permanent identification device into a prescribed animal detects another permanent identification device in the animal, the person must—

(a) notify the licence holder holding the records associated with that other permanent identification device of that fact; and

(b) if known, provide that licence holder with the name, address and telephone number of the person who presented the animal for implantation.

29 Offence to remove permanent identification device

(1) A person, other than a veterinary practitioner, must not remove a permanent identification device from a prescribed animal.

(2) A veterinary practitioner must not remove a permanent identification device from a prescribed animal unless—

(a) the practitioner reasonably considers the removal of the device to be necessary for therapeutic reasons; or

(b) the practitioner has been ordered to remove the device by an order of a court.

(3) If a veterinary practitioner removes a permanent identification device from a prescribed animal, the practitioner must take reasonable steps to notify the licence holder holding the records associated with that device of the removal.

30 Implantation of permanent identification device

(1) A person must not implant a permanent identification device into a prescribed animal unless—

(a) the device was packaged in individual sterile packaging at the time the person obtained the device; and

(b) the device was kept in that packaging until immediately before the device was scanned prior to implantation.

(2) A person must not implant a permanent identification device into a prescribed animal unless the person has scanned the device to confirm that—

(a) the device is functioning correctly; and

(b) its unique identification number displayed during scanning is the same as the number shown on the package in which the device was sold or supplied to the person.

(3) A person who implants a permanent identification device into a prescribed animal other than a horse must—

(a) implant the device subcutaneously in the dorsal midline between the scapulae with the device lying at a 30–45 degree angle to the longitudinal axis of the animal; and

(b) scan the animal immediately after the implantation to confirm proper implantation and that the device is functioning correctly.

(4) A person who implants a permanent identification device into a horse must—

(a) implant the device into the nuchal ligament on the left side of the neck, midway between the poll and the wither; and

(b) scan the horse immediately after implantation to confirm proper implantation and that the device is functioning correctly.

It is an offence for a person to implant a permanent identification device in a prescribed animal if the person is not an authorised implanter or certain supervision requirements are not met—see section 63F of the Act.

31 Provision of information to licence holder by implanter of permanent identification device

(1) A person who has implanted a permanent identification device into a prescribed animal must, when giving the prescribed identifying information to the licence holder in accordance with section 63G of the Act, provide proof of the identity of the implanter to the licence holder.

(2) A person who has implanted a permanent identification device into a prescribed animal must retain a copy of the prescribed identifying information provided to a licence holder in accordance with section 63G of the Act in relation to the animal until the person is aware that the information has been recorded as part of the animal registry service provided by the licence holder in respect of that animal.

32 Provision of information to licence holder if presenter of animal suspected not to be owner

(1) If an authorised implanter reasonably suspects that a person who presents a prescribed animal to the implanter for a professional service is not the owner of the animal, the authorised implanter must, if there is a permanent identification device implanted in the animal, provide the following details to the licence holder providing an animal registry service in respect of that animal—

(a) the unique identification number of the device;

(b) if available, the name, address and telephone number of the person presenting the animal.

(2) In this regulation and in regulation 44, professional service includes grooming, vaccinating, the provision of medical care and checking permanent identification devices with respect to an animal, but does not include implanting a permanent identification device.

Division 4—Animal registry licences

33 Application for the grant or renewal of an animal registry licence

(1) For the purposes of sections 63L(2)(a) and 63O(3)(a) of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed—

(a) if the applicant is a body corporate—

(i) the name of the body corporate and the Australian Business Number issued under the A New Tax System (Australian Business Number) Act 1999 of the Commonwealth of the body corporate; and

(ii) the full name of the person who will be responsible for overseeing management of the provision of the animal registry service; and

(iii) the name of a contact person; and

(iv) the business address, postal address (if different from the business address), telephone number and email address of the applicant;

(b) if the applicant is a natural person—

(i) the person's full name and Australian Business Number issued under the A New Tax System (Australian Business Number) Act 1999 of the Commonwealth; and

(ii) the business address, postal address (if different from the business address), telephone number and email address of the applicant;

(c) details of any secure storage facility approved by the Secretary in which copies of records relating to prescribed animals that must be kept and maintained by the applicant will be deposited by the applicant in accordance with regulation 49;

(d) details of the applicant's technical and financial capacity to provide an animal registry service in compliance with the requirements of the Act and these Regulations;

(e) details of any offence involving fraud or dishonesty of which the applicant has been found guilty within 5 years before lodging the application;

(f) details of any insurance against expenses or liabilities that may arise in connection with, or as a result of, providing an animal registry service which the applicant will have at the time of commencing to provide the service.

(2) An application under sections 63L and 63O of the Act must be accompanied by—

(a) a notice of consent signed by the applicant permitting the Secretary to undertake a police records check in relation to the applicant; and

(b) a notice of consent signed by the person responsible for overseeing the management of the animal registry service permitting the Secretary to undertake a police records check in relation to that person.

34 Application fee for licence or renewal

For the purposes of sections 63L(2)(b) and 63O(3)(b) of the Act, the prescribed fee is 105 fee units for each year or part of a year that the licence is granted or renewed (as the case may be).

Division 5—Conditions on animal registry licences

35 Licences subject to conditions in this Division

For the purposes of section 63N(1)(a) of the Act, this Division prescribes conditions to which every animal registry licence is subject.

Section 63N(1) of the Act provides that an animal registry licence is subject to any conditions that are prescribed and any conditions that the Secretary imposes on the licence. This Division prescribes the conditions that apply to all animal registry licences.

Under section 63N(2) of the Act, the penalty for a breach of a licence condition is 60 penalty units in the case of a natural person and 120 penalty units in the case of a body corporate.

36 Licence holders' obligations—information received regarding permanent identification device

(1) A licence holder, on receiving the information required to be provided to the licence holder under section 63I of the Act in relation to a permanent identification device, must examine the information and determine whether the identification number of the device is unique and contains no character errors.

(2) A licence holder, on receiving the information required to be given under section 63G of the Act in relation to an implanted permanent identification device, must examine the information and determine whether the identification number of the device correctly links to the person to whom the device was sold or supplied for the purpose of implantation.

(3) A licence holder must not use the information provided under section 63I(1)(b) of the Act for any commercial purpose other than for the purpose of providing an animal registry service.

37 Licence holder to notify persons of incorrect information

(1) A licence holder must notify a person as soon as practicable after becoming aware that any of the following has occurred—

(a) the person has failed to provide to the licence holder all or part of the prescribed identifying information under section 63G of the Act;

(b) the person has failed to provide to the licence holder all or part of the prescribed information or other information under section 63I(1) of the Act;

(c) the person has supplied to the licence holder inaccurate prescribed identifying information under section 63G of the Act;

(d) the person has supplied to the licence holder inaccurate information under section 63I(1) of the Act.

(2) A licence holder must notify the Secretary as soon as practicable after any of the following occurs—

(a) the incomplete information is not supplied to the licence holder within 14 days after a notification under subregulation (1)(a) or (b);

(b) accurate information is not supplied to the licence holder within 14 days after a notification under subregulation (1)(c) or (d).

38 Holding of information separately until certain matters confirmed

Until a licence holder is satisfied of the matters required to be determined under regulation 36, the licence holder—

(a) must retain any prescribed identifying information provided in accordance with section 63G of the Act relating to a prescribed animal or the owner of the animal separately from the records kept as part of the animal registry service; and

(b) must not create any record that includes that information.

39 Prohibition on establishing record except in specified circumstances

(1) A licence holder must not, as part of providing an animal registry service, establish a record relating to a prescribed animal implanted with a permanent identification device unless—

(a) the licence holder has checked the records of any other licence holder providing an animal registry service in accordance with the Act and these Regulations and is satisfied that the records do not include a record for that animal; and

(b) one of the following applies—

(i) the licence holder—

(A) is reasonably satisfied that the device is a prescribed permanent identification device that was implanted in the animal in Victoria in accordance with the Act and these Regulations; and

(B) is provided with the information required under section 63G of the Act;

(ii) the device was implanted in the animal outside of Victoria and the licence holder is reasonably satisfied that the device is capable of uniquely identifying the animal;

(iii) the establishment of the record is approved by a Departmental authorised officer.

(2) Subregulation (1)(b) does not apply in relation to the establishment of a record on or after the commencement of these Regulations if—

(a) the record being established is a transferred record, where the original record was established in accordance with the Act and any regulations made under the Act as they applied at the time the original record was established; or

(b) the establishment of the record is for a permanent identification device, for which no record has previously been established, implanted in a dog or cat before 1 December 2005, if the licence holder is reasonably satisfied that the device is capable of uniquely identifying the animal; or

(c) the establishment of the record is for a permanent identification device, for which no record has previously been established, implanted in a horse before 1 September 2009, if the licence holder is reasonably satisfied that the device is capable of uniquely identifying the animal.

40 Licence holder must provide animal registry service for a prescribed animal

A licence holder must provide an animal registry service in respect of a prescribed animal if—

(a) the appropriate fee is paid for the provision of that service to the licence holder; and

(b) the licence holder is not prohibited from establishing a record for the animal under regulation 39.

41 New records to be established within 4 days

A licence holder must ensure that the prescribed identifying information provided in accordance with section 63G of the Act is entered into a new record for that animal as part of the animal registry service provided by the licence holder to the owner in respect of that animal within 4 business days after the licence holder—

(a) has received the information from the person who implanted a permanent identification device in the animal; and

(b) is satisfied of the matters to be determined under regulation 36.

42 Licence holder to provide certificate of identification

(1) A licence holder must provide to the owner of a prescribed animal a certificate of identification that complies with subregulation (2) as soon as practicable after the establishment of a record under regulation 41 for that animal.

(2) A certificate of identification provided under subregulation (1) must contain—

(a) information about the procedures for amending identifying information contained in the record for the animal; and

(b) the information specified in regulation 20(a)(i) to (v), (ix) to (xi) and (b)(i) to (iii).

43 Period of time for which records of prescribed animals must be maintained

A licence holder who has agreed to provide an animal registry service in respect of a prescribed animal must keep and maintain any record relating to that animal as part of that service for the greater of the following periods—

(a) the lifetime of the animal;

(b) 30 years after the licence holder first established a record in relation to that animal as part of such a service;

(c) 30 years after any former licence holder first established a record relating to that animal as part of such a service.

44 Licence holder must notify owner of certain matters

(1) If a licence holder has been notified under regulation 28(2) that a prescribed animal in respect of which the licence holder keeps a record has been presented for implantation with a further permanent identification device, the licence holder must—

(a) notify the owner of the animal of that fact; and

(b) if provided to the licence holder, provide a Departmental authorised officer with the name, address and telephone number of the person who presented the animal for implantation.

(2) If a licence holder is unable to contact the owner for the purposes of subregulation (1)(a), the licence holder must enter the following details in the record kept for the animal—

(a) that the animal has been presented for implantation with a further permanent identification device;

(b) if provided to the licence holder, the name, address and telephone number of the person who so presented the animal;

(c) the date on which the licence holder received the information referred to in paragraphs (a) and (b);

(d) the date on which the licence holder attempted to notify the owner in accordance with subregulation (1)(a).

(3) If a licence holder has been notified under regulation 32 of the fact that a prescribed animal in respect of which the licence holder keeps a record has been presented for a professional service, the licence holder must—

(a) notify the owner of the animal of that fact; and

(b) if provided to the licence holder, provide a Departmental authorised officer with the name, address and telephone number of the person who so presented the animal.

(4) If a licence holder is unable to contact the owner for the purposes of subregulation (3)(a), the licence holder must enter the following details in the record kept for the animal—

(a) that the animal has been presented for a professional service;

(b) if provided to the licence holder, the name, address and telephone number of the person who so presented the animal;

(c) the date on which the licence holder received the information referred to in paragraphs (a) and (b);

(d) the date on which the licence holder attempted to notify the owner in accordance with subregulation (3)(a).

45 Licence holder to facilitate reunion of lost animals and owners

The licence holder, in providing an animal registry service, must use the licence holder's best endeavours to ensure the prompt reunion of any prescribed animal implanted with a permanent identification device with the owner of the animal.

46 Licence holder must establish complaints system

(1) A licence holder must establish and maintain a system approved by the Secretary for recording and addressing complaints in respect of the animal registry service provided by the licence holder.

(2) For the purposes of subregulation (1), the Secretary may approve a system if the Secretary is satisfied that the system is adequate for the recording and addressing of complaints in respect of the animal registry service provided by the licence holder.

(3) In determining whether to approve a system under subregulation (2), the Secretary may request that the licence holder provide to the Secretary any information or documents that the Secretary reasonably requires.

47 Access to and provision of information

A licence holder who is providing an animal registry service in respect of a prescribed animal, must ensure that any record relating to such an animal is accessible—

(a) for the purposes of identifying the animal—at all times; and

(b) for any other purpose—during normal business hours.

48 Licence holder must respond to request for prescribed identifying information for reunification purposes

(1) If a licence holder who keeps a record in relation to a prescribed animal receives a request to provide prescribed identifying information in relation to that animal for the purpose of reuniting the animal with its owner, the licence holder must, as soon as practicable after receiving the request—

(a) make reasonable efforts to contact the owner of the animal to inform the owner of the request for information, unless a Council or an animal shelter registered under Part 4 of the Act or an authorised implanter agrees to contact the owner and so inform the owner; and

(b) provide the information requested to the person who made the request, if the person is of a class of person referred to in section 63H(2) of the Act.

(2) If a licence holder receives a request to provide prescribed identifying information in relation to a prescribed animal for which the licence holder does not keep a record for the purpose of reuniting the prescribed animal with its owner, the licence holder must, as soon as practicable after receiving the request—

(a) contact other licence holders to determine whether another licence holder keeps a record relating to the prescribed animal; and

(b) if the person who made the request is of a class of person referred to in section 63H(2) of the Act, provide the information requested to that person, unless the licence holder keeping the record agrees to provide the information directly to that person.

49 Licence holder must provide copies of records monthly

(1) Within 15 business days of the end of each month, a licence holder must, in relation to all records relating to prescribed animals kept and maintained as part of the animal registry service provided by the licence holder—

(a) deposit in electronic format a copy of those records into a secure storage facility approved by the Secretary and maintained by the licence holder; or

(b) provide a copy of those records in electronic format to the Secretary.

Penalty: For a first offence, 4 penalty units;

For a second or subsequent offence, 8 penalty units.

(2) The licence holder must ensure that any records deposited under subregulation (1)(a) are accessible for inspection by a Departmental authorised officer or restricted authorised officer.

Penalty: For a first offence, 4 penalty units;

For a second or subsequent offence, 8 penalty units.

50 Amending information in records

(1) A licence holder must not amend the identifying information contained in a record kept and maintained by the licence holder in relation to a prescribed animal unless—

(a) the licence holder has received an application to so amend the record from the person specified as the owner of the animal in the identifying information contained in the record; or

(b) the licence holder has received an application to so amend the record from a Departmental authorised officer; or

(c) in the case of an application for a change of ownership of the animal—

(i) the licence holder has received an application from the new owner of the animal to change the ownership of the animal and a declaration from the new owner that they own the animal; and

(ii) the licence holder has notified the person specified as the owner of the animal in the identifying information contained in the record about that animal of the application within 7 business days of receiving the application and declaration referred to in subparagraph (i); and

(iii) within 14 business days after receiving notification under subparagraph (ii), the owner has either confirmed the ownership change in writing or has not responded to the notification; or

(d) in the case of an application for a change of ownership of the animal, the licence holder has received an application to change the ownership of the animal from a pound or animal shelter which operates a domestic animal business from a premises registered for that purpose under Part 4 of the Act; or

(e) there has been a change in ownership of the animal as a result of an order of a court and the new owner of the animal—

(i) applies to the licence holder to amend the record to change the ownership of the animal; and

(ii) provides a copy of the order to the licence holder.

(2) The licence holder must comply with the following requirements relating to the amendment under subregulation (1) of the identifying information contained in a record kept and maintained by the licence holder in relation to a prescribed animal—

(a) in the case of an amendment under subregulation (1)(a) or (b), the licence holder must amend the record within 7 business days after receiving the application;

(b) in the case of an amendment under subregulation (1)(c), the licence holder must amend the record to change the ownership of the animal within 7 business days after the 14 business day period referred to in subregulation (1)(c)(iii);

(c) the licence holder must amend the record to change the ownership of the animal within 7 business days after receiving an application to change the ownership of the animal under subregulation (1)(d);

(d) the licence holder must amend the record to change the ownership of the animal within 7 business days after receiving both an application to change the ownership of the animal and a copy of the order of a court referred to in subregulation (1)(e).

(3) If a licence holder becomes aware of a dispute over the ownership of a prescribed animal in respect of which the licence holder keeps a record, the licence holder—

(a) must enter details of the dispute on to the record; and

(b) must not amend the record to change the ownership of the animal unless the licence holder is provided with an order of a court which provides that a person who is not the person specified as the owner of the animal in the identifying information contained in the record is the owner of the animal.

(4) If a licence holder amends a record kept in relation to a prescribed animal to change the ownership of that animal, the licence holder must ensure that the previous ownership details are retained in that record.

(5) If the licence owner has amended a record kept in relation to a prescribed animal to change the ownership of that animal under this regulation, the licence holder must provide the new owner of the animal with a certificate of identification that complies with regulation 42(2), within 7 business days after amending the record.

51 Reporting of complaints to Secretary

A licence holder must provide a written report to the Secretary every 3 months setting out—

(a) any complaints made in respect of the animal registry service provided by the licence holder concerning—

(i) the keeping and maintaining of records relating to prescribed animals; and

(ii) the provision of access to those records; and

(iii) any failure of the licence holder to identify the owner of a prescribed animal from records kept by the licence holder; and

(b) the steps taken by the licence holder to address those complaints.

52 Licence holder must not charge access fees to certain people

A licence holder must not charge a fee to any of the following persons for providing that person with access to any information in a record kept and maintained by the licence holder relating to a prescribed animal—

(a) the Secretary acting in the course of the Secretary's duties in the administration of the Act or these Regulations;

(b) a Departmental authorised officer, restricted authorised officer or Council authorised officer acting in the course of the officer's duties in the administration of the Act or these Regulations;

(c) the owner of the animal;

(d) any other person where the access is for the purposes of reuniting an animal with its owner;

(e) any other person approved by the Secretary.

53 Information provided to licence holder must be retained in electronic or in hard copy form

Any prescribed identifying information or prescribed information (as the case may be) relating to a prescribed animal provided to a licence holder must be retained by the licence holder in an electronic form or as a hard copy for the same period that the licence holder must keep a record relating to that animal under regulation 43.

54 Licence holder must notify Secretary of change in nominated person in charge of animal registry service

(1) If a person nominated under regulation 33(1)(a)(ii) ceases to be the person responsible for overseeing management of the provision of the animal registry service, the licence holder must—

(a) as soon as practicable, notify the Secretary in writing that the person has ceased to be responsible for overseeing management of the provision of that service; and

(b) provide the Secretary with the full name of the person who will be responsible for overseeing management of the provision of the animal registry service.

(2) The written advice of the licence holder under subregulation (1) must be accompanied by a notice of consent signed by the person nominated under subregulation (1)(b) permitting the Secretary to undertake a police records check in relation to that person.

Division 6—Record management

55 Prescribed manner for keeping information in records and copies of records

(1) For the purposes of sections 63E(a) and 63Z(1)(a) of the Act, the prescribed manner for keeping and maintaining the records containing the prescribed identifying information or the prescribed information (as the case may be) relating to a prescribed animal is in an electronic format which is sufficient to enable the licence holder to comply with the requirements of regulation 47.

(2) For the purposes of sections 63E(b) and 63Z(1)(b) of the Act, the prescribed manner for keeping and maintaining copies of records relating to a prescribed animal is in an electronic format.

56 Maintenance of records if licence holder ceases to provide animal registry service

(1) If a licence holder intends to cease providing an animal registry service in respect of prescribed animals, the licence holder must, before ceasing to provide the service and relinquishing the relevant animal registry licence—

(a) enter into a written agreement with a person for that person to continue to provide the service in respect of those animals, that complies with the requirements of regulation 43 in relation to each animal; or

(b) give to the Secretary in electronic format every record in relation to the animals in respect of which the holder provides that service.

(2) If a licence holder is unable to continue to provide an animal registry service in respect of prescribed animals due to the licence holder's incapacity or death, the licence holder's guardian or the personal representative of the licence holder's estate (as the case may be) must as soon as practicable—

(a) enter into a written agreement with a person for that person to continue to provide the service in respect of those animals, that complies with the requirements of regulation 43 in relation to each animal; or

(b) give to the Secretary in electronic format every record in relation to the animals in respect of which the holder provides that service.

(3) If it appears to the Secretary that a licence holder has ceased to provide the animal registry service in respect of prescribed animals for which the licence holder is licensed, the Secretary may request any person who appears to have possession or control of the records relating to those animals to give the records in electronic format to the Secretary.

(4) A person must comply with a request under subregulation (3) unless the person has a reasonable excuse for not so complying.

Part 5—Commercial dog breeder approvals

57 Application for grant of commercial dog breeder approval

(1) For the purposes of section 58AC(2)(c) of the Act, the following prescribed information must be contained in a business plan that accompanies an application for the grant of an approval—

(a) the Australian Business Number issued under the A New Tax System (Australian Business Number) Act 1999 of the Commonwealth of the business;

(b) the registered domestic animal business number issued by the Council of the business premises;

(c) the organisational structure of the business;

(d) in relation to the employees of the business—

(i) the number of employees; and

(ii) the name and role of each employee; and

(iii) any qualifications prescribed for the purposes of section 58AF(5) of the Act held by each employee;

(e) the number of employees, and the role and minimum qualifications of each employee, who are proposed to be employed by the business if the approval is granted;

(f) the breed or breeds of dogs that are being kept or proposed to be kept at the business premises;

(g) the number of dogs that are being kept or proposed to be kept at the business premises;

(h) the number of relevant fertile female dogs that are being kept or proposed to be kept at the business premises;

(i) the number of breeding male dogs that are being kept or proposed to be kept at the business premises;

(j) the specified dog details of each dog kept at the business premises at the time of application.

(2) For the purposes of section 58AC(2)(c) of the Act, the following information is the prescribed information to accompany a business plan that accompanies an application for the grant of an approval—

(a) a copy of a health management plan that includes specific requirements for each breed of dog proposed to be kept at the business premises;

(b) a copy of an exercise, enrichment, socialisation and handling policy that demonstrates the capacity of the business to ensure that all dogs proposed to be kept at the business premises are regularly exercised and participate in enrichment, socialisation and handling programs;

(c) a copy of a retirement plan for each breeding dog proposed to be kept at the business premises;

(d) a copy of the procedure that the business follows to deal with complaints about a dog, and the returns policy or sale guarantee adopted by the business under the relevant business code of practice in respect of the dog;

(e) a copy of the procedure that the business follows to deal with complaints about the business;

(f) a copy of the education and training policy for all employees or staff who work or volunteer at the business;

(g) a copy of the literature in relation to responsible pet ownership that is provided to any person who purchases a dog from the business;

(h) a copy of an agreement with a veterinary practitioner to provide veterinary services to the business.

(3) For the purposes of section 58AC(2)(d) of the Act, the other prescribed information that is to accompany an application for the grant of an approval is evidence of the qualifications prescribed for the purposes of section 58AF(5) of the Act of each employee of the business.

58 Application for renewal of commercial dog breeder approval

(1) For the purposes of section 58AC(2)(c) of the Act, the following information is the prescribed information to be contained in a business plan that accompanies an application for the renewal of an approval—

(a) the Australian Business Number issued under the A New Tax System (Australian Business Number) Act 1999 of the Commonwealth, and the registered domestic animal business number issued by the Council, of the breeding domestic animal business of the approved commercial dog breeder;

(b) the organisational structure of the business;

(c) in relation to the employees of the business—

(i) the number of employees; and

(ii) the name and role of each employee; and

(iii) any qualifications prescribed for the purposes of section 58AF(5) of the Act held by each employee;

(d) the number of employees, and the role and minimum qualifications of each employee, who are proposed to be employed by the business if the approval is renewed;

(e) the breed or breeds of dogs that are being kept at the business premises;

(f) the number of dogs being kept or proposed to be kept at the business premises over the next period of 3 years;

(g) the number of relevant fertile female dogs being kept or proposed to be kept at the business premises over the next period of 3 years;

(h) the number of breeding male dogs being kept or proposed to be kept at the business premises over the next period of 3 years;

(i) the specified dog details of each dog kept at the business premises at the time of application.

(2) For the purposes of section 58AC(2)(c) of the Act, the following information is the prescribed information to accompany a business plan that accompanies an application for the renewal of an approval—

(a) a copy of a health management plan that includes specific requirements for each breed of dog kept at the business premises;

(b) a copy of an exercise, enrichment, socialisation and handling policy that demonstrates the capacity of the business to ensure that all dogs kept at the business premises are regularly exercised and participate in enrichment, socialisation and handling programs;

(c) a copy of a retirement plan for each breeding dog kept at the business premises;

(d) a copy of the procedure that the business follows to deal with complaints about a dog and the returns policy or sale guarantee adopted by the business under the relevant business code of practice in respect of the dog;

(e) a copy of the procedure that the business follows to deal with complaints about the business;

(f) a copy of the education and training policy for all staff who work or volunteer at the business;

(g) a copy of the literature in relation to responsible pet ownership that is provided to any person who purchases a dog from the business;

(h) a copy of an agreement with a veterinary practitioner to provide veterinary services to the business.

(3) For the purposes of section 58AC(2)(d) of the Act, the other prescribed information that is to accompany an application for the renewal of an approval is evidence of the qualifications prescribed for the purposes of section 58AF(5) of the Act of each employee of the business.

59 Fee for application for grant or renewal of commercial dog breeder approval

(1) For the purposes of section 58AC(2)(e) of the Act, the prescribed fee for an application for the grant or renewal of a commercial dog breeder approval is 207 fee units.

(2) The Minister may waive in whole or in part a fee payable under subregulation (1), if the Minister is of the opinion that special circumstances apply in a particular case.

60 Report to be submitted by approved commercial dog breeder

(1) For the purposes of section 58AF(3) of the Act, the following information is prescribed—

(a) the number of breeding and non-breeding dogs on the premises in the reporting period, including the breed and sex of each dog;

(b) the number of litters of puppies born in the reporting period;

(c) for each breed of puppies sold, the breed and number of puppies sold in the reporting period;

(d) the number of relevant fertile female dogs and all other dogs which were retired in the reporting period;

(e) the number of relevant fertile female dogs and all other dogs which were sold in the reporting period;

(f) the number of relevant fertile female dogs and all other dogs which were euthanased, or died of other causes, in the reporting period, and the reason for the euthanasia or death;

(g) the number of puppies returned under the sale guarantee in the reporting period;

(h) the number of new staff that commenced in the reporting period and evidence of their relevant qualifications;

(i) a document that contains a summary of each complaint received in the reporting period including a summary of the responses to those complaints;

(j) details of any disease outbreaks and response to the outbreak in the reporting period;

(k) the specified dog details for each dog kept on the premises during the reporting period;

(l) the details of any changes to any information provided under regulation 57(2) or 58(2);

(m) a copy of an agreement with a veterinary practitioner to provide veterinary services to the business, if the practitioner has changed since giving information under regulation 57(2) or 58(2);

(n) a copy of the current certificate of public liability insurance for the breeding domestic animal business.

(2) In this regulation—

reporting period means the period specified by the Minister.

Provision of a report containing the information prescribed in this regulation is a condition of a commercial dog breeder approval. It is an offence for an approved commercial dog breeder to fail to comply with a condition of a commercial dog breeder approval—see section 58AF(7) of the Act.

61 Approved commercial dog breeder to maintain public liability insurance

For the purposes of section 58AF(4) of the Act, the minimum level of public liability insurance cover is $10 million.

Maintaining the level of cover prescribed by this regulation is a condition of a commercial dog breeder approval. It is an offence for an approved commercial dog breeder to fail to comply with a condition of a commercial dog breeder approval—see section 58AF(7) of the Act.

62 Manager of approved commercial dog breeder and employee with animal husbandry duties or responsibilities to have certain qualifications and training

(1) For the purposes of section 58AF(5) of the Act, the prescribed qualifications or training for a manager are—

(a) a Certificate III in Animal Care Services (or equivalent) issued by a post-secondary education provider within the meaning of the Education and Training Reform Act 2006; or

(b) a minimum of 5 years' experience working in animal husbandry.

(2) For the purposes of section 58AF(5) of the Act, the prescribed qualifications or training for an employee with animal husbandry duties or responsibilities are satisfactory completion of the Breeding Dogs and Cats in Victoria e-learning course conducted by the Department.

It is a condition of a commercial dog breeder approval that the manager and employees of the business have the qualifications or training prescribed by this regulation. It is an offence for an approved commercial dog breeder to fail to comply with a condition of a commercial dog breeder approval—see section 58AF(7) of the Act.

Part 6—Animal sale permits and caged bird sales

63 Prescribed application fee for animal sale permit

(1) For the purposes of section 58M(2)(b) of the Act, the prescribed application fee is—

(a) in the case of a not-for-profit entity, 4 fee units; or

(b) in any other case, 14 fee units.

(2) The Minister may waive in whole or in part a fee payable under subregulation (1)(a) by a not‑for‑profit entity, if the Minister is of the opinion that special circumstances apply in a particular case.

64 Conditions of animal sale permit

For the purposes of section 58O(4) of the Act, every animal sale permit is subject to the following conditions—

(a) the permit holder must ensure that all animals have access to clean drinking water at all times in a container that cannot be tipped over easily;

(b) the permit holder must ensure that all animals have adequate protection from adverse weather conditions at all times;

(c) the permit holder must ensure that if a purchaser is not satisfied with an animal purchased due to health, physical or other reasons as provided for in any sale guarantee adopted by the permit holder under the relevant business code of practice or offered by the permit holder in compliance with a condition imposed on the permit under section 58O(1)(b) of the Act, that the sale guarantee is honoured;

(d) the permit holder must ensure that an emergency evacuation plan is prominently displayed at all times during the animal sale at the place of sale;

(e) the permit holder or the person in charge of the animal sale must produce the animal sale permit when requested by a Council authorised officer or a restricted authorised officer.

It is an offence for a holder of an animal sale permit to fail to comply with a condition of the permit or to fail to ensure that the person in charge of the animal sale authorised under the permit complies with a condition of the permit—see section 58S of the Act.

65 Prescribed details to be included in notice to Secretary of caged bird sale

For the purposes of section 58U(3) of the Act, the prescribed details are—

(a) the name of the declared bird organisation; and

(b) the type of birds being sold; and

(c) the proposed location of the sale; and

(d) the contact details of the person representing the declared bird organisation at the caged bird sale.

Part 7—Pet shop records

66 Pet shop records

(1) For the purposes of section 63AB(1)(a)(ii) of the Act, the prescribed information of which the proprietor of a pet shop must make and keep records in relation to each dog or cat that is offered for sale or sold at the pet shop is—

(a) the name of the dog or cat, if any; and

(b) the sex of the dog or cat; and

(c) the breed of the dog or cat; and

(d) the age of the dog or cat; and

(e) the unique identification number of the permanent identification device implanted in the dog or cat; and

(f) the name, address, telephone number and source number of the person from whom the pet shop proprietor obtained the dog or cat; and

(g) if the pet shop proprietor obtained the dog or cat from a registered domestic animal business, the registered domestic animal business number of that business; and

(h) if the pet shop proprietor obtained the dog or cat from a registered foster carer, evidence of that registration from the relevant Council; and

(i) the name, address and telephone number of the person who purchased the dog or cat; and

(j) a copy of the permanent identification device change of ownership form signed by the purchaser of the dog or cat.

(2) For the purposes of section 63AB(1)(b) of the Act, the prescribed manner in which the proprietor of a pet shop must keep and maintain copies of records under section 63AB(1)(a) of the Act is—

(a) a manner which enables it to be made available for examination by an authorised officer on request; and

(b) that it must be kept and maintained for not less than 5 years after the record was made.

Part 8—Information register and source numbers

67 Information to be given to the Secretary

For the purposes of section 68Q(1)(j) of the Act, the following matters are prescribed—

(a) for the proprietor of a domestic animal business—

(i) details of any condition that has been imposed by the relevant Council under section 47(2) or 52(4) of the Act; and

(ii) details of any notice to comply issued to the proprietor under section 76A of the Act; and

(iii) details of any infringement notice served on the proprietor under section 85(1) of the Act; and

(iv) details of any offence against the Act or these Regulations with which the proprietor has been charged but which did not lead to a conviction or finding of guilt;

(b) in the case of any natural person who applies for a source number under section 68ZD of the Act, the date of birth of the applicant.

68 Prescribed fee for an application for source numbers or renewal of source numbers

For the purposes of section 68ZD(3)(b)(i) of the Act, the prescribed fee is 1∙5 fee units.

69 Application for source numbers or renewal of source numbers

For the purposes of section 68ZD(3)(b)(ii) of the Act, the prescribed information to accompany an application for or renewal of a source number is evidence to verify—

(a) the name of the person or body; and

(b) the residential or business address (as the case requires) of the person or body.

70 Grounds for refusal to issue or suspension or revocation

For the purposes of section 68ZF(d) of the Act, the Secretary may decide not to issue a source number to a person or body or may suspend or revoke a source number for the following reasons—

(a) the person or body cannot verify their identity;

(b) the person's or body's membership of an applicable organisation is suspended or is no longer valid;

(c) the person or body has not paid a fee in accordance with regulation 68 on an application for a source number or renewal of a source number.

Part 9—Reuniting dogs and cats with owners

71 Details about seized dogs and cats to be contained in records and reports

For the purposes of section 84DD(2)(a)(i) of the Act, the prescribed details of a seized dog or cat that must be contained in a record are the following—

(a) whether the animal is a dog or cat;

(b) the suburb or municipality in which the dog or cat was found (if known);

(c) the date and time that the dog or cat was delivered to the person, body or veterinary practitioner that received the dog or cat;

(d) the telephone number of the person who delivered the dog or cat to the person, body or veterinary practitioner (if known);

(e) either—

(i) the unique identification number of the permanent identification device implanted in the dog or cat (if any); or

(ii) if a permanent identification device cannot be located in the dog or cat or the unique identification number cannot be read when scanning such a device implanted in the dog or cat, the name of the Council and registration number of the dog or cat ascertained from any identification marker attached to the dog or cat.

72 Details about owners or agents who recover seized dogs and cats to be contained in records and reports

For the purposes of section 84DD(2)(a)(ii) of the Act, the prescribed details of an owner, or agent of an owner, who has recovered a seized dog or cat that must be contained in a record are—

(a) if the owner of the dog or cat is the person who recovered the dog or cat, the name, residential address and telephone number of the owner; or

(b) if the owner is not the person who recovered the dog or cat—

(i) the name and telephone number of the agent of the owner who recovered the dog or cat; and

(ii) the name, residential address and telephone number of the owner of the dog or cat; and

(c) the date and time at which the dog or cat was recovered from the person, body or veterinary practitioner.

73 Prescribed periods for keeping and maintaining records

For the purposes of section 84DD(2)(a)(i) and (ii) of the Act, the prescribed periods are as follows—

(a) the period beginning on 1 January and ending on 31 March in every year;

(b) the period beginning on 1 April and ending on 30 June in every year;

(c) the period beginning on 1 July and ending on 30 September in every year;

(d) the period beginning on 1 October and ending on 31 December in every year.

74 Prescribed time for giving reports to Councils

For the purposes of section 84DD(2)(c) of the Act, the prescribed time is 14 days after the end of each prescribed period specified in regulation 73.

75 Obligation to notify owners of deceased dogs and cats on Council land

(1) If a Council authorised officer or Council contracted authorised officer in the course of their duties encounters a deceased dog or cat on Council land, the Council authorised officer or Council contracted authorised officer must take all reasonable steps to identify the owner of the deceased dog or cat.

Examples

Scanning the deceased dog or cat for a permanent identification device, inspecting any other Council‑issued identification marker attached to the deceased dog or cat, checking the identification number against a relevant database.

(2) As soon as practicable after identifying the owner of the deceased dog or cat in subregulation (1), the Council authorised officer or Council contracted authorised officer must take all reasonable steps to notify the owner that the deceased dog or cat has been found on Council land.

Examples

Contacting the owner by telephone, arranging for another Council worker to contact the owner.

Part 10—General

76 Receipt for seized documents or things

For the purposes of sections 75(1) and 84GA(1) of the Act, the prescribed form of receipt is set out in Schedule 4.

77 Infringement penalties for infringement offences against the Act

For the purposes of section 88 of the Act, the infringement penalty for an infringement offence against a section of the Act specified in Column 2 of Table 1 in Schedule 5 is the amount specified in the corresponding entry of Column 3 of that Table.

78 Infringement offences against these Regulations and infringement penalties

(1) For the purposes of Part 7B of the Act, the offences against these Regulations specified in Column 2 of Table 2 in Schedule 5 are prescribed infringement offences.

(2) For the purposes of section 88 of the Act, the infringement penalty for a prescribed infringement offence against the Regulations specified in Column 2 of Table 2 in Schedule 5 is the amount specified in the corresponding entry of Column 3 of that Table.

Schedules

Schedule 1—Revocations

Regulation 4

Schedule 2—Dangerous dog warning sign

Regulation 15

Guarddog

Schedule 3—Restricted breed dog warning sign

Regulation 17

Restricted Breed Dog

on Premises

= Light turquoise

= Sign text: Black, font size: 72 point, font: Times New Roman, font style: bold
Sign border: 3 point black

Schedule 4—Receipt for document or thing seized under section 74(2)(e) or

Part 7A of the Act

Regulation 76

Domestic Animals Regulations 2025

RECEIPT FOR DOCUMENT OR THING SEIZED UNDER SECTION 74(2)(e) OR PART 7A OF THE DOMESTIC ANIMALS ACT 1994

Name of authorised officer:

Authorised by:

If appointed by a certificate from a Council, name of Council:

Name of person from whom document or thing seized if made available:

Address from which document or thing seized:

Description of document or thing seized by the authorised officer:

Signed by the authorised officer:

Date:

Schedule 5

Regulations 77 and 78

Table 1

Infringement penalties for infringement offences against the Act

| Column 1<br>Item No. | Column 2<br>Section | Column 3<br>Infringement penalty | | 1 | s. 10(1) | 2 penalty units | | 2 | s. 10(2) | 2 penalty units | | 3 | s. 10(3) | 2 penalty units | | 4 | s. 12A(1) | 2 penalty units | | 5 | s. 12B(1) | 1 penalty unit | | 6 | s. 12C(1) | Natural person—1 penalty unit<br>Body corporate—4 penalty units | | 7 | s. 13(1) | 0·5 penalty units | | 8 | s. 13(2) | 0·5 penalty units | | 9 | s. 20(1) | 0·5 penalty units | | 10 | s. 21 | 0·25 penalty units | | 11 | s. 22 | 0·25 penalty units | | 12 | s. 23(4) | 0·5 penalty units | | 13 | s. 24(1) | 1·5 penalty units | | 14 | s. 24(2) | 2 penalty units | | 15 | s. 25(1) | 0·5 penalty units | | 16 | s. 26(1) | 1 penalty unit | | 17 | s. 26A(1) | 1 penalty unit | | 18 | s. 27(1) | 1·5 penalty units | | 19 | s. 29(5) | 2·5 penalty units | | 20 | s. 29(6) | 2·5 penalty units | | 21 | s. 29(7) | 1 penalty unit | | 22 | s. 29(8) | 1 penalty unit | | 23 | s. 32(1) | 0·25 penalty units | | 24 | s. 32(4) | 1 penalty unit | | 25 | s. 37(1C) | 1 penalty unit | | 26 | s. 37(2) | 2 penalty units | | 27 | s. 37A | 1 penalty unit | | 28 | s. 38(1) | 2 penalty units | | 29 | s. 38(2) | 2 penalty units | | 30 | s. 39 | 1 penalty unit | | 31 | s. 40 | 4 penalty units | | 32 | s. 41(1) | 10 penalty units | | 33 | s. 41D(1)(b) | 2 penalty units | | 34 | s. 41D(1)(ba) | 2 penalty units | | 35 | s. 41D(1)(bb) | 2 penalty units | | 36 | s. 41D(1)(c) | 2 penalty units | | 37 | s. 41E(2) | 2 penalty units | | 38 | s. 41F(1) | 2 penalty units | | 39 | s. 41F(2) | 1 penalty unit | | 40 | s. 41G(1) | 1 penalty unit | | 41 | s. 41H | 1 penalty unit | | 42 | s. 41I | 1 penalty unit | | 43 | s. 44B(1) | Natural person—2 penalty units<br>Body corporate—10 penalty units | | 44 | s. 58R(1) | Natural person—2 penalty units<br>Body corporate—5 penalty units | | 45 | s. 58U(1) | 2 penalty units | | 46 | s. 63A(1) | Body corporate—2 penalty units<br>In any other case—10 penalty units | | 47 | s. 63AAB(1) | Natural person—2 penalty units<br>Body corporate—10 penalty units | | | | | | 48 | s. 63AAB(2) | Natural person—2 penalty units<br>Body corporate—10 penalty units | | 49 | s. 63AAB(3) | Natural person—2 penalty units<br>Body corporate—10 penalty units | | 50 | s. 63AAB(4) | Natural person—2 penalty units<br>Body corporate—10 penalty units | | 51 | s. 63AAC(1) | Natural person—2 penalty units<br>Body corporate—10 penalty units | | 52 | s. 63AAC(2) | Natural person—2 penalty units<br>Body corporate—10 penalty units | | 53 | s. 63AAD(1) | Natural person—2 penalty units<br>Body corporate—10 penalty units | | 54 | s. 63AAD(2) | Natural person—2 penalty units<br>Body corporate—10 penalty units | | 55 | s. 63AAD(3) | Natural person—2 penalty units<br>Body corporate—10 penalty units | | 56 | s. 63AAD(4) | Natural person—2 penalty units<br>Body corporate—10 penalty units | | 57 | s. 63AAE(1) | Natural person—2 penalty units<br>Body corporate—10 penalty units | | 58 | s. 63AAE(2) | Natural person—2 penalty units<br>Body corporate—10 penalty units | | 59 | s. 63AE(1) | Body corporate—10 penalty units<br>In any other case—2 penalty units | | 60 | s. 63D | 4 penalty units | | 61 | s. 63F | 2 penalty units | | 62 | s. 63G | 1 penalty unit | | 63 | s. 63H(1) | 2 penalty units | | 64 | s. 63H(2) | 2 penalty units | | 65 | s. 63I(1) | 4 penalty units | | 66 | s. 63J(1) | 5 penalty units | | 67 | s. 63J(1A) | 1 penalty unit | | 68 | s. 84D(1) | 1 penalty unit | | 69 | s. 84DA(2) | 1 penalty unit | | 70 | s. 84DB | 1 penalty unit | | 71 | s. 84DD(2) | 1 penalty unit | | 72 | s. 96 | Body corporate—10 penalty units<br>In any other case—2 penalty units |

Table 2

Infringement offences against these Regulations and infringement penalties

| Column 1<br>Item No. | Column 2<br>Regulation | Column 3<br>Infringement penalty | | 1 | reg. 15(2) | 0·5 penalty units | | 2 | reg. 16(2) | 0·5 penalty units | | 3 | reg. 17(2) | 0·5 penalty units | | 4 | reg. 24(1) | 1·25 penalty units | | 5 | reg. 24(2) | 1·25 penalty units | | 6 | reg. 25 | 1·25 penalty units | | 7 | reg. 27(1) | 0·5 penalty units | | 8 | reg. 28(1) | 0·5 penalty units | | 9 | reg. 28(2) | 0·5 penalty units | | 10 | reg. 29(1) | 1·25 penalty units | | 11 | reg. 30(1) | 1·25 penalty units | | 12 | reg. 30(2) | 1·25 penalty units | | 13 | reg. 30(3) | 1·25 penalty units | | 14 | reg. 30(4) | 1·25 penalty units | | 15 | reg. 31(1) | 1·25 penalty units | | 16 | reg. 31(2) | 1·25 penalty units | | | | | | 17 | reg. 49(1) | First offence—1 penalty unit<br>Second or subsequent offence—2 penalty units | | 18 | reg. 49(2) | First offence—1 penalty unit<br>Second or subsequent offence—2 penalty units |

═════════════

Endnotes

1 General information

See www.legislation.vic.gov.au for Victorian Bills, Acts and current Versions of legislation and up-to-date legislative information.

The Domestic Animals Regulations 2025, S.R. No. 116/2025 were made on 11 November 2025 by the Governor in Council under section 100 of the Domestic Animals Act 1994, No. 81/1994 and came into operation on 23 November 2025: regulation 3.

The Domestic Animals Regulations 2025 will sunset 10 years after the day of making on 11 November 2035 (see section 5 of the Subordinate Legislation Act 1994).

INTERPRETATION OF LEGISLATION ACT 1984 (ILA)

Style changes

Section 54A of the ILA authorises the making of the style changes set out in Schedule 1 to that Act.

References to ILA s. 39B

Sidenotes which cite ILA s. 39B refer to section 39B of the ILA which provides that where an undivided regulation, rule or clause of a Schedule is amended by the insertion of one or more subregulations, subrules or subclauses the original regulation, rule or clause becomes subregulation, subrule or subclause (1) and is amended by the insertion of the expression "(1)" at the beginning of the original regulation, rule or clause.

Interpretation

As from 1 January 2001, amendments to section 36 of the ILA have the following effects:

• Headings

All headings included in a Statutory Rule which is made on or after
1 January 2001 form part of that Statutory Rule. Any heading inserted in a Statutory Rule which was made before 1 January 2001, by a Statutory Rule made on or after 1 January 2001, forms part of that Statutory Rule.
This includes headings to Parts, Divisions or Subdivisions in a Schedule; Orders; Parts into which an Order is divided; clauses; regulations; rules; items; tables; columns; examples; diagrams; notes or forms.
See section 36(1A)(2A)(2B).

• Examples, diagrams or notes

All examples, diagrams or notes included in a Statutory Rule which is made on or after 1 January 2001 form part of that Statutory Rule. Any examples, diagrams or notes inserted in a Statutory Rule which was made before 1 January 2001, by a Statutory Rule made on or after 1 January 2001, form part of that Statutory Rule. See section 36(3A).

• Punctuation

All punctuation included in a Statutory Rule which is made on or after
1 January 2001 forms part of that Statutory Rule. Any punctuation inserted in a Statutory Rule which was made before 1 January 2001, by a Statutory Rule made on or after 1 January 2001, forms part of that Statutory Rule.
See section 36(3B).

• Provision numbers

All provision numbers included in a Statutory Rule form part of that Statutory Rule, whether inserted in the Statutory Rule before, on or after
1 January 2001. Provision numbers include regulation numbers, rule numbers, subregulation numbers, subrule numbers, paragraphs and subparagraphs. See section 36(3C).

• Location of "legislative items"

A "legislative item" is a penalty, an example or a note. As from 13 October 2004, a legislative item relating to a provision of a Statutory Rule is taken to be at the foot of that provision even if it is preceded or followed by another legislative item that relates to that provision. For example, if a penalty at the foot of a provision is followed by a note, both of these legislative items will be regarded as being at the foot of that provision. See section 36B.

• Other material

Any explanatory memorandum, table of provisions, endnotes, index and other material printed after the Endnotes does not form part of a Statutory Rule. See section 36(3)(3D)(3E).

2 Table of Amendments

There are no amendments made to the Domestic Animals Regulations 2025 by statutory rules, subordinate instruments and Acts.

3 Explanatory details

1. Reg. 21: S.R. No. 81/2024.

——

Fee Units

These Regulations provide for fees by reference to fee units within the meaning of the Monetary Units Act 2004. The amount of the fee is to be calculated, in accordance with section 7 of that Act, by multiplying the number of fee units applicable by the value of a fee unit.

The value of a fee unit for the financial year commencing 1 July 2025 is $16.81. The amount of the calculated fee may be rounded to the nearest 10 cents.

The value of a fee unit for future financial years is to be fixed by the Treasurer under section 5 of the Monetary Units Act 2004. The value of a fee unit for a financial year must be published in the Government Gazette and a Victorian newspaper before 1 June in the preceding financial year.

Penalty Units

These Regulations provide for penalties by reference to penalty units within the meaning of section 110 of the Sentencing Act 1991. The amount of the penalty is to be calculated, in accordance with section 7 of the Monetary Units Act 2004, by multiplying the number of penalty units applicable by the value of a penalty unit.

The value of a penalty unit for the financial year commencing 1 July 2025 is $203.51. The amount of the calculated penalty may be rounded to the nearest dollar.

The value of a penalty unit for future financial years is to be fixed by the Treasurer under section 5 of the Monetary Units Act 2004. The value of a penalty unit for a financial year must be published in the Government Gazette and a Victorian newspaper before 1 June in the preceding financial year.

——

Table of Applied, Adopted or Incorporated Matter

The following table of applied, adopted or incorporated matter was included in S.R. No. 116/2025 in accordance with the requirements of regulation 5 of the Subordinate Legislation Regulations 2024.

| **Statutory rule provision** | **Title of applied, adopted or incorporated document** | **Matter in applied, adopted or incorporated document** |
| Regulation 5 (definition of ***AS 5018:2025***, definition of ***reader***) | **AS 5018:2025** *Electronic animal identification—National coding scheme* as amended by Standards Australia from time to time | The whole |
| Regulation 5 (definition of ***AS 5019:2025***, definition of ***reader***) | **AS 5019:2025** *Electronic animal identification—Radiofrequency methods* as amended by Standards Australia from time to time | The whole |
| Regulation 22(a)(ii) | **AS 5019:2025** *Electronic animal identification—Radiofrequency methods* as amended by Standards Australia from time to time | The whole |
| Regulation 22(a)(iii)(A) | **AS 5018:2025** *Electronic animal identification—National coding scheme* as amended by Standards Australia from time to time | The whole |

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