CTHIn ForceLegislation
Customs (Prohibited Imports) Regulations 1956
Part 4Interpretation
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The Schedules
Schedule 1—Goods the importation of which is prohibited absolutely
(regulation 3)
| Item | Description of Goods |
| ---- | ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- |
| 2 | Advertising matter relating to any goods covered by this Schedule |
| 26 | Dogs of the following breeds:(a) dogo Argentino;(b) fila Brasileiro;(c) Japanese tosa;(d) American pit bull terrier or pit bull terrier;(e) Perro de Presa Canario or Presa Canario |
Schedule 2—Goods the importation of which is prohibited unless the permission in writing of the Minister or an authorised person has been granted
(subregulation 4(1))
| Item | Description of Goods |
| ---- | --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- |
| 2 | Toys coated with a material the non‑volatile content of which contains more than:(a) 90 mg/kg of lead; or(b) 25 mg/kg of arsenic; or(c) 60 mg/kg of antimony; or(d) 75 mg/kg of cadmium; or(e) 500 mg/kg of selenium; or(f) 60 mg/kg of mercury; or(g) 60 mg/kg of chromium; or(h) 1000 mg/kg of barium |
| 3 | Cosmetic products containing more than 250 mg/kg of lead or lead compounds (calculated as lead), except products containing more than 250 mg/kg of lead acetate designed for use in hair treatments |
| 6 | Money boxes coated with a material that contains more than 90 mg/kg of lead |
| 7 | Pencils or paint brushes coated with a material the non‑volatile content of which contains more than:(a) 90 mg/kg of lead; or(b) 25 mg/kg of arsenic; or(c) 60 mg/kg of antimony; or(d) 75 mg/kg of cadmium; or(e) 500 mg/kg of selenium; or(f) 60 mg/kg of mercury; or(g) 60 mg/kg of chromium; or(h) 1000 mg/kg of barium |
| 10 | Dog collars incorporating protrusions designed to puncture or bruise an animal’s skin |
| 16 | Goods to which, or to the coverings of which, there is applied a representation of the Royal Arms or a representation so nearly resembling the Royal Arms as to be likely to deceive |
| 34 | Erasers, resembling food in scent or appearance, that contain more than:(a) 90 mg/kg of lead; or(b) 25 mg/kg of arsenic; or(c) 60 mg/kg of antimony; or(d) 75 mg/kg of cadmium; or(e) 500 mg/kg of selenium; or(f) 60 mg/kg of mercury; or(g) 60 mg/kg of chromium; or(h) 1000 mg/kg of barium |
Schedule 3—Goods the importation of which is prohibited unless specified conditions, restrictions or requirements are complied with
(subregulation 4(2))
| Item | Description of goods | Conditions, restrictions and requirements |
| ---- | --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- | ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- |
| 9A | Goods that are national cultural property within the meaning of section 4 of the National Cultural Property (Preservation) Ordinance 1965‑1970 of Papua New Guinea, as in force immediately before the commencement of this item | The importer shall produce to the Collector the consent in writing of the Trustees of the Papua New Guinea Public Museum and Art Gallery to the export or removal of the goods from Papua New Guinea |
| 10 | Goods to which, or to the coverings of which, there is applied a representation of the Arms, a flag or a seal of the Commonwealth or a representation so nearly resembling the Arms, a flag or a seal of the Commonwealth as to be likely to deceive | The goods must not be imported unless:(a) the design of the representation has been approved in writing by the Secretary of the Department of the Prime Minister and Cabinet, or an officer of the Department of the Prime Minister and Cabinet who is authorised by that Secretary for the purposes of this item; and(b) if the Collector asks the importer to produce the approval—the importer produces it |
| 10A | Goods to which, or the coverings to which, there is applied a representation of the Arms, a flag or a seal of a State or Territory or a representation so nearly resembling the Arms, a flag or a seal of a State or Territory as to be likely to deceive | The goods must not be imported unless:(a) the design of the representation has been approved in writing by:(i) the head (however described) of the Department of State of the State or the Territory administered by the Premier of the State or the Chief Minister of the Territory; or(ii) an officer (however described) of that Department who is authorised by that head to give such approval; and(b) if the Collector asks the importer to produce the approval—the importer produces it |
| 11 | Equipment of a kind in relation to which:(a) an interim ban under subsection 167(1) of the Radiocommunications Act 1992 is in force; or(b) a permanent ban under subsection 172(1) of the Radiocommunications Act 1992 is in force | The equipment must not be imported by a person unless:(a) a determination in force under subsection 27(2) or 302(2) of the Radiocommunications Act 1992 applies to the person in relation to the equipment; or(b) an exemption under another provision of the Radiocommunications Act 1992, including (but not limited to) section 24, 25 or 26 of that Act, applies to the person in relation to the equipment |
| 12 | Goods that are chewing tobacco or snuffs intended for oral use | The goods must not be imported unless the quantity imported is no greater than 1.5 kilograms |
Schedule 3A—Goods the importation of which is prohibited if permission is not granted under regulation 4BA
(regulation 4BA)
| Item | Description of goods |
| ---- | ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- |
| 1 | Fish of the species Dissostichus eleginoides (commonly known as Patagonian toothfish) |
| 2 | Fish of the species Dissostichus mawsoni (commonly known as Antarctic toothfish) |
Schedule 4—Drugs
(regulation 5)
| Item | Description of drugs |
| ------ | --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- |
| 1 | Acetorphine |
| 2 | Acetyl‑alpha‑methylfentanyl |
| 2A | N‑acetylanthranilic acid |
| 2B | Acetylcodeine |
| 3 | Acetyldihydrocodeine |
| 3A | Acetylfentanyl |
| 4 | Acetylmethadol |
| 4A | Acetylmorphine |
| 4AA | Acryloylfentanyl (otherwise known as acrylfentanyl) |
| 4B | N‑(adamantan‑1‑yl)‑1‑(5‑fluoropentyl)‑1H‑indazole‑3‑carboxamide (otherwise known as 5F‑APINACA) |
| 4C | N‑(1‑adamantyl)‑1‑pentyl‑1H‑indazole‑3‑carboxamide (otherwise known as APINACA or AKB‑48) and fluorinated derivatives of this substance |
| 4CA | ADB‑BUTINACA |
| 4D | ADB‑CHMINACA (otherwise known as MAB‑CHMINACA) |
| 4E | ADB‑FUBINACA |
| 4EA | Alpha‑PiHP |
| 4F | Alpha‑pyrrolidinohexanophenone (otherwise known as alpha‑PHP) |
| 5 | Alfentanil |
| 5A | Alkoxyamphetamines, including but not limited to, the following:(a) 4‑chloro‑2,5‑dimethoxyamfetamine (otherwise known as 1‑(4‑chloro‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenyl) propan‑2‑amine or DOC);(b) 2,3,4‑trimethoxyamphetamine;(c) 2,3,5‑trimethoxyamphetamine;(d) 2,3,6‑trimethoxyamphetamine;(e) 2,4,5‑trimethoxyamphetamine;(f) 2,4,6‑trimethoxyamphetamine. |
| 5B | Alkoxyphenylethylamines, including but not limited to 2‑(4‑bromo‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenyl)‑N‑[(2‑methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine (otherwise known as 25B‑NBOMe), 2‑(4‑chloro‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenyl)‑N‑[(2‑methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine (otherwise known as 25C‑NBOMe), 2‑(4‑iodo‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenyl)‑N‑[(2‑methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine (otherwise known as 25I‑NBOMe), 2,5‑dimethoxy‑4‑isopropoxyphenethylamine (otherwise known as 2C‑O‑4) and 2,4,5‑trimethoxyphenethylamine (otherwise known as 2C‑O) |
| 5C | Alkylthioamphetamines |
| 6 | Allylprodine |
| 7 | Alphacetylmethadol |
| 8 | Alphameprodine |
| 9 | Alphamethadol |
| 10 | Alphamethylfentanyl |
| 11 | Alphamethylthiofentanyl |
| 11AA | Alpha‑phenylacetoacetamide (otherwise known as APAA) |
| 11A | Alpha‑phenylacetoacetonitrile (otherwise known as APAAN) |
| 12 | Alphaprodine |
| 13 | Alprazolam |
| 13A | 5F‑AMB‑PINACA (otherwise known as 5F‑AMB or 5F‑MMB‑PINACA) |
| 14 | Amineptine |
| 14AAA | N‑(1‑amino‑3‑methyl‑1‑oxobutan‑2‑yl)‑1‑(cyclohexylmethyl)‑1H‑indazole‑3‑carboxamide (otherwise known as AB‑CHMINACA) |
| 14AA | (N‑(1‑amino‑3‑methyl‑1‑oxobutan‑2‑yl)‑1‑(4‑fluorobenzyl)‑1H‑indazole‑3‑carboxamide) (otherwise known as AB‑FUBINACA) |
| 14AB | (N‑(1‑amino‑3‑methyl‑1‑oxobutan‑2‑yl)‑1‑pentyl‑1H‑indazole‑3‑carboxamide) (otherwise known as AB‑PINACA) |
| 14ABA | 4‑amino‑3‑phenylbutyric acid (otherwise known as phenibut) |
| 14AC | 4‑anilino‑N‑phenethylpiperidine (otherwise known as ANPP) |
| 14A | Aminorex |
| 14B | 5‑(2‑aminopropyl)‑2,3‑dihydro‑1H‑indene |
| 14C | 3‑(2‑aminopropyl) indole |
| 15 | Amphecloral |
| 16 | Amphetamine, but not including levamfetamine |
| 17 | Anileridine |
| 17A | Anthranilic acid |
| 17B | 4‑AP (N‑Phenyl‑4‑piperidinamine) |
| 18 | Barbiturates belonging to the class of 5,5‑disubstituted barbituric and thiobarbituric acids, including compounds structurally derived from those acids |
| 19 | Benzethidine |
| 19A | 1‑(benzofuran‑6‑yl)propan‑2‑amine (otherwise known as 6‑APB) |
| 19B | Benzoylbenzylfentanyl |
| 19C | Benzoylfentanyl |
| 20 | Benzphetamine |
| 20A | Benzylfentanyl |
| 20B | Benzylfuranylfentanyl |
| 21 | Benzylmorphine |
| 21A | Benzylpiperazine |
| 22 | Betacetylmethadol |
| 23 | Betahydroxyfentanyl |
| 24 | Betahydroxy‑3‑methylfentanyl |
| 25 | Betameprodine |
| 26 | Betamethadol |
| 27 | Betaprodine |
| 28 | Bezitramide |
| 28A | 1‑boc‑4‑AP (tert‑Butyl 4‑(phenylamino)piperidine‑1‑carboxylate) |
| 28B | 1‑boc‑4‑piperidone |
| 29 | Bromazepam |
| 29AA | Bromazolam |
| 29A | 1‑(8‑bromobenzo[1,2‑b:4,5‑b]difuran‑4‑yl)‑2‑aminopropane |
| 30 | 4‑bromo‑2,5‑dimethoxyamphetamine |
| 30A | 4‑bromo‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenethylamine (otherwise known as 2‑CB) |
| 30AA | Brorphine |
| 30B | Brotizolam |
| 31 | Bufotenine |
| 32 | Buprenorphine |
| 32AA | Butonitazene |
| 32A | Butorphanol |
| 32B | Butylone |
| 32C | Butyrfentanyl |
| 33 | Camazepam |
| 34 | Cannabinoids |
| 35 | Cannabis, including extracts and tinctures of cannabis |
| 36 | Cannabis resin |
| 36A | Carfentanil (otherwise known as carfentanyl) |
| 37 | Cathine |
| 38 | Cathinone |
| 39 | Chlordiazepoxide |
| 39A | Chloroephedrine |
| 39AA | 3‑chloromethcathinone (otherwise known as 3‑CMC) |
| 39B | Chloropseudoephedrine |
| 40 | Chlorphentermine |
| 41 | Clobazam |
| 42 | Clonazepam |
| 42A | Clonazolam |
| 43 | Clonitazene |
| 44 | Clorazepate |
| 45 | Clotiazepam |
| 46 | Cloxazolam |
| 46A | 4‑CMC (otherwise known as 4‑chloromethcathinone or clephedrone) |
| 47 | Cocaine, including the leaf of any plant of any species of the genus Erythroxylon from which cocaine can be extracted, either directly or by chemical transformation |
| 48 | Codeine |
| 48A | Codeine‑N‑oxide |
| 49 | Codoxime |
| 49A | Compounds structurally derived from 3‑(1‑naphthoyl)indole or 1H‑indol‑3‑yl‑(1‑naphthyl)methane by substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl or 2‑(4‑morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not there is any further substitution in the indole ring or the naphthyl ring |
| 49B | Compounds structurally derived from 3‑(1‑naphthoyl)pyrrole by substitution at the nitrogen atom or pyrrole ring by alkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkymethyl, cycloalkylethyl or 2‑(4‑morphonlinyl)ethyl, whether or not there is any further substitution in the pyrrole ring or naphthyl ring |
| 49C | Compounds structurally derived from 1‑(1‑naphthylmethyl)indene by substitution at the 3 position of the indene ring by alkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl or 2‑(4‑morphonlinyl)ethyl, whether or not there is any further substitution in the indene ring or naphthyl ring |
| 49D | Compounds structurally derived from 3‑phenylacetylindole by substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring with alkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl or 2‑(4‑morphonlinyl)ethyl, whether or not there is any further substitution in the indole ring or phenyl ring |
| 49E | Compounds structurally derived from 2‑(3‑hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol by substitution at the 5‑position of the phenolic ring by alkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl or 2‑(4‑morpholinyl)ethyl whether or not there is a further substitution is in the cyclohexyl ring |
| 49F | Concentrate of poppy straw (the material arising when poppy straw has entered into a process for the concentration of its alkaloids) |
| 49FAA | Crotonylfentanyl |
| 49FA | CUMYL‑4CN‑BINACA |
| 49FB | CUMYL‑PEGACLONE |
| 49G | 1‑cyclohexyl‑4‑(1,2‑diphenylethyl)piperazine (otherwise known as MT‑45) |
| 49H | Cyclopropylfentanyl |
| 50 | Delorazepam |
| 50A | Deschloroetizolam |
| 50B | N‑Desethyl etonitazene |
| 50C | N‑Desethyl isotonitazene |
| 50D | N‑Desethyl protonitazene |
| 51 | Desomorphine |
| 52 | Dexamphetamine |
| 53 | Dextromoramide |
| 54 | Dextropropoxyphene |
| 55 | Diampromide |
| 56 | Diazepam |
| 56A | 3,4‑dichloro‑N‑{[1‑(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl1]methyl}benzamide (otherwise known as AH‑7921) |
| 56B | 3,4‑dichloro‑N‑(2‑dimethylamino‑cyclohexyl)‑N‑methyl‑benzamide (otherwise known as U‑47700) |
| 56C | Diclazepam |
| 56D | Diethyl 2‑(2‑phenylacetyl) propanedioate |
| 57 | Diethylpropion (otherwise known as amfepramone) |
| 58 | Diethylthiambutene |
| 59 | N,N‑diethyltryptamine |
| 60 | Difenoxin |
| 61 | Dihydrocodeine |
| 61A | Dihydroetorphine |
| 61B | (2,3‑dihydro‑5‑methyl‑3‑((4‑morpholinyl)methyl)pyrrolo‑(1,2,3‑de)‑1,4‑benzoxanzin‑6‑yl)(1‑naphthalenyl)methanone monomethanesulfonate (otherwise known as WIN‑55,212‑2) |
| 62 | Dihydromorphine |
| 63 | Dimenoxadol |
| 64 | Dimepheptanol (otherwise known as methadol) |
| 65 | 2,5‑dimethoxyamphetamine |
| 66 | 2,5‑dimethoxy‑4‑ethylamphetamine |
| 66AA | 2,5‑dimethoxy‑4‑ethylphenethylamine (otherwise known as 2C‑E) |
| 66A | 2,5‑dimethoxy‑4‑ethylthiophenethylamine (otherwise known as 2C‑T‑2) |
| 66B | 2,5‑dimethoxy‑4‑iodophenethylamine (otherwise known as 2C‑1) |
| 66C | 2,5‑dimethoxy‑4‑isopropthiophenethylamine (otherwise known as 2C‑T‑4) |
| 66D | 2,5‑dimethoxy‑4‑((β‑methoxyethylthio)phenethylamine (otherwise known as 2C‑T‑13) |
| 67 | 2,5‑dimethoxy‑4‑methylamphetamine |
| 67AAA | 2,5‑dimethoxy‑4‑methylphenethylamine (otherwise known as 2C‑D) |
| 67AAB | 2,5‑dimethoxy‑4‑(n)‑butylthiophenethylamine (otherwise known as 2C‑T‑9) |
| 67AAC | 2,5‑dimethoxy‑4‑nitrophenethylamine (otherwise known as 2C‑N) |
| 67AA | 2,5‑dimethoxy‑4‑(n)‑propylphenethylamine (otherwise known as 2C‑P) |
| 67A | 2,5‑dimethoxy‑4‑n‑propylthiophenethylamine (otherwise known as 2C‑T‑7) |
| 68 | 1‑dimethylamino‑1,2‑diphenylethane |
| 68A | Dimethylamphetamine |
| 68AAB | 1,3‑dimethylbutylamine (otherwise known as DMBA) |
| 68AB | Dimethylheptyl‑delta‑3‑tetrahydrocannabinol (otherwise known as DMHP) |
| 68AC | 1,3‑dimethylamylamine (otherwise known as DMAA) |
| 69 | Dimethylthiambutene |
| 70 | N,N‑dimethyltryptamine |
| 71 | Dioxaphetyl butyrate |
| 71AA | Dipentylone |
| 71A | Diphenidine |
| 72 | Diphenoxylate |
| 73 | Dipipanone |
| 74 | Drotebanol |
| 75 | Ecgonine |
| 76 | Ephedrine |
| 77 | Ergometrine |
| 78 | Ergot |
| 79 | Ergotamine |
| 80 | Estazolam |
| 80AA | Etazene |
| 80A | Ethcathinone |
| 81 | Ethchlorvynol |
| 82 | Ethinamate |
| 82A | Ethyl alpha‑phenylacetoacetate (otherwise known as EAPA) |
| 83 | N‑ethylamphetamine |
| 83AA | Ethylene etonitazene |
| 83AB | Ethyleneoxynitazene |
| 83AC | P‑2‑P ethyl glycidate |
| 83A | N‑ethylhexedrone |
| 84 | N‑ethyl‑methylenedioxyamphetamine (otherwise known as N‑ethyl MDA) |
| 85 | Ethyl loflazepate |
| 86 | Ethylmethylthiambutene |
| 87 | Ethylmorphine |
| 87AA | N‑ethylnorpentylone (otherwise known as ephylone) |
| 87A | Ethylone |
| 87B | Ethylphenidate |
| 87C | Etizolam |
| 87D | Etodesnitazene |
| 88 | Etonitazene |
| 88AA | Etonitazepipne |
| 88A | Etonitazepyne |
| 89 | Etorphine |
| 90 | Etoxeridine |
| 90A | Etryptamine (otherwise known as 3‑(2‑aminobutyl)indole) |
| 90B | Eutylone |
| 91 | Fencamfamin |
| 92 | Fenetylline |
| 93 | Fenproporex |
| 94 | Fentanyl |
| 94A | Flualprazolam |
| 94B | Flubromazepam |
| 94C | Flubromazolam |
| 95 | Fludiazepam |
| 95A | Flunitazene |
| 96 | Flunitrazepam |
| 96A | 4‑fluoroamphetamine (otherwise known as 4‑FA) |
| 97 | Flurazepam |
| 97AAA | 2‑fluorodeschloroketamine |
| 97AA | 4‑fluoro‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenethylamine (otherwise known as 2C‑F) |
| 97AB | 4‑(2‑fluoroethylthio)‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenethylamine (otherwise known as 2C‑T‑21) |
| 97AC | 4‑fluoroisobutyrfentanyl (otherwise known as 4‑FIBF or pFIBF) |
| 97A | 4‑fluoro‑N‑methylamphetamine |
| 97B | 1‑(5‑fluoropentyl)‑3‑(2‑iodobenzoyl)indole (otherwise known as AM‑694) |
| 97C | [1‑(5‑fluoropentyl)‑1H‑indol‑3‑yl]‑(naphthalene‑1‑yl)methanone (otherwise known as AM‑2201 or JHW‑2201) |
| 97D | [1‑(5‑fluoropentyl)‑1H‑indol‑3‑yl](2,2,3,3‑tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone (otherwise known as XLR‑11) |
| 97DA | FUB‑AMB (otherwise known as MMB‑FUBINACA or AMB‑FUBINACA) |
| 97E | Furanylfentanyl |
| 98 | Furethidine |
| 98A | Gammabutyrolactone |
| 99 | Glutethimide |
| 100 | Halazepam |
| 101 | Haloxazolam |
| 102 | Harmaline (otherwise known as 4,9‑dihydro‑7‑methoxy‑1‑methy‑l‑(3H)pyrido(3,4‑b)indole), except when occurring naturally as a component of the herb tribulus terrestris |
| 103 | Harmine (otherwise known as 7‑methoxyharman), except when occurring naturally as a component of the herb tribulus terrestris |
| 104 | Heroin (otherwise known as diacetylmorphine) |
| 105 | Hydrocodone |
| 106 | Hydromorphinol |
| 107 | Hydromorphone |
| 108 | Hydroxyamphetamine |
| 108A | 4‑hydroxybutanoic acid |
| 108B | 2‑[(1R,3S)‑3‑hydroxycyclohexyl]‑5‑(2‑methylnonan‑2‑yl)phenol (otherwise known as CP 47, 497‑C8) |
| 108C | 2‑[(1R,3S)‑3‑hydroxycyclohexyl]‑5‑(2‑methyloctan‑2‑yl)phenol (otherwise known as CP 47, 497) |
| 109 | N‑hydroxy‑methylenedioxyamphetamine (otherwise known as N‑hydroxy MDA) |
| 110 | Hydroxypethidine |
| 111 | Ibogaine |
| 111A | Ibotenic Acid |
| 112 | Isomethadone |
| 112A | Isosafrole |
| 112AAA | Isotodesnitazene |
| 112AA | Isotonitazene |
| 112AB | JWH‑018 (otherwise known as 1‑pentyl‑3‑(1‑naphthoyl)indole or AM‑678) |
| 112AC | JWH‑073 (otherwise known as 1‑butyl‑3‑(1‑naphthoyl)indole) |
| 112AD | JWH‑122 (otherwise known as 1‑pentyl‑3‑(4‑methyl‑1‑naphthoyl)indole) |
| 112AE | JWH‑200 (otherwise known as 1‑[2‑(4‑morpholinyl)ethyl]‑3‑(1‑naphthoyl)indole or WIN55,225) |
| 112AF | JWH‑250 (otherwise known as 1‑pentyl‑3‑(2‑methoxyphenylacetyl)indole) |
| 112B | Kava |
| 112C | Ketamine |
| 113 | Ketazolam |
| 114 | Ketobemidone |
| 115 | Levamphetamine |
| 116 | Levomethamphetamine |
| 117 | Levomethorphan but not including dextromethorphan |
| 118 | Levomoramide |
| 118A | Levonantradol (otherwise known as CP 50, 5561) |
| 119 | Levophenacylmorphan |
| 120 | Levorphanol |
| 120A | Lisdexamfetamine |
| 121 | Loprazolam |
| 122 | Lorazepam |
| 123 | Lormetazepam |
| 124 | Lysergamide |
| 125 | Lysergic acid |
| 126 | Lysergide |
| 127 | Mazindol |
| 127AA | 4F‑MDMB‑BINACA |
| 127AB | 5F‑MDMB‑PICA (otherwise known as 5F‑MDMB‑2201) |
| 127AC | MDMB‑4en‑PINACA |
| 127A | 3,4‑MDP‑2‑P methyl glycidate (otherwise known as PMK glycidate) |
| 127B | 3,4‑MDP‑2‑P methyl glycidic acid (otherwise known as PMK glycidic acid) and its ethyl, propyl, isopropyl, butyl, isobutyl, sec‑butyl and tert‑butyl esters |
| 127C | Meclonazepam |
| 128 | Mecloqualone |
| 129 | Medazepam |
| 130 | Mefenorex |
| 131 | Meprobamate |
| 132 | Meprodine |
| 133 | Mescaline |
| 133A | Mesocarb |
| 134 | Metamfetamine racemate |
| 135 | Metazocine |
| 136 | Methadone |
| 137 | Methadone intermediate (otherwise known as 4‑cyano‑2‑dimethylamino‑4,4‑diphenylbutane) |
| 137A | Methamphetamine |
| 138 | Methaqualone |
| 138A | Methcathinone |
| 138B | Methiopropamine (otherwise known as MPA) |
| 139 | Methorphan, but not including dextromethorphan |
| 139AA | Methoxetamine |
| 139AB | Methoxyacetylfentanyl |
| 139A | 5‑methoxy‑alpha‑methyltryptamine (otherwise known as 5‑MeO‑AMT) |
| 139B | 5‑methoxy‑N,N‑diisopropyltryptamine (otherwise known as 5‑MeO‑DiPT) |
| 139C | 5‑methoxy‑N,N‑dimethyltryptamine (otherwise known as 5‑MEO‑DMT) |
| 140 | 5‑methoxy‑3,4‑methylenedioxyamphetamine |
| 140AA | 3‑methoxyphencyclidine |
| 140A | Methyl alpha‑phenylacetoacetate (otherwise known as MAPA) |
| 141 | 4‑methylaminorex |
| 142 | Methylamphetamine |
| 142AA | 2‑methyl‑AP‑237 |
| 142A | Methyl N‑{[1‑(cyclohexylmethyl)‑1H‑indol‑3‑yl]carbonyl}‑3‑methyl‑L‑valinate (otherwise known as MDMB‑CHMICA) |
| 143 | Methyl desorphine |
| 144 | Methyldihydromorphine |
| 145 | 3,4‑methylenedioxyamphetamine |
| 146 | 3,4‑methylenedioxymethamphetamine |
| 146AAA | Methylenedioxynitazene (2‑(2‑(benzo[d][1,3]dioxol‑5‑ylmethyl)‑5‑nitro1H‑benzo[d]imidazol‑1‑yl)‑N,N‑diethylethan‑1‑amine) |
| 146AA | Methyl 3‑(3’, 4’‑methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑methyl glycidate (otherwise known as MMDMG) |
| 146AB | 3‑(3’, 4’‑Methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑methyl glycidic acid, sodium salt (otherwise known as NaMDMG) |
| 146A | 3,4‑methylenedioxyphenyl‑2‑propanone |
| 146B | 3,4‑methylenedioxypyrovalerone (otherwise known as MDPV) |
| 146C | 4‑methylethcathinone (otherwise known as 4‑MEC) |
| 147 | 3‑methylfentanyl |
| 147AAA | methyl 2‑(1‑(5‑fluoropentyl)‑1H‑indazole‑3‑carboxamido)‑3,3‑dimethylbutanoate (otherwise known as 5F‑MDMB‑PINACA or 5F‑ADB) |
| 147AAB | P‑2‑P methyl glycidic acid (otherwise known as BMK glycidic acid) |
| 147AA | 3‑methylmethcathinone (otherwise known as 3‑MMC) |
| 147A | 4‑methylmethcathinone |
| 147B | N‑methyl‑1‑(3,4‑methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑butanamine (otherwise known as MBDB) |
| 147C | Methylone |
| 148 | Methylphenidate |
| 148A | Methyl 3‑phenyl‑2‑methyl glycidate |
| 149 | 1‑methyl‑4‑phenyl‑4‑propionoxypiperidine |
| 149A | 4‑methylthioamphetamine (otherwise known as 4‑MTA) |
| 149B | 4‑methylthiobutylamphetamine (otherwise known as 4‑MTBA) |
| 149C | 4‑methylthiodimethamphetamine (otherwise known as 4‑MTDMA) |
| 149D | 4‑methylthio‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenethylamine (otherwise known as 2C‑T) |
| 149E | 4‑methylthioethylamphetamine (otherwise known as 4‑MTEA) |
| 150 | 3‑methylthiofentanyl |
| 150A | 4‑methylthiomethamphetamine (otherwise known as 4‑MTMA) |
| 150B | 4‑methylthiopropylamphetamine (otherwise known as 4‑MTPA) |
| 150C | 4‑methymethamphetamine |
| 151 | Methyprylon |
| 151AA | Metodesnitazene (otherwise known as metazene) |
| 151A | Metonitazene |
| 152 | Metopon |
| 153 | Midazolam |
| 153A | Mitragynine |
| 154 | Moramide intermediate (otherwise known as 2‑methyl‑3‑morpholino‑1,1‑diphenylpropane carboxylic acid) |
| 155 | Morphan, but not including dextrorphanol |
| 156 | Morpheridine |
| 157 | Morphine |
| 158 | Morphine methobromide |
| 159 | Morphine‑N‑oxide |
| 159A | Muscimol |
| 160 | Myrophine |
| 160A | Naphyrone |
| 161 | Nicocodine |
| 162 | Nicodicodine |
| 163 | Nicomorphine |
| 163A | Nifoxipam |
| 164 | Nimetazepam |
| 165 | Nitrazepam |
| 166 | Noracymethadol |
| 167 | Norcodeine |
| 168 | Nordazepam |
| 168A | Norfentanyl |
| 169 | Norlevorphanol |
| 170 | Normethadone |
| 171 | Normorphine |
| 172 | Norpipanone |
| 172A | Ocfentanil |
| 173 | Opium |
| 173A | Oripavine |
| 173B | Orthofluorofentanyl |
| 174 | Oxazepam |
| 175 | Oxazolam |
| 176 | Oxycodone |
| 177 | Oxymorphone |
| 177A | Parafluorobutyrylfentanyl |
| 178 | Para‑fluorofentanyl |
| 178A | Parahexyl (otherwise known as 3‑hexyl‑7,8,9,10‑tetrahydro‑6,6,9‑trimethyl‑6H‑dibenzo(b,d)pyran‑1‑ol) |
| 179 | Paramethoxyamphetamine |
| 179A | Para‑methoxymethylamphetamine (otherwise known as PMMA) |
| 179B | Para‑methoxyphenylpiperazine (otherwise known as MeOPP) |
| 179C | Para‑methyl‑4‑methylaminorex (otherwise known as 4,4’‑DMAR) |
| 180 | PCE (otherwise known as N‑ethyl‑1‑phenylcyclohexylamine) |
| 181 | Pemoline |
| 182 | Pentazocine |
| 182A | Pentedrone |
| 183 | Pethidine |
| 184 | Pethidine intermediate A (otherwise known as 4‑cyano‑1‑methyl‑4‑phenylpiperidine) |
| 185 | Pethidine intermediate B (otherwise known as 4‑phenylpiperidine‑4‑carboxylic acid ethyl ester) |
| 186 | Pethidine intermediate C (otherwise known as 1‑methyl‑4‑phenylpiperidine‑4‑carboxylic acid) |
| 187 | Phenadoxone |
| 188 | Phenampromide |
| 188A | Phenazepam |
| 189 | Phenazocine |
| 190 | Phencyclidine |
| 191 | Phendimetrazine |
| 191A | N‑phenethyl‑4‑piperidone (otherwise known as NPP) |
| 192 | Phenmetrazine |
| 193 | Phenomorphan |
| 194 | Phenoperidine |
| 195 | Phentermine |
| 195A | Phenylacetic acid |
| 196 | 1‑phenylethyl‑4‑phenyl‑4‑acetoxypiperidine |
| 196AA | 3‑Phenyl‑2‑methyl glycidic acid, sodium salt |
| 196A | Phenylpropanolamine |
| 197 | Phenyl‑2‑propanone |
| 197A | Phenyl‑2‑propanone bisulphite |
| 197B | 3‑Phenylpropanoylfentanyl |
| 197C | 1‑phenyl‑2‑propyl‑2‑yl 4‑methylbenzenesulfonate |
| 198 | Pholcodine |
| 199 | PHP or PCPY (otherwise known as 1‑(1‑phenylcyclohexyl) pyrrolidine) |
| 200 | Piminodine |
| 201 | Pinazepam |
| 201AA | 4‑piperidone |
| 201A | Piperonal |
| 202 | Pipradrol |
| 203 | Piritramide |
| 204 | Plants and parts of plants of the following genus or species:(a) Argyreia nervosa;(aa) Catha edulis (otherwise known as khat);(b) Ephedra sinica;(c) Ipomoea hederacea;(d) Ipomoea tricolor;(e) Ipomoea violacea;(f) Lophophora;(g) Mitragyna speciosa;(h) Papaver bracteatum;(i) Piptadenia peregrina (Anadenanthera peregrina);(j) Rivea corymbosa;(k) Salvia divinorum |
| 205 | Poppy straw |
| 206 | Prazepam |
| 207 | Prodine |
| 208 | Proheptazine |
| 209 | Properidine |
| 210 | Propiram |
| 211 | Propylhexedrine |
| 211A | Protonitazene |
| 211B | Protonitazepyne (otherwise known as N‑pyrrolidino protonitazene) |
| 212 | Pseudoephedrine |
| 213 | Psilocine (otherwise known as 3‑(2‑dimethylaminoethyl)‑4‑hydroxyindole), including all fungi that contain psilocine |
| 214 | Psilocybine, including all fungi that contain psilocybine |
| 214A | Pyrazolam |
| 215 | Pyrovalerone |
| 215A | α‑pyrrolidinovalerophenone (otherwise known as α‑PVP) |
| 215B | Quinolin‑8‑yl 1‑(5‑fluoropentyl)‑1H‑indole‑3‑carboxylate (otherwise known as 5F‑PB‑22) |
| 215C | Quinolin‑8‑yl 1‑pentyl‑1H‑indol‑3‑carboxylate (otherwise known as PB‑22 or QUPIC) |
| 216 | Racemethorphan |
| 217 | Racemoramide |
| 218 | Racemorphan |
| 218AA | Remifentanil |
| 218A | Safrole |
| 218B | Salvinorin A |
| 218C | Secofentanyl |
| 219 | Seeds of the plant of the species Papaver somniferum (otherwise known as opium poppy) |
| 220 | Sufentanil |
| 220A | Tapentadol |
| 221 | TCP (otherwise known as 1‑(1‑(2‑thienyl) cyclohexyl) piperidine |
| 222 | Temazepam |
| 223 | Tetrahydrocannabinols, including all alkyl homologues of tetrahydrocannabinols |
| 223A | Tetrahydrofuranylfentanyl (otherwise known as THF‑F) |
| 224 | Tetrazepam |
| 224A | Thalidomide |
| 225 | Thebacon |
| 226 | Thebaine |
| 227 | Thiofentanyl |
| 227A | Thiofuranylfentanyl |
| 228 | Tilidine |
| 229 | Triazolam |
| 229A | Trifluoromethylphenylpiperazine |
| 230 | Trimeperidine |
| 230A | 1‑(3,4,5‑trimethoxyphenyl)‑2‑aminobutane |
| 231 | 3,4,5,‑trimethoxyamphetamine |
| 231A | Valerylfentanyl |
| 232 | Zipeprol |
| 233 | Zolpidem |
Schedule 6—Requirements for the importation of firearms, firearm accessories, firearm parts, firearms magazines, ammunition, components of ammunition and imitations
(regulation 4F)
## Part 1—Tests
A reference in column 3 of Part 2 of this Schedule to compliance with a test means compliance in the following manner:
> Note: The public safety test for firearms may be applied to an article in addition to the tests in this Part. If the importation of the article fails the public safety test for firearms, the importation of the article will be prohibited unless the Minister gives written permission for the importation of the article under the public interest test or the national interest test in this Part (see subregulation 4F(1AA)).
#### 1. Official purposes test
1.1 The importation of an article complies with the official purposes test if, at or before importation, the Minister gives written permission under this item for the importation of the article.
1.2 The Minister may give written permission for the importation of the article only if the Minister is satisfied that:
(a) the article is to be imported for the purposes of:
(i) the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory; or
(ii) export under a contract to a government of a foreign country, in compliance with the Act (including any regulations or other instruments made under the Act); and
(b) the ownership arrangements for the article are, or will be, in accordance with subitem 1.4; and
(c) the importer holds a licence or authorisation to possess the article for the importer’s intended use in accordance with the law of the State or Territory in which the article is to be used.
1.3 For paragraph 1.2(a), examples of an article the importation of which is for the purposes of the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory are:
(a) an article to be supplied to the government under a contract in force when the article is to be imported; and
(aa) an article that is to be imported by a person for the purposes of supplying the article to another person to enable that other person to supply the article to the government under a contract in force when the article is to be imported; and
(b) an article to be shown to the government to demonstrate its uses; and
(ba) an article that is to be imported by a person for the purposes of enabling another person to show or demonstrate the article (including as part of another article) to the government:
(i) under a contract or proposed contract; or
(ii) as part of a tender process; and
(c) an article that the government proposes to inspect, test or evaluate; and
(d) an article that the government proposes to use for training; and
(e) an article that has been given or donated to the government; and
(f) an article that is to be consumed or destroyed in the course of testing related to a contract with the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory.
1.4 For paragraph 1.2(b), the ownership arrangements for an article are set out in the following table:
Table
| Item | Article | Ownership arrangements |
| ---- | ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- | --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- |
| 1 | An article that is to be supplied to the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory under a contract | The article may be owned by any person. |
| 2 | An article that:(a) is to be shown to the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory to demonstrate its uses; or(b) the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory proposes to inspect, test, evaluate or use for training; or(c) is to be consumed or destroyed in the course of testing related to a contract with the government; or(d) is to be exhibited at a museum by the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory. | The article may be owned by any personNote: See item 3 of Part 3. |
| 3 | An article that has been given or donated to the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory | All of the following:(a) the article must have been given or donated to the government before importation;(b) the government must own the article at the time of importation;(c) the government must retain ownership of the article until:(i) the article is disposed of to another such government, or to the government of a foreign country; or(ii) the article is destroyed. |
| 4 | Any other article imported for the purposes of the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory | The government must:(a) own the article at the time of importation; and(b) retain ownership of the article until:(i) the article is disposed of to another such government, or to the government of a foreign country; or(ii) the article is destroyed. |
| 5 | An article that is to be exported under a contract to the government of a foreign country | The government of the foreign country must:(a) either:(i) own the article at the time of importation; or(ii) intend to acquire ownership of the article within a period that the Minister considers appropriate (to be specified in the permission); and(b) retain ownership of the article until:(i) the article is disposed of to the government of another foreign country, or to the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory; or(ii) the article is destroyed. |
> Note: See item 3 of Part 3.
#### 2. Specified purposes test
2.1 The importation of an article complies with the specified purposes test if, at or before importation, the Minister gives written permission under this item for the importation of the article.
2.2 The Minister may give written permission for the importation of the article only if the Minister is satisfied that:
(a) the article:
(i) is of a type not available in Australia; and
(ii) is to be used in connection with the production of a film in a State or Territory in which the importer holds a licence or authorisation in accordance with the law of the State or Territory to possess an article of that type and for that use; and
(iii) is not to be used in an advertisement, a music video or another type of film promoting music or a product; or
(b) the article is of a type not available in Australia, and is to be used in the development of mountings for a laser target designator in a State or Territory in which the importer holds a licence or authorisation in accordance with the law of the State or Territory to possess an article of that type and for that use; or
(c) the article is ammunition, or a component of ammunition, to be imported in the following circumstances:
(i) the ammunition, or the component of ammunition, is to be imported as part of a contract to which a person in Australia is a party;
(ii) the person made the contract with the intention of supplying the ammunition, or the component of ammunition, to a person outside Australia, in a manner that will not contravene Australia’s international obligations;
(iii) the contract will be in force when the ammunition, or the component of ammunition, is to be imported;
(iv) if the exportation of the ammunition, or the component of ammunition, after its importation would be prohibited without a permission under regulation 13E of the Customs (Prohibited Exports) Regulations 1958—such a permission has been granted, or a person who may grant such a permission has stated, in writing, that such a permission will be granted; or
(d) the article is to be imported in the following circumstances:
(i) the article is to be imported for repairs, modification or testing, or for use in training, manufacture, assembly, research or development, in a State or Territory;
(ii) the article is to be imported under a contract in force with:
(A) the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory; or
(B) the government of a foreign country; or
(C) the United Nations;
(iii) the importer holds a licence or authorisation to possess the article for a purpose mentioned in subparagraph (i) in accordance with the law of the State or Territory where the article is to be repaired, modified or tested, or used in training, manufacture, assembly, research or development;
(iv) if the exportation of the article after such repair, modification, testing or use has been carried out would be prohibited without a permission under regulation 13E of the Customs (Prohibited Exports) Regulations 1958—such a permission has been granted, or a person who may grant such a permission has stated, in writing, that such a permission will be granted; or
(f) the article is to be imported in the following circumstances:
(i) the article is to be imported for use in a sanctioned activity;
(ii) the article is owned by the defence force or a law enforcement agency of a foreign country;
(iii) the article is to be imported by the defence force or law enforcement agency that owns the article, or a member of that defence force or law enforcement agency to whom the article has been issued;
(iv) the defence force or law enforcement agency has been invited to participate in the sanctioned activity;
(v) if the exportation of the article after the close of the sanctioned activity would be prohibited without a permission under regulation 13E of the Customs (Prohibited Exports) Regulations 1958—such a permission has been granted, or a person who may grant such a permission has stated, in writing, that such a permission will be granted; or
(g) the article is to be imported in the following circumstances:
(i) the importer’s principal or sole occupation is the business of researching or developing firearms technology or other defence and law enforcement related products;
(iii) the importer holds a licence or authorisation to possess the article for research or development purposes in accordance with the law of the State or Territory in which the article is to be used in research or development;
(iv) the article:
(A) is being imported for the completion of a specific project or tender involving the government of the Commonwealth, a State or Territory; and
(B) will be allowed to remain in the country for a specified period of time, commensurate with that project or tender; and
(C) will be sold to the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory, exported or destroyed once that period of time has expired;
(v) if the exportation of the article after its use in such research or development would be prohibited without a permission under regulation 13E of the Customs (Prohibited Exports) Regulations 1958—such a permission has been granted, or a person who may grant such a permission has stated, in writing, that such a permission will be granted;
(vi) the Minister is satisfied that the article will be secured appropriately in Australia; or
(i) for a category C or category D article—the article is to be imported in the following circumstances:
(i) the article is imported for the testing of ammunition manufactured in a State or Territory;
(ii) the importer holds a licence or authorisation to possess the article for manufacturing and testing ammunition in accordance with the law of the State or Territory in which the article is to be used in manufacturing ammunition;
(iii) the importer is a manufacturer of small arms or ammunition;
(iv) the article is being imported for use in the completion of a specific project or tender;
(v) the article will be secured appropriately in Australia;
(vi) the article will be destroyed or exported once it is no longer serviceable or required by the importer.
> Note: For the definitions of category C article, category D article, defence‑sanctioned activity and law enforcement‑sanctioned activity, see Part 4 of Schedule 6.
> Note: Examples of a film for paragraph 2.2(a):
• a cinematographic film
• a film or documentary made specifically for television
• a television program or series.
#### 3. Specified person test
3.1 The importation of an article complies with the specified person test if, at or before importation, the Minister gives written permission under this item for the importation of the article.
3.2 The Minister may give written permission for the importation of the article only if the Minister is satisfied that:
(a) the importer of the article is a person whose occupation is partly or wholly the business of controlling vertebrate pest animals; and
(b) the importer holds a licence or authorisation, in accordance with the law of the State or Territory in which the importer will carry out that occupation, to possess the article for the purpose of carrying out that occupation; and
(c) the importer has produced evidence that the importer is an Australian citizen.
#### 4. Police certification test
4.1 The importation of an article complies with the police certification test if:
(a) before the importation of the article, the importer was given a statement, in an approved form, by a relevant police representative to the effect that the importer holds a licence or authorisation according to the law of the relevant State or Territory to possess the article, or that a licence or authorisation to possess the article is not required under the law of the relevant State or Territory; and
(b) for a category C article—the importer has also been given a certificate, in an approved form, by a relevant police representative certifying that the importer is a primary producer; and
(ca) the importer produces details of the article to a Collector, including:
(i) the make, model and serial number; and
(ii) if more than one article of the same kind is to be imported at the same time—the number of such articles; and
(d) the importer produces to a Collector:
(i) the statement in the approved form; and
(ii) if the article is a category C article—the relevant certificate in the approved form.
> Note: The importer can produce the statement, or statement and certificate, personally or by an agent, eg a firearm dealer.
4.2 For the purposes of paragraph 4.1(a), a statement made in approved form B709D or B709DA has no effect in relation to the importation of an article on or after the day this subitem commences (regardless of whether the statement was given to the importer before that day).
> Note: This subitem was inserted by Part 6 of Schedule 2 to the Combatting Antisemitism, Hate and Extremism (Firearms and Customs Laws) Act 2026.
#### 5. Sports shooter test
5.1 The importation of a restricted category C article, or a category H article, complies with the sports shooter test if, at or before importation, the Minister gives written permission under this item for the importation of the article.
5.2 The Minister may give written permission for the importation of the article only if the importer is a certified sports shooter for the article.
> Note: For the definitions of certified sports shooter, restricted category C article and category H article, see Part 4 of Schedule 6.
#### 5A. International sports shooter test
5A.1 The importation of a restricted category C article, or a category H article, complies with the international sports shooter test if, at or before importation, the Minister gives written permission under this item for the importation of the article.
5A.2 The Minister may give written permission for the importation of the article only if the importer is a certified international sports shooter for the article.
> Note: For the definitions of certified international sports shooter, restricted category C article and category H article, see Part 4 of Schedule 6.
#### 6. Dealer test
6.1 The importation of a Category C, Category D or Category H article complies with the dealer test if, at or before importation, the Minister gives written permission under this item for the importation of the article.
6.2 The Minister may give written permission for the importation of the article only if the Minister is satisfied that the importer is a licensed firearm dealer for the article.
> Note: For the definitions of Category C article, Category D article, Category H article and licensed firearm dealer, see Part 4.
#### 7. Handgun test
7.1 The importation of a category H article complies with the handgun test if, at or before importation, the Minister gives written permission under this item for the importation of the article.
7.2 The Minister may give written permission for the importation of the article only if the Minister is satisfied that the importer is:
(a) a certified buyer for the article; or
(b) certified for business or occupational purposes for the article; or
(c) a certified collector for the article; or
(d) exempt from holding, or not required to hold, a licence for the article.
> Note: For the definitions of category H article, certified buyer, certified for business or occupational purposes and certified collector, see Part 4.
#### 8. Returned goods test
8.1 The importation of an article complies with the returned goods test if, at or before importation, the Minister gives written permission under this item for the importation of the article.
8.2 The Minister may give written permission for the importation of the article only if the Minister is satisfied:
(a) that:
(i) the article has previously been exported, and is not currently in Australia; and
(ia) if the most recent exportation of the article would have been prohibited without a permission under regulation 13E of the Customs (Prohibited Exports) Regulations 1958—that exportation was in accordance with a permission under regulation 13E of the Customs (Prohibited Exports) Regulations 1958; and
(ii) the last importation (if any) of the article before the export:
(A) was a lawful importation; and
(B) was not subject to a condition that the article was to be exported after importation; and
(iii) the article has not been modified since its most recent exportation; and
(iv) the importer holds a licence or authorisation to possess the article for the importer’s intended use in accordance with the law of the State or Territory in which the importer lives; or
(b) that:
(i) the article is currently in Australia; and
(ii) if the exportation of the article would be prohibited without a permission under regulation 13E of the Customs (Prohibited Exports) Regulations 1958—such a permission is in force, and the article has not been modified since the permission was granted; and
(iii) the importer holds a licence or authorisation to possess the article for the importer’s intended use in accordance with the law of the State or Territory in which the importer lives.
8.3 In this item:
> modified does not include repaired.
#### 8A. Public interest test
8A.1 The public interest test set out in this item applies to the importation of any article to which an item in Part 2 applies.
> Note: See subregulation 4F(1A).
8A.2 The importation of an article complies with the public interest test if, at or before importation, the Minister gives written permission under this item for the importation of the article.
8A.3 The Minister may give written permission for the importation of the article only if the Minister is satisfied of the following:
(a) it is in the public interest to allow the article to be imported;
(b) if the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess the article in the State or Territory in which the importer lives—the importer holds a licence or authorisation of that kind;
(c) the article will be secured appropriately in Australia.
#### 8B. National interest test
8B.1 The national interest test set out in this item applies to the importation of any article to which an item in Part 2 applies.
> Note: See subregulation 4F(1A).
8B.2 The importation of an article complies with the national interest test if, at or before importation, the Minister gives written permission under this item for the importation of the article.
8B.3 The Minister may give written permission for the importation of the article only if the Minister is satisfied of the following:
(a) it is in the national interest to allow the article to be imported;
(b) if the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess the article in the State or Territory in which the importer lives—the importer holds a licence or authorisation of that kind;
(c) the article will be secured appropriately in Australia.
#### 9. Application for Minister’s permission to import article
9.1 This item applies if the written permission of the Minister for the importation of an article is required under this Part.
9.2 A person may apply to the Minister for the permission.
9.3 The application must be made on the form approved by the Secretary to the Department.
## Part 2—Requirements for specific firearms, firearm accessories, firearm parts, firearm magazines, ammunition, components of ammunition and imitations
Note: The public interest test under item 8A of Part 1 and the national interest test under item 8B of Part 1 apply in relation to the importation of all the articles to which this Part applies (see subregulation 4F(1A)).
| Column 1Item | Column 2Firearm, firearm accessory, firearm part, firearm magazine, ammunition, component of ammunition or imitation | Column 3Requirements |
| ------------ | --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- | -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- |
| 1 | Any of the following firearms:(a) an air rifle;(c) a rimfire rifle, other than a semi‑automatic rimfire rifle or an assisted repeating action or straight pull repeating action rimfire rifle;(d) a shotgun, other than a semi‑automatic or repeating shotgun;other than a firearm:(e) that has a fully automatic firing capability or is operated using belt‑fed ammunition; or(f) that is substantially the same in appearance as a fully automatic firearm; or(g) to which a firearm accessory is attached or is integral. | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the police certification test.If item 1A of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the firearm—the firearm must comply with the identification requirements set out in the item.If item 1 of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the firearm—the firearm must comply with the safety requirements set out in the item. |
| 1A | An imitation of a firearm. | The importation must comply with the police certification test.Note: See column 3 of item 14 for the requirements for importation of a firearm accessory that is attached to or integral to an imitation of a firearm. |
| 2 | Any of the following firearms:(a) a muzzle‑loading firearm, other than a muzzle loading handgun;(b) a single shot centre fire rifle;(c) a double barrel centre fire rifle;(d) a repeating action centre fire rifle, other than an assisted repeating action or straight pull repeating action centre fire rifle;(e) a break action shotgun/rifle combination;(f) a repeating bolt action shotgun, other than an assisted repeating action or straight pull repeating action shotgun;(g) a lever action shotgun that is not an assisted repeating action or straight pull repeating action shotgun, and that is:(i) without a firearm magazine; or(ii) fitted with a firearm magazine having a capacity of no more than 5 rounds;other than a firearm:(h) that has a fully automatic firing capability or is operated using belt‑fed ammunition; or(i) that is substantially the same in appearance as a fully automatic firearm; or(j) to which a firearm accessory is attached or is integral. | The importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the police certification test.If item 1A of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the firearm, the firearm must comply with the identification requirements set out in the item.If item 1 of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the firearm, the firearm must comply with the safety requirements set out in the item. |
| 2A | A frame or receiver of, or for, a firearm to which item 1 or 2 applies. | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the police certification test.If item 1A of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the frame or receiver, the frame or receiver must comply with the identification requirements set out in the item. |
| 2B | Firearm part of, or for, a firearm to which item 1 or 2 applies, other than a frame or receiver, or a firearm part that is capable of converting, either on its own or in conjunction with other parts, a firearm to a semi‑automatic or fully automatic firearm. | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the police certification test. |
| 3 | Any of the following firearms, other than a firearm:(a) that has a fully automatic firing capability or is operated using belt‑fed ammunition; or(b) to which a firearm accessory is attached or is integral.Semi‑automatic rimfire rifle:(a) without a firearm magazine; or(b) fitted with a firearm magazine of a capacity no greater than 10 rounds.Semi‑automatic shotgun:(a) without a firearm magazine; or(b) fitted with a firearm magazine of a capacity no greater than 5 rounds.Pump action repeating shotgun:(a) without a firearm magazine; or(b) fitted with a firearm magazine of a capacity no greater than 5 rounds.An assisted repeating action or straight pull repeating action shotgun that is:(a) without a firearm magazine; or(b) fitted with a firearm magazine of a capacity no greater than 5 rounds.An assisted repeating action or straight pull repeating action rimfire rifle that is:(a) without a firearm magazine; or(b) fitted with a firearm magazine of a capacity no greater than 10 rounds. | For a semi‑automatic rimfire rifle, or assisted repeating action or straight pull repeating action rimfire rifle:(a) the importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(i) the official purposes test;(ii) the specified purposes test;(iii) the specified person test;(iv) the police certification test;(v) the dealer test;(vi) the returned goods test; and(b) if item 1A of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the firearm—the firearm must comply with the identification requirements set out in the item; and(c) if item 1 of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the firearm—the firearm must comply with the safety requirements set out in the item.For a semi‑automatic shotgun or pump action repeating shotgun, or assisted repeating action or straight pull repeating action shotgun:(a) the importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(i) the official purposes test;(ii) the specified purposes test;(iii) the specified person test;(iv) the police certification test;(v) the sports shooter test;(vi) the international sports shooter test;(vii) the dealer test;(viii) the returned goods test; and(b) if item 1A of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the firearm—the firearm must comply with the identification requirements set out in the item; and(c) if item 1 of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the firearm—the firearm must comply with the safety requirements set out in the item. |
| 3A | A frame or receiver of, or for, a firearm to which item 3 applies. | For a frame or receiver of, or for, a semi‑automatic rimfire rifle:(a) the importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(i) the official purposes test;(ii) the specified purposes test;(iii) the specified person test;(iv) the police certification test;(v) the dealer test;(vi) the returned goods test; and(b) if item 1A of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the frame or receiver—the frame or receiver must comply with the identification requirements set out in the item.For a frame or receiver of, or for, a semi‑automatic shotgun or pump action repeating shotgun:(a) the importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(i) the official purposes test;(ii) the specified purposes test;(iii) the specified person test;(iv) the police certification test;(v) the sports shooter test;(vi) the international sports shooter test;(vii) the dealer test;(viii) the returned goods test; and(b) if item 1A of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the frame or receiver—the frame or receiver must comply with the identification requirements set out in the item. |
| 4 | Firearm part of, or for, a firearm to which item 3 applies, other than a firearm part that is:(a) a firearm part of, or for, a firearm to which item 1, 2 or 9 applies; or(b) capable of converting, either on its own or in conjunction with other parts, a firearm to a fully automatic firearm; or(c) a frame or receiver. | For a part of, or for, a semi‑automatic rimfire rifle, the importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the police certification test;(e) the dealer test;(f) the returned goods test.For a part of, or for, a semi‑automatic shotgun or pump action repeating shotgun mentioned in item 3, the importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the police certification test;(e) the sports shooter test;(f) the international sports shooter test;(g) the dealer test;(h) the returned goods test.For a part of, or for, another firearm, the importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the police certification test.For a frame or receiver to which item 1A of Part 3 of this Schedule applies, the frame or receiver must comply with the identification requirements set out in the item. |
| 6 | Any of the following firearms:(a) a semi‑automatic centre fire rifle;(b) a semi‑automatic rimfire rifle fitted with a firearm magazine of a capacity greater than 10 rounds;(ba) an assisted repeating action or straight pull repeating action rimfire rifle fitted with a firearm magazine of a capacity greater than 10 rounds;(c) a semi‑automatic shotgun fitted with a firearm magazine of a capacity greater than 5 rounds;(d) a pump action repeating shotgun fitted with a firearm magazine of a capacity greater than 5 rounds;(da) an assisted repeating action or straight pull repeating action shotgun fitted with a magazine of capacity greater than 5 rounds;(db) an assisted repeating action or straight pull repeating action centre fire rifle;other than a firearm:(e) that has a fully automatic firing capability or is operated using belt‑fed ammunition; or(f) to which a firearm accessory is attached or is integral. | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the dealer test.If item 1A of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the firearm, the firearm must comply with the identification requirements set out in the item.If item 1 of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the firearm, the firearm must comply with the safety requirements set out in the item. |
| 6A | A frame or receiver of, or for, a firearm to which item 6 applies. | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the dealer test.If item 1A of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the frame or receiver, the frame or receiver must comply with the identification requirements set out in the item. |
| 7 | Firearm part of, or for, a firearm to which item 6 applies, other than a firearm part that is:(a) a firearm part of, or for, a firearm to which item 1, 2, 3 or 9 applies; or(b) capable of converting, either on its own or in conjunction with other parts, a firearm to a fully automatic firearm; or(c) a frame or receiver. | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the dealer test. |
| 9 | Any of the following firearms (including complete, but disassembled or unassembled, firearms):(a) a handgun;(b) a muzzle loading handgun;other than a firearm:(d) that has a fully automatic firing capability or is operated using belt‑fed ammunition; or(e) that is substantially the same in appearance as a fully automatic firearm; or(f) to which a firearm accessory has been attached or is integral. | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the sports shooter test;(e) the international sports shooter test;(f) the dealer test;(g) the handgun test;(h) the returned goods test.If item 1A of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the firearm—the firearm must comply with the identification requirements set out in the item.If item 1 of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the firearm—the firearm must comply with the safety requirements set out in the item. |
| 9B | A frame or receiver of, or for, a firearm to which item 9 applies | The importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the sports shooter test;(da) the international sports shooter test;(e) the dealer test;(ea) the handgun test;(f) the returned goods test.For a frame or receiver to which item 1A of Part 3 of this Schedule applies, the frame or receiver must comply with the identification requirements set out in the item. |
| 10 | Firearm part of, or for, a firearm to which item 9 applies, other than:(a) a frame or receiver; or(b) a firearm part of, or for, a firearm to which item 1 or 2 applies; or(c) a firearm part that is capable of converting, either on its own or in conjunction with other parts, a firearm to a fully automatic firearm; or(d) a firearm part to which a firearm accessory is attached or is integral. | The importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the sports shooter test;(da) the international sports shooter test;(db) the dealer test;(dc) the handgun test;(e) the returned goods test. |
| 11 | Firearm accessory for a firearm to which item 9 applies, other than a firearm accessory to which item 13A or 13B applies. | The importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the returned goods test. |
| 12 | Firearm, other than:(a) a firearm to which item 1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 14A or 14B applies; or(b) a lever action shotgun fitted with a firearm magazine having a capacity of more than 5 rounds. | The importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the returned goods test.If item 1A of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the firearm, the firearm must comply with the identification requirements set out in the item. |
| 12A | A frame or receiver of, or for, a firearm to which item 12 applies. | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the returned goods test.If item 1A of Part 3 of this Schedule applies to the frame or receiver, the frame or receiver must comply with the identification requirements set out in the item. |
| 13 | Firearm part of, or for, a firearm to which item 12 applies, other than a frame or receiver, or a firearm part to which item 2B, 4, 7 or 10 applies. | The importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the returned goods test. |
| 13A | A firearm accessory that is a silencer, sound moderator, sound suppressor or any other device designed to reduce, or capable of reducing, the noise of discharge of a firearm. | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the returned goods test.The firearm accessory must comply with the identification requirements set out in item 1AA of Part 3 of this Schedule. |
| 13B | A firearm accessory that is a speed loader. | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the sports shooter test;(e) the international sports shooter test;(f) the returned goods test. |
| 14 | Firearm accessory, other than a firearm accessory to which item 13A or 13B applies. | The importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the returned goods test. |
| 14A | Paintball marker designed exclusively to fire paintballs other than a paintball marker:(a) that is substantially the same in appearance as a fully automatic firearm; or(b) to which a firearm accessory is attached or is integral.Firearm part of, or for, a paintball marker mentioned in this item.Detachable firearm magazine (other than a gravity‑fed paintball hopper) designed exclusively for use with a paintball marker and paintballs.Paintballs. | The importation must comply with the police certification test.For a firearm, frame or receiver to which item 1A of Part 3 of this Schedule applies, the firearm, frame or receiver must comply with the identification requirements set out in the item.For a firearm to which item 1 of Part 3 of this Schedule applies, the firearm must comply with the safety requirements set out in the item. |
| 14B | Skirmish marker, other than a skirmish marker:(a) that is substantially the same in appearance as a fully automatic firearm; or(b) to which a firearm accessory is attached or is integral.Firearm part of, or for, a skirmish marker mentioned in this item.Detachable firearm magazine (other than a gravity‑fed skirmish hopper) designed exclusively for use with a skirmish marker.Plastic, polymer or hydratable superabsorbent polymer balls designed to be used as ammunition in a skirmish marker. | The importation must comply with the police certification test.For a firearm, frame or receiver to which item 1A of Part 3 of this Schedule applies, the firearm, frame or receiver must comply with the identification requirements set out in the item.For a firearm to which item 1 of Part 3 of this Schedule applies, the firearm must comply with the safety requirements set out in the item. |
| 15 | Detachable firearm magazine (other than a firearm magazine to which item 14A or 14B applies), having a capacity of more than 5 rounds, for:(a) semi‑automatic shotguns; or(b) pump action shotguns; or(c) fully automatic shotguns; or(d) assisted repeating action or straight pull repeating action shotguns;whether or not attached to a firearm. | The importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified person test;(c) the specified purposes test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the dealer test. |
| 16 | Detachable firearm magazine (other than a firearm magazine to which item 14A or 14B applies), having a capacity of more than 10 rounds, for:(a) semi‑automatic rimfire rifles; or(b) semi‑automatic, pump action or lever action centre‑fire rifles; or(c) fully automatic firearms, other than fully‑automatic shotguns; or(d) assisted repeating action or straight pull repeating action rimfire rifles; or(e) assisted repeating action or straight pull repeating action centre fire rifles;whether or not attached to a firearm. | The importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the dealer test. |
| 16A | Detachable firearm magazine (other than a firearm magazine to which item 14A, 14B or 16 applies), having a capacity of more than 15 rounds, for repeating action centre‑fire rifles, whether or not attached to a firearm. | The importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the returned goods test. |
| 16B | Detachable firearm magazine having a capacity of more than 30 rounds (other than a firearm magazine to which item 14A, 14B, 15, 16 or 16A applies), whether or not attached to a firearm. | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the returned goods test. |
| 17 | Firearm magazine, other than:(a) a firearm magazine to which item 14A, 14B, 15, 16, 16A or 16B applies; or(b) a firearm magazine, having a capacity of more than 5 rounds, for lever action shotguns;whether or not attached to a firearm. | The importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the police certification test;(c) the specified purposes test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the dealer test;(f) the sports shooter test;(g) the international sports shooter test;(h) the handgun test. |
| 18 | Device that increases the capacity of an integral firearm magazine, a tubular firearm magazine or a detachable box magazine, whether or not attached to a firearm. | The importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the returned goods test. |
| 19 | Ammunition of the following kinds for a firearm to which item 1, 2, 3, 6, 9 or 12 applies:(a) ammunition that has, as part of the components (either assembled or separate), a projectile known as any of the following kinds:(i) tracer;(ii) frangible;(iii) explosive;(iv) incendiary;(vi) armour piercing;(vii) penetrator;(viii) saboted light armour piercing (SLAP);(ix) flechette (being a combined collection of arrows or spears);(b) handgun ammunition that is designed, advertised or capable of defeating:(i) soft body armour; or(ii) opaque or glazed bullet resistant material; and(c) an electro‑shock cartridge. | The importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the returned goods test. |
| 20 | Ammunition for any firearm to which item 1, 2, 3, 6, 9 or 12 applies, other than ammunition to which item 19 applies. | The importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the police certification test. |
| 21 | A component of ammunition for a firearm to which item 1, 2, 3, 6, 9 or 12 applies, if the component is one of the following kinds of projectile:(a) tracer;(b) frangible;(c) explosive:(d) incendiary;(e) armour piercing;(f) penetrator;(g) saboted light armour piercing (SLAP);(h) flechette (a combined collection of arrows or spears). | The importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the returned goods test. |
| 22 | A component of ammunition for a firearm to which item 9 applies, if the component is designed, advertised or capable of defeating:(a) soft body armour; or(b) opaque or glazed bullet resistant material. | The importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the returned goods test. |
| 23 | A component of ammunition for a firearm to which item 1, 2, 3, 6, 9 or 12 applies, other than a component to which items 21 and 22 apply. | The importation must comply with at least 1 of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the police certification test. |
| 24 | Underwater powerhead | The importation must comply with any of the following tests:(a) the police certification test;(b) the official purposes test;(c) the specified purposes test;(d) the returned goods test. |
## Part 3—Conditions relating to the importation of firearms, firearm accessories, firearm parts, firearm magazines, ammunition, components of ammunition and imitations
#### 1A. Identification requirements for firearms, frames and receivers
Scope of this item
(1) This item applies to a firearm, frame or receiver that was manufactured on or after 1 January 1900.
Identification requirements
(2) A firearm, frame or receiver complies with the identification requirements if:
(a) the firearm, frame or receiver is visually inspected by a Collector, and found to comply with subitem (3); or
(b) each of the following applies:
(i) the firearm, frame or receiver is included in a consignment of firearms, frames or receivers;
(ii) a sample of the items in the consignment is selected for visual inspection in accordance with procedures approved by the Minister;
(iii) the result of the visual inspection is that each firearm, frame or receiver in the sample is found to comply with subitem (3).
(3) For the purposes of subitem (2), a firearm, frame or receiver must:
(a) have a unique serial number that consists only of Arabic numerals, English letters, or punctuation marks; and
(b) display the serial number in accordance with subitem (4):
(i) in the case of a firearm—on the frame or receiver of the firearm; or
(ii) in the case of a frame or receiver—anywhere on the frame or receiver.
(4) For the purposes of paragraph (3)(b), the serial number must be:
(a) easily recognisable as the serial number of the firearm, frame or receiver; and
(b) legible; and
(c) able to be read without the use of any device or tool.
#### 1AA. Identification requirements for silencers, sound moderators and sound suppressors
(1) A firearm accessory that is a silencer, sound moderator, sound suppressor or any other device designed to reduce, or capable of reducing, the noise of discharge of a firearm complies with the identification requirements if the firearm accessory is:
(a) visually inspected by a Collector; and
(b) found by the Collector to:
(i) have a unique serial number that consists only of Arabic numerals, English letters, or punctuation marks; and
(ii) display the serial number in accordance with subitem (2).
(2) For the purposes of subparagraph (1)(b)(ii), the serial number must be:
(a) easily recognisable as the serial number for the firearm accessory; and
(b) legible; and
(c) able to be read without the use of any device or tool; and
(d) displayed on the external surface of the firearm accessory.
#### 1. Safety requirements for firearms
1.1 The safety requirements do not apply to a firearm if the importation of the firearm complies with:
(a) the official purposes test; or
(b) the specified purposes test.
1.2 The safety requirements do not apply:
(a) to a firearm that:
(i) was manufactured before 1 January 1900; or
(ii) is designed or adapted for competition target shooting; or
(b) to an imitation; or
(c) to a deactivated firearm; or
(d) to a blank‑fire firearm; or
(e) to an underwater powerhead.
1.3 The safety requirements do not apply to a firearm that had previously been exported from Australia if the importer of the firearm produces to a Collector, at the time of importation:
(a) if the exportation of the firearm would have been prohibited without a permission under regulation 13E of the Customs (Prohibited Exports) Regulations 1958—such a permission; or
(b) in any other case—written evidence that the firearm had previously been lawfully exported from Australia by the importer.
1.4 The safety requirements do not apply to a firearm if:
(a) the importer is:
(i) entitled, under a visa issued under the Migration Act 1958, to enter, or remain in, Australia for a period of not more than 1 year; or
(ii) entitled, under a New Zealand passport to enter, or remain in, Australia; and
(b) the importer produces to a Collector, at or before the time of importation:
(i) documentary evidence to the effect that the importer is to be a participant in a lawful competition organised by a shooting organisation, or in a lawful hunting activity; and
(ii) the licence or authorisation, in accordance with the law of each State or Territory where any competition or hunting activity referred to in the documentary evidence is to be conducted, to possess the firearm for the purposes of the competition or hunting activity; and
(c) if the importer is referred to in subparagraph (a)(i)—the firearm is to be exported not later than the expiry of the relevant visa; and
(d) if the importer is referred to in subparagraph (a)(ii)—the firearm is to be exported not later than 1 year after the date of its importation.
1.5 A firearm, other than a firearm to which the safety requirements do not apply because of subitem 1.1, 1.2, 1.3 or 1.4, must comply with the requirements of subitem 1.5B, tested in accordance with arrangements approved, in writing, by the Minister.
1.5B A firearm is taken to comply with the safety requirements if the Collector, at the time of importation:
(a) confirms that the firearm has been fitted with an effective safety switch or device (unless it is a hammer firearm fitted with a half cock mechanism or safety bent); and
(b) confirms that the firearm has been fitted with an effective trigger guard; and
(c) determines that further testing, as described in subitems 1.6 to item 1.11 (inclusive), is not required.
1.5C If the Collector determines that further testing of a firearm is required, the firearm is taken to comply with the requirements of subitems 1.6 to 1.11 (inclusive) if:
(a) the firearm is tested in accordance with procedures approved by the Minister, and is found to comply with the requirements; or
(b) each of the following applies:
(i) the firearm is included in a consignment of firearms;
(ii) a sample of the items in the consignment is selected for testing in accordance with procedures approved by the Minister;
(iii) the result of the testing of the sample is that each firearm in the sample is found to comply with the requirements.
1.6 The firearm, fully cocked and with the safety catch or safety notch (if any) disengaged, must not operate so as to discharge if:
(a) it is held with the barrel vertical and dropped 3 times, being re‑cocked after each drop, from a height of at least 35 centimetres and not more than 45 centimetres butt‑first onto a rubber mat that:
(i) is 25 millimetres thick; and
(ii) has a hardness reading (in this item called the appropriate hardness reading) of 75/85 when tested in accordance with Part 15 of Australian Standard 1683‑1976 (“Indentation Hardness of Rubber and Plastics by means of a Durometer”), published on 1 September 1976; or
(b) it is struck not more than 6 times at various points along its length by a rubber hammer that:
(i) has a head that weighs 450 grams, and has the appropriate hardness reading, and is held at the end of the handle with the head 30 centimetres above the point to be struck; and
(ii) is allowed to fall under its own weight once at each of those points, with no pressure being exerted on the trigger and with the firearm being recocked after each blow.
1.6A If the firearm has an exposed hammer or cocking device or exposed hammers or cocking devices, the firearm must not discharge if, on 3 consecutive occasions:
(a) each hammer or cocking device is moved back towards the cocked position; and
(b) immediately before the sear engages the bent or bents in the fully cocked position, and with no pressure being applied to the trigger, the hammer or cocking device is released and allowed to travel forward under the pressure of the spring.
1.7 Unless the firearm is fitted with an adjustable trigger or triggers, the trigger mechanism must not operate when a force of less than or equal to 11 newtons is exerted on the central point of the trigger in the direction in which the trigger operates.
1.9 The firearm must, unless it is a hammer firearm fitted with a half‑cock mechanism or safety bent, be fitted with a mechanical or electronic safety device that:
(a) when engaged in the “safe” position, prevents discharge of the firearm; and
(b) can be disengaged only by:
(i) for an external safety device—distinct pressure on the device; or
(ii) for an integral safety device—sustained pressure on the trigger; and
(c) for an applied, external, safety device—clearly indicates when the firearm is able to discharge.
1.10 For a firearm mentioned in item 14A of Part 2 of Schedule 6, the firearm:
(a) must be fitted with an effective trigger guard; and
(b) must be fitted with a safety device (either mechanical or electronic) that:
(i) when engaged in the “safe” position—prevents discharge of the firearm; and
(ii) can be disengaged only by:
(A) for an external safety device—distinct pressure on the device; or
(B) for an integral safety device—sustained pressure on the trigger; and
(iii) for an applied, external safety device, clearly indicates when the firearm is able to discharge.
1.11 The firearm must not:
(a) contain parts; or
(b) be the subject of any modification, corrosion, damage or alteration;
which would make the firearm unsafe in its use.
#### 2. Specified purposes test
2.1 The importation of an article in accordance with the specified purposes test is subject to the condition that the importer of the article must:
(a) within the period, after importation, mentioned in the Minister’s permission:
(i) dispose of the article to the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory; or
(ii) export the article in compliance with the Act (including any regulations or other instruments made under the Act); or
(iii) destroy the article; and
(aa) until the article is so disposed of, exported or destroyed, retain ownership of the article; and
(b) comply with any condition or requirement specified, in relation to the article, in the permission.
#### 3. Official purposes test
3.1 The importation, in accordance with the official purposes test, of an article to be supplied under a contract to the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory, or exported under a contract to the government of a foreign country, is subject to the condition that the importer must comply with any condition or requirement specified, in relation to the article, in the Minister’s permission.
3.2 The importation, in accordance with the official purposes test, of an article to be shown to the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory to demonstrate its uses is subject to the following conditions:
(a) unless the article has been destroyed, or the government has acquired ownership of the article within the period, after importation, mentioned in the Minister’s permission, the importer must export the article within the period;
(b) the importer must comply with any condition or requirement specified, in relation to the article, in the Minister’s permission.
3.3 The importation, in accordance with the official purposes test, of an article that the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory proposes to inspect, test or evaluate is subject to the following conditions:
(a) unless the article has been destroyed, or the government has acquired ownership of the article within the period, after importation, mentioned in the Minister’s permission, the importer must export the article within the period;
(b) the importer must comply with any condition or requirement specified, in relation to the article, in the Minister’s permission.
3.4 The importation, in accordance with the official purposes test, of an article that the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory proposes to use for training is subject to the following conditions:
(a) unless the article has been destroyed, or the government has acquired ownership of the article within the period, after importation, mentioned in the Minister’s permission, the importer must export the article within the period;
(b) the importer must comply with any condition or requirement specified, in relation to the article, in the Minister’s permission.
3.5 The importation, in accordance with the official purposes test, of an article that is to be exhibited at a museum by the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory is subject to the following conditions:
(a) the article must be exported within the period, after importation, mentioned in the Minister’s permission;
(b) the importer must comply with any condition or requirement specified, in relation to the article, in the Minister’s permission.
#### 3A. International sports shooter test
3A.1 The importation, in accordance with the international sports shooter test, of a restricted category C article is subject to the following conditions:
(a) the importer must export the article in the period, after importation, mentioned in the Minister’s permission (unless the article has been destroyed);
(b) the importer must comply with any condition or requirement specified, in relation to the article, in the Minister’s permission.
> Note: For the definition of restricted category C article, see Part 4 of Schedule 6.
#### 4 Dealer test—category C and D articles
4.2 The importation, in accordance with the dealer test, of a category C article or category D article is subject to the following conditions:
(a) the importer must not sell the article except to:
(i) a certified buyer for the article; or
(ia) the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory; or
(ii) if the article is a category C article—a certified primary producer; or
(iii) if the article is a restricted category C article, a certified sports shooter for the article;
(b) the importer must retain possession of the article until the importer disposes of the article by:
(i) selling the article in accordance with paragraph (a); or
(ii) exporting the article in compliance with the Act (including any regulations or other instruments made under the Act); or
(iii) destroying the article;
(ba) if the importer disposes of the article in accordance with paragraph (b), the importer must give to the Minister, within 30 days after disposal, a written declaration by the importer:
(i) stating that the importer has disposed of the article in accordance with paragraph (b); and
(ii) giving details of the disposal;
(c) the importer must comply with any condition or requirement specified, in relation to the article, in the Minister’s permission.
> Note: For the definitions of category C article, restricted category C article, category D article, certified buyer, certified primary producer and certified sports shooter, see Part 4 of Schedule 6.
#### 5. Dealer test—category H article
5.1 In this item:
> licensed firearm dealer means a licensed firearm dealer for category H articles.
5.2 The importation, in accordance with the dealer test, of a category H article is subject to the condition that the importer must comply with subitem 5.4.
5.4 The importer may only dispose of the article:
(a) to a person (other than a licensed firearm dealer) who holds a licence or authorisation, in accordance with the law of a State or Territory, to possess the article; or
(b) to a person who holds a written authority or permission given by a relevant police representative stating that the person is not required to hold a licence or authorisation, in accordance with the law of the relevant State or Territory, to possess the article; or
(c) to a person who is a licensed firearm dealer; or
(d) by exporting the article.
> Note: For the definitions of category H article and relevant police representative, see Part 4 of Schedule 6.
## Part 4—Interpretation
#### 1. Meaning of certified sports shooter
1.1 For this Schedule, a person is a certified sports shooter, for a restricted category C article, if the Minister certifies, in writing, that the Minister is satisfied that:
(a) the person is a registered shooter with the Australian Clay Target Association; and
(ab) the person is:
(i) an Australian citizen; or
(ii) a lawful non‑citizen under the Migration Act 1958 who holds a permanent visa under that Act; or
(iii) a New Zealand citizen who holds a special category visa under the Migration Act 1958; and
(b) the person is the holder of a licence or authorisation, in accordance with the law of the State or Territory where the club is situated, to possess the article for the purpose of taking part in clay target events; and
(c) the person intends to use the article solely to take part in clay target events; and
(d) the person:
(i) requires the article to take part in clay target events because of a physical need due to lack of strength or dexterity; or
(ii) on 15 November 1996, was a registered shooter with the Australian Clay Target Association and possessed a semi‑automatic shotgun, or pump action repeating shotgun, for use in clay target events.
1.2 For this Schedule, a person is a certified sports shooter, for a category H article, a firearm magazine for a category H article, or a firearm barrel for a category H article, if:
(a) either:
(i) the article complies with subitem 1.3 or 1.5; or
(ii) the firearm magazine complies with the specifications for shot capacity in subitem 1.3; or
(iii) the firearm barrel complies with the specifications for barrel length and calibre in subitem 1.3; and
(b) a relevant police representative is satisfied that the person meets the requirements, under the law of the relevant State or Territory, to possess the article for the purpose of taking part in sports or target shooting permitted under that law.
1.3 For paragraph 1.2(a), a category H article complies with this subitem if:
(a) the article:
(i) is designed or adapted for competition target shooting; or
(ii) has a barrel length of at least:
(A) for a semi‑automatic handgun—120 mm; and
(B) for a revolver or a single shot handgun—100 mm; and
(b) the article is fitted with a firearm magazine, or cylinder, of a capacity of not more than 10 rounds; and
(c) either:
(i) if a police representative certifies that the article is required for the purposes of participating in sporting events specially accredited by the State or Territory, the article has a calibre not greater than .45”; or
(ii) in any other case, the article has a calibre not greater than .38”.
1.4 For paragraph 1.2(a), a category H article that is:
(a) a black powder muzzle loading pistol; or
(b) a cap and ball percussion fired revolver;
is taken to comply with subitem 1.3.
1.5 For paragraph 1.2(a), a category H article, a firearm magazine for a category H article or a firearm barrel for a category H article complies with this subitem if:
(a) the article, magazine or barrel is to be imported by a person who is:
(i) an Australian citizen; or
(ii) a lawful non‑citizen under the Migration Act 1958 who holds a permanent visa under that Act; and
(b) the person satisfies a Collector, at or before importation, that the person had lawfully exported the article, magazine or barrel from Australia with the intention of participating in an international sports or target shooting event which was intended to be held outside Australia on or before 30 June 2003.
1.6 For subitem 1.3:
> calibre means the size of the cartridge that a handgun is chambered to discharge.
> Note: For the definition of relevant police representative, see item 1B.
#### 1A. Meaning of certified international sports shooter
1A.1 For this Schedule, a person is a certified international sports shooter, for a restricted category C article, if the Minister certifies, in writing, that the Minister is satisfied that:
(a) the person intends to use the article in Australia solely to take part in a clay target event; and
(b) the event is:
(i) the Olympic Games or an associated event; or
(ii) the Paralympic Games or an associated event; or
(iii) the Commonwealth Games or an associated event; or
(iv) organised by the Australian Clay Target Association; and
(c) the person is not:
(i) an Australian citizen; or
(ii) a lawful non‑citizen under the Migration Act 1958 who holds a permanent visa under that Act; and
(d) the person is the holder of a licence or authorisation, in accordance with the law of the State or Territory where the event is to be held, to possess the article for the purpose of taking part in clay target events.
1A.2 For this Schedule, a person is a certified international sports shooter, for a category H article, a firearm magazine for a category H article, or a firearm barrel for a category H article, if:
(a) either:
(i) the article complies with subitem 1A.3 or 1A.5; or
(ii) the firearm magazine complies with the specifications for shot capacity in subitem 1A.3; or
(iii) the firearm barrel complies with the specifications for barrel length and calibre in subitem 1A3; and
(b) a relevant police representative is satisfied that the person intends to use the article in Australia for sports or target shooting; and
(c) the relevant police representative is satisfied that the person is not:
(i) an Australian citizen; or
(ii) the holder of a permanent visa under the Migration Act 1958; and
(d) the relevant police representative is satisfied that the person is the holder of a licence or authorisation to possess the article for sports or target shooting, in accordance with the law of the State or Territory where the person intends to use the article.
1A.3 For paragraph 1A.2(a), a category H article complies with this subitem if:
(a) the article:
(i) is designed or adapted for competition target shooting; or
(ii) has a barrel length of at least:
(A) for a semi‑automatic handgun—120 mm; and
(B) for a revolver or a single shot handgun—100 mm; and
(b) the article is fitted with a firearm magazine, or cylinder, of a capacity of not more than 10 rounds; and
(c) either:
(i) if a police representative certifies that the article is required for the purposes of participating in sporting events specially accredited by the State or Territory, the article has a calibre not greater than .45”; or
(ii) in any other case, the article has a calibre not greater than .38”.
1A.4 For paragraph 1A.2(a), a category H article that is:
(a) a black powder muzzle loading pistol; or
(b) a cap and ball percussion fired revolver;
is taken to comply with subitem 1A.3.
1A.5 For paragraph 1A.2(a), a category H article, a firearm magazine for a category H article or a firearm barrel for a category H article complies with this subitem if:
(a) the person is importing the article, magazine or barrel for the purpose of participating in a sports or target shooting event which is intended to be held in Australia on or before 30 June 2003; and
(b) the person satisfies a Collector, at or before importation, that the person:
(i) is a participant in the event; and
(ii) will not use the article, magazine or barrel for a purpose other than participating in the event; and
(iii) will export the article, magazine or barrel from Australia as soon as practicable after the person has participated in the event.
1A.6 For subitem 1A.3:
> calibre means the size of the cartridge that a handgun is chambered to discharge.
> Note: For the definition of relevant police representative, see item 1B.
#### 1B. Meaning of relevant police representative
For this Schedule:
> relevant police representative, for a State or Territory, means:
(a) the chief police officer for that State or Territory, namely:
(i) for a State—the Commissioner or Chief Commissioner of the police force of the State; and
(ii) for the Northern Territory—the Commissioner of Police of the police force of the Northern Territory; and
(iii) for a Territory other than the Northern Territory—the chief police officer of the Australian Capital Territory; or
(b) a person authorised in writing to act on behalf of that chief police officer in relation to matters to which this Schedule relates.
#### 2. Meaning of certified primary producer
2.1 For this Schedule, a person is a certified primary producer if a relevant police representative certifies, in an approved form, that the person is a primary producer.
#### 3 Meaning of category C article and restricted category C article
3.1 For this Schedule, a category C article is:
(a) a firearm to which item 3 of Part 2 of this Schedule applies (a category C firearm); or
(b) a firearm part, to which item 4 of Part 2 of this Schedule applies, of (or for) a category C firearm.
3.2 For this Schedule, a restricted category C article is any of the following:
(a) a semi‑automatic shotgun, or pump‑action repeating shotgun, to which item 3 of Part 2 of this Schedule applies (a restricted category C firearm);
(b) a firearm part, to which item 4 of Part 2 of this Schedule applies, of (or for) a restricted category C firearm.
#### 3AA Meaning of category D article
3AA.1 For this Schedule, a category D article is any of the following:
(a) a firearm to which item 6 of Part 2 of this Schedule applies (a category D firearm);
(b) a firearm part, to which item 7 of Part 2 of this Schedule applies, of (or for) a category D firearm;
(c) a detachable firearm magazine to which item 15 or 16 of Part 2 of this Schedule applies, whether or not fitted to a firearm.
#### 3A. Meaning of category H article
3A.1 For this Schedule, a category H article is:
(a) a firearm mentioned in item 9 of Part 2 (other than a firearm that was manufactured before 1 January 1900); or
(b) a frame or receiver mentioned in item 9B of Part 2 (other than a frame or receiver that was manufactured before 1 January 1900); or
(c) a firearm part covered by item 10 of Part 2; or
(d) a firearm accessory covered by item 13B of Part 2; or
(e) a firearm magazine covered by item 17 of Part 2.
#### 4. Meaning of certified buyer
4.1 For this Schedule, a person is a certified buyer, for a category C or category D article, if the Minister certifies, in writing, that the Minister is satisfied that:
(a) the person intends to buy the article from a licensed firearm dealer; and
(b) the article is for the purposes of the government of the Commonwealth, or a State or Territory; and
(c) the government will retain ownership of the article after buying it.
4.2 For this Schedule, a person is also a certified buyer, for a category C or category D article, if the Minister certifies, in writing, that the Minister is satisfied that:
(a) the person intends to buy the article from a licensed firearm dealer; and
(b) the person’s occupation is partly or wholly the business of controlling vertebrate pest animals; and
(c) the person holds a licence or authorisation, in accordance with the law of the State or Territory where the person will carry out the occupation, to possess the article for the purpose of the person’s occupation.
4.3 For this Schedule, a person is a certified buyer, for a category H article, if:
(a) the Secretary of the Department:
(i) is satisfied of the matters mentioned in subitem 4.4 in relation to the person and the article; and
(ii) certifies that the person is a certified buyer for the category H article; or
(b) a relevant police representative:
(i) is satisfied of the matters mentioned in subitem 4.5 in relation to the person and the article; and
(ii) certifies, in an approved form, that the person is a certified buyer for the category H article.
4.4 For subparagraph 4.3(a)(i), the matters are as follows:
(a) the person intends to buy the article from a licensed firearm dealer;
(b) the article is for the purposes of the government of the Commonwealth;
(c) the government will retain ownership of the article after buying it.
4.5 For subparagraph 4.3(b)(i), the matters are as follows:
(a) the person intends to buy the article from a licensed firearm dealer;
(b) the article is for the purposes of the government of the relevant State or Territory;
(c) the government will retain ownership of the article after buying it.
#### 5. Meaning of licensed firearm dealer
5.1 For this Schedule, a person is a licensed firearm dealer, for a category C, category D or category H article, if the person:
(a) carries on the business of a firearm dealer; and
(b) holds a licence or authorisation, in accordance with the law of the State or Territory where the person carries on the business, to possess the article and sell or dispose of it, or deal with it for other commercial purposes, in the course of the business.
#### 6. Meaning of certified for business or occupational purposes
6.1 For this Schedule, a person is certified for business or occupational purposes, for a category H article, if a relevant police representative:
(a) is satisfied that the person meets the requirements, under the law of the relevant State or Territory, to possess the article for business or occupational purposes (other than for the purposes of being a firearm collector or firearm dealer); and
(b) certifies, in an approved form, that the person is a person certified for business or occupational purposes for the category H article.
#### 7. Meaning of certified collector
7.1 For this Schedule, a person is a certified collector, for a category H article, if a relevant police representative:
(a) is satisfied that the person is a licensed collector, in accordance with the law of the relevant State or Territory; and
(b) certifies, in an approved form, that the person is a certified collector for the category H article.
#### 8 Meaning of sanctioned activity
In this Schedule, sanctioned activity means:
(a) an activity approved in writing by any of the following:
(i) a Service Chief of the Australian Defence Force;
(ii) a Deputy Secretary of the Department administered by the Defence Minister; or
(b) an activity approved in writing by any of the following:
(i) the Commissioner of the Australian Federal Police;
(ii) the Deputy Commissioner of the Australian Federal Police;
(iii) the Commissioner of the police force of a State or Territory;
(iv) a Deputy Commissioner of the police force of a State or Territory;
(v) the Secretary of the Department administered by the Minister;
(vi) a Deputy Secretary of that Department.
Schedule 7—Articles of glazed ceramic ware, methods of testing and permissible levels of metal release
(regulation 4E)
| Column 1 | Column 2 | Column 3 | Column 4 | Column 5 |
| -------- | -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- | -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- | ------------------------------------- | ---------------------------------------- |
| Item | Description of Article | Method of testing | Amount of lead per volume of solution | Amount of cadmium per volume of solution |
| | | | milligrams per litre | milligrams per litre |
| 1 | Cup, mug, jug, jar, bowl, teapot, coffee pot or other article of tableware (other than an article referred to in Item 3) having a liquid capacity of less than 1100 millilitres. | Method specified and described in paragraph 4 (other than subparagraph 4.1) of Part 1 of British Standard 4860 published on 31 October 1972. | 7.0 | 0.7 |
| 2 | Cup, mug, jug, jar, bowl, teapot, coffee pot or other article of tableware (other than an article referred to in Item 3) having a liquid capacity equal to or in excess of 1100 millilitres. | Method specified and described in paragraph 4 (other than subparagraph 4.1) of Part 1 of British Standard 4860 published on 31 October 1972. | 2.0 | 0.2 |
| 3 | Plate (including soup plate or dessert plate), saucer, or similar article of tableware. | Method specified and described in paragraph 4 (other than subparagraph 4.1) of Part 1 of British Standard 4860 published on 31 October 1972. | 20.0 | 2.0 |
| 4 | Any article of cooking ware. | Method specified and described in paragraph 4 (other than subparagraph 4.1) of Part 2 of British Standard 4860 published on 31 October 1972. | 7.0 | 0.7 |
Schedule 7A—Substances the importation of which is prohibited if permission is not granted under regulation 5G
(regulation 5G)
| Item | Substance |
| ---- | ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- |
| 1A | Anabolic or androgenic substances |
| 1 | Erythropoietin |
| 2 | Natural and manufactured gonadotrophins, including menotrophins, Follicle Stimulating Hormone, Luteinising Hormone and Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin |
| 3 | Natural and manufactured growth hormones, including somatropin, somatrem, somatomedins and insulin‑like growth factors (not insulins) and growth hormone releasing hormones (somatorelin and synthetic analogues) |
| 4 | Darbepoetin alfa |
Schedule 8—Goods the importation of which is prohibited if permission is not granted under regulation 5H
(regulation 5H(2))
| Item | Description of Goods |
| ---- | ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ |
| 1 | Abortifacients, that is, substances that purport to produce abortion. |
| 3 | Aminophenazone (aminopyrine) (4‑dimethylamino‑2, 3‑dimethyl‑1‑phenyl 3‑pyrazolin‑5‑one), derivatives of aminophenazone (aminopyrine) (4‑dimethylamino‑2, 3‑dimethyl‑1‑phenyl‑3‑pyrazolin‑5‑one) (including dipyrone) and preparations containing aminophenazone (aminopyrine) (4‑dimethylamino‑2, 3‑dimethyl‑1‑phenyl‑3‑pyrazolin‑5‑one) or derivatives of aminophenazone (aminopyrine) (4‑dimethylamino‑2, 3‑dimethyl‑1‑phenyl‑3‑pyrazolin‑5‑one) (including dipyrone). |
| 4 | Aphrodisiacs, that is to say, cantharides, cantharidin and yohimbine, preparations containing cantharides, cantharidin or yohimbine, and any other substance or preparation that is, or is likely to be, productive, or is capable of being converted into a substance that is, or is likely to be, productive, of effects substantially of the same character or nature as, or analogous to, those produced by cantharides, cantharidin or yohimbine. |
| 5 | Bithionol (2, 2‑thiobis (4, 6‑dichlorophenol)) and preparations containing bithionol (2, 2‑thiobis (4, 6‑dichlorophenol)). |
| 6 | 5‑bromo‑4‑chlorosalicylanilide and preparations containing 5‑bromo‑4‑chlorosalicylanilide. |
| 7 | Buniodyl sodium (bunamiodyl) (3‑butyramido‑a‑ethyl‑2, 4, 6‑triiodocinnamic acid sodium salt) and preparations containing buniodyl sodium (bunamiodyl) (3‑butyramido‑a‑ethyl‑2, 4, 6‑triiodocinnamic acid sodium salt). |
| 8 | Cinchophen methyl ester (methyl‑2‑phenylcinchoninate) and preparations containing cinchophen methyl ester (methyl‑2‑phenylcinchoninate). |
| 9 | Fenticlor (2, 2‑thiobis (4‑chlorophenol)) and preparations containing fenticlor (2, 2‑thiobis (4‑chlorophenol)). |
| 10 | Food, drink and oral medicine for human consumption and preparations (including essences and extracts) used in the manufacture of food, drink or oral medicine for human consumption that contain calamus or oil of calamus. |
| 12 | (2‑Isopropyl‑4‑pentenoyl) urea and preparations containing (2‑isopropyl‑4‑pentenoyl) urea. |
| 12AA | Laetrile and preparations containing laetrile. |
| 14 | 3, 3, 4, 5‑Tetrachlorosalicylanilide and preparations containing 3, 3, 4, 5‑tetrachlorosalicylanilide. |
| 16 | Triparanol and preparations containing triparanol. |
Schedule 9—Goods, being certain organochlorine chemicals, the importation of which is prohibited unless permission is granted under regulation 5I
(regulation 5I)
| Item | Common name | CAS Registry Number |
| ---- | ------------------------- | -------------------- |
| 1 | aldrin (HHDN) | 309‑00‑2 |
| 2 | HCH (mixed isomers) (BHC) | 608‑73‑1 |
| 3 | lindane (‑BHC, ‑HCH) | 58‑89‑9 |
| 4 | chlordane | 57‑74‑9 |
| 5 | DDT (pp’‑DDT) | 50‑29‑3 |
| 6 | dieldrin (HEOD) | 60‑57‑1 |
| 7 | endrin | 72‑20‑8 |
| 8 | heptachlor | 76‑44‑8 |
| 9 | hexachlorobenzene (HCB) | 118‑74‑1 |
| 10 | methoxychlor | 72‑43‑5 |
| 11 | oxychlordane | 26880‑48‑827304‑13‑8 |
| 12 | mirex | 2385‑85‑5 |
| 13 | toxaphene (camphechlor) | 8000‑35‑2 |
Schedule 11—Chemical compounds
(regulation 5J)
## Part 1—Interpretation
1. In Parts 2, 3 and 4, a reference to a group of dialkylated chemicals, followed in parentheses by a list of alkyl groups, includes all possible combinations of the alkyl groups.
2. In Parts 2, 3 and 4, references to O‑alkyl (≤ C10, including cycloalkyl) compounds include compounds in which the alkyl group is a saturated ring system (cycloalkyl group) or contains one or more saturated ring systems (cycloalkyl groups).
3. In Parts 2, 3 and 4, references to the terms ‘alkyl’, ‘cycloalkyl’, ‘alkylated’, ‘Me’ (methyl), ‘Et’ (ethyl), ‘n‑Pr’ (n‑propyl) and ‘i‑Pr’ (iso‑propyl) (other than references to which item 2 of Part 2 applies):
(a) are to be read literally; and
(b) do not include any substituted alkyl, cycloalkyl, alkylated, methyl, ethyl, n‑propyl or iso‑propyl groups.
## Part 2—Compounds (Chemical Weapons Convention, Schedule 1)
| Column 1Item | Column 2Chemical compound or group of compounds | Column 3CAS number |
| ------------ | -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- | ------------------ |
| 1 | O‑alkyl (≤ C10, including cycloalkyl) alkyl (Me, Et, n‑Pr or i‑Pr)‑phosphonofluoridates, including: | |
| | (a) Sarin: O‑isopropyl methylphosphonofluoridate; and | 107‑44‑8 |
| | (b) Soman: O‑pinacolyl methylphosphonofluoridate | 96‑64‑0 |
| 2 | O‑alkyl (≤ C10, including cycloalkyl) N, N‑dialkyl (Me, Et, n‑Pr or i‑Pr)‑phosphoramidocyanidates, including: | |
| | (a) Tabun: O‑ethyl N, N‑dimethyl phosphoramidocyanidate | 77‑81‑6 |
| 3 | O‑alkyl (H or ≤ C10, including cycloalkyl) S‑2‑dialkyl (Me, Et, n‑Pr or i‑ Pr)‑aminoethyl alkyl (Me, Et, n‑Pr or i‑Pr) phosphonothiolates and corresponding alkylated and protonated salts, including: | |
| | (a) VX: O‑ethyl S‑2‑diisopropylaminoethyl methylphosphonothiolate | 50782‑69‑9 |
| 4 | The following sulphur mustards: | |
| | (a) 2‑chloroethylchloro‑methylsulphide | 2625‑76‑5 |
| | (b) Mustard Gas (H): bis (2‑chloroethyl) sulphide | 505‑60‑2 |
| | (c) bis (2‑chloroethylthio) methane | 63869‑13‑6 |
| | (d) Sesquimustard: 1,2‑bis (2‑chloroethylthio) ethane | 3563‑36‑8 |
| | (e) 1,3‑bis (2‑ chloroethylthio)‑n‑propane | 63905‑10‑2 |
| | (f) 1,4‑bis (2‑chloroethylthio)‑n‑butane | 142868‑93‑7 |
| | (g) 1,5‑bis (2‑chloroethylthio)‑n‑pentane | 142868‑94‑8 |
| | (h) bis (2‑chloroethylthiomethyl) ether | 63918‑90‑1 |
| | (i) O‑Mustard (T): bis (2‑chloroethylthioethyl) ether | 63918‑89‑8 |
| 5 | The following Lewisites: | |
| | (a) Lewisite 1: 2‑chlorovinyldichloroarsine | 541‑25‑3 |
| | (b) Lewisite 2: bis (2‑chlorovinyl) chloroarsine | 40334‑69‑8 |
| | (c) Lewisite 3: tris (2‑chlorovinyl) arsine | 40334‑70‑1 |
| 6 | The following nitrogen mustards: | |
| | (a) HN1: bis (2‑chloroethyl) ethylamine | 538‑07‑8 |
| | (b) HN2: bis (2‑chloroethyl) methylamine | 51‑75‑2 |
| | (c) HN3: tris (2‑chloroethyl) amine | 555‑77‑1 |
| 7 | Saxitoxin | 35523‑89‑8 |
| 8 | Ricin | 9009‑86‑3 |
| 9 | Alkyl (Me, Et, n‑Pr or i‑Pr) phosphonyl difluorides, including: | |
| | (a) DF: methylphosphonyl difluoride; and | 676‑99‑3 |
| | (b) ethyl phosphonyl difluoride | 753‑98‑0 |
| 10 | O‑alkyl (H or ≤ C10, including cycloalkyl) O‑2‑dialkyl (Me, Et, n‑Pr or i‑Pr)‑aminoethyl alkyl (Me, Et, n‑Pr or i‑Pr) phosphonites and corresponding alkylated and protonated salts, including: | |
| | (a) QL: O‑ethyl O‑2‑diisopropylaminoethyl methylphosphonite | 57856‑11‑8 |
| 11 | Chlorosarin: O‑isopropyl methylphosphonochloridate | 1445‑76‑7 |
| 12 | Chlorosoman: O‑pinacolyl methylphosphonochloridate | 7040‑57‑5 |
| 13 | Р‑alkyl (H or ≤ C10, including cycloalkyl) N‑(1‑(dialkyl (≤ C10, including cycloalkyl) amino)) alkylidene (H or ≤ C10, including cycloalkyl) phosphonamidic fluorides and corresponding alkylated or protonated salts, including: | |
| | (a) N‑(1‑(di‑n‑decylamino)‑n‑decylidene)‑P‑decylphosphonamidic fluoride; and | 2387495‑99‑8 |
| | (b) methyl‑(1‑(diethylamino) ethylidene) phosphonamidofluoridate | 2387496‑12‑8 |
| 14 | O‑alkyl (H or ≤ C10, including cycloalkyl) N‑(1‑(dialkyl (≤ C10, including cycloalkyl) amino)) alkylidene (H or ≤ C10, including cycloalkyl) phosphoramidofluoridates and corresponding alkylated or protonated salts, including: | |
| | (a) O‑n‑Decyl N‑(1‑(di‑n‑decylamino)‑n‑decylidene) phosphoramidofluoridate; and | 2387496‑00‑4 |
| | (b) methyl (1‑(diethylamino) ethylidene) phosphoramidofluoridate; and | 2387496‑04‑8 |
| | (c) ethyl (1‑(diethylamino) ethylidene) phosphoramidofluoridate | 2387496‑06‑0 |
| 15 | Methyl‑(bis (diethylamino) methylene) phosphonamidofluoridate | 2387496‑14‑0 |
| 16 | The following carbamates: | |
| | (a) the following quaternaries of dimethylcarbamoyloxypyridines: 1‑[N,N‑dialkyl (≤ C10)‑N‑(n‑(hydroxyl, cyano, acetoxy) alkyl (≤ C10)) ammonio]‑n‑[N‑(3‑dimethylcarbamoxy‑α‑picolinyl)‑N,N‑dialkyl (≤ C10) ammonio] decane dibromide (n=1‑8), including: | |
| | (i) 1‑[N,N‑dimethyl‑N‑(2‑hydroxy) ethylammonio]‑10‑[N‑(3‑dimethylcarbamoxy‑α‑picolinyl)‑N,N‑dimethylammonio] decane dibromide | 77104‑62‑2 |
| | (b) the following bisquaternaries of dimethylcarbamoyloxypyridines: 1, n‑Bis [N‑(3‑dimethylcarbamoxy‑α‑picolyl)‑N,N‑dialkyl (≤ C10) ammonio]‑alkane‑(2,(n‑1)‑dione) dibromide (n=2‑12), including: | |
| | (i) 1,10‑Bis[N‑(3‑dimethylcarbamoxy‑α‑picolyl)‑N‑ethyl‑N‑methylammonio] decane‑2,9‑dione dibromide | 77104‑00‑8 |
## Part 3—Compounds (Chemical Weapons Convention, Schedule 2)
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<table cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0" style="width:100%; border-collapse:collapse"><thead><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-top:1.5pt solid #000000; border-bottom:1.5pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="TableHeading"><span>Column 1</span></p><p class="TableHeading"><span>Item</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="border-top:1.5pt solid #000000; border-bottom:1.5pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="TableHeading"><span>Column 2</span></p><p class="TableHeading"><span>Chemical compound or group of compounds</span></p></td><td style="width:18.9%; border-top:1.5pt solid #000000; border-bottom:1.5pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="TableHeading"><span>Column 3</span></p><p class="TableHeading"><span>CAS number</span></p></td></tr></thead><tbody><tr><td colspan="5" style="border-top:1.5pt solid #000000; border-bottom:1.5pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="TableHeading"><span>A. Toxic chemicals</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-top:1.5pt solid #000000; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>1</span></p></td><td colspan="2" style="border-top:1.5pt solid #000000; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>Amiton: O,O</span><span>‑</span><span>diethyl S</span><span>‑</span><span>[2</span><span>‑</span><span>(diethylamino) ethyl] phosphorothiolate and corresponding alkylated and protonated salts.</span></p></td><td colspan="2" style="border-top:1.5pt solid #000000; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>78–53–5</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>2</span></p></td><td colspan="2" style="border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>PFIB: 1,1,3,3,3</span><span>‑</span><span>pentafluoro</span><span>‑</span><span>2</span><span>‑</span><span>(trifluoromethyl)</span><span>‑</span><br><span>1</span><span>‑</span><span>propene</span></p></td><td colspan="2" style="border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>382–21–8</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:1.5pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>3</span></p></td><td colspan="2" style="border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:1.5pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>BZ: 3</span><span>‑</span><span>quinuclidinyl benzilate</span></p></td><td colspan="2" style="border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:1.5pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>6581–06–2</span></p></td></tr><tr><td colspan="5" style="border-top:1.5pt solid #000000; border-bottom:1.5pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="TableHeading"><span>B. Precursors</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-top:1.5pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>4</span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; border-top:1.5pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>Chemicals, except for those mentioned in Part</span><span> </span><span>2, containing a phosphorus atom to which is bonded one methyl, ethyl or propyl (normal or iso) group but not further carbon atoms, including:</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="border-top:1.5pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tablea"><span>(a) methylphosphonyl dichloride</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>676–97–1</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tablea"><span>(b) diethyl ethylphosphonate (phosphonic acid, ethyl</span><span>‑</span><span>, diethyl ester)</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>78–38–6</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tablea"><span>(c) methylphosphonic acid (phosphonic acid, methyl)</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>993–13–5</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tablea"><span>(d) dimethyl methylphosphonate (phosphonic acid, methyl</span><span>‑</span><span>, dimethyl ester)</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>756–79–6</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tablea"><span>(e) phosphonic acid, methyl</span><span>‑</span><span>, compounded with (aminoiminomethyl) urea (1:1)</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>84402–58–4</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>but not including Fonofos: O</span><span>‑</span><span>ethyl S</span><span>‑</span><span>phenyl ethylphosphonothiolothionate</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>944–22–9</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>5</span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>N,N</span><span>‑</span><span>Dialkyl (Me, Et, n</span><span>‑</span><span>Pr or i</span><span>‑</span><span>Pr) phosphoramidic dihalides, including:</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tablea"><span>(a) N,N</span><span>‑</span><span>Dimethyl phosphoramidic dichloride</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>677–43–0</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>6</span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>Dialkyl (Me, Et, n</span><span>‑</span><span>Pr or i</span><span>‑</span><span>Pr) N,N</span><span>‑</span><span>dialkyl (Me, Et, n</span><span>‑</span><span>Pr or i</span><span>‑</span><span>Pr)</span><span>‑</span><span>phosphoramidates, including:</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tablea"><span>(a) Diethyl N,N</span><span>‑</span><span>Dimethylphosphoramidate</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>2404–03–7</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>7</span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>Arsenic trichloride (arsenous trichloride)</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>7784–34–1</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>8</span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>2,2</span><span>‑</span><span>Diphenyl</span><span>‑</span><span>2</span><span>‑</span><span>hydroxyacetic acid (benzilic acid)</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>76–93–7</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>9</span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>Quinuclidine</span><span>‑</span><span>3</span><span>‑</span><span>ol</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>1619–34–7</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>10</span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>N,N</span><span>‑</span><span>Dialkyl (Me, Et, n</span><span>‑</span><span>Pr or i</span><span>‑</span><span>Pr) aminoethyl</span><span>‑</span><span>2</span><span>‑</span><span>chlorides and corresponding protonated salts, including:</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tablea"><span>(a) N,N</span><span>‑</span><span>diethylaminoethyl</span><span>‑</span><span>2</span><span>‑</span><span>chloride, hydrochloride</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>869–24–9</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tablea"><span>(b) N,N</span><span>‑</span><span>diethylaminoethyl</span><span>‑</span><span>2</span><span>‑</span><span>chloride</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>100</span><span>‑</span><span>35</span><span>‑</span><span>6</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tablea"><span>(c) N,N</span><span>‑</span><span>diisopropyl</span><span>‑</span><span>2</span><span>‑</span><span>aminoethyl</span><span>‑</span><span>2</span><span>‑</span><span>chloride hydrochloride</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>4261–68–1</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext" style="page-break-after:avoid"><span>11</span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>N,N</span><span>‑</span><span>Dialkyl (Me, Et, n</span><span>‑</span><span>Pr or i</span><span>‑</span><span>Pr) aminoethane</span><span>‑</span><span>2</span><span>‑</span><span>ols and corresponding protonated salts, including:</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tablea"><span>(a) 2</span><span>‑</span><span>diisopropylaminoethanol</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>96–80–0</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>but not including:</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tablea"><span>(b) N,N</span><span>‑</span><span>dimethylaminoethanol and corresponding protonated salts</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>108–01–0</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tablea"><span>(c) N,N</span><span>‑</span><span>diethylaminoethanol and corresponding protonated salts</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>100–37–8</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>12</span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>N,N</span><span>‑</span><span>Dialkyl (Me, Et, n</span><span>‑</span><span>Pr or i</span><span>‑</span><span>Pr) aminoethane</span><span>‑</span><span>2</span><span>‑</span><span>thiols and corresponding protonated salts, including:</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tablea"><span>(a) N,N</span><span>‑</span><span>dimethylaminoethane</span><span>‑</span><span>2</span><span>‑</span><span>thiol hydrochloride</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>13242–44–9</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span></span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tablea"><span>(b) N,N</span><span>‑</span><span>diisopropylaminoethane</span><span>‑</span><span>2</span><span>‑</span><span>thiol hydrochloride</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>41480</span><span>‑</span><span>75</span><span>‑</span><span>5</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>13</span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>Thiodiglycol</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:0.75pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>111–48–8</span></p></td></tr><tr><td style="width:15.94%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:1.5pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>14</span></p></td><td style="width:64.76%; border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:1.5pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>Pinacolyl alcohol: 3,3</span><span>‑</span><span>dimethylbutan</span><span>‑</span><span>2</span><span>‑</span><span>ol (2</span><span>‑</span><span>butanol, 3,3</span><span>‑</span><span>dimethyl</span><span>‑</span><span>)</span></p></td><td colspan="3" style="border-top:0.75pt solid #000000; border-bottom:1.5pt solid #000000; padding-right:5.4pt; padding-left:5.4pt; vertical-align:top"><p class="Tabletext"><span>464–07–3</span></p></td></tr><tr style="height:0pt"><td style="width:68pt"></td><td style="width:276.15pt"></td><td style="width:0.85pt"></td><td style="width:0.85pt"></td><td style="width:80.6pt"></td></tr></tbody></table>
```
## Part 4—Compounds (Chemical Weapons Convention, Schedule 3)
| Column 1Item | Column 2Chemical compound or group of compounds | Column 3CAS number |
| ------------ | ------------------------------------------------------- | ------------------ |
| 1 | Phosgene (carbonyl dichloride) | 75–44–5 |
| 2 | Cyanogen chloride | 506–77–4 |
| 3 | Hydrogen cyanide (hydrocyanic acid) | 74–90–8 |
| 4 | Chloropicrin (trichloronitromethane) | 76–06–02 |
| 5 | Phosphorus oxychloride (phosphoryl chloride) | 10025–87–3 |
| 6 | Phosphorus trichloride | 7719–12–2 |
| 7 | Phosphorus pentachloride (phosphorane, pentachloro) | 10026–13–8 |
| 8 | Trimethyl phosphite (phosphorous acid, trimethyl ester) | 121–45–9 |
| 9 | Triethyl phosphite (phosphorous acid, triethyl ester) | 122–52–1 |
| 10 | Dimethyl phosphite (phosphonic acid, dimethyl ester) | 868–85–9 |
| 11 | Diethyl phosphite (phosphonic acid, diethyl ester) | 762–04–9 |
| 12 | Sulphur monochloride (sulfur chloride—S2Cl2) | 10025–67–9 |
| 13 | Sulphur dichloride (sulfur chloride—SCl2) | 10545–99–0 |
| 14 | Thionyl chloride | 7719–09–7 |
| 15 | Ethyldiethanolamine | 139–87–7 |
| 16 | Methyldiethanolamine | 105–59–9 |
| 17 | Triethanolamine | 102–71–6 |
Schedule 12—Goods the importation of which is prohibited without permission under regulation 4U
(subregulation 4U(1))
| Item | Description of Goods |
| ---- | ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- |
| 1 | Glucomannan in tablet form |
| 2 | Goods known as ‘Klunk Klip’, ‘Comfix’ and ‘Auto Comfort’ seat belt accessories and similar goods that are designed to induce and maintain slack in retractor seat belts |
| 3 | Goods known as ‘Autotrend Sun Filter’ and similar goods that do not comply with Australian Design Rule No. 11 for internal sun visors |
| 4 | Toys that have been marketed under the following names:(a) ‘Skateboard Smackup’ or ‘Skateboard Smackups’;(b) ‘Garbage Pail Kids’;(c) ‘Krazy Kookie Balls’;(d) ‘Weird Balls’;(e) ‘Foul Ball’;(f) ‘Mad Ball’ or ‘Mad Balls’;(g) ‘Trash Head Spitballs’;(h) ‘Gross Out Grunkies’;(i) ‘Kuddlee Uglee’;(j) ‘Super Dough Squeezers’;(k) ‘Rude Ralph’ or ‘Rude Ralph Gang’ |
| 6 | An underwater breathing apparatus known as ‘Diveman’ or similar devices consisting of an air pump, powered by the user’s legs, that supplies air drawn down from the water’s surface to the user in a compressed state dependent on the user’s effort |
| 7 | A device to enable a water skier to be released quickly in the event of a mishap in the water, and marketed under the name of ‘QUICKIE Line Release’ |
| 9 | Candles with wicks that contain greater than 0.06% lead by weight |
| 10 | Candle wicks containing greater than 0.06% lead by weight |
| 11 | A jelly confectionery product that:(a) contains the ingredient ‘konjac’ (also known as glucomannan, conjac, konnyaku, konjonac, taro powder and yam flour); and(b) is supplied in a container that has a height or width of less than or equal to 45mm;including a product marketed using the expression ‘mini‑cup’. |
Schedule 13—Requirements for the importation of certain weapons and weapon parts
(regulation 4H)
## Part 1—Tests
A reference in column 3 of Part 2 of this Schedule to compliance with a test means compliance in the following manner:
> Note: The public safety test for weapons may be applied to goods in addition to the tests in this Part. If the importation of the goods fails the public safety test for weapons, the importation of the goods will be prohibited unless the Minister gives written permission for the importation of the goods under the public interest test or the national interest test in this Part (see subregulation 4H(1A)).
#### 1 Official purposes test
1.1 The importation of a good complies with the official purposes test if, at or before importation, the Minister or an authorised person gives written permission under this item for the importation of the good.
1.2 The Minister or an authorised person may give written permission for the importation of the good only if the Minister or authorised person is satisfied that:
(a) the good is to be imported for the purposes of:
(i) the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory; or
(ii) export under a contract to a government of a foreign country, in compliance with the Act (including any regulations or other instruments made under the Act); and
(b) the ownership arrangements for the good are, or will be, in accordance with subitem 1.5; and
(c) if the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess the good in the State or Territory in which the good is to be used—the importer holds a licence or authorisation of that kind.
1.3 If an authorised person forms an opinion that the permission should not be granted:
(a) the authorised person must refer the application to the Minister; and
(b) the Minister may grant, or refuse to grant, the permission under subitem 1.2.
1.4 For paragraph 1.2(a), examples of a good the importation of which is for the purposes of the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory are:
(a) a good to be supplied to the government under a contract in force when the good is to be imported; and
(aa) a good that is to be imported by a person for the purposes of supplying the good to another person to enable that other person to supply the good to the government under a contract in force when the article is to be imported; and
(b) a good to be shown to the government to demonstrate its uses; and
(ba) a good that is to be imported by a person for the purposes of enabling another person to show or demonstrate the good (including as part of another article) to the government:
(i) under a contract or proposed contract; or
(ii) as part of a tender process; and
(c) a good that the government proposes to inspect, test or evaluate; and
(d) a good that the government proposes to use for training; and
(e) a good that has been given or donated to the government; and
(f) a good that is to be consumed or destroyed in the course of testing related to a contract with the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory.
1.5 For paragraph 1.2(b), the ownership arrangements for a good are set out in the following table:
| Item | Article | Ownership arrangements |
| ---- | -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- | --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- |
| 1 | A good that is to be supplied to the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory under a contract | The article may be owned by any person. |
| 2 | A good that:(a) is to be shown to the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory to demonstrate its uses; or(b) the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory proposes to inspect, test, evaluate or use for training; or | The good may be owned by any personNote: See item 1 of Part 3 of this Schedule |
| | (c) is to be consumed or destroyed in the course of testing related to a contract with the government; or(d) is to be exhibited at a museum by the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory | |
| 3 | A good that has been given or donated to the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory | All of the following:(a) the good must have been given or donated to the government before importation;(b) the government must own the good at the time of importation;(c) the government must retain ownership of the good until:(i) the article is disposed of to another such government, or to the government of a foreign country; or(ii) the good is destroyed. |
| 4 | Any other good imported for the purposes of the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory | The government must:(a) own the good at the time of importation; and(b) retain ownership of the good until:(i) the good is disposed of to another such government, or to the government of a foreign country; or(ii) the good is destroyed. |
| 5 | A good that is to be exported under a contract to the government of a foreign country | The government of the foreign country must:(a) either:(i) own the good at the time of importation; or(ii) intend to acquire ownership of the article within a period that the Minister or an authorised person considers appropriate (to be specified in the permission); and(b) retain ownership of the good until:(i) the good is disposed of to the government of another foreign country, or to the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory; or(ii) the good is destroyed. |
Note: See item 1 of Part 3.
#### 2 Specified purposes test
2.1 The importation of a good complies with the specified purposes test if, at or before importation, the Minister or an authorised person gives written permission under this item for the importation of the good.
2.2 The Minister or authorised person may give written permission for the importation of the good only if the Minister or authorised person is satisfied that:
(a) the good is to be imported in the following circumstances:
(i) the good is of a type not available in Australia;
(ii) the good is to be imported for use in connection with the production of a film;
(iii) the good is not being imported for use in an advertisement, a music video or another type of film promoting music or a product;
(iv) if the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess the good in the State or Territory in which the good is to be used—the importer holds a licence or authorisation of that kind; or
(b) the good is ammunition or a component of ammunition (other than ammunition or a component of ammunition mentioned in Schedule 6) to be imported in the following circumstances:
(i) the ammunition, or the component of ammunition, is to be imported as part of a contract to which a person in Australia is a party;
(ii) the person made the contract with the intention of supplying the ammunition, or the component of ammunition, to a person outside Australia, in a manner that will not contravene Australia’s international obligations;
(iii) the contract will be in force when the ammunition, or the component of ammunition, is to be imported;
(iv) if the exportation of the ammunition, or the component of ammunition, after its importation would be prohibited without a permission under regulation 13E of the Customs (Prohibited Exports) Regulations 1958—such a permission has been granted, or a person who may grant such a permission has stated, in writing, that such a permission will be granted; or
(c) the good is to be imported in the following circumstances:
(i) the good is to be imported for repairs, modification or testing, or for use in training, manufacture, assembly, research or development, in a State or Territory;
(ii) the good is to be imported under a contract in force with:
(A) the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory; or
(B) the government of a foreign country; or
(C) the United Nations;
(iii) if the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess the good in the State or Territory where the good is to be repaired, modified or tested, or used in training, manufacture, assembly, research or development—the imported holds a licence or authorisation of that kind;
(iv) if the exportation of the good after such repair, modification, testing or use has been carried out would be prohibited without a permission under regulation 13E of the Customs (Prohibited Exports) Regulations 1958—such a permission has been granted, or a person who may grant such a permission has stated, in writing, that such a permission will be granted; or
(d) the good is a flamethrower, or similar device, of a kind mentioned in item 46 of Part 2 of this Schedule, or a part mentioned in item 47 of that Part, to be imported in the following circumstances:
(i) either:
(A) for use in an entertainment production or performance approved by the State or Territory in which the good is to be used; or
(B) for the purpose of fire prevention or fire control activities approved by the State or Territory in which the good is to be used;
(ii) if the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess the good in the State or Territory in which the good is to be used—the importer holds a licence or authorisation of that kind; or
(e) the good is to be imported in the following circumstances:
(i) the good is to be imported for use in a sanctioned activity;
(ii) the good is owned by the defence force or a law enforcement agency of a foreign country;
(iii) the good is to be imported by the defence force or law enforcement agency that owns the good, or a member of that defence force or law enforcement agency to whom the good has been issued;
(iv) the defence force or law enforcement agency has been invited to participate in the sanctioned activity;
(v) if the exportation of the good after the close of the sanctioned activity would be prohibited without a permission under regulation 13E of the Customs (Prohibited Exports) Regulations 1958—such a permission has been granted, or a person who may grant such a permission has stated, in writing, that such a permission will be granted; or
(f) the good is to be imported in the following circumstances:
(i) the importer’s principal or sole occupation is the business of researching or developing weapons technology or other defence and law enforcement related products;
(iii) if the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess the good for research or development purposes in the State or Territory in which the good is to be used—the importer holds a licence or authorisation of that kind;
(iv) the good:
(A) is being imported for the completion of a specific project or tender involving the government of the Commonwealth, a State or Territory; and
(B) will be allowed to remain in the country for a specified period of time, commensurate with that project or tender; and
(C) will be sold to a certified buyer or to the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory, exported or destroyed once that period of time has expired;
(v) if the exportation of the good after its use in such research or development would be prohibited without a permission under regulation 13E of the Customs (Prohibited Exports) Regulations 1958—such a permission has been granted, or a person who may grant such a permission has stated, in writing, that such a permission will be granted;
(vi) the Minister or authorised person is satisfied that the good will be secured appropriately in Australia.
> Note: Examples of a film for subparagraph 2.2(a)(ii)
a cinematographic film
a film or documentary made specifically for television, DVD or other electronic media
a television program or series.
2.3 If an authorised person forms an opinion that the permission should not be granted:
(a) the authorised person must refer the application to the Minister; and
(b) the Minister may grant, or refuse to grant, the permission under subitem 2.2.
#### 3 Specified person test
3.1 The importation of a good complies with the specified person test if, at or before importation, the Minister or an authorised person gives written permission under this item for the importation of the good.
3.2 The Minister or authorised person may give written permission for the importation of the good only if:
(a) for a good mentioned in item 41 of Part 2 of this Schedule—the Minister or authorised person is satisfied of the following:
(i) the good is imported for use in the importer’s employment;
(ii) if the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess the good in the State or Territory in which the importer is employed—the importer holds a licence or authorisation of that kind;
(iii) the good will be secured appropriately in Australia;
(iv) the quantity imported is for personal use; or
(b) for a good mentioned in item 42 or 43 of Part 2 of this Schedule—the Minister or authorised person is satisfied of the following:
(i) the importer’s principal or only occupation is as a licensed security guard;
(ii) the good is imported for use in the importer’s employment;
(iii) if the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess the good in the State or Territory in which the importer is employed—the importer holds a licence of authorisation of that kind;
(iv) the good will be secured appropriately in Australia;
(v) the quantity imported is for personal use; or
(ba) for a good mentioned in item 41, 42 or 43 of Part 2 of this Schedule—the Minister or authorised person is satisfied of the following:
(i) the importer of the good is a person who has a legitimate use for the good;
(ii) the good will be imported for the use mentioned in subparagraph (i);
(iii) if the good is imported for sale by the importer and the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess and sell the good in the State or Territory in which the importer lives—the importer holds a licence or authorisation of that kind;
(iv) if a person is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess the good in the State or Territory in which the person possesses the good—the good will be sold only to a person who holds the licence or authorisation;
(v) the good will be secured appropriately in Australia; or
(c) for a good mentioned in item 44 of Part 2 of this Schedule—the Minister or authorised person is satisfied of the following:
(i) the importer of the good is a person who has a legitimate use for the good;
(ii) the good will be imported for the use mentioned in subparagraph (i);
(iii) if the good is imported for sale by the importer and the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess and sell the good in the State or Territory in which the importer lives—the importer holds a licence or authorisation of that kind;
(iv) if the good is imported for use by the importer:
(A) the quantity imported is for personal use; and
(B) if the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to use the good in the State or Territory in which the importer lives—the importer holds a licence or authorisation of that kind;
(v) the good will be secured appropriately in Australia; or
(d) for a good mentioned in item 45 of Part 2 of this Schedule (anti‑personnel sprays etc.)—the Minister or authorised person is satisfied of the following:
(i) the good is imported for use by a person that has entered into a contract for the use of the good with the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory;
(ii) the contract is in force;
(iii) if the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess the good in a State or Territory for the purpose of supplying the good to the person—the importer holds a licence or authorisation of that kind;
(iv) if a person is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess or use the good in a State or Territory for the purposes of the contract—the person holds a licence or authorisation of that kind;
(v) the good will be secured appropriately in Australia.
3.3 If an authorised person forms an opinion that the permission should not be granted:
(a) the authorised person must refer the application to the Minister; and
(b) the Minister may grant, or refuse to grant, the permission under subitem 3.2.
#### 4 Dealer test
4.1 The importation of a good complies with the dealer test if, at or before importation, the Minister or an authorised person gives written permission under this item for the importation of the good.
4.2 The Minister or authorised person may give written permission for the importation of the good only if the Minister or authorised person is satisfied that:
(a) if the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to deal in the good in the State or Territory in which the importer lives—the importer holds a licence or authorisation of that kind; and
(b) it is appropriate for the importer to hold the good for stock purposes, having regard to matters including:
(i) the importer’s experience supplying similar goods to the government of the Commonwealth, and the governments of the States and Territories; and
(ii) the importer’s compliance with the laws of those governments relating to dealing in such goods.
4.3 If an authorised person forms an opinion that the permission should not be granted:
(a) the authorised person must refer the application to the Minister; and
(b) the Minister may grant, or refuse to grant, the permission under subitem 4.2.
#### 5 Returned goods test
5.1 The importation of a good complies with the returned goods test if, at or before importation, the Minister or an authorised person gives written permission under this item for the importation of the good.
5.2 The Minister or authorised person may give written permission for the importation of the good only if the Minister or authorised person is satisfied:
(a) that:
(i) the good has previously been exported, and is not currently in Australia; and
(ii) the most recent exportation of the good was in accordance with a permission under regulation 13E of the Customs (Prohibited Exports) Regulations 1958, or the importer has provided written evidence that its most recent exportation was lawful; and
(iii) the last importation (if any) of the good before the export:
(A) was a lawful importation; and
(B) was not subject to a condition that the good was to be exported after importation; and
(iv) the good has not been modified since its most recent exportation; and
(v) if the good was previously exported in a deactivated condition—the good has not been reactivated since the export; and
(vi) if the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess the good in the State or Territory in which the importer lives—the importer holds a licence or authorisation of that kind; or
(b) that:
(i) the good is currently in Australia; and
(ia) if the exportation of the good would be prohibited without a permission under regulation 13E of the Customs (Prohibited Exports) Regulations 1958—such a permission is in force, and the good has not been modified since the permission was granted; and
(ii) if the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess the good in the State or Territory in which the importer lives—the importer holds a licence or authorisation of that kind.
5.3 If an authorised person forms an opinion that the permission should not be granted:
(a) the authorised person must refer the application to the Minister; and
(b) the Minister may grant, or refuse to grant, the permission under subitem 5.2.
5.4 In this item:
> modified does not include repair.
#### 6 Police certification test
6.1 The importation of a good complies with the police certification test if, before the importation of the good, the importer of the good was given a statement, in an approved form, by a relevant police representative (within the meaning of item 1B of Part 4 of Schedule 6) to the effect that:
(a) the importer holds a licence or authorisation according to the law of the relevant State or Territory to possess the good; or
(b) a licence or authorisation to possess the good is not required under the law of the relevant State or Territory.
Note: The importer can produce the statement personally or by an agent, for example a firearm dealer.
6.2 For the purposes of subitem 6.1, a statement made in approved form B709X has no effect in relation to the importation of a good on or after the day this subitem commences (regardless of whether the statement was given to the importer before that day).
> Note: This subitem was inserted by Part 6 of Schedule 2 to the Combatting Antisemitism, Hate and Extremism (Firearms and Customs Laws) Act 2026.
#### 7 Collectors and non‑government museum test
7.1 The importation of a good complies with the collectors and non‑government museum test if, at or before importation, the Minister gives written permission under this item for the importation of the good.
7.2 The Minister or authorised person may give written permission for the importation of the good only if the Minister or authorised person is satisfied of the following:
(a) the good is inert and has been deactivated;
(b) if the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess the good in the State or Territory in which the importer lives—the importer holds a licence or authorisation of that kind;
(c) the good will be secured appropriately in Australia.
7.3 If an authorised person forms an opinion that the permission should not be granted:
(a) the authorised person must refer the application to the Minister; and
(b) the Minister may grant, or refuse to grant, the permission under subitem 7.2.
#### 8 Historical items test
8.1 The importation of a good complies with the historical items test if, at or before importation, the Minister or an authorised person gives written permission under this item for the importation of the good.
8.2 The Minister or authorised person may give written permission for the importation of the good only if the Minister or authorised person is satisfied of the following:
(a) the good has historical significance as a pre‑1900 weapon;
(b) the value and condition of the good would preclude it from being used as a functional weapon;
(c) if the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess the good in the State or Territory in which the importer lives—the importer holds a licence or authorisation of that kind;
(d) the importer is a current member of a historical club or association for goods of the type being imported;
(e) the good will be secured appropriately in Australia.
8.3 If an authorised person forms an opinion that the permission should not be granted:
(a) the authorised person must refer the application to the Minister; and
(b) the Minister may grant, or refuse to grant, the permission under subitem 8.2.
#### 9 Public interest test
9.1 The importation of a good complies with the public interest test if, at or before importation, the Minister gives written permission under this item for the importation of the good.
9.2 The Minister may give written permission for the importation of the good if the Minister is satisfied of the following:
(a) it is in the public interest to allow the good to be imported;
(b) if the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess the good in the State or Territory in which the importer lives—the importer holds a licence or authorisation of that kind;
(c) the good will be secured appropriately in Australia.
#### 10 National interest test
10.1 The importation of a good complies with the national interest test if, at or before importation, the Minister gives written permission under this item for the importation of the good.
10.2 The Minister may give written permission for the importation of the good if the Minister is satisfied of the following:
(a) it is in the national interest to allow the good to be imported;
(b) if the importer is required to hold a licence or authorisation to possess the good in the State or Territory in which the importer lives—the importer holds a licence or authorisation of that kind;
(c) the good will be secured appropriately in Australia.
## Part 2—Requirements for specified weapons and weapon parts
| Item | Weapons and weapon parts | Requirements |
| ---- | --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- | ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- |
| 1 | Any of, or any combination of, the following appliances or equipment that has been designed or adapted for warfare or like purposes other than appliances or equipment that:(a) is modified or decorated by soldiers, prisoners of war or civilians for use as souvenirs or household ornaments (commonly known as Trench Art); and(b) is not able to be restored to its original useDazzle or decoy devicesEquipment designed or adapted for the making of smoke screensExplosives or incendiary materialsFlamethrowersGases, liquids, powders, gels or other substances designed for the purpose of killing or incapacitating persons, and devices or apparatus designed or adapted for use with those goodsGrenades of any type, whether charged or notLarge calibre armament, weapons, launchers, throwers and projectors, whether or not mounted on vehicles, ships or aircraft that are designed for grenades, bombs, rockets or any other missile, ammunition or substance, including the following:(a) cannon;(b) guns, including self‑propelled guns;(c) howitzers;(d) mortars;(e) projectile launchers;(f) recoilless rifles; | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the collectors and non‑government museum test;(e) the returned goods test;(f) the public interest test;(g) the national interest test |
| | (g) tank destroyersMines (whether charged or not)Projectiles, bombs, rockets or any other missile, ammunition (other than ammunition to which Part 2 of Schedule 6 applies) or substance (whether charged or not)Trip flaresParts, accessories and components (other than components of ammunition to which Part 2 of Schedule 6 applies) designed or adapted for, or for use with, any of the goods to which this item applies | |
| 1A | Military vehicles, military aircraft and military vessels within the following categories:(a) battle tanks;(b) armoured combat vehicles;(c) combat aircraft;(d) attack helicopters;(e) warships | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the returned goods test;(d) the collectors and non‑government museum test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test. |
| 2 | Daggers or similar devices, being sharp‑pointed stabbing instruments (not including swords or bayonets):(a) ordinarily capable of concealment on the person; and(b) having:(i) a flat blade with cutting edges (serrated or not serrated) along the length of both sides; or(ii) a needle‑like blade, the cross section of which is elliptical or has three or more sides; and(c) made of any material | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the police certification test |
| 3 | Hand‑held electric devices that are designed to administer an electric shock on contact, other than the following devices:(a) cattle prods designed exclusively for use with animals;(b) hand‑held electronic bug zappers that:(i) are powered by a storage battery capacity not exceeding 6 volts; and(ii) have the electrified grid shielded to prevent contact with the live component | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 4 | Parts (including cartridges) for hand‑held electric devices to which item 3 applies | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 5 | Acoustic anti‑personnel devices that are designed:(a) to cause permanent or temporary incapacity or disability to a person; or(b) to otherwise physically disorientate a person | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 6 | Hand‑held battery‑operated devices designed to discharge a gas or liquid | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 7 | Blow‑guns or blows‑pipes that are capable of projecting a dart, or other devices that consist of a pipe or tube through which a missile in the form of a dart is capable of being projected by:(a) the exhaled breath of the user; or(b) another means other than an explosive | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the police certification test |
| 8 | Darts capable of being projected from:(a) a blow‑gun or blow‑pipe; or(b) another device that consists of a pipe or tube through which a missile in the form of a dart is capable of being projected by:(i) the exhaled breath of the user; or(ii) another means other than an explosive | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the police certification test |
| 9 | Nunchakus or similar devices | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the police certification test |
| 10 | Crossbows or similar devices that, when discharged, are capable of causing:(a) damage to property; or(b) bodily harm;other than toy crossbows | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the police certification test |
| 11 | Parts for crossbows or similar devices to which item 10 applies | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the police certification test |
| 12 | Ballistic knives, being knives that discharge a blade as a projectile by a spring mechanism or other means. | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test. |
| 13 | Parts of ballistic knives described in item 12 | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 14 | Automatic knives that have a blade folded or recessed into the handle which are designed or adapted to open automatically by pressure applied to any spring, device, stud or button in or attached to the handle or blade of the knife, including knives commonly known as flick knives, switchblades or assisted opening knives | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 15 | Parts for automatic knives described in item 14 | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 18 | Knuckle‑dusters or similar devices that can be fitted over the knuckles of the hand of the user:(a) to protect the knuckles; and(b) to increase the effect of a punch or other blow;whether the device has been manufactured for those purposes or adapted for those purposes | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 19 | Gloves, or similar coverings for the hand, incorporating protrusions designed to puncture or bruise the skin | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 20 | Goods incorporating:(a) a concealed knife of any length, made of any material; or(b) a concealed blade of any length, made of any material; or(c) a concealed spike of any length, made of any material | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 21 | Hunting slings, catapults, sling shots or similar devices designed for use with, or a component part of which is:(a) a brace that:(i) fits or rests upon the forearm or upon another part of the body of the user; and(ii) supports the wrist or forearm against the tensions of any material used to propel a projectile; or(b) a tensioning, locking or triggering device, or similar component, designed or adapted to assist in propelling a projectile | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the police certification test |
| 22 | Parts for hunting slings, catapults, sling shots or similar devices described in item 21 | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the police certification test |
| 23 | Star knives or similar devices:(a) consisting of more than one angular point, blade or spike, disposed outwardly about a central axis point; and(b) designed to spin around the central axis point in flight when thrown at a target; and(c) made of any material | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the police certification test. |
| 24 | Sheath knives or similar devices:(a) having a sheath which withdraws into its handle:(i) by inertia, gravity or centrifugal force; or(ii) if pressure is applied to a button, spring or device attached to or forming part of the sheath, handle or blade of the knife; and(b) made of any material | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 25 | Parts for sheath knives or similar devices described in item 24 | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 26 | Push knives or similar devices:(a) designed as weapons that consist of a single‑edged or multi‑edged blade or spike that:(i) has a handle fitted transversely to the blade or spike; and(ii) allows the blade or spike to be supported by the palm of the hand so that stabbing blows or slashes can be inflicted by a punching or pushing action; and(b) made of any material | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 27 | Trench knives or similar devices that consist of a single‑edged or multi‑edged blade or spike:(a) fitted with a handle made of any hard substance that can be fitted over the knuckles of the hand of the user:(i) to protect the knuckles; and(ii) to increase the effect of a punch or blow; and(b) made of any material;whether the device has been manufactured for those purposes or adapted for those purposes | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 28 | Parts for trench knives or similar devices described in item 27 | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 28A | Karambits or similar devices | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 29 | Throwing blades, throwing knives, throwing axes or similar devices:(a) designed or modified to be thrown; and(b) made of any material | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the police certification test |
| 30 | Knives, blades, spikes or similar devices which are neither metallic nor ceramic, other than plastic cutlery | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 31 | Hand or foot claws or similar devices, being goods consisting of claws that are made or modified to be attached to or worn on the hands or feet | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 32 | Weighted gloves or similar goods (including a fingerless glove) consisting of a weighted glove designed or constructed to be used as a weapon | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 33 | Butterfly knives, devices known as ‘balisongs’, or other devices that consist of a single‑edge or multi‑edged blade or spike that:(a) fits within 2 handles attached to the blade or spike by transverse pivot pins; and(b) is capable of being opened by inertia, gravity or centrifugal force | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test. |
| 34 | Parts for butterfly knives, devices known as ‘balisongs’, or other devices described in item 33 | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 35 | Shark darts or similar devices that are designed to expel, on or after contact, a gas or other substance capable of causing bodily harm | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 36 | Parts for shark darts or similar devices described in item 35 | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 37 | Dart projectors known as ‘darchery dartslingers’ or similar devices that are designed to project a dart by means of an elasticised band | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 38 | Parts for dart projectors known as ‘darchery dartslingers’ or similar devices described in item 37 | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(e) the public interest test;(f) the national interest test |
| 39 | Maces or similar goods:(a) capable of causing injury; and(b) consisting of a club or staff fitted with a flanged or spiked head;other than a ceremonial mace made for use solely as a symbol of authority on ceremonial occasions | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(da) the police certification test;(e) the historical items test;(f) the public interest test;(g) the national interest test. |
| 40 | Flails or similar goods consisting of a staff or handle that has fitted to one end, by any means, a freely swinging striking part armed with spikes or studded with any protruding matter | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the dealer test;(d) the returned goods test;(da) the police certification test;(e) the historical items test;(f) the public interest test;(g) the national interest test |
| 41 | Body armour, or any other similar goods:(a) designed for anti‑ballistic or anti‑fragmentation purposes; and(b) designed to be worn on any part of the human body.However, this item does not apply to the following:(a) helmets;(b) anti‑ballistic articles designed for eye or hearing protection;(c) vests or plate carriers with no anti‑ballistic or anti‑fragmentation protection. | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the dealer test;(e) the returned goods test;(ea) the police certification test;(f) the historical items test;(g) the public interest test;(h) the national interest test |
| 42 | Extendable or telescopic batons, or similar devices, designed or adapted so that the length of the baton extends by inertia, gravity, centrifugal force or pressure applied to a button, spring or device in or attached to the handle or baton. | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the dealer test;(e) the returned goods test;(ea) the police certification test;(f) the public interest test;(g) the national interest test |
| 43 | Parts for extendable or telescopic batons, or similar devices, described in item 42 | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the dealer test;(e) the returned goods test;(ea) the police certification test;(f) the public interest test;(g) the national interest test |
| 44 | Hand‑held goods, commonly known as laser pointers, or similar devices, designed or adapted to emit a laser beam with an accessible emission level of greater than 1 mW | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the dealer test;(e) the returned goods test;(ea) the police certification test;(f) the public interest test;(g) the national interest test |
| 45 | Anti‑personnel sprays and chemicals for use in the manufacture of anti‑personnel sprays; grenades or canisters, designed for use with anti‑personnel sprays or anti‑personnel chemicals | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the specified person test;(d) the dealer test;(e) the returned goods test;(f) the public interest test;(g) the national interest test. |
| 46 | Flamethrowers or similar devices (other than those to which item 1 applies), including hand‑held or portable flamethrowers or flame projectors | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the public interest test;(d) the national interest test |
| 47 | Parts for flamethrowers or similar devices to which item 46 applies | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the public interest test;(d) the national interest test |
| 48 | Electromagnetic weapons or similar devices (other than those to which item 1 applies) that:(a) are designed or adapted to propel or launch a substance or other thing by means of electromagnetic force; and(b) when discharged, are capable of causing:(i) damage to property; or(ii) bodily harm | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the national interest test |
| 49 | Parts for electromagnetic weapons or similar devices to which item 48 applies | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the national interest test |
| 50 | Directed energy weapons or similar devices (not including devices to which item 44 applies) that:(a) are designed to damage their target with highly focused energy (including high energy lasers, high power microwaves, particle beams and sound beams) without a solid projectile; and(b) when discharged, are capable of causing:(i) damage to property; or(ii) bodily harm | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the returned goods test;(d) the national interest test |
| 51 | Parts for directed energy weapons or similar devices to which item 50 applies | The importation must comply with at least one of the following tests:(a) the official purposes test;(b) the specified purposes test;(c) the returned goods test;(d) the national interest test |
## Part 3—Conditions relating to the importation of certain weapons and weapon parts
#### 1 Official purposes test
1.1 The importation, in accordance with the official purposes test, of a good to be supplied under a contract to the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory, or exported under a contract to the government of a foreign country, is subject to the condition that the importer must comply with any condition or requirement specified, in relation to the good, in the permission.
1.2 The importation, in accordance with the official purposes test, of a good to be shown to the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory to demonstrate its uses is subject to the following conditions:
(a) unless the good has been destroyed, or the government has acquired ownership of the good within the period, after importation, mentioned in the permission, the importer must export the good as soon as practicable;
(b) the importer must comply with any condition or requirement specified, in relation to the good, in the permission.
1.3 The importation, in accordance with the official purposes test, of a good that the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory proposes to inspect, test or evaluate is subject to the following conditions:
(a) unless the good has been destroyed, or the government has acquired ownership of the good within the period, after importation, mentioned in the permission, the importer must export the good as soon as practicable;
(b) the importer must comply with any condition or requirement specified, in relation to the good, in the permission.
1.4 The importation, in accordance with the official purposes test, of a good that the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory proposes to use for training is subject to the following conditions:
(a) unless the good has been destroyed, or the government has acquired ownership of the good within the period, after importation, mentioned in the permission, the importer must export the good as soon as practicable;
(b) the importer must comply with any condition or requirement specified, in relation to the good, in the permission.
1.5 The importation, in accordance with the official purposes test, of a good that is to be exhibited at a museum by the government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory is subject to the following conditions:
(a) the good must be exported within the period, after importation, mentioned in the permission;
(b) the importer must comply with any condition or requirement specified, in relation to the good, in the permission.
#### 2 Specified purposes test
The importation of a good in accordance with the specified purposes test is subject to the condition that the importer of the good must:
(a) unless the good has been destroyed, export the good within the period, after importation, mentioned in the permission; and
(b) comply with any condition or requirement specified, in relation to the good, in the permission.
#### 3 Dealer test
3.1 The importation of a good in accordance with the dealer test is subject to the condition that the importer must retain possession of the good until the importer disposes of the good by:
(a) selling the good in accordance with subitem 3.2; or
(b) exporting the good in compliance with the Act (including any regulations or other instruments made under the Act); or
(c) destroying the good.
3.2 For paragraph 3.1(a), the good may be sold to any of the following:
(a) a government of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory;
(b) a person with a contract for the sale of the good in force with such a government at the time of transfer of ownership of the good to the person;
(c) a certified buyer for the good.
## Part 4—Interpretation
#### 1 Meaning of authorised person
For this Schedule, authorised person means a person authorised in writing by the Minister for the purposes of this Schedule.
#### 2 Meaning of certified buyer
For this Schedule, a person is a certified buyer, if the Minister or an authorised person certifies, in writing, that the Minister or authorised person is satisfied that:
(a) the person intends to buy the good from a person who is licensed to deal with the good; and
(b) the good is for the purposes of the government of the Commonwealth, or a State or Territory; and
(c) the government will retain ownership of the good after buying it.
#### 3 Meaning of sanctioned activity
In this Schedule, sanctioned activity has the same meaning as in Schedule 6 (see item 8 of Part 4 of that Schedule).