austlii:cth/ARTA/2026/232
General information, not legal advice.
ARTA
2026-02-18
Senior Member P
Original judgment source is linked above.
THE SUBSTANTIVE LAW APPLYING TO THE STAY APPLICATION: THE TAX AGENT DISCLIPINARY REGIME
to ensure that tax agent services are provided to the public in accordance with appropriate standards of professional and ethical conduct.[4]
INVESTIGATORY PROCEDURE, SANCTIONS AND ADMINISTRATIVE REVIEW
Subsection 30-10(1) - Failure to act honestly and with integrity
Subsection 30-10(2) - Failing to comply with the taxation laws in the conduct of personal affairs
Subsection 30-10(8) - Failing to maintain knowledge and skills relevant to the tax agent services that the applicant provides
(a) failing to keep a contemporaneous continuing professional education (CPE) log in line with the respondent's requirements; > > (b) failing to explain how he calculated the CPE hours he recorded in his CPE log; and > > (c) failing to explain how the CPE completed is relevant to the tax agent services he provided.
Subsection 30-10(11) - Knowingly obstructing the proper administration of the taxation laws
(a) providing false and/or misleading information to the Commissioner of Taxation (Commissioner) when asked to provide information and documents regarding JobKeeper claims he made; > > (b) failing to provide information to the Commissioner when requested; and > > (c) providing different/inconsistent explanations to the Commissioner during a review into JobKeeper claims.
Subsection 30-10(14) - Failing to respond to requests and directions from the Board in a timely, responsible and reasonable manner
(a) a preliminary enquiries letter issued by the respondent on 24 February 2023, with a response required by 10 March 2023; > > (b) a preliminary enquiries letter issued by the respondent on 2 July 2024, with a response initially required by 23 July 2024 and an extension subsequently granted (upon request by the applicant) to 6 August 2024; and > > (c) a section 60-100 TASA notice issued by the respondent on 16 September 2024, requesting all outstanding information and documents previously requested by the respondent, with a response required by 30 September 2024.
(a) failing to disclose to the respondent a matter which may have impacted on his good fame, integrity and character; > > (b) failing to comply with his personal and related entities' taxation obligations; > > (c) failing to appropriately respond to multiple requests from the ATO for information and documents; > > (d) providing inconsistent responses when asked questions regarding the business conducted by a company of which he is the sole director; > > (e) failing to maintain adequate and appropriate CPE records; > > (f) failing to respond to the respondent's correspondence in a timely, responsible and reasonable manner; and > > (g) engaging in conduct that undermined the integrity of the tax system, and therefore he was not seen to be a person that the respondent, the Commissioner or the public could have confidence in to perform his functions as a registered tax agent competently and with integrity.
THE HEARING OF THE APPLICATION FOR INTERLOCUTORY ORDERS
THE PROCEDURAL LAW APPLYING TO THE STAY APPLICATION
(a) the prospects of success of the substantive application for review (the Review Application); > > (b) the consequences for the applicant of the refusal of a stay; > > (c) the public interest; > > (d) the consequences for the respondent in carrying out its functions depending upon whether a stay is granted or not; and > > (e) whether the application for review would be rendered nugatory if a stay were not granted.[18]
If I do not have a job, I will have to find another suitable job first then start paying off any tax due. To find a suitable job in a regional city is not an easy task.
I think the TPB has just punished me as a tax agent, rather than assisting me as [its] member, to meet my tax obligations.[22]
s 32 of the ART Act. In Birdseye v Tax Practitioners Board[62] (Birdseye FCA), Logan J stated this requirement in the following terms:
It ... is neither necessary, nor desirable, to set metes and bounds as to what may engender appropriately the requisite desirability opinion other than to observe that, as with any administrative decision, there must be some material before the Tribunal which is reasonably capable of engendering the requisite opinion.[63]
Does the evidence support the purpose of ensuring the effectiveness of the review?
DISCRETIONARY FACTORS THAT WEIGH IN FAVOUR OR AGAINST A STAY
'The Tribunal is, however, at least obliged to determine whether there are facts or circumstances or points of law that may be argued at a substantive hearing which may lead to a different result.' [68]
The consequences for the applicant if the stay is refused
(a) the prospects of success weighs heavily against a stay being granted; > > (b) the effect of the consequences for the applicant if the stay is granted weigh slightly in favour of the relief being granted, although this is based on inferences made by the Tribunal and the assertions made by the applicant without the support of substantiating evidence; > > (c) the consideration of the public interest weighs heavily against the stay application being granted; > > (d) the consequences for the respondent in carrying out its functions is neutral; and > > (e) the consideration of whether the Review Application will be rendered nugatory is neutral.
[1] In this decision, a reference to 'Tribunal documents' is a reference to the Tribunal documents filed by the respondent on 2 May 2025, 25 July 2025, and 8 August 2025. 'Applicant's submissions' refers to the applicant's submissions dated 4 July 2025, in reply on 4 August 2025 and by email on 22 August 2025. 'Respondent's submissions' refers to the respondent's submissions dated 25 July 2025. The written submissions were supplemented by oral argument during the hearing.
[11] TASA, s 70-10(e) and (h) respectively.
[12] Respondent's submissions dated 25 July 2025, [8]-[20].
[14] Respondent's submissions dated 25 July 2025, Annexure A.
[15] See generally transcript 12 August 2025, pages 14 -41.
[16] [2009] AATA 798 at [4].
[17] The Revised Explanatory Memorandum for the Administrative Review Tribunal Bill 2024 (Cth) at [362], states the following: 'This clause is equivalent to section 41 of the AAT Act. It has minor updates to reflect modern drafting practices. These do not affect the operation or effect of the provision'.
[19] Applicant's submissions dated 4 July 2025, page 1.
[21] [2010] AATA 149 at [15].
[22] Applicant's submissions dated 4 July 2025, page 2.
[25] McCarthy at [15], Tomkinson at [4] - [5].
[26] Applicant's submissions 4 July 2025, page 4.
[27] Transcript 25 August 2025, pages 6 - 8.
[28] Transcript 25 August 2025, page 8.
[29] Transcript 25 August 2025, pages 9, 19.
[30] Transcript 25 August 2025, page 6.
[31] Transcript 25 August 2025, page 16.
[33] Transcript 25 August 2025, page 66.
[36] [2018] AATA 124 at [40].
[37] Transcript 25 August 2025, page 53.
[38] Transcript 25 August 2025, page 54.
[39] Transcript 25 August 2025, page 54.
[40] Transcript 25 August 2025, pages 53 - 55.
[42] [2020] AATA 890 at [13].
[43] Transcript 25 August 2025, page 48.
[44] Transcript 25 August 2025, page 48.
[45] Transcript 25 August 2025, pages 48 - 49.
[46] Transcript 25 August 2025, page 49.
[48] Transcript 25 August 2025, page 49.
[49] Transcript 25 August 2025, page 50.
[50] Transcript 25 August 2025, page 50.
[51] Transcript 25 August 2025, page 50.
[52] Transcript 25 August 2025, page 50.
[53] Transcript 25 August 2025, page 56.
[54] Transcript 25 August 2025, page 56.
[55] Respondent's submissions dated 25 July 2025, [66].
[56] Respondent's submissions dated 25 July 2025, [67] - [77].
[57] Respondent's submissions dated 25 July 2025, [78] - [80].
[59] Respondent's submissions dated 25 July 2025, [81] - [84].
[64] [2025] ARTA 603 at [10], [17].
[70] Respondent's submissions dated 25 July 2025, [64] citing Iseppi and Tax Practitioners Board [2020] AATA 1523 at [24].
[71] Respondent's submissions dated 25 July 2025, [64].
[72] Respondent's submissions dated 25 July 2025, [78] - [80].
Birdseye and Tax Practitioners Board [2020] AATA 1250
Birdseye v Tax Practitioners Board [2020] FCA 1235
Cross and Tax Practitioners Board [2020] AATA 1471
GJ Brown & Co Pty Ltd and Tax Practitioners Board [2016] AATA 740
Kumar and Minister for Immigration and Border Protection (Citizenship) [2017] AATA 997
Le'Sam Accounting Pty Ltd and Tax Practitioners Board [2020] AATA 890
McCarthy and Tax Practitioners Board [2021] AATA 641
Poidevin and Australian Securities and Investments Commission [2018] AATA 124
Proh v Tax Agents' Board of Victoria [2010] AATA 149
Re Oaklands and Australian Securities and Investments Commission [2011] AATA 199
Scott and Australian Securities and Investments Commission [2009] AATA 798
Tomkinson and Tax Practitioners Board [2021] AATA 2172
XTrade.AU Pty Ltd v Australian Securities and Investments Commission [2024] AATA 1372
White and Tax Practitioners Board [2025] ARTA 603