austlii:cth/ARTA/2025/1495
General information, not legal advice.
ARTA
2025-08-06
Senior Member J
Original judgment source is linked above.
Transition to the Administrative Review Tribunal
(a) via brokerage arrangements[9] where potential or existing recipients of aged care services are referred to and contract with approved providers which have contractual arrangements with the Applicant;
(b) since around August 2021, under the NDIS as a registered provider; and
(c) since late October 2024, under the CHSP[10] where, as an approved provider, the Applicant receives a grant to provide limited aged care activities.
The Aged Care Act and the principles
(1) The objects of this Act are as follows:
(a) to provide for funding of *aged care that takes account of:
(a) (i) the quality of the care; and
(a) (ii) the *type of care and level of care provided; and
(iii) the need to ensure access to care that is affordable by, and appropriate to the needs of, people who require it;
(a) (iv) appropriate outcomes for recipients of the care; and
(v) accountability of the providers of the care for the funding and for the outcomes for recipients;
(b) to promote a high quality of care and accommodation for the recipients of *aged care services that meets the needs of individuals;
(c) to protect the health and well-being of the recipients of aged care services_;_
3-4 Responsibilities of approved providers (Chapter 4)
Approved providers have certain responsibilities under Chapter 4. These responsibilities relate to:
(b) user rights for the people to whom care is provided; and
(c) accountability for the care that is provided, and the basic suitability of their *key personnel.
Failure to meet these responsibilities can lead to the imposition of sanctions on an approved provider under Part 7B of the *Quality and Safety Commission Act, which may affect amounts of *subsidy payable to the approved provider.
(5) The object of this Act is to establish a regulatory framework that will:
(a) protect and enhance the safety, health, well-being and quality of life of aged care consumers; and
(b) promote aged care consumers' confidence and trust in the provision of aged care services and Commonwealth-funded aged care services; and
(c) promote engagement with aged care consumers about the quality of care and services provided by:
(a) approved providers of aged care services; and
(b) service providers of Commonwealth-funded aged care services_._
(2) The Commissioner must not approve the person as a provider of aged care unless the Commissioner is satisfied that:
(b) the person is suitable to provide aged care; and
(c) none of the key personnel of the person is a disqualified individual.
(3) In deciding whether the person is suitable to provide aged care, the Commissioner must consider the following matters:
(a) the person's experience in providing, at any time, aged care or other relevant forms of care;
(b) the person's demonstrated understanding of the person's responsibilities as a provider of the type of aged care for which approval is sought;
(c) the systems that the person has, or proposes to have, in place to meet the person's responsibilities as a provider of the type of aged care for which approval is sought;
(d) the person's record of financial management and the methods that the person uses, or proposes to use, in order to ensure sound financial management;
(e) if, at any time, the person has been a provider of aged care or other relevant forms of care - the person's conduct as such a provider and the person's compliance with:
(i) the person's responsibilities as a provider of that care; and
(ii) the person's obligations arising from the receipt of any payments from the Commonwealth for providing that care;
Ground 1 - Record of financial management and the methods the Applicant uses or proposes to use to ensure sound financial management (s 63D(3)(d))
The Applicant's record of financial management
Mr Faqih: Yes. And please note that the associated salary - (indistinct) person's salary is starting increase up to one hundred and eighty-four seven dollars. So the more effort they put in the business, the more reward I get.
The Applicant's bank accounts and the director loans
The methods that the Applicant uses, or proposes to use, in order to ensure sound financial management
The CFO role and strategic financial planning
Ground 2 - The Applicant's experience in providing, aged care or other relevant forms of care (section 63D(3)(a))
(a) it has a high degree of relevant experience, and this experience is exemplified given the experience of its key personnel; > > (b) it has a robust track record of providing aged care[114] and its team, 'including our key personnel, possesses a comprehensive and up-to-date understanding of our obligations as an aged care provider'[115] > > (c) the Applicant's demonstrated experience arises from the services it currently provides; > > (d) of these, the brokerage services allow the Applicant to be highly involved in the provision of services, under the guidance of existing approved providers which has also exposed it to those providers' regulatory obligations under the Aged Care Laws; > > (e) in the NDIS space, the Applicant has been exposed to aged care as well as other forms of care. The Applicant did not dispute that this experience was not of itself determinative of its suitability.[116] However it submitted it was highly relevant.[117] Once again, it pointed to its exposure to the relevant regulatory operations in this space as particularly relevant; > > (f) Under the CHSP, it is not disputed that the Applicant has to a degree been providing overlapping services to those it would provide if approved.[118] The Applicant contends it has presented evidence of this service provision and points to the oral evidence of Ms Nasour that the Applicant has provided 500 hours of services,[119] is servicing 400 to 500 individuals,[1] has onboarded 144 consumers,[1] has arrangements for separate bank accounts,[1] and has been approved to extend its CHSP grant for 2 years.
(a) the Applicant produced non-current and non-executed brokerage agreements to the Tribunal which makes assessment of this area more difficult;[120] > > (b) under cross-examination, Ms Nasour's evidence that the Applicant conducts care or provides care plans was challenged as an exaggeration on the basis that any such activities were all undertaken at the direction of an approved provider;[121] > > (c) it was not clear how many clients the Applicant currently provides services to under the NDIS.[122] The conceded view resulting from the latest NDIS Audit report was that while services were operating effectively, there were a very small number of clients.[123] Further, the Applicant's experience in this area cannot of itself be a determinative factor in the application;[124] > > (d) Ms Nasour also conceded under cross examination that the Applicant is not currently providing a significant amount of nursing care but is instead providing 'incontinence assessments and other kinds of services;[125] > > (e) the Applicant did not provide evidence in the form of corroborating records about the services it provides under the CHSP[126] and its own continuous feedback and improvement plan identified a need for the better scheduling and streamlining of domestic assistance and home maintenance services and improved service delivery. However, the Applicant had not produced records of that feedback for the Tribunal to consider.[127]
The expertise of key personnel of the Applicant
Mr Sadler (director, consultant and board member)
Ground 3 - The existing or proposed systems to meet the Applicant's responsibilities as an aged care provider (s 63D(3)(c))
(a) the Manual raises concerns about the Applicant's ability to comply with s 54-1(1)(b) of the Aged Care Act and Quality Standard 8(3)(c)(iv) because while it refers to the development of a Workforce Plan, one does not appear to have been prepared. In this respect this contention builds on the concerns I have expressed earlier in these reasons - that the Applicant's staff numbers appear to be increasing without any current evidence of planning ;[170] > > (b) Policy 2.3.6 in the Manual does not appear to comply with Quality Standard 2(3) requiring the safe and effective delivery of care and services because it does not necessarily provide for a registered nurse to perform the initial aged care consumer assessments;[171] > > (c) Policies 2.3.8 and 2.5.1[172] of the Manual are concerning regarding the role played by the coordinator/registered nurse assisting an aged care consumer in respect of Advanced Care Directives given the coordinator is not described as being required to be a registered nurse; > > (d) Policies 2.5 and 3.2.2 of the Manual appear not to comply with Quality Standard 3(3)(f) by not being sufficiently clear about how the Applicant proposes to ensure that referrals of aged care consumers to other services etc are timely and appropriate;[173] > > (e) Policy 6.2 of the Manual[174] appears to lack critical detail such that it may not meet the requirements of Quality Standard 6(3) and in particular 6(3)(c); > > (f) Policy 8.3 of the Manual[175] appears to lack sufficient clarity about the roles of the bodies sitting underneath the governing body of the Applicant such that it may not comply with Quality Standard 8(3) which requires a provider to have effective systems and practices to ensure the governing body is accountable for the delivery of safe and quality care and services; > > (g) Policy 8.6.3 of the Manual does not sufficiently address the question of management and expenditure of home care package funds such that it may not comply with s 54-1(1)(a) and (h) of the Aged Care Act and Part 3 of the Quality of Care Principles and s 13 and Schedule 3 to the Principles. The Respondent contends the risk in this regard is that money may be spent on items which do not accord with the Principles; > > (h) Policies 7.3.7 and 8.2.12 of the Manual[176] may not comply with ss 54-1 (1)(g) and (ga) of the Aged Care Act because they do not establish a system to ensure key personnel of the Applicant, staff and contractors comply with the relevant Code of Conduct which the Respondent contends address issues going to the core of provision of aged care e.g. ensuring the dignity of people receiving care; > > (i) Policy 8.2.11 of the Manual[177] fails to provide for annual review of the suitability of Key Personnel at least every 12 months or to keep records of the reviews and so may not comply with s 63-1A of the Aged Care Act and s 53, Accountability Principles;[178] > > (j) The Manual fails to address record keeping in a comprehensive or centralised manner such that it may not comply with s 7 of the Records Principles;[179]
(a) it is clear it has existing systems in place that would allow it to meet its responsibilities as an approved provider; > > (b) the Respondent is attacking the Applicant's policies and procedures by finding minor errors or omissions which is not appropriate - see the Tribunal's observations in AussieCare;[182] > > (c) while it has systems and proposed policies already in place, the Tribunal's decision in TFG Holding is authority for the fact that approval can be given under the Aged Care Laws even if systems are not in place. It is therefore sufficient that the Manual can be readily edited to suit situations which may arise;[183] > > (d) the Applicant already has in place: > > 1. a CRM system - Nightingale; > 2. a strict record keeping procedure; and > 3. an internal audit system; > > (e) the Tribunal decision in AussieCare is authority for the fact that an electronic management system can meet an Applicant's requirements under this ground while not being solely determinative but can be highly relevant and must be weighed against other facts; > > (f) the Applicant is an active outlet on the My Aged Care portal as a provider of CHSP funded services; > > (g) the Applicant has an extensive and tailored suite of policies and procedures and will use its subscription with GGJ Consultants to keep these updated; and > > (h) the Applicant has taken a number of steps to ensure it remains up to date with its regulatory requirements - such as membership of relevant associations, subscription to education and training platforms, GGJ Consultants and Sector Support and Development programs.
Ground 4 - demonstrated conduct in providing other relevant forms of care
Ground 5 - demonstrated understanding of aged care responsibilities (s 63D(3)(b))
(a) it has in providing brokerage and NDIS services, demonstrated its relevant understanding; > > (b) the experience and integrity of its personnel are relevant, and the experience of Mrs Nasour, Mr Sadler and Mr Faqih demonstrate its relevant understanding;[191] > > (c) the Applicant is not required to have policies and procedures in place before being approved but the fact it has some is in its favour; > > (d) the Respondent should not engage in findings of minor errors and omissions; and > > (e) any deficiencies in the Applicant's documents are less relevant because the Applicant has a history as an NDIS provider.[192]
[4] The Applicant was registered on 11 December 2019. Applicant's closing submissions [1.1].
[5] ACQSC Act s 8B. The Respondent can assess suitability of the Applicant's 'Key Personnel' when evaluating its suitability for approval. The Applicant gave conflicting evidence as to who were its key personnel because it identified different positions as meeting the definition of key personnel in its Manual compared to its Management Structure Diagram; Hearing Book pages 2207 to 2208 and Hearing Book page 1912.
[6] The former CFO of the Applicant was Tony Baddour.
[7] Mr Faqih runs his own accountancy business A2Z Taxation (A2Z), which services over 500 clients. A2Z undertakes physical management of the Applicant's payroll each fortnight and is also responsible for its end of financial year statements and its tax returns.
[8] Mr Sadler operates a consultancy service which provides specialist aged care advice and services to aged care organisations. Mr Sadler provides advice and services to the Applicant for which he invoices and is paid consultancy fees.
[9] Services where the Applicant contracts with service providers and matches clients with the appropriately qualified service providers.
[10] Exhibit R3, the Commonwealth Home Support Programme Manual 2024-2025, describes the CHSP as providing: "entry-level support to help older people continue to live safely and independently at home and in their communities. It is available to people aged 65 years and over, and Aboriginal and or Torres Strait Islander people aged 50 years and over. The CHSP is suitable for people who can live independently at home but need small amounts of entry-level support to do so."
[11] Exhibit A20, Correspondence from the Applicant to the Tribunal and the Respondent dated 31 March 2023. Hearing Book page 792.
[12] Exhibit R1 of the original hearing (2 April 2024), Tribunal documents, Hearing Book page 557.
[13] Exhibit R10, Hearing Book page 566.
[14] Tribunal documents, Hearing Book page 7; ACQSC Act s 74L(4).
[15] Exhibit R1 (original hearing), Hearing Book page 1.
[16] Administrative Appeals Tribunal Act 1975 (Cth) (the AAT Act) s 42D. Exhibit R1, Hearing Book page 9.
[17] Amana Community Services and Aged Care Quality and Safety Commissioner [2024] AATA 2984 (14 August 2024).
[18] Under the CHSP. Exhibit A12, Applicant's Statement of Facts, Issues and Contentions (SFIC) [1.15], Hearing Book page 6167; Transcript page 23.
[19] Mr Faqih was required for cross examination in February 2025 but was overseas due to family matters. The Tribunal consented to the relisting at the earliest available time following Mr Faqih's return to Australia.
[20] Respondent's further closing submissions dated 1 August 2025.
[21] The transitional provisions are contained in the Aged Care (Consequential and Transitional Provisions) Act 2024 (Cth).
[22] Exhibit R29, Respondent's Amended Statement of Facts Issues and Contentions (ASFIC) [3.6], Hearing Book page 6189.
[23] Quality of Care Principles, Schedule 2.
[24] These reflect the obligations in Aged Care Act, s 63-1A and would apply to the Applicant, if approved to provide aged care services.
[25] User Rights Principles, Schedule 1. These reflect the obligations in Aged Care Act, s 54-1(c) and would apply to the Applicant, if approved to provide aged care services
[27] These reflect the obligations in Aged Care Act, ss 54-1(e) and s 56-2 (f),(j), (k) and (l) and would apply to the Applicant, if approved to provide aged care services.
[28] Approved providers have record keeping obligations under s 63-1 of the Aged Care Act and these are set out the Records Principles.29
[30] Aged Care Act, s 2-1(1).
[31] Consistent with Aged Care Act, s 2-1(1)(a).
[32] Aged Care Act s 54(1)(a), s 96-1.
[33] Aged Care Act s 54(1)(d), s 96-1; Quality Care Principles s 17.
[34] Aged Care Act s 54(1)(c), s 56-2.
[35] See Aged Care Legislation Amendment (New Commissioner Functions) Act 2019 (Cth), Part 7A which transferred the approval function to the Respondent.
[36] Aged Care Act, Division 3, s 3-1 and s 3-4. See also s 7-1 which provides that a subsidy cannot be paid unless the payee is an approved provider.
[37] By virtue of the Aged Care and Other Legislation Amendment (Royal Commission Response) Act 2022 (Cth) (the Amending Act).
[38] The Amending Act, Schedule 5, items 39 and 40 and Caring Home Care Pty Ltd and Aged Care Quality and Safety Commissioner [2023] AATA 2901 [6] (Caring Home).
[40] TFG Holding Pty Ltd and Aged Care Quality and Safety Commissioner [2023] AATA 3809 (TFG Holding) [16]. The Tribunal made certain findings on the evidence presented in that case [49], [52].
[41] Tribunal documents, T4 [7.5], Hearing Book page 20 - the Respondent was satisfied the Applicant met this requirement.
[43] Exhibit A6, the second statement of Hadee Faqih, dated 13 January 2025, Hearing Book pages 5809-12.
[44] Exhibit R29, Respondent's ASFIC, Hearing Book page 6207 [5.23]-[4.24].
[45] Exhibit A12, Applicant's ASFIC [3.31], Hearing Book page 6176.
[46] Exhibit R29, Respondent's ASFIC [5.26], Hearing Book page 6208.
[48] Exhibit A6, Faqih second statement at [3] and [5].
[50] Transcript pages 30 and 31; Exhibits A16 to A18.
[51] Tribunal documents, T6, Hearing Book page 371.
[53] See for example Tribunal documents, T6, Hearing Book page 390.
[54] Exhibit R28, Transcript of original hearing 2 April 2024, page 30.
[55] Exhibit R10, Hearing Book page 787.
[56] Ex R28, transcript original hearing, page 30.
[58] Transcript pages 194, 195, 203, 204, 205, 209, 210-211. Transcript of original hearing at pages 30-31.
[61] Transcript pages 203-204. When taken to the Profit and Loss Statements for the Applicant for the years ended 30 June 2021, 2022, and 2023 in cross examination, Mr Faqih observed that the profit of the Applicant was being drawn by the director of the Applicant as salary, leaving the company to show only a small profit.
[64] Respondent's ASFIC [5.24], Hearing Book page 6207.
[69] Transcript pages 221, 223. Mr Faqih also estimated that the Applicant's monthly combined salary and contractor expenses could be around $100,000 per month. I have relied on this evidence to infer that the Applicant was as at March 20-25, in a very tight financial position, given its recent expansion.
[73] The Applicant did not produce bank account statements to the Tribunal with its evidence, so the Tribunal was required to rely upon the Applicant's evidence as to the balances. Transcript page 60.
Aged Care Quality and Safety Commissioner v Amana Community Services Pty Ltd [2024] FCA 1241
Amana Community Services and Aged Care Quality and Safety Commissioner [2024] AATA 2984 (14 August 2024)
AussieCare Foundation Pty Ltd and Aged Care Quality and Safety Commissioner [2023] AATA 2202 (24 July 2023)
Better Disability Care Pty Ltd and Aged Care Quality and Safety Commissioner [2024] AATA 3593
Caring Home Care Pty Ltd and Aged Care Quality and Safety Commissioner [2023] AATA 2901
TFG Holding Pty Ltd and Aged Care Quality and Safety Commissioner [2023] AATA 3809