Zoe gives general legal information, not legal advice. For the authoritative text, check the official register of the law's own jurisdiction, such as the Federal Register of Legislation for Commonwealth laws.
Logical flaws, contradictions, and impossible compliance requirements found by AI analysis across Australian legislation.
AI-generated legal information, not legal advice. Zoe can make mistakes. Check the cited sources, and before you act on this, rely on it, or use any draft, get a qualified Australian lawyer to check it.
Jurisdiction
274Absurdities
54Contradictions
215High Severity
2,210 of 29,039 eligible titles analysed8%
6765 awaiting substantive source text · 23 awaiting billing reconciliation
Clause 24(3)(a) requires contracts to mandate compliance with conditions referred to in cl 10(2), but cl 10 contains no subclause (2) and identifies no such conditions.
Source evidence
The Agreement is ratified and takes effect as if its
provisions had been expressly enacted in this Act.
the conditions referred to in
Clause 10(2) hereof which are applicable to that contractor
10. The Company shall comply with the provisions of the Forests Act
1958, with all regulations for the time being in force under the
Forests Act and with the Code of Forest Practices for Timber
Production and other relevant Codes of Practice for the time being in
force under the Conservation, Forest
The definition requires an operator to be declared under section 5, but section 5 only authorises declaration of a place as the facility. Section 6 authorises declaration of a person as operator.
Source evidence
operator, of the facility, means a person who is declared under section 5 to be the operator of the facility.
The Minister may, in writing, declare a place to be the facility for this Act.
The Minister may, after consultation with the advisory committee, in writing, declare a person to be the operator of the facility.
Section 20(2) relies on omitted section 21 to identify the provisions it preserves.
Source evidence
Notwithstanding section 21, the provisions of the Act referred to in that section continue to apply in relation to a settlement that took effect before the commencement date.
Section 15(9) applies section 14 to filling specified casual vacancies, but section 14 contains no vacancy-filling mechanism.
Source evidence
(9) Section 14 applies to the filling of casual vacancies arising before section 7(2)(e), (f) or (j) of the **Swinburne University of Technology Act 1992**, as the case requires, applies.
If a member of the Parliament appointed under section 7(2)(g) ceases to be a member of the Parliament of Victoria and is not re‑elected as such member at the next election, his or her office as a member of the Council becomes vacant.
A new business whose projected turnover falls into different tiers across the current and next financial years may fall outside every tier.
Source evidence
(b) a business that did not operate in the financial year immediately preceding the day on which the application for a licence is made but the business is projected to have an annual turnover in the financial year in which the application is made and in the next financial year of no more than $2 000
(b) a business that did not operate in the financial year immediately preceding the day on which the application for a licence is made but the business is projected to have an annual turnover in the financial year in which the application is made and in the next financial year of between $2 000 001
For hospital premises, “access arrangements” are defined as arrangements made under section 17, but section 17 contains no arrangement-making power or duty. Section 18(1) instead requires those written arrangements to be made.
Source evidence
(d) for hospital premises—the arrangements made for the premises
under section 17.
(2) In making period products available on hospital premises, the
director-general must comply with access arrangements for the
premises.
(1) The director-general responsible for administering the Health
Act 1993 must make arrangements, in writing, for access by patients
and visitors at hospitals to period products on hospital premises.
The under-12 exception can make compliance impossible if both coronation and the first day of the first Parliament after accession occur before the sovereign turns 12.
Source evidence
But if it shall happen that such King or Queen upon his or her succession to the crown of this realm shall be under the age of twelve years
then every such King or Queen shall make, subscribe and audibly repeat the said declaration at his or her coronation or the first day of the meeting of the first Parliament as aforesaid which shall first happen after such King or Queen shall have attained the said age of twelve years.
For the known-owner path, the disposal deadlines use inconsistent starting dates. After removal, regulation 33(5) requires notice as soon as practicable. Regulation 33(6)(b) requires that notice to state that disposal will occur within 28 days of removal. However, regulation 33(8) permits disposal only after 28 days from the notice date. If notice is given after removal, the stated disposal deadline expires before the disposal power arises.
Source evidence
As soon as practicable after removing a structure under subregulation (4)(a), the Board must take all reasonable steps to notify the person who erected the structure, or caused the structure to be erected.
that the structure will be disposed of within 28 days of the removal of the structure if not claimed by the person who erected the structure, or caused the structure to be erected;
Section 13 defines an “electricity restriction” as one imposed under section 9, but section 9 only declares a restriction stage. The operative power to impose restriction measures is in section 10.
Source evidence
electricity restriction means an electricity restriction imposed under
section 9 (Declaration of electricity restriction stages).
The Minister may declare that a stage of an approved electricity
restriction scheme is in force.
A utility may, in writing, impose electricity restriction measures
under an electricity restriction stage in force under section 9.
The definition requires the protocol to be approved under section 8, but section 8 contains no approval power. Approval occurs under section 7.
Source evidence
law enforcement protocol means a protocol approved under section 8.
The Minister may, after consultation with the advisory committee, by instrument approve a protocol that deals with—
The Minister must give public notice of the effect of an instrument made under section 7, as soon as practicable after the instrument is made.
Source evidence
At each annual general meeting the members of the
Committee shall appoint—
(iii) a Secretary;
the Secretary shall give
members at least three days' notice that a meeting is to be
held.
If, after a period of 28 days from the date of a notice under subregulation (5), the person who erected the structure or caused the structure to be erected has not claimed that structure, the Board may dispose of the structure.