Logical flaws, contradictions, and impossible compliance requirements found by AI analysis across Australian legislation.
AI-generated legal information, not legal advice. Zoe can make mistakes. Check the cited sources, and before you act on this, rely on it, or use any draft, get a qualified Australian lawyer to check it.
Jurisdiction
88Absurdities
21Contradictions
69High Severity
1,046 of 1,262 eligible titles analysed83%
31 awaiting substantive source text · 4 awaiting billing reconciliation
The definition of “electrical installation” refers to repealed section 46, so the referenced statutory meaning is unavailable.
Source evidence
(4) In this section ***electrical installation*** has the meaning given to it under section 46.
Pt 5
(Heading and ss 46–57) amended by Nos 6983 s. 2, 7686
s. 3(a)–(d), 7741 s. 2, 8377 s. 4(1)(2), 8797 s. 5(a)(b), 9121 ss 3–8, 9296 s. 4, 9531 s. 3, 33/1986 ss 4(a)–(c),
8–11, 98/1986 s. 6(a)(b), 45/1988 ss 5, 6, 7(d), 45/1990 s. 117, 3/1992 ss 3–6, 130/1993 ss 103(i)–(q), 104–106, 53/1994
(3) A manual published pursuant to this section shall with any amendments currently in force be deemed and taken to have the same force and effect as if contained in this Act.
Regulations 25(3)(b) and 26(1) contemplate granting a licence before quality accreditation is obtained, with accreditation due within 3 months. Regulation 30 immediately requires every licence holder to maintain a quality assurance plan complying with regulation 29(3), which requires accreditation. No exception preserves the 3-month accreditation path.
Source evidence
a non-emergency patient transport service licence granted to an applicant who does not have a current certificate of quality accreditation from an accreditation body is subject to the condition that the licence holder must, within 3 months after being granted the licence—
A quality assurance plan must be accredited by an accreditation body.
A licence holder must maintain and comply
with a quality assurance plan that complies with regulation 29(2) and (3).
Clause 23(b) provides no method for determining the additional sag-and-sway distance for an excluded section 84A or 84B responsible person in a case not covered by clause 23(a).
Source evidence
This regulation does not apply to a responsible person referred to in section 84A or 84B of the Act.
In this Division, a reference to an additional distance that allows for conductor sag and sway that is to be used in determining a minimum clearance space is a reference to—
in any other case—the distance determined in accordance with the method specified, under regulation 9(4)(j)(ii)(A), in the management plan of the responsible person in relation to whom the minimum clearance space is to be determined.
The lease requires a yearly rent of $1,527.74 by equal half-yearly payments of $763.87, but specifies the first payment on 10 April 1986 and the next payment on 10 April of the following year. The stated dates provide only annual, not half-yearly, payments.
Source evidence
the yearly rent of one thousand five hundred and twenty seven dollars and seventy four cents ($1527.74) by equal half-yearly payments of seven hundred sixty three dollars eighty seven cents ($763.87) each
the first payment to be made on the day and date hereof and the next payment on the 10th day of April next
then succeeding payments respectively to be made on the same days in each succeeding year
A broken cross-reference omits the qualification check for a technical supervisor nominated by a natural-person applicant.
Source evidence
(A) will be responsible for the effective supervision of the electrical installation work or only electrical switchgear fitting work carried out on behalf of the applicant; or
(B) has nominated a natural person or a sufficient number of natural persons to be technical supervisors who will be 负责 for
(d) each person nominated under an application to which paragraph (a)(i)(A) or (b)(i) relates to be responsible for the effective supervision of electrical installation work or only electrical switchgear fitting work is a licensed electrician or a licensed electrical switchgear worker who has rese 责
(c) if the applicant will be responsible for the effective supervision of the electrical installation work or only electrical switchgear fitting work, that the applicant is a licensed electrician or a licensed electrical switchgear worker who has completed the requirements specified in regulation 10
Rule 8.05(2) assumes a caveat can expire because of an order under Rule 8.03(3)(b), but that provision only permits an order preventing expiry under Rule 8.03(2).
Source evidence
Subject to paragraph (3), if the Registrar gives notice to a caveator under Rule 8.02(b), the caveat expires 30 days after the notice is given.
A caveat shall not expire by reason of paragraph (2) if—
If a caveat has expired by reason of the operation of Rule 8.03(2) or an order of a Judge of the Court under Rule 8.03(3)(b), a fresh caveat shall be taken not to relate to the application of which the Registrar gave notice to the caveator under Rule 8.02(b).
Regulation 23A permits determinations without a making deadline, but regulation 23A(8) makes every such determination cease on 31 October 2022. A determination made after that date would commence on publication under regulation 23A(5) despite having a past cessation date. Once no determination remains effective, the Mount Buller and Mount Stirling limb of the “wheel chains” definition supplies no qualifying device, although regulation 24(1) continues requiring drivers there to carry qualifying wheel chains during later snow seasons.
Source evidence
A determination made under subregulation (1) ceases to have effect on 31 October 2022, unless revoked earlier under subregulation (7).
***wheel chains*** means any devices designed to be fitted to wheels of a motor vehicle to increase the directional stability and traction of the wheels of that vehicle on a road affected by snow or ice that are—
(a) if the motor vehicle is within the Mount Buller Alpine Resort or the Mount Stiring
For an adoption by one or two adoptive parents, the required particulars include the ages of “all children” of those parents at the adopted child’s birth. A child born later had no age on that date.
Source evidence
(f) the given names, the family names and the ages, at the date of birth of the adoptive child, of—
(i) all children of the adoptive parent or parents; or
Age (in years) of each child at the time of birth of the child now being registered:
A Commissioner-designated group entity may be designated only after its registration deadline has expired.
Source evidence
The Commissioner must designate a member of a group as the designated group entity for the group if the members of the group do not designate a member under subsection (1) or (3) within 30 days after the end of the month in which the group is established.
the designated group entity of a group must apply to the Commissioner, in the form approved by the Commissioner, before the end of the first month in which the members of the group become liable to pay tax under section 44, for registration under this Division.
A designated group entity does not commit an offence against subsection (1) if the entity has a reasonable excuse for not applying for registration.
The mandatory satisfaction criterion omits the revocation branch authorised by section 21.
Source evidence
The Court may make an order authorising a will to be made in specific terms approved by the Court or revoked on behalf of a person who does not have testamentary capacity.
Before making an order under section 21, the Court must be satisfied that—
it is reasonable in all the circumstances for the Court, by order, to authorise the making of the will for the person.
The six-month application deadline has no stated trigger where administration is granted by letters of administration with the will annexed rather than probate.
Regulation 10(h) prohibits a contract term requiring a resident to pay more than half of valuation costs, except for a clause incorporated by regulation 7 or unreasonable conduct. Regulation 8 incorporates Schedule 3, whose clause 4(a) requires the resident to pay valuation costs in the same proportion as their entitlement to capital growth. If that proportion exceeds one half, the required clause is directly prohibited by regulation 10(h).
Source evidence
The clauses set out in Schedule 3 are included in a residence contract with a non-owner resident if—
a requirement, other than a requirement of a clause incorporated by regulation 7, for a resident to pay more than half the costs of any valuation of the resident's premises or residence right that is required or permitted, except where the resident has acted unreasonably;
Clause 5(a) imposes a deadline before the Agreement was executed and before Division B could acquire force.
Source evidence
This Agreement is made the Second day of September One thousand nine hundred and eighty
Divisions A, B and C of Part II of this Agreement shall be of no force or effect
facilitate and assist in deciding with the relevant authorities as to the date of closure of the Portland Aerodrome existing at the Commencement date and as to a site for a new aerodrome in lieu thereof by the 1st day of September One thousand nine hundred and eighty.
After all regulation 23A determinations cease, a non-exempt driver at Mount Buller or Mount Stirling cannot comply with a direction to produce or fit wheel chains because no device can qualify as “wheel chains” there.
Source evidence
A determination made under subregulation (1) ceases to have effect on 31 October 2022, unless revoked earlier under subregulation (7).
The driver of a motor vehicle must comply with a direction of an authorised officer, authorised person or police officer made under subregulation (1).
For a step-parent adoption, the required particulars include the ages of “all children” of the parent and spouse or domestic partner at the adopted child’s birth. A child born later had no age on that date.
Source evidence
(f) the given names, the family names and the ages, at the date of birth of the adoptive child, of—
(ii) in the case of adoption by the spouse or domestic partner of a parent, all children of the parent and the spouse or domestic partner of the parent.
Age (in years) of each child at the time of birth of the child now being registered:
A member-designated group entity may validly be designated during the 30-day designation period after its registration deadline has expired.
Source evidence
The members of a group may, with the approval of the Commissioner, designate a qualified member of the group to be the designated group entity for the group for the purposes of this Division.
The Commissioner must designate a member of a group as the designated group entity for the group if the members of the group do not designate a member under subsection (1) or (3) within 30 days after the end of the month in which the group is established.
the designated group entity of a group must apply to the Commissioner, in the form approved by the Commissioner, before the end of the first month in which the members of the group become liable to pay tax under section 44, for registration under this Division.
A replacement designated group entity may inherit a registration deadline tied to a past month.
Source evidence
the first day of the month following the month in which the members of the group revoke the designation.
The members of a group may, with the approval of the Commissioner, designate a qualified member of the group to be the designated group entity for the group for the purposes of this Division.
the designated group entity of a group must apply to the Commissioner, in the form approved by the Commissioner, before the end of the first month in which the members of the group become liable to pay tax under section 44, for registration under this Division.
Source evidence
A person who wishes to make an application for an order under subsection (1) must apply to the Court within 6 months from the date of the grant of probate.
The Court must direct that a certified copy of an order under section 31 must be attached to the grant of probate or letters of administration with the will annexed (as the case requires) of the will to which the order relates
the resident is liable for the costs of a valuation under clause 3 in the same proportion
Regulation 10(h) prohibits a contract term requiring a resident to pay more than half of valuation costs, subject only to its stated exceptions. Regulation 9 incorporates Schedule 4, whose clause 7(a) requires the resident to pay valuation costs in the same proportion as their entitlement to capital growth. If that proportion exceeds one half, the required clause is directly prohibited by regulation 10(h).
Source evidence
The clauses set out in Schedule 4 are included in a residence contract with a non-owner resident if—
a requirement, other than a requirement of a clause incorporated by regulation 7, for a resident to pay more than half the costs of any valuation of the resident's premises or residence right that is required or permitted, except where the resident has acted unreasonably;
the resident is liable for the costs of a valuation under clause 6 in the same proportion
A permitted late-completion branch allows clause 4(b) to acquire force only after its stated production deadline.
Source evidence
Division A, B and C of Part II of this Agreement shall not come into operation until the first day of the month following the date upon which the last of the following events occurs—
then either party may determine this Agreement at any time thereafter before all of such events shall have occurred
use its best endeavours to commence continuous production in commercial quantities of aluminium by the 1st day of November one thousand nine hundred and eighty-six;