Logical flaws, contradictions, and impossible compliance requirements found by AI analysis across Australian legislation.
AI-generated legal information, not legal advice. Zoe can make mistakes. Check the cited sources, and before you act on this, rely on it, or use any draft, get a qualified Australian lawyer to check it.
Jurisdiction
128Absurdities
25Contradictions
92High Severity
627 of 686 eligible titles analysed91%
3 awaiting substantive source text · 7 awaiting billing reconciliation
The definition uses the undefined temporal reference “commencement of the amendment Regulations”.
Source evidence
repealed sanitation Regulations means the Public Health
(General Sanitation, Mosquito Prevention, Rat Exclusion and
Prevention) Regulations 1960 in force before the commencement of
the amendment Regulations.
An existing approval of installation of a septic tank continues in
force after the commencement day as if the approval were a
wastewater works installation approval under regulation 82.
existing approval of installation of a septic tank means an
approval granted under regulation 27 of the repealed sanitation
Regulations.
The disposal trigger refers to “the later of the publications under clause (4)”, but clause (4) creates no publications. The two publications are required by clause (5).
Source evidence
A certificate under clause (3)(b) is evidence of the matters set out in it.
After the expiration of 28 days after the impoundment, the clerk is to cause notice of the impoundment to be published in a newspaper generally circulating in the municipality and, if the owner of the trolley does not respond within 7 days after that publication of the notice, is to publish the same
Regulation 25(1) permits departure only with CEO approval and only for listed purposes. Form 11 states that the youth may leave as permitted by either the CEO or a community youth justice officer, without reproducing the listed-purpose limit. The prescribed order therefore grants broader permission than regulation 25(1).
Source evidence
The youth must not leave the premises or place specified in the alternative detention order except as approved by the CEO to attend:
For section 83(1)(j) of the Act, Form 11 of Schedule 2 is an alternative detention order.
the youth must not leave the premises or place specified above during the period the order remains in force, except as permitted by the Chief Executive Officer or a community youth justice officer;
Regulation 62(5) relies on a test supposedly mentioned in regulation 69(1)(d), but regulation 69(1) has no paragraph (d) and concerns defects or errors in documents, not testing.
Source evidence
If the applicant in the relevant application did not agree to a test mentioned in regulation 69(1)(d), and the qualified person considers the test was necessary to finalise the technical report
A document given to a party by the Commissioner is not invalid because of a defect or error in its form alone.
with the written agreement of the applicant in the relevant application – conduct tests that may have a significant impact on the building or land
The mandatory auction-notice rule identifies a removal event that by-law 36 does not create.
Source evidence
The Commission may declare a yard or other place under its control to be a vehicle pound for this Part.
A conservation officer may remove or cause to be removed to a vehicle pound, a vehicle or boat which is:
At least 7 days notice of an auction must be given by advertisement in a newspaper circulating in the area of the Territory in which the park or reserve from which the vehicle or boat was removed under by-law 36 is located.
Section 24(3) attaches the identity-card production duty to entry under section 28, but section 28 contains no entry power; that power is in section 28A.
Source evidence
An officer who enters land under section 28 is to produce the card issued under subsection (2) on the request of the owner or occupier of the land.
An officer may, for the purposes of this Act, do any of the following:
An officer may, for the purposes of this Act, enter land other than a dwelling and do any of the following:
The approval requirement for an owner-supplied collar depends on an election that cannot occur under the referenced clause.
Source evidence
The owner of the declared dog may elect to fit a collar supplied by Council or supplied by the owner.
Where an election is made under clause (2) to fit a collar supplied by Council, the cost of the collar becomes a debt due and owing by the owner to Council recoverable at law.
Where an election is made under clause (3) to fit a collar supplied by the owner, the collar must be approved by the Registrar.
Clause 3 depends on registration deemed by clause 1, but clause 1 only defines “the repealed Acts”.
Source evidence
In this Schedule, the repealed Acts means the Acts specified in Schedule 3.
a person whose registration as a veterinary surgeon under the repealed Acts is in force immediately before the commencement of this Act shall be deemed on that commencement to be registered as a veterinarian under section 13.
So long as a person shall be deemed by virtue of clause 1 to be registered as a veterinarian under this Act
A step-in notice gives the Territory Coordinator—or a substituted Minister—responsibility for completing a decision or process while prohibiting that person from taking the action needed to complete it.
Source evidence
the Coordinator becomes the responsible entity under the
relevant law for the decision or process from the time the
step-in notice is given until the Coordinator finishes making
the decision or undertaking the process;
no person (including the original entity) may take any action in
relation to the decision or process, other than to comply with
section 72, until the Coordinator gives a notice of completion
under section 74;
When the Territory Coordinator finishes making a statutory decision
or undertaking a statutory process under this Division, the
Coordinator must give written notice to the applicant and the
original entity for the decision or process.
A person acquiring a declared dog after 1 July may become subject to an annual-fee deadline that expired before the acquisition.
Source evidence
The annual declaration fee must be paid no later than the 1st day of July of each year.
Where a person acquires ownership of a declared dog, the person is not required to pay the annual declaration fee until the 1st day of July next occurring.
Clause (1) does not apply where the annual declaration fee has not been paid for that year.
The animal welfare organisation's sale or disposal power depends on an assignment under a provision that does not authorise assignments.
Source evidence
After the expiration of the period referred to in By-law 140, Council may assign its rights in and to the animal to an approved animal welfare organisation.
Where the rights in and to an animal have been assigned under By-law 144, the animal welfare organisation may thereafter sell or otherwise dispose of the animal.
Where Council may exercise the power to sell an animal that has been impounded, it may alternatively dispose of the animal.
Clause 4 provides a service method for persons deemed registered under clause 1, although clause 1 deems nobody registered.
Source evidence
In this Schedule, the repealed Acts means the Acts specified in Schedule 3.
a person whose registration as a veterinary surgeon under the repealed Acts is in force immediately before the commencement of this Act shall be deemed on that commencement to be registered as a veterinarian under section 13.
A notice or other document required or authorised by this Act to be served on or given to a person who shall be deemed under clause 1 to be registered as a veterinarian under this Act