Sets administrative rules for the Superannuation Guarantee: definitions, how employers calculate and certify contribution rates for defined‑benefit members, exclusions from guaranteed‑pay calculations, choice‑of‑fund and stapled‑fund procedures, minimum death insurance for MySuper members, shortfall notification and payment processes, and a 10% nominal interest rate. It affects employers (who pay and must obtain actuarial certificates), trustees and RSA providers (who act on nominations), MySuper members, and the Commissioner/ATO (who issues notices and identifies stapled funds).
This instrument, the Superannuation Guarantee (Administration) Regulations 2018, sets out detailed rules to operationalise parts of the Superannuation Guarantee (Administration) Act 1992. It does not restate the Act; it prescribes definitions, calculation methods, procedural requirements, notification rules and limited offences that determine how employers, trustees (or RSA providers), actuaries and the Commissioner of Taxation must behave for particular SG administration tasks.
Mechanically, the instrument does the following (selected high‑impact items with section citations):
Establishes the instrument’s authority and name (ss 1, 3).
Prescribes definitional detail used throughout the Regulations, and imports a number of terms from the Act and other Commonwealth legislation (s 5).
Identifies specific classes of members to be taken as defined benefit members for SG purposes (s 6).
Requires employers to obtain benefit certificates from an actuary, sets the timing for those certificates and stipulates what must be included in them (s 7).
Provides the formulaic and fallback methods for determining the notional employer contribution rate for defined benefit schemes, including detailed numerical formulae and the conditions when those formulae apply (ss 8-10).
Prescribes categories of employees treated as “prescribed employees” for the purpose of paragraph 27(1)(d) of the Act, largely dealing with certain visa holders in senior executive roles (s 11).
Prescribes particular salary and wage items that are excluded from ordinary time earnings for SG calculation and ringfences exceptions to those exclusions, including emergency, defence and some Commonwealth‑funded aged care payments (ss 12, 12A).
Current sections
Direct links to the current provisions in Superannuation Guarantee (Administration) Regulations 2018.
37
Part 1
Preliminary
Part 1—Preliminary
1
Name
1 Name
This instrument is the Superannuation Guarantee (Administration) Regulations 2018.
3
Authority
3 Authority
This instrument is made under the Superannuation Guarantee (Administration) Act 1992.
5
Definitions
5 Definitions
Note: A number of expressions used in this instrument are defined in the Act, including the following:
(a) actuary;
(b) defined benefit superannuation scheme;
(c) MySuper member;
(d) ordinary time earnings;
(e) superannuation guarantee statement.
In this instrument:
Act means the Superannuation Guarantee (Administration) Act 1992.
capital guaranteed fund has the same meaning as in the Corporations Regulations 2001.
eligible community service activity has the same meaning as in subsection 109(1) of the Fair Work Act 2009.
employer contribution rate, in relation to a member of a superannuation scheme, means the rate:
(a) at which contributions relating to the member are paid into the superannuation fund in respect of the scheme by an employer of the member; and
(b) that is expressed as a percentage of the member’s ordinary time earnings.
minimum requisite benefit has the same meaning as in the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Regulations 1994.
parental leave includes any of the following:
(a) maternity leave;
(b) early paid leave for an expectant mother if the employer is unable to transfer her to a safe job;
(c) paternity leave;
(d) pre‑adoption leave;
(e) adoption leave.
relevant fund means any of the following:
(a) a complying approved deposit fund;
(b) a complying superannuation fund;
(c) an RSA.
responsible officers means:
(a) in relation to a relevant fund that is a complying approved deposit fund or a complying superannuation fund—the trustees of the fund; or
(b) in relation to a relevant fund that is an RSA—the RSA provider of the RSA.
scheduled international social security agreement has the meaning given by subsection 5(1) of the Social Security (International Agreements) Act 1999.
selection period has the meaning given by subsection 17A(4).
shortfall component has the meaning given by sections 64A and 64B of the Act.
successor fund has the same meaning as in the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Regulations 1994.
Part 2
Defined benefit members
Part 2—Defined benefit members
6
Circumstances in which member taken to be defined benefit member
6 Circumstances in which member taken to be defined benefit member
(1) For the purposes of paragraph 6AA(b) of the Act, subsection (2) sets out circumstances in which a member of a superannuation fund is to be taken to be a defined benefit member for the purposes of subsection 19(2CA) of the Act.
(2) A circumstance is that the member:
(a) is a member of the scheme established under the Military Superannuation and Benefits Act 1991 (the military superannuation scheme); or
(b) holds an interest, as a non‑member spouse within the meaning of Part VIIIB or VIIIC of the Family Law Act 1975, in the military superannuation scheme; or
(c) has a preserved benefit in the military superannuation scheme; or
(d) has an ancillary account in the military superannuation scheme; or
(e) both:
(i) is a member of the scheme established under the Defence Force Retirement and Death Benefits Act 1973; and
(ii) has an ancillary account in the military superannuation scheme; or
(f) holds an interest, as a non‑member spouse within the meaning of Part VIIIB or VIIIC of the Family Law Act 1975, in a superannuation scheme established under the Superannuation Act 1976 or the Superannuation Act 1990; or
(g) has made an election under section 137 of the Superannuation Act 1976; or
(h) is a preserved benefit member within the meaning of the Public Sector Superannuation Scheme Trust Deed.
Part 3
Benefit certificates
Part 3—Benefit certificates
7
Benefit certificates
7 Benefit certificates
(1) An employer must obtain a benefit certificate from an actuary:
(a) if the employer is required to lodge a superannuation guarantee statement—on or before the day on which the superannuation guarantee statement for the quarter to which the certificate relates is lodged; or
(b) if the employer is not required to lodge a superannuation guarantee statement—at or before the time ascertained under subsections 10(3) and (4) of the Act; or
(c) on or before such later date as the Commissioner allows.
(2) A benefit certificate must:
(a) include the name of each defined benefit superannuation scheme to which the certificate relates; and
(b) specify, or identify by reference to the governing rules of each scheme to which the certificate relates, the minimum requisite benefit; and
(c) specify:
(i) the notional employer contribution rate in relation to each scheme, or combination of schemes, to which the certificate relates; and
(ii) the class of members of the scheme or schemes to which the notional employer contribution rate relates; and
(d) include a statement to the effect that each notional employer contribution rate referred to in paragraph (c) has been calculated in accordance with this instrument; and
(e) specify the date of effect of the benefit certificate in relation to each scheme to which the certificate relates; and
(f) include the name, business address and actuarial qualifications of the actuary who issues the certificate; and
(g) include the signature of the actuary and the date on which the certificate is signed.
8
Notional employer contribution rate—general
8 Notional employer contribution rate—general
(1) Subject to subsection (2), the notional employer contribution rate in relation to a class of employees who are members of a defined benefit superannuation scheme is the rate determined in accordance with section 9 or 10.
(2) If section 9 or 10 is not applicable to a class of employees, the notional employer contribution rate for that class is calculated in accordance with a method determined by an actuary, who certifies that the method:
(a) is applicable to the class; and
(b) is consistent with section 9 or 10; and
(c) determines a rate that is comparable to the rate at which the employer of the employees must contribute to the superannuation scheme, or schemes, to provide the employees with the minimum requisite benefit.
If, in relation to a class of employees who are members of a defined benefit superannuation scheme:
(a) the minimum requisite benefit in respect of each employee in that class is calculated as an accumulation of employer contributions; and
(b) the employer contribution rate used in that calculation is the same for each employee in the class;
the notional employer contribution rate in relation to the class is that employer contribution rate.
(a) who has not turned 45—is 0.3; or
(b) who has turned 45 but has not turned 65—is the number that is calculated by multiplying 0.00125 by:
(i) in the case of a person whose age, expressed in months, when the person withdraws from a superannuation scheme is a whole number of months—the number that is equal to 780 less the number of months; or
(ii) in the case of a person whose age, expressed in months, when the person withdraws from a superannuation scheme exceeds a whole number of months—the number that is equal to 779 less the number of months; or
(c) who has turned 65—is 0.
FOTE is:
(a) if a benefit accruing in respect of membership after 30 June 2008 is expressed in the governing rules of a superannuation scheme as a multiple of the annual ordinary time earnings of the person as at the day on which the person withdraws from the scheme—0.0833; or
(b) if a benefit accruing in respect of membership after 30 June 2008 is expressed in the governing rules of the scheme as a multiple of the average annual ordinary time earnings of the person in the period of 3 years ending on the day on which the person withdraws from the scheme—0.09; or
(c) if a benefit accruing in respect of membership after 30 June 2008 is expressed in those governing rules as a multiple of the average annual ordinary time earnings of the person in a particular number of years of membership of the person ending on the day on which the person withdraws from the scheme:

where:
A is the number of years specified in the governing rules of the scheme ending on the day on which the person withdraws from the scheme.
FSAL is:
(a) if SAL is the annual salary of the person, calculated in accordance with the governing rules of the scheme applicable as at 30 June 1992, as at the day on which the person withdraws from the scheme—0.0833; or
(b) if SAL is the average annual salary of the person in the period of 3 years ending on the day on which the person withdraws from the scheme, calculated in accordance with the governing rules of the scheme applicable as at 30 June 1992—0.09; or
(c) if SAL is the average annual salary of the person in a number of years, specified in the governing rules of the scheme, ending on the day on which the person withdraws from the scheme, calculated in accordance with the governing rules of the scheme applicable as at 30 June 1992:

where:
A is the number of years specified in the governing rules of the scheme ending on the day on which the person withdraws from the scheme.
MB has the same meaning as in subsection (5).
MCR, in relation to a member of a superannuation scheme, is the rate at which contributions are paid by the member into a superannuation fund in respect of the scheme for the period from 1 July 2008, being a rate that is expressed, for the purposes of the governing rules of the scheme, as a percentage of the member’s annual ordinary time earnings.
MRB means the minimum requisite benefit in respect of the person.
NM, in relation to contributions to a superannuation scheme in respect of a person that are made after 30 June 2008, is:
(a) in the case of a person who withdraws from the scheme at the end of a period that is a whole number of months after the day on which the first contribution was made—that whole number; and
(b) in the case of a person who withdraws from the scheme at the end of a period that exceeds a whole number of months after the day on which the first contribution was made—the number that is equal to the sum of:
(i) that whole number; and
(ii) the fraction that is calculated by dividing the number of days in the month in which the person withdrew from the scheme, up to and including the day of withdrawal, by the total number of days in that month.
NM1, in relation to contributions to a superannuation scheme in respect of a person that are made between 1 July 1992 and 30 June 2008, is:
(a) if the number of months from the day on which the first contribution was made to 30 June 2008 is a whole number—that whole number; and
(b) if the number of months from the day on which the first contribution was made to 30 June 2008 exceeds a whole number—the number that is equal to the sum of:
(i) the whole number; and
(ii) the fraction that is calculated by dividing the number of days in the month in which the first contribution was made, from the day the first contribution was made to the end of the last day of the month, by the total number of days in that month.
OTE is:
(a) if a benefit accruing in respect of the period from 1 July 2008 is expressed in the governing rules of a superannuation scheme as a multiple of the annual ordinary time earnings of a member of that scheme as at the day on which the member withdraws from the scheme—the member’s annual rate of ordinary time earnings as at that day; or
(b) if a benefit accruing in respect of the period from 1 July 2008 is expressed in the governing rules of the scheme as a multiple of the average annual ordinary time earnings of a member of the scheme in a period referred to in paragraph (b) or (c) of the definition of FOTE—the member’s average annual rate of ordinary time earnings in the relevant period.
PAB1 means that part of the minimum requisite benefit that accrued to the person before 1 July 1992, calculated in accordance with subsection (6).
PAB2 means that part of the minimum requisite benefit that accrued to the person between 1 July 1992 and 30 June 2008, calculated in accordance with subsection (7).
SAL is the annual salary of the member on the day on which the member withdraws from the scheme, calculated in accordance with the governing rules of the scheme applicable as at 30 June 1992, or if a benefit is expressed in the governing rules of the scheme applicable as at 30 June 1992 as a multiple of the annual salary of the member averaged over a period, the member’s average annual rate of salary in the relevant period.
SAL1 is the amount that would have been SAL if the member had withdrawn from the scheme on 30 June 1992.
TCR has the same meaning as in subsection (4).
TR, in relation to a complying superannuation scheme, is the rate of tax payable in respect of the scheme in relation to the low tax component (within the meaning of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997) of the taxable income of the scheme.
(2) The notional employer contribution rate in relation to a defined benefit superannuation scheme in respect of a class of employees is calculated in accordance with this section if:
(a) MCR and TCR are greater than 0, and have not changed since 1 July 1992; and
(b) MCR and TCR are the same in respect of each employee in the class; and
(c) TR has not changed since 1 July 2008; and
(d) the definition of SAL in the governing rules of the scheme did not change between 1 July 1992 and 30 June 2008; and
(e) no part of the minimum requisite benefit constitutes an element untaxed in the fund of the taxable component (within the meaning of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997); and
(f) the benefit certificate to which the notional employer contribution rate relates is in respect of a single superannuation scheme; and
(g) the date of effect of the benefit certificate is on or after 1 July 2008; and
(h) the minimum requisite benefit as at 30 June 2008 in respect of each employee in the class was equal to the amount calculated using the formula:
Start formula TCR times FSAL times NM1 times SAL times open bracket 1 minus DF close bracket plus A times start fraction SAL over SAL1 end fraction end formula
with the values of SAL and DF determined as at 30 June 2008 and the value of A calculated in accordance with subsection (6); and
(i) the minimum requisite benefit accruing in respect of the period from 1 July 2008 in respect of each employee in the class is prescribed in the governing rules of the scheme as a multiple of:
(i) the annual ordinary time earnings of the employee as at the day when the employee withdraws from the fund; or
(ii) the average annual ordinary time earnings of the employee in a period ending when the employee withdraws from the scheme.
(3) The notional employer contribution rate in relation to a class of employees specified in a benefit certificate relating to a defined benefit superannuation scheme is calculated using the formula:
Start formula start fraction TCR over 1 end fraction minus start fraction MCR over 1 minus TR end fraction end formula
(4) TCR is calculated using the formula:
Start formula start fraction MB over FOTE times NM times OTE times open bracket 1 minus DF close bracket end fraction end formula
(5) MB is calculated using the formula:
Start formula MRB minus PAB1 minus PAB2 end formula
(6) PAB1 is calculated using the formula:
Start formula start fraction A times SAL over SAL1 end fraction end formula
where:
A is the lesser of:
(a) the amount of the benefit vested in the member as at 30 June 1992 in accordance with the governing rules of the superannuation scheme; and
(b) the amount of the benefit that has accrued in respect of the member as at 30 June 1992 in accordance with those governing rules.
Liability of employers to pay superannuation guarantee charge
Part 4—Liability of employers to pay superannuation guarantee charge
11
Certain employees excluded
11 Certain employees excluded
For the purposes of paragraph 27(1)(d) of the Act, each of the following employees is a prescribed employee:
(a) an employee who has been appointed by a company operating in Australia to be the national managing executive or deputy national managing executive or a state manager and who is the holder of:
(i) a Subclass 456 (Business (Short Stay)) visa granted under the Migration Act 1958; or
(ii) a Subclass 400 (Temporary Work (Short Stay Specialist)) visa granted under that Act;
(b) an employee who is the holder of a visa referred to in paragraph (a) if:
(i) the employee holds a position as a senior executive of a company operating in Australia or is establishing a business activity in Australia on behalf of the employer; and
(ii) the employee’s position carries substantial executive responsibility; and
(iii) the employee’s qualifications for the position are appropriate; and
(iv) the employee’s position is a full‑time position;
(c) an employee who is the holder of a Subclass 482 (Temporary Skill Shortage) visa or a Subclass 457 (Temporary Work (Skilled)) visa granted under the Migration Act 1958 if:
(i) the employee has been appointed by a company operating in Australia to be the national managing executive or deputy national managing executive or a state manager; and
(ii) the employee was nominated as mentioned in clause 482.212 of Schedule 2 to the Migration Regulations 1994 or in paragraph 457.223(2)(c) or 457.223(4)(a) of that Schedule (as in force before 18 March 2018);
(d) an employee who is the holder of a Subclass 482 (Temporary Skill Shortage) visa or a Subclass 457 (Temporary Work (Skilled)) visa granted under the Migration Act 1958 if:
(i) the employee holds a position as a senior executive of a company operating in Australia; and
(ii) the employee was nominated as mentioned in clause 482.212 of Schedule 2 to the Migration Regulations 1994 or in paragraph 457.223(2)(c) or 457.223(4)(a) of that Schedule (as in force before 18 March 2018); and
(iii) the employee’s position carries substantial executive responsibility; and
(iv) the employee’s qualifications for the position are appropriate; and
(v) the employee’s position is a full‑time position;
(e) an employee who is the holder of a Subclass 482 (Temporary Skill Shortage) visa or a Subclass 457 (Temporary Work (Skilled)) visa granted under the Migration Act 1958 if:
(i) the employee is establishing a business activity in Australia on behalf of the employer; and
(ii) the employee’s position carries substantial executive responsibility; and
(iii) the employee’s qualifications for the position are appropriate; and
(iv) the employee’s position is a full‑time position.
12
Certain salary or wages excluded
12 Certain salary or wages excluded
(1) For the purposes of paragraph 27(1)(e) of the Act, the following are prescribed:
(a) salary or wages paid to an employee for a period of parental leave;
(b) salary or wages:
(i) paid to an employee who is engaging in an eligible community service activity; and
(ii) paid by the employee’s usual employer while the employee is absent from the employee’s usual employment;
(c) salary or wages:
(i) paid to an employee who is undertaking service with the Australian Defence Force; and
(ii) paid by the employee’s usual employer while the employee is absent from the employee’s usual employment;
(d) salary or wages consisting of a payment of green army allowance (within the meaning of the Social Security Act 1991);
(e) if a scheduled international social security agreement provides that an employer to which salary or wages relate is not subject to the Act in relation to the work for which the salary or wages were paid—the salary or wages so paid;
(f) salary or wages:
(i) paid on or after 1 June 2020; and
(ii) funded by a payment made to the employer under the program established by the Commonwealth and known as the Aged Care Workforce Retention Grant Opportunity;
(g) salary or wages:
(i) paid on or after 1 November 2022; and
(ii) funded by a payment made to the employer under the program established by the Commonwealth and known as the Aged Care Registered Nurses’ Payment to reward clinical skills and leadership.
(2) Paragraph (1)(b) does not apply to the salary or wages of an employee who engages in the eligible community service activity in the capacity of an employee of the employer that carries on the activity.
(3) Paragraph (1)(c) does not apply to salary or wages paid by the Australian Defence Force (other than salary or wages to which section 29 of the Act applies).
(4) Paragraphs (1)(b) and (c) do not apply to a payment relating to:
(a) annual leave; or
(b) sick leave; or
(c) long service leave;
that is paid in relation to the period during which the employee is engaged in the relevant activity or performing the relevant work.
12A
Certain salary or wages excluded—amounts paid to satisfy jobkeeper wage condition
12A Certain salary or wages excluded—amounts paid to satisfy jobkeeper wage condition
Scope
(1) This section applies in relation to jobkeeper fortnights beginning on or after 30 March 2020.
Excluded salary or wages
(2) For the purposes of paragraph 27(1)(e) of the Act, salary or wages paid by an employer to an employee in respect of a jobkeeper fortnight are prescribed to the extent (if any) that:
(a) the amount of the salary or wages exceeds the amount of salary or wages the employer is required to pay the employee in respect of the fortnight in relation to the performance of work (including the taking of leave); and
(b) the excess is reasonably attributable to amounts paid by the employer to the employee for the purpose of satisfying the wage condition in respect of the employee for the fortnight.
Definitions
(4) In this section:
jobkeeper fortnight has the same meaning as in the Coronavirus Economic Response Package (Payments and Benefits) Rules 2020.
wage condition means the wage condition set out in the Coronavirus Economic Response Package (Payments and Benefits) Rules 2020.
13
Nominal interest component—rate applicable
13 Nominal interest component—rate applicable
For the purposes of section 31 of the Act, the rate applicable is 10% per annum.
Part 5
Choice of fund requirements
Part 5—Choice of fund requirements
14
Requirement for providing or offering insurance in respect of death
14 Requirement for providing or offering insurance in respect of death
MySuper members
(1) For the purposes of paragraph 32C(2)(d) of the Act, for a MySuper member, other than a member who is a defined benefit member, the requirement is that insurance be provided by the fund in the event of the death of the member:
(a) for a person of an age in an age range mentioned in subsection (5)—at the level mentioned or higher; or
(b) for a person who is under 56 years—at a premium of at least $0.50 per week, or the equivalent.
(2) However, if a MySuper member, other than a member who is a defined benefit member, has elected that insurance in relation to death not be provided, or that insurance in relation to death be provided at a lower level than provided for in subsection (1), the requirement is that insurance be offered by the fund in the event of the death of the member:
(a) for a person of an age in an age range mentioned in subsection (5)—at the level mentioned or higher; or
(b) for a person who is under 56 years—at a premium of at least $0.50 per week, or the equivalent.
(3) The provision, by a regulated superannuation fund, of insurance in respect of death in accordance with subsection (1) is subject to such reasonable conditions as the trustees of the fund determine.
Members other than MySuper members
(4) For the purposes of paragraph 32C(2)(e) of the Act, for a defined benefit member, or a member other than a MySuper member, the requirement is that insurance be offered by the fund in the event of the death of the member:
(a) for a person of an age in an age range mentioned in subsection (5)—at the level mentioned or higher; or
(b) for a person who is under 56 years—at a premium of at least $0.50 per week, or the equivalent; or
(c) if the contribution is made to a defined benefit superannuation scheme on behalf of a defined benefit member—that provides a death benefit with a future service component that is at least equivalent to the level of insurance in relation to death mentioned in paragraph (a).
Level of insurance
(5) For the purposes of paragraph (1)(a), (2)(a) or (4)(a), the level of insurance in respect of death is as follows:
(a) if the person is aged from 20 to 34 years—$50,000;
(b) if the person is aged from 35 to 39 years—$35,000;
(c) if the person is aged from 40 to 44 years—$20,000;
(d) if the person is aged from 45 to 49 years—$14,000;
(e) if the person is aged from 50 to 55 years—$7,000.
Exceptions
(6) The requirement in subsection (1), (2) or (4) does not apply to an employer:
(a) if, on or after 1 July 2005, the employer is making contributions under a Federal award in respect of an employee to a fund that does not meet the requirement—to the extent that the employer continues to contribute to a fund under that award in respect of the employee; or
(b) if the employer makes contributions to an RSA on behalf of an employee—to the extent that the requirement relates to the employee; or
(c) if the employer makes contributions to a capital guaranteed fund on behalf of an employee—to the extent that the requirement relates to the employee; or
(d) to the extent that the requirement relates to an employee in respect of whom an arrangement by the employer results in the provision of insurance cover that includes death cover:
(i) other than with the fund that the employer will contribute to if the employee does not make a choice; and
(ii) at a level that is at least equivalent to the level mentioned in subsection (1), (2) or (4); and
(iii) that does not provide for a potential benefit to the employer following the death of the employee; or
(e) if, due to a particular employee’s health, occupation, hours worked or other circumstances determined by an insurer, the insurance requirement mentioned in subsection (1), (2) or (4) is not available in respect of the employee from the fund normally used by the employer; or
(f) if, in respect of an employee, the employer makes contributions:
(i) to a fund or successor fund governed by rules that, on 11 March 2005, determined that an amount of not less than $50,000 will be payable in respect of the death of an employee; and
(ii) that were continuing on, or commenced after, 11 March 2005.
(7) The requirement in subsection (1) does not apply to an employer if, under section 68AAA of the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act 1993, insurance in the event of the death of the employee is not to be provided.
15
Contributions under prescribed legislation
15 Contributions under prescribed legislation
For the purposes of subsection 32C(9) of the Act, a contribution to a fund by an employer for the benefit of an employee is made in compliance with the choice of fund requirements if:
(a) the contribution is made on or after 1 July 2005 under any of the following laws:
(i) the Parliamentary Superannuation Act 2004;
(ii) the First State Superannuation Act 1992 (NSW);
(iii) the Emergency Services Superannuation Act 1986 (Vic.);
(iv) the Parliamentary Salaries and Superannuation Act 1968 (Vic.);
(v) the State Employees Retirement Benefits Act 1979 (Vic.);
(vi) the State Superannuation Act 1988 (Vic.);
(vii) the Transport Superannuation Act 1988 (Vic.);
(viii) the Coal Industry Superannuation Act 1989 (WA);
(ix) the Fire and Emergency Services Superannuation Act 1985 (WA);
(x) the State Superannuation Act 2000 (WA);
(xi) the Electricity Corporations Act 1994 (SA);
(xii) the Local Government Act 1999 (SA); or
(b) the contribution is made on or after 1 August 2009 under the Southern State Superannuation Act 2009 (SA); or
(c) the contribution is made on or after 1 July 2010 under the Local Government Act 2009 (Qld); or
(d) the contribution is made on or after 31 March 2017 under the Public Sector Superannuation Reform Act 2016 (Tas.).
16
Chosen funds—information to be provided by employee
16 Chosen funds—information to be provided by employee
For the purposes of subparagraph 32FA(1)(a)(ii) of the Act, the following information is prescribed:
(a) the employee’s account name in the fund;
(b) if the fund uses a number or other unique identifier to refer to the employee’s account—the number or identifier that relates to the account;
(c) the full name of the fund;
(d) if the fund has an Australian Business Number—the number;
(e) a written statement that complies with subsection 25(1) of the Act from the trustee of the fund;
(f) if the fund is a self managed superannuation fund within the meaning of section 17A of the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act 1993—evidence from the Australian Taxation Office that the fund is a regulated superannuation fund (within the meaning of that Act);
(g) information concerning the method of payment for the employee’s contributions, and details necessary to make the payment;
(h) if the fund uses a number or other unique identifier to refer to its superannuation products—the number or identifier that relates to the product provided to the employee;
(i) if the employer uses a number or other unique identifier to refer to the employee—the number or identifier that relates to the employee.
17
Standard choice form
17 Standard choice form
For the purposes of paragraphs 32P(1)(e) and (g) of the Act, the standard choice form is the form approved for those paragraphs under section 388‑50 in Schedule 1 to the Taxation Administration Act 1953.
17A
Stapled funds—requirements for a fund to be a stapled fund
17A Stapled funds—requirements for a fund to be a stapled fund
(1) For the purposes of section 32Q of the Act, the following requirements are prescribed for working out if a fund is the stapled fund for an employee at a particular time:
(a) the requirements in subsection (2);
(b) if at that time the requirements in subsection (2) are met for 2 or more funds (the eligible funds)—the fund is covered by subsection (3) for the employee at that time.
Basic requirements
(2) The requirements in this subsection are that:
(a) the fund:
(i) is a complying superannuation fund, or a complying superannuation scheme, for the financial year that includes that time; or
(ii) is an RSA at that time; and
(b) at that time, the employee is:
(i) a member of that fund or scheme; or
(ii) a holder of that RSA; and
(c) at that time, insofar as the Commissioner is aware, that fund, scheme or RSA is able to accept contributions from the employee’s employer; and
(d) at that time, the Commissioner is able to disclose to the employee’s employer (and the employer’s agent if necessary) information about:
(i) the employee; or
(ii) the fund, scheme or RSA.
Note: For paragraph (d), the Commissioner will need to disclose information to the employer’s agent if the agent had requested the Commissioner to identify any stapled fund for the employee (see section 32R of the Act).
Tiebreaker requirement
(3) A fund (the selected fund) is covered by this subsection for the employee at that time if:
(a) in the case where during the selection period the Commissioner has given one or more notices under section 32R of the Act identifying an eligible fund that the Commissioner is satisfied is the stapled fund for the employee—the selected fund is the eligible fund that was identified in the most recent of those notices; or
(b) in the case where paragraph (a) does not apply to any eligible fund for the employee at that time—the selected fund is the eligible fund that received the most recent contribution for the benefit of the employee during the selection period, based on statements given to the Commissioner under Subdivision 390‑A in Schedule 1 to the Taxation Administration Act 1953; or
(c) in the case where paragraphs (a) and (b) do not apply to any eligible fund for the employee at that time—the selected fund held the largest account balance for the employee at the end of the previous financial year out of all the eligible funds; or
(d) in the case where paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) do not apply to any eligible fund for the employee at that time—the Commissioner is satisfied that the selected fund is the most appropriate of the eligible funds to be selected as the stapled fund for the employee after having regard to:
(i) when the employee became a member, or holder, of each of the eligible funds; and
(ii) any other relevant matters.
Meaning of selection period
(4) The selection period, for working out if an eligible fund is the stapled fund for an employee at a particular time, is the period:
(a) starting at the start of the most recent financial year that has ended before that time; and
(b) ending at that time.
17B
Stapled funds—requirements for making requests to the Commissioner
17B Stapled funds—requirements for making requests to the Commissioner
A requirement prescribed for the purposes of paragraph 32R(1)(b) of the Act for a request by an employer, or by an employer’s agent, is that the request must be made for the purposes of complying with the aspects of the choice of fund requirements that relate to stapled funds.
17C
Stapled funds—circumstances for changing an earlier notification
17C Stapled funds—circumstances for changing an earlier notification
For the purposes of subsection 32R(3) of the Act, the circumstances in which the Commissioner may change an earlier notification given to an employer in relation to an employee are when:
(a) the Commissioner has identified an error in the earlier notification; and
(b) if the earlier notification stated that the Commissioner is satisfied that there is a stapled fund for the employee—the Commissioner is unaware of any contributions being made to the fund by the employer for the benefit of the employee.
Note: The earlier notification will also have been given to the employer’s agent if that agent made the request that resulted in the notification (see paragraph 32R(2)(b) of the Act).
Part 6
Payments of amounts of shortfall components for the benefit of employees
Part 6—Payments of amounts of shortfall components for the benefit of employees
18
Employee must be notified of certain shortfall components
18 Employee must be notified of certain shortfall components
(1) The Commissioner must give written notice to an employee if the employee’s shortfall component exceeds $20.
(2) The Commissioner may give written notice to an employee if the employee’s shortfall component is equal to or less than $20.
(3) A notice must:
(a) state the date of the notice; and
(b) state the name of the employer; and
(c) state the amount, or the sum of the amounts, of the shortfall component.
(4) A notice may also specify a relevant fund for the purposes of subsection 19(5).
(5) The Commissioner may give more than one notice under this section.
19
Responses to notice of a shortfall component
19 Responses to notice of a shortfall component
(1) This section applies to an employee who receives a notice under section 18.
(2) If the employee is under 55 years and has retired from the workforce because of permanent incapacity or permanent invalidity, the employee must lodge the documents mentioned in paragraph 66(b) of the Act.
(3) If the employee has died, the legal personal representative of the deceased employee must lodge:
(a) written notice of the death, signed by the legal personal representative; and
(b) a copy of the death certificate of the deceased employee.
(4) If subsections (2) and (3) do not apply, and the notice does not specify a relevant fund, the employee may:
(a) request in writing the responsible officers of a relevant fund to collect from the Commissioner the amount, or the sum of the amounts, of the shortfall component; or
(b) lodge a written nomination of a relevant fund.
(5) If:
(a) subsections (2) and (3) do not apply; and
(b) the notice specifies a relevant fund; and
(c) the employee does not wish to have the amount, or the sum of the amounts, of the shortfall component paid into the relevant fund specified in the notice;
the employee may lodge a written nomination of another relevant fund.
20
Obligation of responsible officers who receive a request from an employee
20 Obligation of responsible officers who receive a request from an employee
(1) This section applies if the responsible officers of a relevant fund receive a request under paragraph 19(4)(a) or 22(a).
(2) The responsible officers must:
(a) give the employee written notice of receipt of the request; and
(b) specify in the notice the date of its receipt.
Penalty: 5 penalty units.
(3) An offence against subsection (2) is an offence of strict liability.
Note: For strict liability, see section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.
(4) If the responsible officers decline to comply with the request, the responsible officers must notify the employee within 14 days after receiving the request.
Penalty: 5 penalty units.
(5) An offence against subsection (4) is an offence of strict liability.
Note: For strict liability, see section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.
(6) If the responsible officers agree to comply with the request, the responsible officers must lodge the request, or a copy of it, at an office of the Australian Taxation Office, within:
(a) 14 days after receiving the request; or
(b) a further period determined by the Commissioner in writing.
Penalty: 5 penalty units.
(7) An offence against subsection (6) is an offence of strict liability.
Note: For strict liability, see section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.
21
Responses to notice are nominations
21 Responses to notice are nominations
(1) If a request, or a copy of the request, is lodged by the responsible officers of a relevant fund under subsection 20(6), the employee is taken to have nominated the fund specified in the request for the purposes of paragraph 65(1)(b) of the Act.
(2) A written nomination of a relevant fund lodged under paragraph 19(4)(b), subsection 19(5) or paragraph 22(b) is a nomination for the purposes of paragraph 65(1)(b) of the Act.
(3) If a notice given under section 18 specifies a relevant fund, and the employee does not otherwise nominate another relevant fund within 28 days after the date of the notice, the employee is taken, for the purposes of paragraph 65(1)(b) of the Act, to have nominated the relevant fund specified in the notice.
22
Nomination of relevant fund by employee
22 Nomination of relevant fund by employee
Whether or not the Commissioner has given an employee a notice under section 18, the employee may:
(a) request in writing the responsible officers of a relevant fund to collect from the Commissioner the amount, or the sum of the amounts, of the employee’s shortfall component; or
(b) lodge, at an office of the Australian Taxation Office, a written nomination of a relevant fund.
23
Shortfall component not to be paid in certain circumstances
23 Shortfall component not to be paid in certain circumstances
The Commissioner must not pay the amount of a shortfall component in respect of an employee unless sufficient information is reasonably available to the Commissioner to allow the Commissioner to identify the employee.
Part 7
Miscellaneous
Part 7—Miscellaneous
24
Approved clearing houses
24 Approved clearing houses
For the purposes of subsection 79A(3) of the Act, the Australian Taxation Office is an approved clearing house.
Part 8
Application and transitional provisions
Part 8—Application and transitional provisions
25
Application—contributions
25 Application—contributions
Paragraph 15(d) applies in relation to contributions made on or after 31 March 2017 under the Public Sector Superannuation Reform Act 2016 (Tas.).
26
Things done under the Superannuation Guarantee (Administration) Regulations 1993
26 Things done under the Superannuation Guarantee (Administration) Regulations 1993
(1) If:
(a) a thing was done for a particular purpose under the Superannuation Guarantee (Administration) Regulations 1993 as in force immediately before those Regulations were repealed; and
(b) the thing could be done for that purpose under this instrument;
the thing has effect for the purposes of this instrument as if it had been done for that purpose under this instrument.
(2) Without limiting subsection (1), a reference in that subsection to a thing being done includes a reference to a notice, application or other instrument being given or made.
27
Application—insurance requirements after amendment made by the Treasury Laws Amendment (Protecting Your Superannuation Package) Regulations 2019
27 Application—insurance requirements after amendment made by the Treasury Laws Amendment (Protecting Your Superannuation Package) Regulations 2019
The amendment made by item 29 of Schedule 1 to the Treasury Laws Amendment (Protecting Your Superannuation Package) Regulations 2019 applies in relation to contributions made on or after 1 July 2019.
Source text: opening excerpt
Sourced from the Federal Register of Legislation (legislation.gov.au), CC BY 4.0.
Part 1 Preliminary
Part 1—Preliminary
1 Name
1 Name
This instrument is the Superannuation Guarantee (Administration) Regulations 2018.
3 Authority
3 Authority
This instrument is made under the Superannuation Guarantee (Administration) Act 1992.
5 Definitions
5 Definitions
Note: A number of expressions used in this instrument are defined in the Act, including the following:
(a) actuary;
(b) defined benefit superannuation scheme;
(c) MySuper member;
(d) ordinary time earnings;
(e) superannuation guarantee statement.
In this instrument:
Act means the Superannuation Guarantee (Administration) Act 1992.
capital guaranteed fund has the same meaning as in the Corporations Regulations 2001.
eligible community service activity has the same meaning as in subsection 109(1) of the Fair Work Act 2009.
employer contribution rate, in relation to a member of a superannuation scheme, means the rate:
(a) at which contributions relating to the member are paid into the superannuation fund in respect of the scheme by an employer of the member; and
(b) that is expressed as a percentage of the member’s ordinary time earnings.
minimum requisite benefit has the same meaning as in the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Regulations 1994.
parental leave includes any of the following:
(a) maternity leave;
(b) early paid leave for an expectant mother if the employer is unable to transfer her to a safe job;
(c) paternity leave;
(d) pre‑adoption leave;
(e) adoption leave.
relevant fund means any of the following:
(a) a complying approved deposit fund;
(b) a complying superannuation fund;
(c) an RSA.
responsible officers means:
(a) in relation to a relevant fund that is a complying approved deposit fund or a complying superannuation fund—the trustees of the fund; or
(b) in relation to a relevant fund that is an RSA—the RSA provider of the RSA.
Fixes the nominal interest component rate used for SG charge calculations at 10% per annum (s 13).
Sets mandatory minimums and offering requirements for death insurance provided or offered by funds under the choice‑of‑fund provisions, with age bands and monetary minima, and certain exceptions (s 14).
Lists state and Commonwealth statutes under which employer contributions satisfy choice‑of‑fund requirements (s 15).
Prescribes the specific information an employee must provide to nominate a chosen fund and defines the standard choice form reference (ss 16-17).
Specifies the mechanics for “stapled funds” identification and tiebreakers, the Commissioner’s role in disclosure, and the selection period (ss 17A-17C).
Sets out Commissioner notifications and employee response processes for shortfall components, the obligations of responsible officers of relevant funds when requested to collect shortfall amounts, strict liability offences and penalty quantum (ss 18-23).
Designates the Australian Taxation Office as an approved clearing house for SG purposes (s 24).
Contains transitional application rules that preserve actions taken under the repealed 1993 Regulations and fixes commencement dates for specific amendments (ss 25-27).
The instrument therefore converts high‑level statutory text in the Act into operational requirements: calculation methods that actuaries must use (notably s 10), timeframes for employers and trustees (notably s 7 and ss 20-21), specified exclusions and inclusions for earnings (ss 12 and 12A), and administrative obligations on the Commissioner and responsible officers (ss 18-23). Each of those mechanical rules produces concrete compliance costs, verification steps, and administrative discretion (for example, the Commissioner may allow a later date for a benefit certificate, s 7(1)(c)) which are explored below.
Main concepts
This instrument defines and operationalises a set of interlocking concepts central to SG administration. The key concepts and their legal anchors in this instrument are:
Act, relevant fund and responsible officers (s 5). The Regulations import “Act” to mean the Superannuation Guarantee (Administration) Act 1992 and define “relevant fund” to include a complying approved deposit fund, a complying superannuation fund, or an RSA. “Responsible officers” are the trustees for funds or the RSA provider for an RSA. These definitions identify the legal actors with duties under the Regulations (e.g. trustees as the responsible officers who must lodge requests under s 20).
Defined benefit member (ss 5 and 6). Several classes of members are treated as defined benefit members for SG purposes. Section 6 lists circumstances (military schemes, preserved benefit members, non‑member spouse interests, certain elections under historical superannuation Acts) where a person is to be taken a defined benefit member for subsection 19(2CA) of the Act. The definition matters because different calculation rules apply (see ss 8-10).
Benefit certificate and actuary role (s 7). Employers who must lodge SG statements are required to obtain a benefit certificate from an actuary by specific timing rules (s 7(1)(a)-(c)). The certificate must include scheme names, the minimum requisite benefit by reference to governing rules, the notional employer contribution rate(s), classes of members, the actuary’s qualifications and signature, and a statement that the notional rates were calculated in accordance with the instrument (s 7(2)). This prescribes the information flow and imposes professional certification responsibilities on actuaries.
Notional employer contribution rate and the calculation regimes (ss 8-10). Section 8 sets out that the notional employer contribution rate is determined by s 9 or s 10 where applicable, and otherwise by an actuary using an alternate method certified as consistent and comparable. Section 9 supplies a straightforward rule for accumulation benefit schemes where the employer contribution rate is uniform: the employer contribution rate used in the scheme’s minimum requisite benefit calculation becomes the notional rate. Section 10 is the detailed numeric regime for defined benefit schemes meeting a set of preconditions, defining variables (DF, FOTE, FSAL, MB, MCR, MRB, NM, NM1, OTE, PAB1, PAB2, SAL, SAL1, TCR, TR) and giving the formulae to compute TCR and then the notional employer contribution rate (s 10(3)-(5)). Section 10 also lists the conditions when the formula applies (s 10(2)).
Prescribed employees and exclusions (ss 11-12A). Section 11 prescribes certain visa holders and senior executive roles as the relevant category for paragraph 27(1)(d) of the Act, affecting how the Act applies to those employees. Section 12 prescribes particular salary or wage items excluded from SG coverage, including parental leave pay, eligible community service activity pay under specified conditions, certain defence service pay, green army allowance, amounts excluded because of scheduled international social security agreements, and particular aged care Commonwealth grants (ss 12(1)(a)-(g)). Section 12A prescribes how JobKeeper‑related payments are treated for certain fortnights.
Nominal interest component (s 13). Fixes the rate at 10% per annum for the purposes of s 31 of the Act, which affects SG charge interest computations.
Choice‑of‑fund and insurance minima (ss 14-17). Section 14 prescribes when funds must provide or offer death insurance for MySuper and other members, the minimum amounts by age bands (s 14(5)), a minimum premium threshold of $0.50 per week for members under 56, and exceptions (s 14(6)-(7)). Sections 15-17 and 16 prescribe contribution sources that meet choice‑of‑fund obligations and the information employees must supply to nominate a chosen fund (account name, identifier, ABN, trustee statement) and refer to the standard choice form approved under the Taxation Administration Act (s 17).
Stapled funds (ss 17A-17C). The Regulations set the objective tests for a fund to be a “stapled fund” for an employee at a particular time, the tiebreaker rules where multiple eligible funds exist (most recent Commissioner notice, most recent contribution, largest previous financial year balance, or Commissioner’s discretion to pick the most appropriate fund), and define the selection period (start of the most recent completed financial year to the relevant time). Section 17B prescribes that requests to the Commissioner must be for the purpose of complying with stapled fund aspects of the choice‑of‑fund rules; s 17C allows the Commissioner to change earlier notifications in particular circumstances.
Shortfall components and employee responses (ss 18-23). The Commissioner must give written notice to an employee where the employee’s shortfall component exceeds $20 and may do so where it is $20 or less (s 18). The Regulations prescribe what must be in the notice and the employee’s possible responses: certain categories of employees must lodge documents (s 19(2)-(3)), otherwise the employee may request a fund’s responsible officers to collect the shortfall from the Commissioner or lodge a written nomination of a fund (s 19(4)). Responsible officers receiving requests must acknowledge, decide within specified timeframes and, if agreeing, lodge that request or copy at an ATO office within 14 days (s 20). There are strict liability offences for failures to comply with ss 20(2), (4), (6) carrying penalties of 5 penalty units. Deemed nominations follow if an employee does not act within 28 days when the notice specifies a relevant fund (s 21(3)). The Commissioner must not pay a shortfall component unless sufficient information is reasonably available to identify the employee (s 23).
Approved clearing house (s 24). The Australian Taxation Office is designated an approved clearing house for the purpose of subsection 79A(3) of the Act.
These concepts together create the operational mechanics: actuarial certification for defined benefits; documentary verification and timing obligations for nominations and fund requests; specific payroll items excluded from SG; stapled fund identification relying on Commissioner data; and discrete penalties for trustees/responsible officers who fail to process shortfall‑collection requests.
Who it affects
The Regulations create duties and entitlements that bear on several distinct groups. The principal actors and how the Regulations affect them are:
Employers (multiple sections). Employers must obtain benefit certificates from an actuary where required (s 7). Employers face defined exclusions for particular salary items under ss 12 and 12A; they have to be aware of which employees are “prescribed employees” under s 11 for the application of paragraph 27(1)(d) of the Act. Employers deciding where to contribute under choice‑of‑fund rules will need to rely on employees’ provided information (s 16) and any stapled fund identification by the Commissioner (ss 17A-17C). Employers who make contributions under public sector statutes listed in s 15 have those contributions treated as compliant with choice‑of‑fund rules.
Employees (ss 14, 16-23). Employees are the recipients of SG entitlements and have rights to nominate chosen funds and to benefit from automatic stapled fund identification (ss 16, 17A-17C, 22). Employees who receive an SG shortfall notice from the Commissioner must take specified actions in response; certain categories (retired due to permanent incapacity and deceased employees) trigger documentary lodgement requirements (s 19(2)-(3)). Employees of particular age bands are subject to minimum death insurance levels under s 14, unless they elect otherwise. Employees under JobKeeper arrangements are treated differently for certain fortnightly payments under s 12A.
Trustees and RSA providers (responsible officers) (ss 5, 7, 14, 16, 20-21). Trustees of complying superannuation funds and approved deposit funds, and RSA providers for RSAs, are defined as responsible officers and bear specific obligations: trustees must provide statements that comply with s 25(1) of the Act as part of employee fund information (s 16(e)), set and apply reasonable conditions for providing death insurance (s 14(3)), process employee requests to collect shortfall components and notify employees of receipt or refusal within time limits (s 20), and lodge requests at an ATO office when agreeing to collect shortfall components (s 20(6)). Failures under s 20(2), (4), (6) are strict liability offences with penalties (5 penalty units).
Actuaries (ss 5, 7-10). Actuaries are required to prepare benefit certificates covering named items (s 7(1)-(2)) and may need to apply complex formulae under s 10 when calculating notional employer contribution rates for defined benefit schemes. Section 8 accommodates a fallback position where s 9 or s 10 do not apply and permits an actuary to determine a method that they must certify as applicable and consistent with ss 9 or 10. The instrument requires the actuary to include their qualifications, business address and signature on benefit certificates (s 7(2)(f)-(g)). These provisions assign technical and professional responsibilities to actuaries and create an evidential trail for employers and the Commissioner.
Commissioner of Taxation (ss 7, 17A-17C, 18-23, 24). The Commissioner has functions under the Regulations: to allow later dates for benefit certificates (s 7(1)(c)), to disclose stapled fund information to employers or their agents (s 17A(2)(d)), to give notices to employees about shortfall components and to change earlier notifications in limited circumstances (s 17C), and must honour verification rules before paying shortfalls (s 23). The instrument also designates the ATO as an approved clearing house (s 24), embedding the Commissioner’s office in transactional pathways.
Employers’ agents and payroll/service providers (ss 17A-17B, 20). Agents who request stapled fund identification from the Commissioner must make requests for the purposes of complying with choice‑of‑fund stapled fund requirements (s 17B). Payroll and service providers who act for employers will typically be the interface receiving Commissioner disclosure and then applying it to employer payroll processes.
Persons in particular visa categories and senior positions (s 11). The Regulations list specified visa holders in senior executive roles (Subclass 456, 400, 482, 457) and criteria for seniority, nomination, and duties that determine their treatment under paragraph 27(1)(d) of the Act. Those persons must be treated as “prescribed employees” for the Act’s referenced paragraph.
Public sector schemes and their trustees (s 15). Where employer contributions are made under the specified State and Commonwealth superannuation statutes, those contributions are treated as complying with the choice‑of‑fund requirements (s 15). This affects public sector employers and employees whose contribution arrangements arise under those Acts.
Each actor faces administrative compliance steps, verification burdens and, in some cases, criminal strict liability for procedural failures (s 20). The distribution of costs is visible: employers pay for actuarial certificates and must adjust payroll systems to apply exclusions; trustees must implement request/notification procedures and may face penalties for omissions; actuaries bear technical liability to certify methods; the Commissioner carries disclosure and verification duties. The instrument prescribes who makes which decisions , actuaries determine notional rates and methods (ss 8-10), trustees determine reasonable conditions for insurance (s 14(3)), and the Commissioner decides on stapled fund notifications and whether to change an earlier notification (ss 17A(3)(d), 17C).
Key duties and rights
The Regulations allocate duties and rights among employers, actuaries, trustees/RSA providers, employees and the Commissioner. Below are the principal obligations and entitlements, with section references and the practical behaviour they mandate.
Employer duties
Obtain a benefit certificate from an actuary when required (s 7(1)). Timing: if the employer must lodge an SG statement, the certificate is needed on or before that lodgement day; if not, the certificate is due at or before the time ascertained under subsections 10(3) and (4) of the Act; or at a later date the Commissioner allows (s 7(1)(a)-(c)). Practical effect: employers must engage qualified actuaries and align certificate timing with SG statement cycles.
Observe salary exclusions set out in s 12 and s 12A when calculating SG liabilities. Employers must not include prescribed excluded amounts when applying paragraph 27(1)(e) of the Act (s 12(1), s 12A(2)).
Account for prescribed “prescribed employees” in relation to paragraph 27(1)(d) of the Act (s 11). While the instrument does not restate the effect of that paragraph, employers must recognise those classifications and apply the Act accordingly.
Actuary duties and rights
Prepare benefit certificates satisfying prescribed content (s 7(2)). Certificates must include scheme names, the minimum requisite benefit (or reference to governing rules), notional employer contribution rates with the linked classes, a statement of compliance with the instrument, the date of effect, and the actuary’s name, business address, qualifications, signature and signing date (s 7(2)(a)-(g)).
Compute notional employer contribution rates using ss 9 or 10 when applicable, or, where those sections do not apply, adopt a method certified as applicable and consistent (ss 8-10). Section 10 imposes detailed computational tasks and requires actuaries to use formulae and inputs defined in the section.
Trustees/RSA providers duties and rights (responsible officers)
Provide the written statement required by s 25(1) of the Act when supplying fund information for chosen fund nomination purposes (s 16(e)).
If requested by an employee to collect a shortfall component from the Commissioner, the responsible officers must:
Give the employee written notice acknowledging receipt, specifying the date of receipt (s 20(2)) , penalty: 5 penalty units; strict liability.
If declining the request, notify the employee within 14 days after receiving the request (s 20(4)) , penalty: 5 penalty units; strict liability.
If agreeing, lodge the request, or a copy, at an ATO office within 14 days after receipt or within a further period allowed in writing by the Commissioner (s 20(6)) , penalty: 5 penalty units; strict liability.
Determine reasonable conditions for providing death insurance for MySuper members (s 14(3)). Trustees therefore have discretion to set those conditions subject to the statutory minima.
Employee duties and rights
Provide specified information when nominating a chosen fund: account name, account number or identifier where used, fund full name, ABN (if any), trustee statement that complies with s 25(1) of the Act, ATO evidence for SMSFs that the fund is regulated, payment method information, and identifiers for product and employee where used (s 16(a)-(i)). Failure to provide adequate information affects whether an employer can make contributions to the nominated fund.
Elect to accept, reject or reduce death insurance where allowed: a MySuper member may elect that insurance not be provided or be provided at a lower level than the statutory minimum; that election changes the fund’s obligation from provision to offering in respect of death cover (s 14(2)).
Respond to Commissioner shortfall notices: employees receiving notice for shortfall components over $20 must be given written notice (s 18(1)), and the employee then may either request fund responsible officers to collect the shortfall from the Commissioner or lodge a written nomination of a relevant fund (s 19(4)). Special documentary obligations apply where the employee is under 55 and retired due to permanent incapacity or if deceased (s 19(2)-(3)). If the Commissioner’s notice specifies a relevant fund and the employee does nothing within 28 days, the employee is taken to have nominated the relevant fund (s 21(3)).
Commissioner duties and rights
The Commissioner may allow a later date for the benefit certificate to be lodged (s 7(1)(c)).
For stapled funds, the Commissioner must be able to disclose to the employer or the employer’s agent information about the employee or the fund (s 17A(2)(d)), and may give notices identifying stapled funds (see ss 17A(3)(a) and 17C).
Give written notice to employees where their shortfall component exceeds $20 and may give notice where it is equal to or less than $20; notices must contain date, employer name and the amount(s) of the shortfall component and may specify a relevant fund (s 18). The Commissioner may give more than one such notice (s 18(5)).
Must not pay a shortfall component unless sufficient information is reasonably available to identify the employee (s 23). This imposes a verification precondition on payments.
Other rights and duties
ATO as an approved clearing house for subsection 79A(3) of the Act (s 24), which gives the ATO a defined role in clearing contributions under the Act.
Sanctions and compliance mechanisms
Strict liability offences and financial penalty: responsible officers who fail to comply with s 20(2), (4) or (6) commit strict liability offences carrying penalties of 5 penalty units each (s 20(2),(4),(6) and notes referencing Criminal Code s 6.1).
Together, these duties reallocate administrative tasks, impose verification and timing obligations, and create a chain of evidential documents (benefit certificates, trustee statements, fund nominations, Commissioner notices and fund lodgements) that underpin SG administration. The Regulations make explicit who must decide particular matters (for example, actuaries compute notional rates, trustees set reasonable conditions for insurance, the Commissioner identifies stapled funds) and the procedural consequences for inaction or non‑compliance.
Penalties and enforcement
The Regulations create a narrow set of enforceable offences and embed several administrative enforcement levers. The instrument does not establish a broad new enforcement regime; rather it supplements the Act by prescribing strict procedural offences and by assigning duties that facilitate the Commissioner’s administration.
Penalties and strict liability
Responsible officers’ procedural obligations carry a specific penalty. Subsections 20(2), 20(4) and 20(6) impose obligations on the responsible officers of a relevant fund to give written receipt of a request (20(2)), to notify an employee within 14 days if the request is declined (20(4)), and to lodge the request or a copy at an ATO office within 14 days (or within a further period allowed in writing by the Commissioner) if the responsible officers agree to comply (20(6)). Each of these subsections is followed by an express penalty of 5 penalty units. Each is declared to be an offence of strict liability (s 20 and notes referencing s 6.1 of the Criminal Code). The Regulations therefore attach criminal strict liability to particular trustee/administrator procedural failures, with a modest monetary penalty set at the penalty unit scale.
Administrative enforcement levers and obligations
Commissioner notifications and payment preconditions. The Commissioner is required to give written notice to an employee if the employee’s shortfall component exceeds $20, and may do so if it is $20 or less (s 18). The notice content is prescribed (date, employer name, amount). The Commissioner may also specify a relevant fund in that notice and may give more than one notice (s 18(4)-(5)). The Commissioner must not pay a shortfall component unless sufficient information is reasonably available to identify the employee (s 23). These provisions place the Commissioner in an evidentiary gatekeeper role: payments will be withheld until identity is sufficiently established.
Deemed nominations and time limits. If a notice specifies a relevant fund and the employee does not nominate another fund within 28 days, the employee is taken to have nominated the specified fund (s 21(3)). This creates a time‑based administrative consequence that can determine where shortfall monies are paid without affirmative employee action.
Trustee/RSA responsibilities and criminal exposure. Trustees/RSA providers who receive employee requests to collect shortfall components must act within tight timeframes and provide written notice of their receipt or refusal, and must lodge agreed requests at an ATO office within 14 days (s 20). Failure to do so may result in strict liability penalties. The combination of short timeframes and strict liability increases compliance risk for trustees and RSA providers if their administrative processes are not properly resourced.
Nomination validity and identification. Section 23’s requirement that the Commissioner must not pay unless sufficient information is reasonably available to identify the employee creates a verification threshold for payment, which will require trustees, employers and the Commissioner to ensure documentary and identifying information is accurate and complete.
Discretionary enforcement aspects
Commissioner discretion to allow later dates for benefit certificates (s 7(1)(c)). This gives the Commissioner a soft enforcement lever , the ability to permit a later lodgement date , which may operate as an administrative flexibility for employers.
Commissioner discretion in stapled fund tiebreakers (s 17A(3)(d)). When other tiebreakers fail, the Commissioner may select the stapled fund “after having regard to when the employee became a member… and any other relevant matters.” That language confers subjective judgement and administrative discretion.
Other enforcement signals
By specifying minimum insurance levels and when insurance must be provided or offered (s 14) the Regulations create an expectation of compliance by funds and employers, although they do not attach a separate monetary fine within the instrument for failure to meet the insurance requirement; enforcement would rest with the supervisory powers under the Act and related regimes.
The designation of the ATO as an approved clearing house (s 24) gives the Commissioner’s office transactional oversight of clearing processes, which functions as an operational enforcement mechanism by centralising certain payments.
Overall, the Regulations combine prescriptive procedural obligations with narrow criminal strict liability for trustee failures in the shortfall recovery process and grant the Commissioner defined discretions for timing and stapled fund determinations. The principal enforcement risks for regulated parties are administrative (failure to meet 14‑day deadlines, failure to provide required documentation, misidentification of employees) and in a few cases criminal strict liability with a 5‑penalty unit sanction.
How it interacts with other laws
The Regulations operate within a network of Commonwealth statutes and subordinate instruments. The instrument expressly cross‑references and imports definitions and mechanics from other legislation; it also designates when contributions made under other laws meet choice‑of‑fund obligations. The principal interactions in the text are as follows.
Direct authority and primary Act
Superannuation Guarantee (Administration) Act 1992. The Regulations are made under the Act (s 3) and repeatedly operate for the purposes of particular Act provisions (e.g. paragraph 6AA(b), subsection 19(2CA), paragraph 27(1)(d), paragraph 27(1)(e), subsection 31 and choice‑of‑fund sections such as 32C, 32FA, 32P, 32Q, 32R). The Regulations therefore fill statutory gaps in the Act and specify operational machinery.
Cross‑references to other Commonwealth and State statutes
Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act 1993 and Regulations 1994. The Regulations import concepts such as “minimum requisite benefit” (s 5) and “successor fund” (s 5) with the same meanings as in the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Regulations 1994 and the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act 1993 (the instrument also references section 68AAA of that Act in s 14(7)). This links prudential/regulatory definitions and insurance regimes under SIS to SG administration.
Family Law Act 1975. Section 6 references the definition of “non‑member spouse” within Parts VIIIB and VIIIC, tying family law created interests in superannuation to SG defined benefit member treatment.
Defence and military superannuation Acts. Section 6 explicitly picks up memberships and interest types arising under the Military Superannuation and Benefits Act 1991, Defence Force Retirement and Death Benefits Act 1973, Superannuation Act 1976 and Superannuation Act 1990. Where those statutory schemes create preserved benefits or ancillary accounts, the Regulations treat affected persons as defined benefit members.
Corporations Regulations 2001 and Income Tax Assessment Act 1997. The definition of “capital guaranteed fund” references the Corporations Regulations 2001 (s 5). Section 10 uses “low tax component” terminology from the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997 when defining TR, the tax rate in respect of the low tax component.
Migration Act 1958 and Migration Regulations 1994. Section 11 prescribes certain visa holders (Subclass 456, 400, 482, 457) and criteria that rely on nomination provisions found in the Migration Regulations for classifying “prescribed employees” for paragraph 27(1)(d) of the Act.
Fair Work Act 2009. The definition of “eligible community service activity” is aligned to subsection 109(1) of that Act (s 5). Section 12 prescribes salary or wages paid when an employee engages in eligible community service activity as excluded from SG in certain circumstances, but excludes application where the employee engages in the activity in the employer’s capacity (s 12(2)).
Social Security (International Agreements) Act 1999. The Regulations recognise scheduled international social security agreements and allow salary or wages to be excluded where such agreements provide that an employer is not subject to the Act in relation to that work (s 12(1)(e)); the term “scheduled international social security agreement” is defined by the Social Security (International Agreements) Act 1999 (s 5 definition).
Taxation Administration Act 1953 and Subdivision 390‑A in Schedule 1. The standard choice form referenced in s 17 is the form approved under section 388‑50 in Schedule 1 to the Taxation Administration Act 1953. Section 17A(3)(b) refers to statements given to the Commissioner under Subdivision 390‑A in Schedule 1 to that Act for determining most recent contribution data.
Coronavirus Economic Response Package (Payments and Benefits) Rules 2020. Section 12A explicitly ties JobKeeper treatment to fortnights as defined in the Rules and limits the prescribed exclusion to amounts that exceed the employer’s pre‑existing obligations and which are reasonably attributable to satisfying the JobKeeper wage condition (s 12A(1)-(4)). The definition of “jobkeeper fortnight” and the “wage condition” are imported from that subordinate instrument.
Various State Acts and public sector superannuation legislation. Section 15 lists specific statutes under which employer contributions made on or after specified dates are treated as complying with the choice‑of‑fund requirement.
Transitional and saving interactions
The Regulations have transitional provisions preserving things done under the Superannuation Guarantee (Administration) Regulations 1993, treating them as valid under the 2018 instrument where the acts could have been done under the 2018 Regulations (s 26). This preserves administrative continuity.
A specific application clause (s 27) states that an amendment made by item 29 of Schedule 1 to the Treasury Laws Amendment (Protecting Your Superannuation Package) Regulations 2019 applies in relation to contributions made on or after 1 July 2019, tying the Regulatory operation to later subordinate instrument amendments.
Operational interaction outcomes
The instrument establishes technical bridges between SG administration and other supervisory, taxation and migration rules. For example, an actuary computing notional employer contribution rates must observe definitions and tax components referenced in the Income Tax Assessment Act (s 10), trustees must provide statements that comply with SIS‑related trustee statement obligations (s 16(e)), and shortfall payments require interaction with Commissioner systems for stapled fund identification and ATO office lodgements (ss 17A, 20(6), 24).
In sum, the Regulations are tightly integrated with the Act and with a suite of Commonwealth and State statutes and subordinate instruments. Compliance therefore demands attention to parallel regimes: migration classifications, tax statements to the Commissioner, SIS trustee duties and JobKeeper payment rules where those are relevant.
Amendment history
The instrument itself contains a limited internal amendment and application record in the statutory text supplied. From that text, the following points are evident:
The instrument is titled the Superannuation Guarantee (Administration) Regulations 2018 (s 1) and is made under the Superannuation Guarantee (Administration) Act 1992 (s 3). Those provisions indicate the instrument’s origin and legal authority.
Transitional saving of prior acts. Section 26 preserves actions, notices, applications or other instruments made under the repealed Superannuation Guarantee (Administration) Regulations 1993 insofar as they could have been done under the 2018 instrument. This is a standard transitional saving that gives continuing effect to things done under the 1993 Regulations (s 26(1)-(2)).
Targeted application dates. Section 25 provides that paragraph 15(d) , contributions made under the Public Sector Superannuation Reform Act 2016 (Tas.) , applies in relation to contributions made on or after 31 March 2017. That is an explicit retroactive application of the rule in s 15(d) to contributions from 31 March 2017.
Post‑2018 amendment application given by s 27. Section 27 states that the amendment made by item 29 of Schedule 1 to the Treasury Laws Amendment (Protecting Your Superannuation Package) Regulations 2019 applies in relation to contributions made on or after 1 July 2019. The instrument therefore acknowledges and gives effect to at least one later subordinate instrument amendment and fixes its effective date in the Regulations’ framework.
New inclusions reflecting later policy responses. The Regulations incorporate provisions recognising JobKeeper fortnights and the associated wage condition for JobKeeper payments made on or after specified dates (s 12A). Section 12A applies to JobKeeper fortnights beginning on or after 30 March 2020 and ties the definition of “jobkeeper fortnight” and the “wage condition” to the Coronavirus Economic Response Package (Payments and Benefits) Rules 2020. That places a Covid‑era amendment within the instrument’s operational text.
The 2018 Regulations replaced the 1993 Regulations and have specific transitional machinery (s 26). The presence of these saving provisions indicates that the 2018 instrument was intended to carry forward certain existing administrative actions.
The statutory text supplied does not contain a full chronological amendment list or a schedule of all variations. It does, however, include internal pointers to the later Treasury Laws Amendment (Protecting Your Superannuation Package) Regulations 2019 and to the Coronavirus Economic Response Package (Payments and Benefits) Rules 2020 through application or definitional references (ss 12A, 27). Practitioners relying on these Regulations should therefore treat s 12A and s 27 as evidence that later subordinate instruments have modified treatment in discrete respects.
Litigation history
The instrument supplied contains no case citations, judicial determinations or references to litigation. The text does not name any decisions, nor does it record any judicial interpretation or litigation outcomes that bear on the application of the Regulations.
Practical implications of the absence of litigation history in the instrument:
The Regulations set out interpretive rules and procedures, but the text itself does not indicate whether any of its novel or complex provisions (for example, the formulae in s 10 for calculating notional employer contribution rates, the stapled fund tiebreakers in s 17A, or the strict liability offences in s 20) have been subject to judicial challenge or authoritative construction.
Where legal risk or uncertainty exists in applying particular provisions, the instrument does not supply judicial gloss. Practitioners will need to rely on the Act, any ATO guidance, and external case law on the Act and related regimes for interpretive assistance. However, such materials are not contained in this instrument.
Because the Regulations themselves are silent on litigation, parties confronting contentious factual or legal issues arising under these Regulations should document administrative steps carefully (for example, trustees’ written notices under s 20 and actuaries’ certificate details under s 7) to create a record in the absence of settled judicial interpretations. The existence of strict liability offences for trustee procedural failures, together with formal notification and lodging requirements, means that careful adherence to the procedural prescriptions will be important in any potential enforcement or dispute context even where the instrument provides no litigated precedent.
Gotchas
This section highlights concrete compliance traps, timing sensitivities, evidential dependencies and other practical pitfalls that appear in the Regulations’ text and that can produce adverse operational consequences if missed.
Benefit certificate timing and content burdens (s 7)
Employers must obtain benefit certificates from an actuary either on or before the day they lodge a superannuation guarantee statement for the relevant quarter, or at or before the time ascertained under subsections 10(3) and (4) of the Act, unless the Commissioner allows a later date (s 7(1)(a)-(c)). Failure to secure the certificate by these timelines can disrupt SG statement lodgement and the employer’s ability to rely on actuarial certification for defined benefit classes. The certificate must include many discrete items (s 7(2)(a)-(g)); omissions may undermine the certificate’s usability.
Section 10 sets out detailed numeric formulae and defined inputs (DF, FOTE, FSAL, MB, MCR, NM, NM1, OTE, PAB1, PAB2, SAL, SAL1, TCR, TR). These apply only if a number of conditions in s 10(2) are met. If employers, schemes or actuaries misjudge whether the conditions apply, there is a fallback to an actuary‑determined method under s 8(2) which must be certified as consistent. That fallback creates comparability and documentation obligations and may be a point of contest with the Commissioner.
Strict liability and short timeframes for trustees (s 20)
Responsible officers must acknowledge receipt of a request, notify refusal within 14 days and lodge an agreed request at an ATO office within 14 days (s 20(2), (4), (6)). Each obligation attracts a 5 penalty unit sanction and is an offence of strict liability. The 14‑day windows are short and require trustees/RSA providers to have rapid administrative processes and clear delegation to avoid inadvertent strict liability exposure for procedure failures.
Deemed nominations and the 28‑day rule (s 21(3))
When the Commissioner’s notice specifies a relevant fund and the employee does not otherwise nominate another relevant fund within 28 days, the employee is taken to have nominated the specified fund (s 21(3)). If an employee wants the money directed elsewhere but misses the 28‑day window, the shortfall will be paid to the specified fund without further consent. Employers, trustees and advisers should alert employees promptly to any Commissioner notices to avoid inadvertent deemed nominations.
Identity verification threshold for payments (s 23)
The Commissioner must not pay a shortfall component unless sufficient information is reasonably available to identify the employee. This means that even when an employee or trustee has completed the procedural steps, payment can be delayed or withheld if the Commissioner requires further proof of identity. Parties should ensure that nominations and requests include clear identifying information as set out in s 16.
Stapled fund tiebreakers and Commissioner discretion (s 17A(3))
The tiebreaker sequence for identifying a stapled fund relies first on recent Commissioner notices, then on the most recent contribution (based on statements under Subdivision 390‑A), then on the largest account balance at the end of the previous financial year, and finally on Commissioner judgement (s 17A(3)(a)-(d)). Each step depends on different admin data sets which may be incomplete or out of date. Where none of the objective criteria apply, the Commissioner’s discretionary assessment introduces an element of unpredictability.
Insurance minima and exception traps (s 14)
The instrument prescribes minimum death cover by age band and a $0.50 per week minimum premium for members under 56 (s 14(5), (1)(b)). But exceptions are available where, for example, contributions are made under certain Federal awards to a fund that did not meet the requirement on or after 1 July 2005 (s 14(6)(a)), where contributions are made to RSAs (s 14(6)(b)), where the fund is a capital guaranteed fund (s 14(6)(c)), or where the employer has arranged equivalent external cover (s 14(6)(d)). Trustees must document the basis for relying on an exception, and employers must be careful about claiming exceptions based on historical arrangements (s 14(6)(f)).
JobKeeper exclusion narrowness and attribution test (s 12A)
Section 12A excludes from paragraph 27(1)(e) of the Act a component of salary or wages paid in respect of a JobKeeper fortnight to the extent the amount exceeds what the employer was already required to pay and where the excess is “reasonably attributable” to satisfying the JobKeeper wage condition. This requires employers to allocate pay into pre‑existing obligations and the JobKeeper‑sourced excess, which can be administratively complex and economically significant. Errors in attribution may create SG liabilities.
Multiple overlapping instruments and definitions
The Regulations import definitions and rely on other statutes and subordinate instruments (Taxation Administration Act, SIS, Income Tax Assessment Act, Migration Regulations, Coronavirus Economic Response package). Practitioners must track contemporaneous definitions and the effect of later amending instruments (noted in s 27) to ensure consistent application.
Narrow penalty quantum but reputational and administrative cost
The statutory penalty in the Regulations for trustee failures under s 20 is 5 penalty units. While the monetary quantum may be modest for large funds, the presence of strict liability, the administrative burden of responding to notices, and the potential for operational scrutiny by the Commissioner create compliance costs and operational risk beyond the monetary penalty.
These “gotchas” revolve around timing, documentation, identity verification, actuarial calculation complexity, and the interaction of multiple data sources. Systems and process design for employers, trustees and actuaries should be geared to the precise timing and documentary requirements set out in the instrument to avoid procedural penalties and payment delays.
How to comply
This section translates the Regulations into concrete compliance steps for the principal actors: employers, trustees/RSA providers (responsible officers), actuaries, employees and the Commissioner/Australian Taxation Office. The steps mirror the duties set out in the instrument and identify minimum processes and documentary controls that the text requires.
Employers
Determine obligations early. Establish whether the employer needs to obtain a benefit certificate under s 7(1) , if the employer is required to lodge an SG statement, the certificate is due on or before the day the SG statement for that quarter is lodged (s 7(1)(a)). If not required, ascertain the time ascertained under subsections 10(3) and (4) of the Act (s 7(1)(b)). Apply for a Commissioner extension only where necessary and well documented (s 7(1)(c)).
Engage a qualified actuary. Appoint an actuary with appropriate qualifications who can produce a benefit certificate covering all items in s 7(2). Ensure the actuary’s certificate includes the notional employer contribution rate(s), classes of members, the minimum requisite benefit (or reference to governing rules), date of effect, the actuary’s business address and qualifications, signature and date (s 7(2)(a)-(g)).
Payroll system adjustments. Configure payroll systems to apply the exclusions in s 12 and s 12A. For parental leave, eligible community service activity pay, ADF service pay, green army allowances, amounts excluded under international social security agreements and specific aged care‑funded amounts, ensure the SG calculation excludes those line items where the Regulations prescribe exclusion (s 12(1)). For JobKeeper amounts, implement an attribution methodology to exclude the excess amount reasonably attributable to satisfying the JobKeeper wage condition for fortnights starting on or after 30 March 2020 (s 12A(1)-(2)).
Choice‑of‑fund and stapled funds. When an employee nominates a chosen fund, accept only nominations that include the information prescribed in s 16. If the employer uses an agent to request stapled fund identification from the Commissioner, ensure the agent’s request meets s 17B (made for the purpose of complying with stapled fund aspects of choice‑of‑fund). Adopt processes to accept the Commissioner’s stapled fund identification (ss 17A-17B).
Actuaries
Prepare compliant benefit certificates. When instructed, calculate notional employer contribution rates per ss 8-10 where applicable. Ensure that where s 9 or s 10 do not apply, any alternate method is certified as applicable and consistent with ss 9 or 10 and that it is comparable to the scheme contribution rate (s 8(2)).
Keep audit trails and assumptions. Because s 10 contains detailed formulae and preconditions (s 10(2)-(7)), document inputs, assumptions (MCR, TCR, TR, SAL, NM, NM1, DF etc.) and show how the formulae were applied. Where s 10(2) conditions are not met, document why and record the alternate method and its consistency certification under s 8(2).
Provide full certificate details. Include the actuary’s name, business address, relevant qualifications, signature and signing date on the certificate per s 7(2)(f)-(g).
Trustees and RSA providers (responsible officers)
Prepare trustee statements for chosen fund nominations. Ensure trustee statements comply with subsection 25(1) of the Act and are ready to be provided with fund nomination information as required by s 16(e).
Process shortfall requests within 14 days. Put in place procedures to:
Give the employee written notice of receipt and specify receipt date on the day the request is received (s 20(2)); this obligation attracts a 5 penalty unit strict liability sanction if missed.
If declining the request, notify the employee within 14 days after receiving the request (s 20(4)); also strict liability.
If agreeing to collect the shortfall, lodge the request, or a copy, at an ATO office within 14 days (or within any further period allowed in writing by the Commissioner) (s 20(6)); strict liability applies.
Maintain records and enable quick action. Given the strict liability exposure and short timeframes, document standard operating procedures, allocate responsibility to a designated administrator, and maintain template notices and lodgement checklists.
Insurance offerings. For MySuper members and other members, ensure the fund provides or offers death insurance at the minimum levels prescribed in s 14(5), unless a statutory exception applies. If the fund relies on an exception (s 14(6)), document the basis for reliance and retain evidence (award terms, capital guaranteed fund status, external cover arrangements, historical rules).
Employees
Provide complete nomination information. When nominating a chosen fund, provide all items prescribed in s 16: account name, account number or identifier (if used), fund full name, ABN (if any), trustee statement under s 25(1), ATO evidence for SMSFs, payment method details, product identifiers and employee identifier where used (s 16(a)-(i)). Incomplete nominations can be rejected.
Act on Commissioner shortfall notices promptly. If you receive a notice under s 18, exercise your options within the timelines: lodge documents if you are in the categories in s 19(2)-(3), nominate a relevant fund or request a fund to collect the shortfall (s 19(4)), or be aware that a specified fund in the notice will be taken as your nomination if you do nothing within 28 days (s 21(3)).
Keep identity documentation accessible. Because s 23 requires sufficient information to identify the employee before payment, prepare to provide identifying documentation to the Commissioner or a responsible officer when required.
Commissioner / ATO
Maintain stapled fund and contribution datasets. To apply the tiebreaker sequence in s 17A the Commissioner must be able to disclose whether a fund can accept employer contributions and must hold data on recent contributions and account balances. Ensure operational capacity to disclose such information to employers and agents as part of the stapled fund identification process (s 17A(2)(c)-(d)).
Provide clear Commissioner notices and allow remedial time. When issuing a notice under s 18, include the date, employer name and shortfall amount and, where appropriate, specify a relevant fund. Track 28‑day periods related to deemed nominations (s 21(3)) and be prepared to change earlier notifications when errors are identified and no employer contributions to the identified fund are known (s 17C).
Practical compliance infrastructure
Documentation templates. Prepare templates for benefit certificates (s 7), trustee acknowledgement and refusal notices (s 20), employee nomination forms that capture s 16 items, processes to document and certify actuarial calculations under s 8(2) and s 10, and logs for stapled fund identification requests and Commissioner notices.
System integration. Payroll and HR systems should be configured to apply s 12 exclusions automatically, to identify employees who are prescribed visa or senior executive categories under s 11, and to route Commissioner stapled fund data and employee nominations to the payment engine.
Training and delegation. Train staff on the 14‑day trustee deadlines, the 28‑day deemed nomination timeline, the JobKeeper attribution test in s 12A, and the complexity of s 10 calculations. Delegate authority and create escalation pathways to avoid missed strict liability obligations.
Record retention. Keep all actuary certificates, trustee notices, employee nominations, Commissioner notices and lodgement confirmations as documentary proof of compliance, particularly given the strict liability offences and the need for identity verification before payment (s 23).
Following these steps addresses the principal duties in the Regulations and reduces exposure to procedural penalties, payment delays and administrative errors. The instrument prescribes specific documentary content and timing; compliance programmes must be operationally designed around those prescriptions.
Section 6Circumstances in which member taken to be defined benefit member
scheduled international social security agreement has the meaning given by subsection 5(1) of the Social Security (International Agreements) Act 1999.
selection period has the meaning given by subsection 17A(4).
shortfall component has the meaning given by sections 64A and 64B of the Act.
successor fund has the same meaning as in the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Regulations 1994.
Part 2 Defined benefit members
Part 2—Defined benefit members
6 Circumstances in which member taken to be defined benefit member
6 Circumstances in which member taken to be defined benefit member
(1) For the purposes of paragraph 6AA(b) of the Act, subsection (2) sets out circumstances in which a member of a superannuation fund is to be taken to be a defined benefit member for the purposes of subsection 19(2CA) of the Act.
(2) A circumstance is that the member:
(a) is a member of the scheme established under the Military Superannuation and Benefits Act 1991 (the military superannuation scheme); or
(b) holds an interest, as a non‑member spouse within the meaning of Part VIIIB or VIIIC of the Family Law Act 1975, in the military superannuation scheme; or
(c) has a preserved benefit in the military superannuation scheme; or
(d) has an ancillary account in the military superannuation scheme; or
(e) both:
(i) is a member of the scheme established under the Defence Force Retirement and Death Benefits Act 1973; and
(ii) has an ancillary account in the military superannuation scheme; or
(f) holds an interest, as a non‑member spouse within the meaning of Part VIIIB or VIIIC of the Family Law Act 1975, in a superannuation scheme established under the Superannuation Act 1976 or the Superannuation Act 1990; or
(g) has made an election under section 137 of the Superannuation Act 1976; or
(h) is a preserved benefit member within the meaning of the Public Sector Superannuation Scheme Trust Deed.
Part 3 Benefit certificates
Part 3—Benefit certificates
7 Benefit certificates
7 Benefit certificates
(1) An employer must obtain a benefit certificate from an actuary:
(a) if the employer is required to lodge a superannuation guarantee statement—on or before the day on which the superannuation guarantee statement for the quarter to which the certificate relates is lodged; or
(b) if the employer is not required to lodge a superannuation guarantee statement—at or before the time ascertained under subsections 10(3) and (4) of the Act; or
(c) on or before such later date as the Commissioner allows.
(2) A benefit certificate must:
(a) include the name of each defined benefit superannuation scheme to which the certificate relates; and
(b) specify, or identify by reference to the governing rules of each scheme to which the certificate relates, the minimum requisite benefit; and
(c) specify:
(i) the notional employer contribution rate in relation to each scheme, or combination of schemes, to which the certificate relates; and
(ii) the class of members of the scheme or schemes to which the notional employer contribution rate relates; and
(d) include a statement to the effect that each notional employer contribution rate referred to in paragraph (c) has been calculated in accordance with this instrument; and
(e) specify the date of effect of the benefit certificate in relation to each scheme to which the certificate relates; and
(f) include the name, business address and actuarial qualifications of the actuary who issues the certificate; and
(g) include the signature of the actuary and the date on which the certificate is signed.
8 Notional employer contribution rate—general
8 Notional employer contribution rate—general
(1) Subject to subsection (2), the notional employer contribution rate in relation to a class of employees who are members of a defined benefit superannuation scheme is the rate determined in accordance with section 9 or 10.
(2) If section 9 or 10 is not applicable to a class of employees, the notional employer contribution rate for that class is calculated in accordance with a method determined by an actuary, who certifies that the method:
(a) is applicable to the class; and
(b) is consistent with section 9 or 10; and
(c) determines a rate that is comparable to the rate at which the employer of the employees must contribute to the superannuation scheme, or schemes, to provide the employees with the minimum requisite benefit.
If, in relation to a class of employees who are members of a defined benefit superannuation scheme:
(a) the minimum requisite benefit in respect of each employee in that class is calculated as an accumulation of employer contributions; and
(b) the employer contribution rate used in that calculation is the same for each employee in the class;
the notional employer contribution rate in relation to the class is that employer contribution rate.
(a) who has not turned 45—is 0.3; or
(b) who has turned 45 but has not turned 65—is the number that is calculated by multiplying 0.00125 by:
(i) in the case of a person whose age, expressed in months, when the person withdraws from a superannuation scheme is a whole number of months—the number that is equal to 780 less the number of months; or
(ii) in the case of a person whose age, expressed in months, when the person withdraws from a superannuation scheme exceeds a whole number of months—the number that is equal to 779 less the number of months; or
(c) who has turned 65—is 0.
FOTE is:
(a) if a benefit accruing in respect of membership after 30 June 2008 is expressed in the governing rules of a superannuation scheme as a multiple of the annual ordinary time earnings of the person as at the day on which the person withdraws from the scheme—0.0833; or
(b) if a benefit accruing in respect of membership after 30 June 2008 is expressed in the governing rules of the scheme as a multiple of the average annual ordinary time earnings of the person in the period of 3 years ending on the day on which the person withdraws from the scheme—0.09; or
(c) if a benefit accruing in respect of membership after 30 June 2008 is expressed in those governing rules as a multiple of the average annual ordinary time earnings of the person in a particular number of years of membership of the person ending on the day on which the person withdraws from the scheme:

where:
A is the number of years specified in the governing rules of the scheme ending on the day on which the person withdraws from the scheme.
FSAL is:
(a) if SAL is the annual salary of the person, calculated in accordance with the governing rules of the scheme applicable as at 30 June 1992, as at the day on which the person withdraws from the scheme—0.0833; or
(b) if SAL is the average annual salary of the person in the period of 3 years ending on the day on which the person withdraws from the scheme, calculated in accordance with the governing rules of the scheme applicable as at 30 June 1992—0.09; or
(c) if SAL is the average annual salary of the person in a number of years, specified in the governing rules of the scheme, ending on the day on which the person withdraws from the scheme, calculated in accordance with the governing rules of the scheme applicable as at 30 June 1992:

where:
A is the number of years specified in the governing rules of the scheme ending on the day on which the person withdraws from the scheme.
MB has the same meaning as in subsection (5).
MCR, in relation to a member of a superannuation scheme, is the rate at which contributions are paid by the member into a superannuation fund in respect of the scheme for the period from 1 July 2008, being a rate that is expressed, for the purposes of the governing rules of the scheme, as a percentage of the member’s annual ordinary time earnings.
MRB means the minimum requisite benefit in respect of the person.
NM, in relation to contributions to a superannuation scheme in respect of a person that are made after 30 June 2008, is:
(a) in the case of a person who withdraws from the scheme at the end of a period that is a whole number of months after the day on which the first contribution was made—that whole number; and
(b) in the case of a person who withdraws from the scheme at the end of a period that exceeds a whole number of months after the day on which the first contribution was made—the number that is equal to the sum of:
(i) that whole number; and
(ii) the fraction that is calculated by dividing the number of days in the month in which the person withdrew from the scheme, up to and including the day of withdrawal, by the total number of days in that month.
NM1, in relation to contributions to a superannuation scheme in respect of a person that are made between 1 July 1992 and 30 June 2008, is:
(a) if the number of months from the day on which the first contribution was made to 30 June 2008 is a whole number—that whole number; and
(b) if the number of months from the day on which the first contribution was made to 30 June 2008 exceeds a whole number—the number that is equal to the sum of:
(i) the whole number; and
(ii) the fraction that is calculated by dividing the number of days in the month in which the first contribution was made, from the day the first contribution was made to the end of the last day of the month, by the total number of days in that month.
OTE is:
(a) if a benefit accruing in respect of the period from 1 July 2008 is expressed in the governing rules of a superannuation scheme as a multiple of the annual ordinary time earnings of a member of that scheme as at the day on which the member withdraws from the scheme—the member’s annual rate of ordinary time earnings as at that day; or
(b) if a benefit accruing in respect of the period from 1 July 2008 is expressed in the governing rules of the scheme as a multiple of the average annual ordinary time earnings of a member of the scheme in a period referred to in paragraph (b) or (c) of the definition of FOTE—the member’s average annual rate of ordinary time earnings in the relevant period.
PAB1 means that part of the minimum requisite benefit that accrued to the person before 1 July 1992, calculated in accordance with subsection (6).
PAB2 means that part of the minimum requisite benefit that accrued to the person between 1 July 1992 and 30 June 2008, calculated in accordance with subsection (7).
SAL is the annual salary of the member on the day on which the member withdraws from the scheme, calculated in accordance with the governing rules of the scheme applicable as at 30 June 1992, or if a benefit is expressed in the governing rules of the scheme applicable as at 30 June 1992 as a multiple of the annual salary of the member averaged over a period, the member’s average annual rate of salary in the relevant period.
SAL1 is the amount that would have been SAL if the member had withdrawn from the scheme on 30 June 1992.
TCR has the same meaning as in subsection (4).
TR, in relation to a complying superannuation scheme, is the rate of tax payable in respect of the scheme in relation to the low tax component (within the meaning of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997) of the taxable income of the scheme.
(2) The notional employer contribution rate in relation to a defined benefit superannuation scheme in respect of a class of employees is calculated in accordance with this section if:
(a) MCR and TCR are greater than 0, and have not changed since 1 July 1992; and
(b) MCR and TCR are the same in respect of each employee in the class; and
(c) TR has not changed since 1 July 2008; and
(d) the definition of SAL in the governing rules of the scheme did not change between 1 July 1992 and 30 June 2008; and
(e) no part of the minimum requisite benefit constitutes an element untaxed in the fund of the taxable component (within the meaning of the Income Tax Assessment Act 1997); and
(f) the benefit certificate to which the notional employer contribution rate relates is in respect of a single superannuation scheme; and
(g) the date of effect of the benefit certificate is on or after 1 July 2008; and
(h) the minimum requisite benefit as at 30 June 2008 in respect of each employee in the class was equal to the amount calculated using the formula:
with the values of SAL and DF determined as at 30 June 2008 and the value of A calculated in accordance with subsection (6); and
(i) the minimum requisite benefit accruing in respect of the period from 1 July 2008 in respect of each employee in the class is prescribed in the governing rules of the scheme as a multiple of:
(i) the annual ordinary time earnings of the employee as at the day when the employee withdraws from the fund; or
(ii) the average annual ordinary time earnings of the employee in a period ending when the employee withdraws from the scheme.
(3) The notional employer contribution rate in relation to a class of employees specified in a benefit certificate relating to a defined benefit superannuation scheme is calculated using the
This is an opening excerpt, not the complete document.