41. So far, I have considered the case of damages for lost earning capacity as a result of injury tortiously caused. But my reasons for my conclusion would be equally valid if Gourley's Case were sought to be applied to a case of wrongful dismissal. In the case of wrongful dismissal, the salary or wages to be paid are rendered certain by the agreement between the parties whether oral or in writing. Further, the time during which they are payable is both fixed or capable of being fixed. There is thus at first sight some attraction in the proposition that the only "real loss" occasioned by the wrongful dismissal is the non-receipt of the agreed wages. But, so to regard the matter is, in my opinion, to make a false analysis. The liability to pay tax on taxable income cannot properly be classified as a cost of earning the emoluments of the employment. So to say is not to deny that in economic terms the level of income tax in a community does not result in an increase in the price of goods and services. But that economic fact is, in my opinion, quite irrelevant when determining the damages for breach of a contract to pay salary or wages. Suppose, for example, an employer is to pay salary or wages which, according to the terms of the employment, were an underpayment. Could the employer in an action to recover the shortage successfully say that the employee had in truth not lost the salary or wages but that he had lost only the net amount he would have beneficially retained after payment of income tax referable directly or indirectly to the receipt of wages? Of course not - and why not? True, the action would be for debt and not damages. But, in any case, the liability to tax would be irrelevant. If instead of short payment of salary or wages the employer wrongfully dismissed the employee, or by persistent refusal to pay the agreed wages repudiated the employment, in an action for damages could the employer say that the employee had only lost so much of the agreed salary or wages as would remain in his hands after payment of income tax? I cannot bring myself to believe that, in point of law, he could. The dismissed employee had lost the benefit of the employment: that means, in my opinion, the amount the employer had agreed to pay him. Again, the fate of the wages received, whether already pledged to be paid away under some obligation or bound to be applied to or towards the payment of income tax, would, in my opinion, be quite irrelevant. The employer would, in my opinion, be bound to pay what he had agreed to pay undiminished by any consideration of the obligation to pay income tax. It is, in my opinion, quite fallacious in relation to damages for wrongful dismissal to ask the question what has the employee really lost, meaning thereby how much of what he would have been paid could he have kept for himself. As I have indicated, it was by asking a comparable question in Gourley's Case: what really in that sense had the plaintiff lost by the deprivation of his earning capacity?, that the House of Lords reached its conclusion in that case. (at p219)