13 There are a number of facts which bear upon this question of discretion. The first is that the vendor has resold the property for a price of $1,620,000. The evidence is that the contract was due to be settled at the end of June and it is now stated without objection that the contract has been settled. On the face of it, therefore, the vendor has received more than it would have received had the original contract with the purchasers gone ahead. There is some evidence on behalf of the vendor that it has not made a profit, having regard to the interest which it would have received had the moneys been paid, and having regard to the costs of resale, the outgoings on the property after settlement should have taken place and the like. There is some question as to whether or not all those items can be claimed when, as I understand it, the vendor was in occupation and could have leased the property. That does not really determine the matter but I think it correct to say that the claim of the vendor for interest on the net proceeds of sale which it says it should have obtained on the settlement date calculated at the borrowing rate of 9.25 per cent when, it did not borrow those moneys is not necessarily maintainable. This is not necessarily a matter where it would be appropriate for the court rate of interest to be the guide, but, even taking that figure at a reduced percentage of six per cent, the interest claim would be in excess of $60,000. However, once it is reduced to that figure, then, as counsel for the defendants points out, it may be that the damages suffered by the plaintiff taking into account the difference between the two sale prices and then taking into account the costs of resale and the holding costs would not be the figure put forward by the plaintiff of $20,000 but might mean that the plaintiff has, on the purchasers' argument, made a profit of something in the order of between $40,000 and $70,000.