Consideration
27 The first three grounds set out in the originating application allege that the DPO is invalid because the respondent failed to notify the applicant that the DPO had been made, in contravention of s 72G(2) of the Child Support Act. It is necessary to consider s 72G in the context of the surrounding provisions.
28 Section 72D of the Child Support Act provides, relevantly:
(1) The Registrar may make an order (a departure prohibition order) prohibiting a person from departing from Australia for a foreign country if:
(a) the person has a child support liability; and
(b) the person has not made arrangements satisfactory to the Registrar for the child support liability to be wholly discharged; and
(c) the Registrar is satisfied that the person has persistently and without reasonable grounds failed to pay:
(i) child support debts arising from a registrable maintenance liability under section 17; or
…
(d) the Registrar believes on reasonable grounds that it is desirable to make the order for the purpose of ensuring that the person does not depart from Australia for a foreign country without:
(i) wholly discharging the child support liability; or
(ii) making arrangements satisfactory to the Registrar for the child support liability to be wholly discharged.
(2) For the purposes of paragraph (1)(c), the Registrar must have regard to the following matters:
(a) the capacity of the person concerned to pay the debt or debts;
(b) the number of occasions on which action has been taken to recover the debt or debts, and the outcome of the recovery action;
(c) if subparagraph (1)(c)(i) applies - the number of occasions on which the debts mentioned in that subparagraph had not been paid on or before the day on which they became due and payable;
…
(e) such other matters as the Registrar considers appropriate.
(3) A departure prohibition order must be in the approved form.
29 The expression "child support liability" is defined in s 72E. It requires, inter alia, that the person has a registrable maintenance liability of a kind mentioned in s 17.
30 Section 72F makes it an offence for a person to depart Australia for a foreign country if a DPO is in force in respect of the person, and the person knows that it is in force or is reckless as to whether it is in force, and if certain other requirements are met.
31 Section 72G provides, relevantly:
(1) This section applies if the Registrar makes a departure prohibition order in respect of a person.
(2) The Registrar must notify the person that the order has been made.
(3) The notice must be in the approved form and must be given as soon as practicable after making the order.
32 Section 72H provides, relevantly:
(1) A departure prohibition order comes into force when it is made, and continues in force until it is revoked, or until it is set aside by a court.
33 Contrary to the applicant's argument, any failure by the respondent to notify the person against whom a DPO is made does not affect the validity of the DPO. In Whittaker v Child Support Registrar (2010) 264 ALR 473; FCA 43, Lindgren J held at [265]:
In my opinion, a failure to notify does not go to the validity of the DPO. Such a failure would be potentially relevant to other matters, such as the knowledge or recklessness of the person for the purposes of the offence created by s 72F…
34 On appeal, in Whittaker v Child Support Registrar [2010] FCAFC 112, the Full Court approved Lindgren J's analysis, holding at [59]:
In any event, as his Honour observed, any problem with notification would not touch on the validity of the DPO.
35 Further, I consider that the respondent did comply with the obligation to notify the applicant that the DPO had been made. Regulation 14(1)(a)(iii) of the Child Support (Registration and Collection) Regulations 1988 (Cth) provides that any notice by or on behalf of the Registrar may be served upon a natural person by sending it by pre-paid post to the person's address for service. Regulation 15(1) provides that the address last notified by a person to the Registrar as the address for service of the person is that person's address for service. Regulation 15(2) provides that if no address for service has been notified to the Registrar, but the Registrar's records nevertheless contain an address attributed to the person, the last such address in any record held by the Registrar is the person's address for service.
36 Section 111(2) provides that if the payer of an enforceable maintenance liability changes his or her name or address, the payer must within 14 days of that change of address, notify the Registrar of the change.
37 The applicant claims that the Heritage Drive address was not his address. It appears to have been his address at some stage as that was the address he gave to the Bendigo Bank. He did not notify the respondent of any change of address. In any event, the Heritage Drive address was not relevant because the respondent's records contained a more recent record of an address attributed to the applicant.
38 The applicant's evidence is silent about whether the Jeremy Court address was his address. In circumstances where the applicant had not notified any address for service to the respondent, the respondent was entitled to give notice of the DPO to the applicant by sending it by pre-paid post to the last address attributed to the applicant in any record held by the respondent. The last such address in the respondent's records was the Jeremy Court address. That address had been obtained from the applicant's incoming passenger cards. If the Jeremy Court address had ceased to be the applicant's address, he was obliged to notify the respondent. There was no such notification. In these circumstances, the Registrar did comply with the obligation under s 72G(2) of the Child Support Act to notify the applicant of the DPO.
39 The fourth ground in the originating application is a general ground asserting that the DPO was improperly made and invalid. The applicant's evidence did not dispute the factual matters set out in the submission made to the respondent's delegate. The delegate based his decision upon the submission. The applicant has not advanced any argument that the requirements of s 72D were not met. In any event, having examined the evidence, I cannot identify any error in the decision to make the DPO. The requirements of s 72D were satisfied.
40 The main thrust of the applicant's submissions, as developed in his affidavits, his notice to admit and his oral submissions, seems to be as follows:
The DPO is invalid because the respondent, by making the DPO, committed offences involving slavery, servitude and forced labour against the applicant in contravention of ss 270.3, 270.5 and 270.6A of the Criminal Code, and torture in contravention of s 274.2 of the Criminal Code.
The DPO is invalid because the effect of it is to contravene several international treaties to which Australia is a party.
The Magna Carta is a part of Australian law and the effect of a DPO is to infringe the Magna Carta and thereby infringe Australian law.
41 Division 270 of the Criminal Code is headed "Slavery and slavery-like conditions". The following provisions appear to be relevant:
270.1 Definition of slavery
For the purposes of this Division, slavery is the condition of a person over whom any or all of the powers attaching to the right of ownership are exercised, including where such a condition results from a debt or contract made by the person.
270.3 Slavery offences
(1) A person who, whether within or outside Australia, intentionally:
(aa) reduces a person to slavery; or
(a) possesses a slave or exercises over a slave any of the other powers attaching to the right of ownership; or
…
is guilty of an offence.
Penalty: Imprisonment for 25 years.
270.4 Definition of servitude
(1) For the purposes of this Division, servitude is the condition of a person (the victim) who provides labour or services, if, because of the use of coercion, threat or deception:
(a) a reasonable person in the position of the victim would not consider himself or herself to be free:
(i) to cease providing the labour or services; or
(ii) to leave the place or area where the victim provides the labour or services; and
(b) the victim is significantly deprived of personal freedom in respect of aspects of his or her life other than the provision of the labour or services.
270.5 Servitude offences
Causing a person to enter into or remain in servitude
(1) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person engages in conduct; and
(b) the conduct causes another person to enter into or remain in servitude.
Penalty:
(a) in the case of an aggravated offence (see section 270.8)- imprisonment for 20 years; or
(b) in any other case-imprisonment for 15 years.
270.6 Definition of forced labour
(1) For the purposes of this Division, forced labour is the condition of a person (the victim) who provides labour or services if, because of the use of coercion, threat or deception, a reasonable person in the position of the victim would not consider himself or herself to be free:
(a) to cease providing the labour or services; or
(b) to leave the place or area where the victim provides the labour or services.
(2) Subsection (1) applies whether the coercion, threat or deception is used against the victim or another person.
270.6A Forced labour offences
Causing a person to enter into or remain in forced labour
(1) A person commits an offence if:
(a) the person engages in conduct; and
(b) the conduct causes another person to enter into or remain in forced labour.
Penalty:
(a) in the case of an aggravated offence (see section 270.8)-imprisonment for 12 years; or
(b) in any other case-imprisonment for 9 years.
42 It is difficult to understand precisely what the applicant's argument concerning slavery, servitude and forced labour offences is. As best as I can understand it, the argument is to the effect that by making the DPO, the respondent exercised ownership, direction and control over the applicant and coerced or forced the applicant into involuntary labour.
43 The applicant submits that his case is proved by admissions deemed to have been made by the respondent. As I have indicated, the applicant purported to serve a notice to admit facts pursuant to r 22.01 of the Federal Court Rules. Part 22 of the Federal Court Rules provides, relevantly:
22.01 Notice to admit facts or documents
A party (the first party) may serve on another party (the second party) a notice, in accordance with Form 41 (the notice to admit), requiring the second party, for the purpose of the proceeding only, to admit the truth of any fact and the authenticity of any document specified in the notice to admit.
22.02 Notice disputing facts or documents
The second party may, within 14 days after service of the notice to admit, serve on the first party a notice of dispute, in accordance with Form 42, disputing the truth of any fact or the authenticity of any document specified in the notice to admit.
…
22.04 Facts or documents taken to be admitted if not disputed
If the second party does not serve a notice of dispute in accordance with rule 22.02, the second party will be taken to have admitted the truth of each fact or the authenticity of each document specified in the notice to admit.
Note: The Court may dispense with compliance with this rule - see rule 1.34.
…
22.07 Judgment on admissions
If a party makes an admission, another party may apply to the Court for any judgment or order to which the party is entitled on the admission.
44 In Dr Martens Australia Pty Ltd v Figgins Holdings Pty Ltd (No 2) [2000] FCA 602, Goldberg J held, in relation to the equivalent provisions under the former Federal Court Rules:
58 I do not consider that it was either reasonable or appropriate to require the respondents, under the pain of an order for costs pursuant to O18 r2 of the Federal Court Rules, to respond to a notice which substantially reproduced the allegations in the amended statement of claim in a rolled-up way and in a form which required the respondents to make admissions as to matters which were not clearly separated from other matters. Further, in a number of respects it was not possible to sever components of matters, the subject of the notices to admit, without having any consequential effect on other paragraphs in the notices to admit.
45 The difficulties identified by Goldberg J are, in large part, also evident in relation to the present notice. All of the statements made in the notice consist of matters of law or "rolled up" matters of fact and law. Rule 22.01 allows a party to serve a notice requiring a second party to "admit the truth of any fact…specified in the notice to admit." Rule 22.01 does not allow the first party to specify matters of law or mixed fact and law in the notice. In my opinion, the notice served by the applicant does not comply with r 22.01.
46 Rule 22.02 allows the second party to serve on the first party a notice of dispute, disputing the truth of any fact specified in the notice to admit. If the second party does not serve a notice of dispute, the second party is taken as having admitted the truth of each fact specified in the notice to admit under r 22.04. In my opinion, r 22.04 operates such that the second party is taken to have admitted the truth of "any fact…specified in the notice to admit", but not a statement of law or of mixed fact and law specified in the notice.
47 Each of the statements set out in the applicant's notice is a matter of law or a matter of mixed fact and law. Therefore r 22.04 does not operate such that the respondent is taken to admit the truth of any of those matters.
48 The respondent applied at the hearing for an order under r 1.34 of the Federal Court Rules dispensing with the need for the respondent to comply with r 22.02 on the basis that the notice represents an abuse of process. In view of the ruling I have made, it is unnecessary for me to deal with that application. If it were necessary to deal with that application, I would readily have acceded to it.
49 The applicant has not established the factual premises he relies on to demonstrate that the respondent engaged in offences under Division 270 of the Criminal Code. In any event, there are many other difficulties with the applicant's argument. It is impossible to understand, for example, how the respondent, by making the DPO, could be said to engage in coercion of the type required to establish the offences under ss 270.3 and 270.5 or how he was caused to enter into forced labour for the purposes of s 270.6A. The effect of the DPO is that the applicant may not depart Australia without obtaining a departure authorisation certificate. The DPO does not compel the applicant to pay money or perform work. Even if there were some conflict between the effect of a DPO and Division 270, s 10.5 provides that a person is not criminally responsible for an offence if the conduct constituting the offence is justified or excused by or under a law. The respondent is expressly authorised under s 72D of the Child Support Act to make a DPO. The respondent commits no offence by doing what he or she is authorised by law to do.
50 Division 274 of the Criminal Code provides, relevantly:
274.2 Torture
(1) A person (the perpetrator) commits an offence if the perpetrator:
(a) engages in conduct that inflicts severe physical or mental pain or suffering on a person (the victim); and
(b) the conduct is engaged in:
…
(ii) for the purpose of punishing the victim for an act which the victim or a third person has committed or is suspected of having committed; or
(iii) for the purpose of intimidating or coercing the victim or a third person; or
…
(c) the perpetrator engages in the conduct:
(i) in the capacity of a public official; or
(ii) acting in an official capacity; or
…
Penalty: Imprisonment for 20 years.
51 Again, the applicant has not established the factual basis for his allegation that the respondent breached s 274.2 by making the DPO. Further, it is impossible to see that the making of a DPO is for the purpose of punishing, intimidating or coercing the applicant. Rather, a DPO is made in pursuance of the objects of the Child Support Act, which include in s 3(1), ensuring that children receive from their parents the financial support that the parents are liable to provide. In any event, the respondent is protected from criminal liability under s 10.5.
52 To the extent that the applicant claims that the DPO is inconsistent with Australia's obligations under international treaties, that cannot affect the validity of the DPO. It is well established that international treaties do not form part of Australian law unless validly incorporated into municipal law by statute: Minister for Immigration and Ethnic Affairs v Teoh (1995) 183 CLR 273; HCA 20 at 286-287.
53 The applicant's argument that the Magna Carta is part of Australian law and the effect of a DPO is to infringe the Magna Carta and thereby infringe Australian law cannot succeed. In Skyring v ANZ Banking Group Ltd [1994] QCA 143, the Queensland Court of Appeal held:
[I]t remains the case that an applicable enactment, whether Queensland, Commonwealth or Imperial is capable in law of repealing Magna Carta either completely or to the extent that it is inconsistent with that enactment.
In Chia Gee v Martin (1905) 3 CLR 649; HCA 70, the High Court held at 653 that a contention that a law of the Commonwealth was invalid because it was not in conformity with the Magna Carta "is not one for serious refutation". Assuming that there is some inconsistency between the Magna Carta and the DPO, the Child Support Act prevails.
54 For these reasons, the applicant's appeal cannot succeed. The originating application must be dismissed with costs.
I certify that the preceding fifty-four (54) numbered paragraphs are a true copy of the Reasons for Judgment herein of the Honourable Justice Rangiah.