It is wrong to view every contractual obligation as an unqualified promise to perform the stipulated act. Indeed it is rare that a contractual promise is not in some way qualified by some reciprocal obligation to be performed by the promisee or by some other circumstance. If the promise induced the other party to enter into the agreement, as one can readily accept it would, then it is that promise and the circumstances then surrounding it which must be examined. The promise can only be said to be misleading or deceptive if it was in some way inaccurate; otherwise every unfulfilled mutual contractual promise will constitute misleading or deceptive conduct, a consequence which I cannot believe those who drafted the Act intended. If intention be relevant, the promise may be misleading if the promisor had no intention to fulfil it at the time it was made and accepted. If intention be irrelevant, then the promise may be misleading if the promisor had no ability to perform at that time. If one were to go to the breach to determine whether there has been misleading or deceptive conduct, the beach may, but only may, provide some evidence from which one would infer that the promisor never intended or never had the ability to fulfil his obligation. Otherwise, if one combines the promise and breach, the question must arise : in what way has the plaintiff been deceived or led into error? If it be said he was misled into entering into the contract, then the breach is irrelevant, for that breach could have played no part in misleading him. If one moves to the later stage, it is possible that the two events might induce the other party to make some further step, but the promisor's combined actions could not be characterised as misleading or deceptive at the time the promisee was induced to accept the promise because the breach had not occurred at that stage. In my opinion, the mere acceptance of the promise by the promisee cannot ordinarily be qualified as being led into error.