I do not doubt that a profit or loss made by buying and selling a thing can ordinarily be measured by simply setting the price realized against the price paid. But it seems to me that this simple method of calculation will not suffice when the thing that is sold differs radically and in its economic character from the thing that was bought, and when the difference, whether for better or for worse, has been produced by the one person, the person who has bought and sold. If he has improved the thing he bought so that he gets a better price for it than he paid for it, as for example if he has built upon vacant land, then the measure of his profit is reduced by the cost to him of improvements. If, on the other hand, he has taken something from it to diminish its value, so that he gets a less price for it than the price he paid, then, in measuring the result of the transaction in terms of profit and loss, the value to him of what he took away must be taken into account. If a man bought land with a crop ripe for harvest, and after harvesting the crop, sold the land bare for less than he paid for it under crop, the value of the crop to him must, in any rational economic calculation, be brought to account in arriving at his profit or loss of the whole enterprise of buying, harvesting and selling. Similarly if he bought a mine, extracted some of the mineral from it, and then sold the mine. Whether or not in cases of that sort the profit or loss would be a capital profit or loss or a profit or loss on revenue account depends upon further factors. But whether a profit or loss bears upon income or capital does not affect the basic question of what is to be taken into account in computing profit or loss. It may be thought a naive point of view: but I am unable to regard the purchase of a controlling interest in a company with large profits ready for distribution as different, in economic character, from the purchase of land with a crop ready for harvest, or of a mine with minerals that can be taken.