When a man has purchased an article he expects to have the control of it, and there must be some clear and explicit agreement to the contrary to justify the vendor in saying that he has not given the purchaser his license to sell the article, or to use it wherever he pleases as against himself. He cannot use it against a previous assignee of the patent, but he can use it against the person who himself is proprietor of the patent, and has the power of conferring a complete right on him by the sale of the article.
The principle enunciated by Lord Hatherley L.C. is well established in patent law. However it is not always stated by saying that the sale of the patented article confers a licence to use it. In Société Anonyme des Manufactures de Glaces v. Tilghman's Patent Sand Blast Co. [5] Cotton L.J. said:
When an article is sold without any restriction on the buyer, whether it is manufactured under one or the other patent, that, in my opinion, as against the vendor gives the purchaser an absolute right to deal with that which he so buys in any way he thinks fit, and of course that includes selling in any country where there is a patent in the possession of and owned by the vendor.
In National Phonograph Co. of Australia Ltd. v. Menck [6] , Lord Shaw of Dunfermline, delivering the judgment of the Judicial Committee, said:
In their Lordships' opinion, it is thus demonstrated by a clear course of authority, first, that it is open to a licensee, by virtue of his statutory monopoly, to make a sale sub modo, or accompanied by restrictive conditions which would not apply in the case of ordinary chattels; secondly, that the imposition of these conditions in the case of a sale is not presumed, but, on the contrary, a sale having occurred, the presumption is that the full right of ownership was meant to be vested in the purchaser
These statements seem to accord more with general principles than to say that a sale of an article imports a licence to use it. The sale of an article confers on the buyer all the rights of ownership including the right to use the article, but it seems a misuse of words to say that a person who sells an article consents to its being used in any way that the buyer wishes. However the statement that a patentee who sells a patented article gives the buyer his licence to use it has often been repeated by distinguished judges. In Badische Anilin und Soda Fabrik v. Isler [7] Buckley J. said:
If a patentee sells the patented article to a purchaser and the purchaser uses it, he, of course, does not infringe. But why? By reason of the fact that the law implies from the sale a licence given by the patentee to the purchaser to use that which he has bought. In the absence of condition this implied licence is a licence to use or sell or deal with the goods as the purchaser pleases
And although in National Phonograph Co. of Australia Ltd. v. Menck, Lord Shaw of Dunfermline expressed his conclusion in the words I have quoted, other passages in his judgment suggest that he accepted that the consent or licence of the patentee to use the article might be implied from the sale [8] . The words of Buckley J. in Badische Anilin und Soda Fabrik v. Isler must be regarded as a correct statement of the patent law. The question is, does the same principle extend to the sale of a book the subject of copyright?
1. (1871) L.R. 6 Ch. App. 239.
2. (1871) L.R. 6 Ch. App., at p. 245.
3. (1883) 25 Ch. D. 1, at p. 9.
4. (1911) 12 C.L.R. 15, at p. 28; [1911] A.C. 336, at p. 353.
5. [1906] 1 Ch. 605, at p. 610.
6. (1911) 12 C.L.R., at pp. 24-25; [1911] A.C., at pp. 349-350.