But, in my opinion, the correct interpretation is that by that deposit no interest in the land was made available by the appellant to, or placed at the disposal of, her husband. The appellant charged her beneficial fee simple so that the joint account could be overdrawn, intending that her husband should at best participate in that overdrawing. But that is very different from making her beneficial fee simple available to her husband to use for his own purposes. Further, in my opinion, in any case, no beneficial interest in the land was available to the husband at the date of the sequestration order. He then held the legal estate in an undivided moiety as trustee for the appellant. He was not then, and, in my opinion, never had been in a position to use that legal estate for his own purposes. The certificates of title to the fee simple remained at the date of sequestration in the possession of the bank as security for the overdraft and, subject thereto, the beneficial ownership of the fee simple remained with the appellant. If a person guarantees a loan, it can be said, I suppose, in a layman's imprecise language that the guarantor makes his name and credit "available" to the borrower. By the same token, if the guarantor backs his guarantee by a registered bill of sale over chattels which remain in his possession, it could be said with equal imprecision that he made his chattels "available" to the borrower. If the guarantor happened to be the wife of the borrower, it must then be said that the ownership in the chattels automatically passed to the assignee in bankruptcy on the making of the sequestration order, subject of course to the rights of the holder of the bill of sale. But I am quite unable to give such a vague and imprecise meaning and operation to this statutory expression having legal significance and effect. In my opinion, in the case I have supposed, the guarantor does not make anything available to the borrower, according to what I conceive to be the legal meaning of the expression "made available" in a section such as the present. Nothing more can relevantly be said, as a proposition of law, in the hypothetical case than the guarantor used her property to assist the borrower. It could make no difference in law if the arrangements for the guarantee and the effecting of the bill of sale were entrusted to the borrower, even if he was allowed to execute the bill of sale under a power of attorney from his guarantor. The legal analysis, in my opinion, would be the same: nothing was relevantly available to the borrower except, of course, the money he received. That, in my opinion, is all that can be said, in the instant case, in relation to the security given for the overdraft of the joint account. There was, in my opinion, no warrant under the section for treating any beneficial estate in the husband as security for the overdraft as an asset in his bankruptcy. The husband remained throughout a trustee of the legal estate. The equitable estate had always been in and remained in the appellant. Neither estate, nor any ability to deal with or dispose of either estate, was in the possession of the husband at the date of the sequestration order. The section does no more than itself treat something which is still available to the bankrupt as an asset in his estate.