The effect of the policy, apart from s 54, is that the insurer was entitled to refuse to pay the insured's claim by reason of the absence of the prior consent of the insurer to the incurring of the legal expenses. That element of s 54 being satisfied, what is the "act" or "omission" of the insured which can engage s 54? What did the insured omit to do? He did not omit to "obtain" consent for there was no consent given that could be susceptible of being obtained. What he omitted to do was to seek consent. But, if the insured had sought the insurer's consent to the incurring of the legal expenses for which the insured now claims, would the insurer have been bound to give its consent and thus bound to indemnify the insured for the legal expenses incurred? The answer to this question turns upon the terms of the policy. Condition 1 obliges the insurer to give specific consent to the incurring of legal expenses if, but only if, the insured has "reasonable grounds for defending any claim or proceedings made or instituted against [the insured], or there are reasonable grounds for the successful outcome of [the] matter". That is an objective criterion. The criterion is to be applied in the first instance by the insurer and its advisers but, if the insurer and its advisers decide that there are no "reasonable grounds", provision is made for a review by a Queen's Counsel whose decision that there are "reasonable grounds" activates the insurer's liability. Irrespective of the person who is to apply the criterion, the insurer's liability attaches if the criterion, objectively considered, is satisfied; the insurer's liability does not attach if the criterion, objectively considered, is not satisfied. For the purposes of s 54, it must be assumed that the criterion would have been properly applied.