AI-detected issues
Logical flaws, contradictions, and impossible compliance requirements found by AI analysis across Australian legislation.
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AI-detected issues
Logical flaws, contradictions, and impossible compliance requirements found by AI analysis across Australian legislation.
AI-generated legal information, not legal advice. Zoe can make mistakes. Check the cited sources, and before you act on this, rely on it, or use any draft, get a qualified Australian lawyer to check it.
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The prohibited-employer declaration and offence are self-nullifying.
prohibited employer means an employer declared to be a prohibited employer under section 40.
However, an employee is not an apprentice if: (a) the employee's employer is a prohibited employer;
The declaration must state that the employer must not employ any apprentice or trainee while the declaration is in force.
The definition of “electrical installation” refers to repealed section 46, so the referenced statutory meaning is unavailable.
(4) In this section ***electrical installation*** has the meaning given to it under section 46.
Pt 5 (Heading and ss 46–57) amended by Nos 6983 s. 2, 7686 s. 3(a)–(d), 7741 s. 2, 8377 s. 4(1)(2), 8797 s. 5(a)(b), 9121 ss 3–8, 9296 s. 4, 9531 s. 3, 33/1986 ss 4(a)–(c), 8–11, 98/1986 s. 6(a)(b), 45/1988 ss 5, 6, 7(d), 45/1990 s. 117, 3/1992 ss 3–6, 130/1993 ss 103(i)–(q), 104–106, 53/1994
(3) A manual published pursuant to this section shall with any amendments currently in force be deemed and taken to have the same force and effect as if contained in this Act.
Regulation 62(5) relies on a test supposedly mentioned in regulation 69(1)(d), but regulation 69(1) has no paragraph (d) and concerns defects or errors in documents, not testing.
If the applicant in the relevant application did not agree to a test mentioned in regulation 69(1)(d), and the qualified person considers the test was necessary to finalise the technical report
A document given to a party by the Commissioner is not invalid because of a defect or error in its form alone.
with the written agreement of the applicant in the relevant application – conduct tests that may have a significant impact on the building or land
Garbage cannot lawfully be deposited at a declared dump located within the Precinct, despite the provisions establishing that dump for that purpose.
litter means garbage, rubbish, refuse or waste matter
The Corporation may declare a place (which may be outside the Precinct) to be a dump for the deposit of garbage by occupants of the Precinct.
A person must not deposit litter on land.
The mandatory auction-notice rule identifies a removal event that by-law 36 does not create.
The Commission may declare a yard or other place under its control to be a vehicle pound for this Part.
A conservation officer may remove or cause to be removed to a vehicle pound, a vehicle or boat which is:
At least 7 days notice of an auction must be given by advertisement in a newspaper circulating in the area of the Territory in which the park or reserve from which the vehicle or boat was removed under by-law 36 is located.
Regulations 25(3)(b) and 26(1) contemplate granting a licence before quality accreditation is obtained, with accreditation due within 3 months. Regulation 30 immediately requires every licence holder to maintain a quality assurance plan complying with regulation 29(3), which requires accreditation. No exception preserves the 3-month accreditation path.
a non-emergency patient transport service licence granted to an applicant who does not have a current certificate of quality accreditation from an accreditation body is subject to the condition that the licence holder must, within 3 months after being granted the licence—
A quality assurance plan must be accredited by an accreditation body.
A licence holder must maintain and comply with a quality assurance plan that complies with regulation 29(2) and (3).
Section 24(3) attaches the identity-card production duty to entry under section 28, but section 28 contains no entry power; that power is in section 28A.
An officer who enters land under section 28 is to produce the card issued under subsection (2) on the request of the owner or occupier of the land.
An officer may, for the purposes of this Act, do any of the following:
An officer may, for the purposes of this Act, enter land other than a dwelling and do any of the following:
The approval requirement for an owner-supplied collar depends on an election that cannot occur under the referenced clause.
The owner of the declared dog may elect to fit a collar supplied by Council or supplied by the owner.
Where an election is made under clause (2) to fit a collar supplied by Council, the cost of the collar becomes a debt due and owing by the owner to Council recoverable at law.
Where an election is made under clause (3) to fit a collar supplied by the owner, the collar must be approved by the Registrar.
Clause 3 depends on registration deemed by clause 1, but clause 1 only defines “the repealed Acts”.
In this Schedule, the repealed Acts means the Acts specified in Schedule 3.
a person whose registration as a veterinary surgeon under the repealed Acts is in force immediately before the commencement of this Act shall be deemed on that commencement to be registered as a veterinarian under section 13.
So long as a person shall be deemed by virtue of clause 1 to be registered as a veterinarian under this Act
The offence relies on registration conditions supposedly imposed under a provision that authorises a fine.
the registration of the registered architect is subject to conditions imposed by the Board under section 23D(1)(d) (the registration conditions); and
to fine the registered architect an amount not exceeding the prescribed amount;
to impose conditions on or vary the conditions imposed on the registered architect's registration;
Clause 23(b) provides no method for determining the additional sag-and-sway distance for an excluded section 84A or 84B responsible person in a case not covered by clause 23(a).
This regulation does not apply to a responsible person referred to in section 84A or 84B of the Act.
In this Division, a reference to an additional distance that allows for conductor sag and sway that is to be used in determining a minimum clearance space is a reference to—
in any other case—the distance determined in accordance with the method specified, under regulation 9(4)(j)(ii)(A), in the management plan of the responsible person in relation to whom the minimum clearance space is to be determined.
The lease requires a yearly rent of $1,527.74 by equal half-yearly payments of $763.87, but specifies the first payment on 10 April 1986 and the next payment on 10 April of the following year. The stated dates provide only annual, not half-yearly, payments.
the yearly rent of one thousand five hundred and twenty seven dollars and seventy four cents ($1527.74) by equal half-yearly payments of seven hundred sixty three dollars eighty seven cents ($763.87) each
the first payment to be made on the day and date hereof and the next payment on the 10th day of April next
then succeeding payments respectively to be made on the same days in each succeeding year
A person acquiring a declared dog after 1 July may become subject to an annual-fee deadline that expired before the acquisition.
The annual declaration fee must be paid no later than the 1st day of July of each year.
Where a person acquires ownership of a declared dog, the person is not required to pay the annual declaration fee until the 1st day of July next occurring.
Clause (1) does not apply where the annual declaration fee has not been paid for that year.
The animal welfare organisation's sale or disposal power depends on an assignment under a provision that does not authorise assignments.
After the expiration of the period referred to in By-law 140, Council may assign its rights in and to the animal to an approved animal welfare organisation.
Where the rights in and to an animal have been assigned under By-law 144, the animal welfare organisation may thereafter sell or otherwise dispose of the animal.
Where Council may exercise the power to sell an animal that has been impounded, it may alternatively dispose of the animal.
Clause 4 provides a service method for persons deemed registered under clause 1, although clause 1 deems nobody registered.
In this Schedule, the repealed Acts means the Acts specified in Schedule 3.
a person whose registration as a veterinary surgeon under the repealed Acts is in force immediately before the commencement of this Act shall be deemed on that commencement to be registered as a veterinarian under section 13.
A notice or other document required or authorised by this Act to be served on or given to a person who shall be deemed under clause 1 to be registered as a veterinarian under this Act
The notice-of-hearing trigger omits an own-initiative decision to proceed to a hearing under section 31B(2)(b).
If the Board served a notice under section 30, the Board must complete an investigation by determining that the Board:
will proceed to a hearing;
the Board must serve a notice of hearing on the person in relation to whom the hearing is to be held.
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