{"id":"qld:sl-2018-0117","name":"Public Health Regulation 2018","slug":"public-health-regulation-2018","collection":"regulation","jurisdiction":"qld","status":"in_force","isInForce":true,"actNumber":"117 of 2018","makingDate":null,"administeringDepartment":null,"currentVersion":{"id":174851,"registerId":"qld-qld:sl-2018-0117-current","compilationNumber":null,"startDate":"2026-04-05","status":"InForce","reasons":null,"registeredAt":null},"sections":[{"sectionNumber":"pt.1","sectionType":"part","heading":"Preliminary","content":"# Preliminary","sortOrder":0},{"sectionNumber":"sec.1","sectionType":"section","heading":"Short title","content":"### sec.1 Short title\n\nThis regulation may be cited as the Public Health Regulation 2018 .","sortOrder":1},{"sectionNumber":"sec.2","sectionType":"section","heading":"Commencement","content":"### sec.2 Commencement\n\nThis regulation commences on 1 September 2018.","sortOrder":2},{"sectionNumber":"sec.3","sectionType":"section","heading":"Dictionary","content":"### sec.3 Dictionary\n\nThe dictionary in schedule 8 defines particular words used in this regulation.","sortOrder":3},{"sectionNumber":"pt.2","sectionType":"part","heading":"Public health risks","content":"# Public health risks","sortOrder":4},{"sectionNumber":"pt.2-div.1","sectionType":"division","heading":"Asbestos","content":"## Asbestos","sortOrder":5},{"sectionNumber":"sec.4","sectionType":"section","heading":"Purpose and application of division","content":"### sec.4 Purpose and application of division\n\nThis division prescribes, under section 61 (1) (c) of the Act , measures to prevent and control the public health risk mentioned in section 11 (1) (b) (viii) of the Act in relation to the dispersal or release of asbestos fibres.","sortOrder":6},{"sectionNumber":"sec.5","sectionType":"section","heading":"Definitions for division","content":"### sec.5 Definitions for division\n\nIn this division—\nACM means any material, object, product or debris containing asbestos.\nassociated asbestos waste means—\nACM, other than a sample of ACM removed for scientific testing, that is removed in a non-workplace area, including ACM dust; or\ndisposable items contaminated with ACM that is removed in a non-workplace area.\npersonal protective equipment, plastic sheeting and rags used for cleaning\nbonded ACM means ACM, other than friable ACM, that contains a bonding compound reinforced with asbestos fibres.\nasbestos cement pipes, flat or corrugated asbestos cement sheets consisting of sand and cement reinforced with asbestos fibres\nfriable ACM means ACM that, when dry, can be crumbled, pulverised or reduced to powder by hand pressure.\nnon-workplace area means a place other than a workplace under the Work Health and Safety Act 2011 .\nprescribed work means—\ndoing any of the following in relation to ACM located in a non-workplace area—\nbreaking;\ncleaning;\ncutting;\nmaintaining;\nremoving;\nrepairing;\nstoring;\nusing; or\nseparating associated asbestos waste from other waste.\nremove , in relation to ACM, includes move the ACM from the position where it was installed immediately before 18 June 2007.\nmoving a sheet of ACM to access an area for maintenance\n- (a) ACM, other than a sample of ACM removed for scientific testing, that is removed in a non-workplace area, including ACM dust; or\n- (b) disposable items contaminated with ACM that is removed in a non-workplace area. Examples for paragraph (b) — personal protective equipment, plastic sheeting and rags used for cleaning\n- (a) doing any of the following in relation to ACM located in a non-workplace area— (i) breaking; (ii) cleaning; (iii) cutting; (iv) maintaining; (v) removing; (vi) repairing; (vii) storing; (viii) using; or\n- (i) breaking;\n- (ii) cleaning;\n- (iii) cutting;\n- (iv) maintaining;\n- (v) removing;\n- (vi) repairing;\n- (vii) storing;\n- (viii) using; or\n- (b) separating associated asbestos waste from other waste.\n- (i) breaking;\n- (ii) cleaning;\n- (iii) cutting;\n- (iv) maintaining;\n- (v) removing;\n- (vi) repairing;\n- (vii) storing;\n- (viii) using; or","sortOrder":7},{"sectionNumber":"sec.6","sectionType":"section","heading":"Administration and enforcement of division","content":"### sec.6 Administration and enforcement of division\n\nThis division is to be administered and enforced by local governments only.","sortOrder":8},{"sectionNumber":"sec.7","sectionType":"section","heading":"Removal of friable ACM","content":"### sec.7 Removal of friable ACM\n\nA person must not remove friable ACM located in a non-workplace area unless the person holds a class A asbestos removal licence under the Work Health and Safety Regulation 2011 .\nMaximum penalty—100 penalty units.","sortOrder":9},{"sectionNumber":"sec.8","sectionType":"section","heading":"Removal of bonded ACM","content":"### sec.8 Removal of bonded ACM\n\nA person must not remove a quantity of bonded ACM of more than 10m 2 located in a non-workplace area unless the person holds a current certificate under this section.\nMaximum penalty—100 penalty units.\nThe chief executive may establish or approve arrangements under which a person who finishes training about safely removing bonded ACM satisfactory to the chief executive, in competencies decided by the chief executive, may obtain a certificate.\nThe chief executive approves a particular statement of attainment issued by a registered training organisation as a certificate under this section.\nThe chief executive establishes an interactive training course on the internet that issues certificates under this section to persons who successfully finish the course.\nTo remove any doubt, it is declared that if more than 1 person is removing the bonded ACM, subsection (1) applies to each of the persons.\nIn this section—\ncurrent certificate , held by a person, means a certificate—\nthe person obtained under arrangements established or approved by the chief executive under subsection (2) ; and\nwhile the certificate is in effect under the arrangements.\n(sec.8-ssec.1) A person must not remove a quantity of bonded ACM of more than 10m 2 located in a non-workplace area unless the person holds a current certificate under this section. Maximum penalty—100 penalty units.\n(sec.8-ssec.2) The chief executive may establish or approve arrangements under which a person who finishes training about safely removing bonded ACM satisfactory to the chief executive, in competencies decided by the chief executive, may obtain a certificate. The chief executive approves a particular statement of attainment issued by a registered training organisation as a certificate under this section. The chief executive establishes an interactive training course on the internet that issues certificates under this section to persons who successfully finish the course.\n(sec.8-ssec.3) To remove any doubt, it is declared that if more than 1 person is removing the bonded ACM, subsection (1) applies to each of the persons.\n(sec.8-ssec.4) In this section— current certificate , held by a person, means a certificate— the person obtained under arrangements established or approved by the chief executive under subsection (2) ; and while the certificate is in effect under the arrangements.\n- 1 The chief executive approves a particular statement of attainment issued by a registered training organisation as a certificate under this section.\n- 2 The chief executive establishes an interactive training course on the internet that issues certificates under this section to persons who successfully finish the course.\n- (a) the person obtained under arrangements established or approved by the chief executive under subsection (2) ; and\n- (b) while the certificate is in effect under the arrangements.","sortOrder":10},{"sectionNumber":"sec.9","sectionType":"section","heading":"Cleaning or cutting ACM","content":"### sec.9 Cleaning or cutting ACM\n\nA person must not—\nuse a power tool, or a device attached to a power tool, to cut or clean ACM located in a non-workplace area; or\nusing an electric sander to remove paint from asbestos cement sheeting\nusing an angle grinder to cut asbestos cement pipes\nuse a high pressure water process to clean ACM located in a non-workplace area; or\nusing a water blaster to clean an asbestos cement roof\nuse compressed air to clean ACM, or a surface where ACM is present, located in a non-workplace area.\nusing compressed air to clean an area after working with asbestos cement sheeting\nusing compressed air to clean the brake drums of a car\nMaximum penalty—100 penalty units.\nIn this section—\npower tool means—\nan electric, battery, hydraulic, fuel or pneumatic powered tool; but\ndoes not include a battery powered drill that is operating at less than 650rpm.\n(sec.9-ssec.1) A person must not— use a power tool, or a device attached to a power tool, to cut or clean ACM located in a non-workplace area; or using an electric sander to remove paint from asbestos cement sheeting using an angle grinder to cut asbestos cement pipes use a high pressure water process to clean ACM located in a non-workplace area; or using a water blaster to clean an asbestos cement roof use compressed air to clean ACM, or a surface where ACM is present, located in a non-workplace area. using compressed air to clean an area after working with asbestos cement sheeting using compressed air to clean the brake drums of a car Maximum penalty—100 penalty units.\n(sec.9-ssec.2) In this section— power tool means— an electric, battery, hydraulic, fuel or pneumatic powered tool; but does not include a battery powered drill that is operating at less than 650rpm.\n- (a) use a power tool, or a device attached to a power tool, to cut or clean ACM located in a non-workplace area; or Examples— • using an electric sander to remove paint from asbestos cement sheeting • using an angle grinder to cut asbestos cement pipes\n- • using an electric sander to remove paint from asbestos cement sheeting\n- • using an angle grinder to cut asbestos cement pipes\n- (b) use a high pressure water process to clean ACM located in a non-workplace area; or Example— using a water blaster to clean an asbestos cement roof\n- (c) use compressed air to clean ACM, or a surface where ACM is present, located in a non-workplace area. Examples— • using compressed air to clean an area after working with asbestos cement sheeting • using compressed air to clean the brake drums of a car\n- • using compressed air to clean an area after working with asbestos cement sheeting\n- • using compressed air to clean the brake drums of a car\n- • using an electric sander to remove paint from asbestos cement sheeting\n- • using an angle grinder to cut asbestos cement pipes\n- • using compressed air to clean an area after working with asbestos cement sheeting\n- • using compressed air to clean the brake drums of a car\n- (a) an electric, battery, hydraulic, fuel or pneumatic powered tool; but\n- (b) does not include a battery powered drill that is operating at less than 650rpm.","sortOrder":11},{"sectionNumber":"sec.10","sectionType":"section","heading":"Requirement to seal bonded ACM if broken","content":"### sec.10 Requirement to seal bonded ACM if broken\n\nThis section applies if—\na person is carrying out prescribed work in a non-workplace area in relation to bonded ACM; and\nthe bonded ACM is broken.\nThe person must ensure a broken surface of the bonded ACM that is not being removed from the non-workplace area is sealed.\napplying paint or PVA glue to the surface\nMaximum penalty—100 penalty units.\n(sec.10-ssec.1) This section applies if— a person is carrying out prescribed work in a non-workplace area in relation to bonded ACM; and the bonded ACM is broken.\n(sec.10-ssec.2) The person must ensure a broken surface of the bonded ACM that is not being removed from the non-workplace area is sealed. applying paint or PVA glue to the surface Maximum penalty—100 penalty units.\n- (a) a person is carrying out prescribed work in a non-workplace area in relation to bonded ACM; and\n- (b) the bonded ACM is broken.","sortOrder":12},{"sectionNumber":"sec.11","sectionType":"section","heading":"Requirement to take reasonable measures to minimise release of asbestos fibres","content":"### sec.11 Requirement to take reasonable measures to minimise release of asbestos fibres\n\nA person who carries out prescribed work in a non-workplace area must take reasonable measures to minimise—\nthe risk of asbestos fibres being released; and\nthe associated hazard to the health of the person and any other person.\nMaximum penalty—100 penalty units.\nFor subsection (1) , reasonable measures may include any of the following—\nspraying water or a coat of PVA glue on ACM or other associated asbestos waste;\nusing vacuum cleaning equipment that complies with AS/NZS 60335.2.69 to collect asbestos fibres;\ncleaning all equipment that is contaminated with ACM;\nusing a wet cloth to wipe away dust that may have originated from ACM;\nensuring, as far as practicable, that ACM is not broken or abraded;\nwearing personal protective equipment to minimise exposure to airborne asbestos fibres;\ncollecting and handling associated asbestos waste separately from other waste.\nSubsection (2) does not limit what might be reasonable measures.\nIn this section—\nAS/NZS 60335.2.69 means AS/NZS 60335.2.69:2017 ‘Household and similar electrical appliances—Safety’ Part 2.69 ‘Particular requirements for wet and dry vacuum cleaners, including power brush, for commercial use’ (2017).\n(sec.11-ssec.1) A person who carries out prescribed work in a non-workplace area must take reasonable measures to minimise— the risk of asbestos fibres being released; and the associated hazard to the health of the person and any other person. Maximum penalty—100 penalty units.\n(sec.11-ssec.2) For subsection (1) , reasonable measures may include any of the following— spraying water or a coat of PVA glue on ACM or other associated asbestos waste; using vacuum cleaning equipment that complies with AS/NZS 60335.2.69 to collect asbestos fibres; cleaning all equipment that is contaminated with ACM; using a wet cloth to wipe away dust that may have originated from ACM; ensuring, as far as practicable, that ACM is not broken or abraded; wearing personal protective equipment to minimise exposure to airborne asbestos fibres; collecting and handling associated asbestos waste separately from other waste.\n(sec.11-ssec.3) Subsection (2) does not limit what might be reasonable measures.\n(sec.11-ssec.4) In this section— AS/NZS 60335.2.69 means AS/NZS 60335.2.69:2017 ‘Household and similar electrical appliances—Safety’ Part 2.69 ‘Particular requirements for wet and dry vacuum cleaners, including power brush, for commercial use’ (2017).\n- (a) the risk of asbestos fibres being released; and\n- (b) the associated hazard to the health of the person and any other person.\n- (a) spraying water or a coat of PVA glue on ACM or other associated asbestos waste;\n- (b) using vacuum cleaning equipment that complies with AS/NZS 60335.2.69 to collect asbestos fibres;\n- (c) cleaning all equipment that is contaminated with ACM;\n- (d) using a wet cloth to wipe away dust that may have originated from ACM;\n- (e) ensuring, as far as practicable, that ACM is not broken or abraded;\n- (f) wearing personal protective equipment to minimise exposure to airborne asbestos fibres;\n- (g) collecting and handling associated asbestos waste separately from other waste.","sortOrder":13},{"sectionNumber":"sec.12","sectionType":"section","heading":"Packaging and disposal of associated asbestos waste","content":"### sec.12 Packaging and disposal of associated asbestos waste\n\nA person who carries out prescribed work in a non-workplace area must ensure all associated asbestos waste is packaged and disposed of in the way mentioned in subsection (2) as soon as practicable, but within 5 business days, after carrying out the work.\nMaximum penalty—100 penalty units.\nThe associated asbestos waste must be—\neither—\ndouble wrapped in plastic sheeting that is at least 0.2mm thick and sealed with adhesive tape; or\ndouble bagged in plastic bags that are at least 0.2mm thick, and no more than 1200mm long and 900mm wide, and sealed with adhesive tape; and\nlabelled with a clearly visible warning that states—\nthe packaging contains asbestos; and\ndamage to the packaging and dust inhalation should be avoided; and\n‘CAUTION—ASBESTOS\nDO NOT DAMAGE OR OPEN BAG\nDO NOT INHALE DUST\nCANCER AND LUNG DISEASE HAZARD’\ndisposed of at a site approved by a local government for the disposal of asbestos waste.\n(sec.12-ssec.1) A person who carries out prescribed work in a non-workplace area must ensure all associated asbestos waste is packaged and disposed of in the way mentioned in subsection (2) as soon as practicable, but within 5 business days, after carrying out the work. Maximum penalty—100 penalty units.\n(sec.12-ssec.2) The associated asbestos waste must be— either— double wrapped in plastic sheeting that is at least 0.2mm thick and sealed with adhesive tape; or double bagged in plastic bags that are at least 0.2mm thick, and no more than 1200mm long and 900mm wide, and sealed with adhesive tape; and labelled with a clearly visible warning that states— the packaging contains asbestos; and damage to the packaging and dust inhalation should be avoided; and ‘CAUTION—ASBESTOS DO NOT DAMAGE OR OPEN BAG DO NOT INHALE DUST CANCER AND LUNG DISEASE HAZARD’ disposed of at a site approved by a local government for the disposal of asbestos waste.\n- (a) either— (i) double wrapped in plastic sheeting that is at least 0.2mm thick and sealed with adhesive tape; or (ii) double bagged in plastic bags that are at least 0.2mm thick, and no more than 1200mm long and 900mm wide, and sealed with adhesive tape; and\n- (i) double wrapped in plastic sheeting that is at least 0.2mm thick and sealed with adhesive tape; or\n- (ii) double bagged in plastic bags that are at least 0.2mm thick, and no more than 1200mm long and 900mm wide, and sealed with adhesive tape; and\n- (b) labelled with a clearly visible warning that states— (i) the packaging contains asbestos; and (ii) damage to the packaging and dust inhalation should be avoided; and Example of warning— ‘CAUTION—ASBESTOS DO NOT DAMAGE OR OPEN BAG DO NOT INHALE DUST CANCER AND LUNG DISEASE HAZARD’\n- (i) the packaging contains asbestos; and\n- (ii) damage to the packaging and dust inhalation should be avoided; and Example of warning— ‘CAUTION—ASBESTOS DO NOT DAMAGE OR OPEN BAG DO NOT INHALE DUST CANCER AND LUNG DISEASE HAZARD’\n- (c) disposed of at a site approved by a local government for the disposal of asbestos waste.\n- (i) double wrapped in plastic sheeting that is at least 0.2mm thick and sealed with adhesive tape; or\n- (ii) double bagged in plastic bags that are at least 0.2mm thick, and no more than 1200mm long and 900mm wide, and sealed with adhesive tape; and\n- (i) the packaging contains asbestos; and\n- (ii) damage to the packaging and dust inhalation should be avoided; and Example of warning— ‘CAUTION—ASBESTOS DO NOT DAMAGE OR OPEN BAG DO NOT INHALE DUST CANCER AND LUNG DISEASE HAZARD’","sortOrder":14},{"sectionNumber":"sec.13","sectionType":"section","heading":"Prohibition on selling or giving away ACM","content":"### sec.13 Prohibition on selling or giving away ACM\n\nA person must not sell or give away ACM removed from a non-workplace area.\nMaximum penalty—100 penalty units.","sortOrder":15},{"sectionNumber":"pt.2-div.2","sectionType":"division","heading":"Mosquitoes","content":"## Mosquitoes","sortOrder":16},{"sectionNumber":"sec.14","sectionType":"section","heading":"Purpose of division— Act , s 61","content":"### sec.14 Purpose of division— Act , s 61\n\nThis division prescribes, under section 61 (1) (b) and (c) of the Act , measures to—\ncontrol mosquitoes; and\nprevent and control the public health risks mentioned in section 11 (1) (a) and (b) (i) of the Act in relation to mosquitoes.\nMosquitoes are defined as designated pests in schedule 2 of the Act .\n- (a) control mosquitoes; and\n- (b) prevent and control the public health risks mentioned in section 11 (1) (a) and (b) (i) of the Act in relation to mosquitoes. Note— Mosquitoes are defined as designated pests in schedule 2 of the Act .","sortOrder":17},{"sectionNumber":"sec.15","sectionType":"section","heading":"Definitions for division","content":"### sec.15 Definitions for division\n\nIn this division—\nmosquito includes—\na mosquito egg, larva and pupa; and\nan adult mosquito.\nrelevant person , for a place, means—\nan occupier of the place; or\nif no-one occupies the place—an owner of the place.\nrelevant tank means a tank or other receptacle that is used or intended to be used to hold or store water or another liquid in which mosquitoes can breed.\nrainwater tank\n- (a) a mosquito egg, larva and pupa; and\n- (b) an adult mosquito.\n- (a) an occupier of the place; or\n- (b) if no-one occupies the place—an owner of the place.","sortOrder":18},{"sectionNumber":"sec.16","sectionType":"section","heading":"Administration and enforcement of division","content":"### sec.16 Administration and enforcement of division\n\nThis division is to be administered and enforced by local governments only.","sortOrder":19},{"sectionNumber":"sec.17","sectionType":"section","heading":"Requirement to ensure place is not a breeding ground for mosquitoes","content":"### sec.17 Requirement to ensure place is not a breeding ground for mosquitoes\n\nA relevant person for a place must ensure water or another liquid that has accumulated at the place is not a breeding ground for mosquitoes.\nMaximum penalty—40 penalty units.\nFor subsection (1) , it is irrelevant whether the accumulation is artificial, natural, permanent or temporary.\nIn a proceeding for an offence against subsection (1) , it is a defence for the defendant to prove that the defendant took all reasonable steps to comply with subsection (1) .\nIn this section—\nbreeding ground , for mosquitoes, means a place where mosquito eggs, larvae or pupae are present.\nbromeliads, containers, ditches, drains, gutters, car bodies, ponds, swimming and tidal pools, sump traps, tyres, tubs, water features\n(sec.17-ssec.1) A relevant person for a place must ensure water or another liquid that has accumulated at the place is not a breeding ground for mosquitoes. Maximum penalty—40 penalty units.\n(sec.17-ssec.2) For subsection (1) , it is irrelevant whether the accumulation is artificial, natural, permanent or temporary.\n(sec.17-ssec.3) In a proceeding for an offence against subsection (1) , it is a defence for the defendant to prove that the defendant took all reasonable steps to comply with subsection (1) .\n(sec.17-ssec.4) In this section— breeding ground , for mosquitoes, means a place where mosquito eggs, larvae or pupae are present. bromeliads, containers, ditches, drains, gutters, car bodies, ponds, swimming and tidal pools, sump traps, tyres, tubs, water features","sortOrder":20},{"sectionNumber":"sec.18","sectionType":"section","heading":"Construction, installation and maintenance of a relevant tank","content":"### sec.18 Construction, installation and maintenance of a relevant tank\n\nA person must not construct a relevant tank unless the tank complies with the mosquito-proofing requirements.\nMaximum penalty—40 penalty units.\nA person must not install a relevant tank, whether above or below ground, unless the tank complies with the mosquito-proofing requirements.\nMaximum penalty—40 penalty units.\nA relevant person for a place at which a relevant tank is installed must ensure the tank is maintained so it continues to comply with the mosquito-proofing requirements.\nMaximum penalty—40 penalty units.\nThe mosquito-proofing requirements for a relevant tank are that, at each opening of the tank, the tank must have—\na screen that—\nis made of brass, copper, aluminium or stainless steel gauze; and\nhas a mesh size of not more than 1mm; and\nis installed in a way that does not cause or accelerate corrosion; and\nstops mosquitoes passing through the openings; or\na flap valve that, when closed, stops mosquitoes passing through the opening.\n(sec.18-ssec.1) A person must not construct a relevant tank unless the tank complies with the mosquito-proofing requirements. Maximum penalty—40 penalty units.\n(sec.18-ssec.2) A person must not install a relevant tank, whether above or below ground, unless the tank complies with the mosquito-proofing requirements. Maximum penalty—40 penalty units.\n(sec.18-ssec.3) A relevant person for a place at which a relevant tank is installed must ensure the tank is maintained so it continues to comply with the mosquito-proofing requirements. Maximum penalty—40 penalty units.\n(sec.18-ssec.4) The mosquito-proofing requirements for a relevant tank are that, at each opening of the tank, the tank must have— a screen that— is made of brass, copper, aluminium or stainless steel gauze; and has a mesh size of not more than 1mm; and is installed in a way that does not cause or accelerate corrosion; and stops mosquitoes passing through the openings; or a flap valve that, when closed, stops mosquitoes passing through the opening.\n- (a) a screen that— (i) is made of brass, copper, aluminium or stainless steel gauze; and (ii) has a mesh size of not more than 1mm; and (iii) is installed in a way that does not cause or accelerate corrosion; and (iv) stops mosquitoes passing through the openings; or\n- (i) is made of brass, copper, aluminium or stainless steel gauze; and\n- (ii) has a mesh size of not more than 1mm; and\n- (iii) is installed in a way that does not cause or accelerate corrosion; and\n- (iv) stops mosquitoes passing through the openings; or\n- (b) a flap valve that, when closed, stops mosquitoes passing through the opening.\n- (i) is made of brass, copper, aluminium or stainless steel gauze; and\n- (ii) has a mesh size of not more than 1mm; and\n- (iii) is installed in a way that does not cause or accelerate corrosion; and\n- (iv) stops mosquitoes passing through the openings; or","sortOrder":21},{"sectionNumber":"sec.19","sectionType":"section","heading":"Offence to damage screen or flap valve","content":"### sec.19 Offence to damage screen or flap valve\n\nA person must not destroy, damage or remove a mosquito-proof screen or flap valve fixed to a relevant tank.\nMaximum penalty—40 penalty units.\nHowever, subsection (1) does not apply to a person who removes the mosquito-proof screen or flap valve to carry out maintenance, if the screen or flap valve is replaced immediately after the maintenance is finished.\nIn this section—\nmosquito-proof screen means a screen mentioned in section 18 (4) (a) .\n(sec.19-ssec.1) A person must not destroy, damage or remove a mosquito-proof screen or flap valve fixed to a relevant tank. Maximum penalty—40 penalty units.\n(sec.19-ssec.2) However, subsection (1) does not apply to a person who removes the mosquito-proof screen or flap valve to carry out maintenance, if the screen or flap valve is replaced immediately after the maintenance is finished.\n(sec.19-ssec.3) In this section— mosquito-proof screen means a screen mentioned in section 18 (4) (a) .","sortOrder":22},{"sectionNumber":"pt.2-div.3","sectionType":"division","heading":"Rats and mice","content":"## Rats and mice","sortOrder":23},{"sectionNumber":"sec.20","sectionType":"section","heading":"Purpose of division— Act , s 61","content":"### sec.20 Purpose of division— Act , s 61\n\nThis division prescribes, under section 61 (1) (b) and (c) of the Act , measures to—\ncontrol rats and mice; and\nprevent and control the public health risks mentioned in section 11 (1) (a) and (b) (i) of the Act in relation to rats and mice.\nRats and mice are defined as designated pests in schedule 2 of the Act .\n- (a) control rats and mice; and\n- (b) prevent and control the public health risks mentioned in section 11 (1) (a) and (b) (i) of the Act in relation to rats and mice.","sortOrder":24},{"sectionNumber":"sec.21","sectionType":"section","heading":"Definition for division","content":"### sec.21 Definition for division\n\nIn this division—\nrelevant structure means any of the following—\na building;\na drain;\na pipe connected to a building;\na retaining wall;\na wharf.\n- (a) a building;\n- (b) a drain;\n- (c) a pipe connected to a building;\n- (d) a retaining wall;\n- (e) a wharf.","sortOrder":25},{"sectionNumber":"sec.22","sectionType":"section","heading":"Administration and enforcement of division","content":"### sec.22 Administration and enforcement of division\n\nThis division is to be administered and enforced by local governments only.","sortOrder":26},{"sectionNumber":"sec.23","sectionType":"section","heading":"Requirement for owner of relevant structure","content":"### sec.23 Requirement for owner of relevant structure\n\nAn owner of a relevant structure must take reasonable steps to stop rats and mice entering the structure.\nMaximum penalty—40 penalty units.\nFor subsection (1) , reasonable steps may include the following—\nsealing or covering any holes or gaps in the exterior surface of the structure;\ncovering a gap in the floor or an external wall of a house with timber\nfilling a hole in the cladding of a brick house with mortar or covering it with a metal plate screwed to the wall\ncovering a hole securely with wire, or another covering, designed to stop rats and mice from passing through\nsecurely fitting a cover, grate or plug in a covered pipe or drain, including a disused pipe or drain;\nremoving a disused pipe or drain.\nThis section does not apply in relation to a rat or mouse kept under section 26 .\n(sec.23-ssec.1) An owner of a relevant structure must take reasonable steps to stop rats and mice entering the structure. Maximum penalty—40 penalty units.\n(sec.23-ssec.2) For subsection (1) , reasonable steps may include the following— sealing or covering any holes or gaps in the exterior surface of the structure; covering a gap in the floor or an external wall of a house with timber filling a hole in the cladding of a brick house with mortar or covering it with a metal plate screwed to the wall covering a hole securely with wire, or another covering, designed to stop rats and mice from passing through securely fitting a cover, grate or plug in a covered pipe or drain, including a disused pipe or drain; removing a disused pipe or drain.\n(sec.23-ssec.3) This section does not apply in relation to a rat or mouse kept under section 26 .\n- (a) sealing or covering any holes or gaps in the exterior surface of the structure; Examples— • covering a gap in the floor or an external wall of a house with timber • filling a hole in the cladding of a brick house with mortar or covering it with a metal plate screwed to the wall • covering a hole securely with wire, or another covering, designed to stop rats and mice from passing through\n- • covering a gap in the floor or an external wall of a house with timber\n- • filling a hole in the cladding of a brick house with mortar or covering it with a metal plate screwed to the wall\n- • covering a hole securely with wire, or another covering, designed to stop rats and mice from passing through\n- (b) securely fitting a cover, grate or plug in a covered pipe or drain, including a disused pipe or drain;\n- (c) removing a disused pipe or drain.\n- • covering a gap in the floor or an external wall of a house with timber\n- • filling a hole in the cladding of a brick house with mortar or covering it with a metal plate screwed to the wall\n- • covering a hole securely with wire, or another covering, designed to stop rats and mice from passing through","sortOrder":27},{"sectionNumber":"sec.24","sectionType":"section","heading":"Offence to damage screen etc. on relevant structure","content":"### sec.24 Offence to damage screen etc. on relevant structure\n\nA person must not destroy, damage or remove a screen or other object that has been fixed to a relevant structure to stop rats and mice entering the structure.\nMaximum penalty—40 penalty units.\nHowever, subsection (1) does not apply to a person who removes the screen or other object to carry out maintenance, if the screen or object is replaced immediately after the maintenance is finished.\n(sec.24-ssec.1) A person must not destroy, damage or remove a screen or other object that has been fixed to a relevant structure to stop rats and mice entering the structure. Maximum penalty—40 penalty units.\n(sec.24-ssec.2) However, subsection (1) does not apply to a person who removes the screen or other object to carry out maintenance, if the screen or object is replaced immediately after the maintenance is finished.","sortOrder":28},{"sectionNumber":"sec.25","sectionType":"section","heading":"Requirement to ensure rats or mice do not live or breed on land around dwelling","content":"### sec.25 Requirement to ensure rats or mice do not live or breed on land around dwelling\n\nA relevant person for land around a dwelling must ensure—\nrats or mice are not harboured on the land; and\nthe land is not a breeding ground for rats or mice.\nMaximum penalty—40 penalty units.\nIn a proceeding for an offence against subsection (1) , it is a defence for the defendant to prove that the defendant took all reasonable steps to comply with subsection (1) .\nThis section does not apply in relation to a rat or mouse kept under section 26 .\nIn this section—\nrelevant person , for land around a dwelling, means—\nan occupier of the dwelling; or\nif no-one occupies the dwelling—an owner of the dwelling.\n(sec.25-ssec.1) A relevant person for land around a dwelling must ensure— rats or mice are not harboured on the land; and the land is not a breeding ground for rats or mice. Maximum penalty—40 penalty units.\n(sec.25-ssec.2) In a proceeding for an offence against subsection (1) , it is a defence for the defendant to prove that the defendant took all reasonable steps to comply with subsection (1) .\n(sec.25-ssec.3) This section does not apply in relation to a rat or mouse kept under section 26 .\n(sec.25-ssec.4) In this section— relevant person , for land around a dwelling, means— an occupier of the dwelling; or if no-one occupies the dwelling—an owner of the dwelling.\n- (a) rats or mice are not harboured on the land; and\n- (b) the land is not a breeding ground for rats or mice.\n- (a) an occupier of the dwelling; or\n- (b) if no-one occupies the dwelling—an owner of the dwelling.","sortOrder":29},{"sectionNumber":"sec.26","sectionType":"section","heading":"Requirements about keeping rat or mouse for particular purposes","content":"### sec.26 Requirements about keeping rat or mouse for particular purposes\n\nThis section applies to a person who keeps a rat or mouse—\nas a pet; or\nat a laboratory for medical, research, scientific or teaching purposes; or\nfor the purpose of selling the rat or mouse, giving it away or using it as a food source for other animals.\nThe person must keep the rat or mouse in an enclosure from which it can not escape.\nMaximum penalty—40 penalty units.\nThis section does not limit a local law about keeping rats or mice.\n(sec.26-ssec.1) This section applies to a person who keeps a rat or mouse— as a pet; or at a laboratory for medical, research, scientific or teaching purposes; or for the purpose of selling the rat or mouse, giving it away or using it as a food source for other animals.\n(sec.26-ssec.2) The person must keep the rat or mouse in an enclosure from which it can not escape. Maximum penalty—40 penalty units.\n(sec.26-ssec.3) This section does not limit a local law about keeping rats or mice.\n- (a) as a pet; or\n- (b) at a laboratory for medical, research, scientific or teaching purposes; or\n- (c) for the purpose of selling the rat or mouse, giving it away or using it as a food source for other animals.","sortOrder":30},{"sectionNumber":"pt.2-div.4","sectionType":"division","heading":"Other public health risks","content":"## Other public health risks","sortOrder":31},{"sectionNumber":"sec.27","sectionType":"section","heading":"Invasive procedures","content":"### sec.27 Invasive procedures\n\nFor section 11 (1) (b) (xi) of the Act , an activity associated with, or part of, an invasive procedure that may expose a person to an infectious condition is prescribed.\nThe Act is to be administered and enforced for the public health risk mentioned in subsection (1) by the State only.\nIn this section—\ninvasive procedure see section 147 of the Act .\n(sec.27-ssec.1) For section 11 (1) (b) (xi) of the Act , an activity associated with, or part of, an invasive procedure that may expose a person to an infectious condition is prescribed.\n(sec.27-ssec.2) The Act is to be administered and enforced for the public health risk mentioned in subsection (1) by the State only.\n(sec.27-ssec.3) In this section— invasive procedure see section 147 of the Act .","sortOrder":32},{"sectionNumber":"sec.27A","sectionType":"section","heading":"Particular place used in unlawfully producing dangerous drug— Act , ss 11 and 18","content":"### sec.27A Particular place used in unlawfully producing dangerous drug— Act , ss 11 and 18\n\nFor section 11 (1) (b) (xi) of the Act , a place is prescribed if—\na dangerous drug has or may have been unlawfully produced at the place or a part of the place; or\na police officer has seized, under the Police Powers and Responsibilities Act 2000 , from the place, or a part of the place, a chemical or equipment that has or may have been used to unlawfully produce a dangerous drug.\na house from which a chemical or equipment commonly used to produce methylamphetamine is seized by a police officer\nFor section 18 of the Act , the Act is to be administered and enforced for the public health risk mentioned in subsection (1) by local governments only.\nIn this section—\ndangerous drug see the Drugs Misuse Act 1986 , section 4 .\nproduce means prepare, manufacture, cultivate, package or produce.\nunlawfully means without authorisation, justification or excuse by law.\ns 27A ins 2019 SL No. 35 s 5\n(sec.27A-ssec.1) For section 11 (1) (b) (xi) of the Act , a place is prescribed if— a dangerous drug has or may have been unlawfully produced at the place or a part of the place; or a police officer has seized, under the Police Powers and Responsibilities Act 2000 , from the place, or a part of the place, a chemical or equipment that has or may have been used to unlawfully produce a dangerous drug. a house from which a chemical or equipment commonly used to produce methylamphetamine is seized by a police officer\n(sec.27A-ssec.2) For section 18 of the Act , the Act is to be administered and enforced for the public health risk mentioned in subsection (1) by local governments only.\n(sec.27A-ssec.3) In this section— dangerous drug see the Drugs Misuse Act 1986 , section 4 . produce means prepare, manufacture, cultivate, package or produce. unlawfully means without authorisation, justification or excuse by law.\n- (a) a dangerous drug has or may have been unlawfully produced at the place or a part of the place; or\n- (b) a police officer has seized, under the Police Powers and Responsibilities Act 2000 , from the place, or a part of the place, a chemical or equipment that has or may have been used to unlawfully produce a dangerous drug.","sortOrder":33},{"sectionNumber":"pt.3","sectionType":"part","heading":"Water risk management plans","content":"# Water risk management plans","sortOrder":34},{"sectionNumber":"sec.28","sectionType":"section","heading":"Prescribed test for Legionella","content":"### sec.28 Prescribed test for Legionella\n\nFor section 61A of the Act , definition prescribed test , a test for Legionella is prescribed if the test—\nquantifies the number of Legionella colony forming units in a sample tested; and\nis carried out by a laboratory that is accredited to carry out the test.\nIn this section—\naccredited , for a laboratory to carry out a test for Legionella, means a laboratory accredited as complying with ISO/IEC 17025 to carry out the test by—\nthe National Association of Testing Authorities Australia ACN 004 379 748; or\nanother entity the chief executive is satisfied is appropriately qualified to accredit a laboratory as complying with ISO/IEC 17025.\nISO/IEC 17025 means the standard in relation to the competence of testing and calibration laboratories published jointly by the International Organization for Standardization and the International Electrotechnical Commission as in force from time to time under that designation (regardless of the edition or year of publication of the standard).\n(sec.28-ssec.1) For section 61A of the Act , definition prescribed test , a test for Legionella is prescribed if the test— quantifies the number of Legionella colony forming units in a sample tested; and is carried out by a laboratory that is accredited to carry out the test.\n(sec.28-ssec.2) In this section— accredited , for a laboratory to carry out a test for Legionella, means a laboratory accredited as complying with ISO/IEC 17025 to carry out the test by— the National Association of Testing Authorities Australia ACN 004 379 748; or another entity the chief executive is satisfied is appropriately qualified to accredit a laboratory as complying with ISO/IEC 17025. ISO/IEC 17025 means the standard in relation to the competence of testing and calibration laboratories published jointly by the International Organization for Standardization and the International Electrotechnical Commission as in force from time to time under that designation (regardless of the edition or year of publication of the standard).\n- (a) quantifies the number of Legionella colony forming units in a sample tested; and\n- (b) is carried out by a laboratory that is accredited to carry out the test.\n- (a) the National Association of Testing Authorities Australia ACN 004 379 748; or\n- (b) another entity the chief executive is satisfied is appropriately qualified to accredit a laboratory as complying with ISO/IEC 17025.","sortOrder":35},{"sectionNumber":"sec.29","sectionType":"section","heading":"Prescribed requirement for water risk management plans— Act , s 61D","content":"### sec.29 Prescribed requirement for water risk management plans— Act , s 61D\n\nFor section 61D (g) of the Act , a water risk management plan for a prescribed facility must identify the person, by position title, who is responsible for complying with sections 61H and 61I of the Act for the facility.\n(sec.29-ssec) For section 61D (g) of the Act , a water risk management plan for a prescribed facility must identify the person, by position title, who is responsible for complying with sections 61H and 61I of the Act for the facility.","sortOrder":36},{"sectionNumber":"sec.30","sectionType":"section","heading":"Prescribed reporting period— Act , s 61I","content":"### sec.30 Prescribed reporting period— Act , s 61I\n\nFor section 61I (3) of the Act , definition reporting period , the period is the shorter of the following—\na quarter;\nthe period stated in a notice given to the prescribed facility by the chief executive.\nIn this section—\nquarter means a 3-month period ending on 31 March, 30 June, 30 September or 31 December.\n(sec.30-ssec.1) For section 61I (3) of the Act , definition reporting period , the period is the shorter of the following— a quarter; the period stated in a notice given to the prescribed facility by the chief executive.\n(sec.30-ssec.2) In this section— quarter means a 3-month period ending on 31 March, 30 June, 30 September or 31 December.\n- (a) a quarter;\n- (b) the period stated in a notice given to the prescribed facility by the chief executive.","sortOrder":37},{"sectionNumber":"pt.4","sectionType":"part","heading":"Notifiable conditions","content":"# Notifiable conditions","sortOrder":38},{"sectionNumber":"sec.31","sectionType":"section","heading":"Notifiable conditions and types of notifiable conditions","content":"### sec.31 Notifiable conditions and types of notifiable conditions\n\nFor section 64 (1) of the Act , each medical condition mentioned in schedule 1 , column 1 is a notifiable condition.\nA notifiable condition is of the following type if a mark opposite the condition in schedule 1 identifies it as a condition of that type—\nfor a mark opposite the condition in column 2—a clinical diagnosis notifiable condition;\nfor a mark opposite the condition in column 3—a pathological diagnosis notifiable condition;\nfor a mark opposite the condition in column 4—a pathology request notifiable condition;\nfor a mark opposite the condition in column 5—a provisional diagnosis notifiable condition;\nfor a mark opposite the condition in column 6—a controlled notifiable condition.\nSee section 62 of the Act , definitions clinical diagnosis notifiable condition , pathological diagnosis notifiable condition , pathology request notifiable condition , provisional diagnosis notifiable condition and sections 63 and 64 of the Act .\n(sec.31-ssec.1) For section 64 (1) of the Act , each medical condition mentioned in schedule 1 , column 1 is a notifiable condition.\n(sec.31-ssec.2) A notifiable condition is of the following type if a mark opposite the condition in schedule 1 identifies it as a condition of that type— for a mark opposite the condition in column 2—a clinical diagnosis notifiable condition; for a mark opposite the condition in column 3—a pathological diagnosis notifiable condition; for a mark opposite the condition in column 4—a pathology request notifiable condition; for a mark opposite the condition in column 5—a provisional diagnosis notifiable condition; for a mark opposite the condition in column 6—a controlled notifiable condition. See section 62 of the Act , definitions clinical diagnosis notifiable condition , pathological diagnosis notifiable condition , pathology request notifiable condition , provisional diagnosis notifiable condition and sections 63 and 64 of the Act .\n- (a) for a mark opposite the condition in column 2—a clinical diagnosis notifiable condition;\n- (b) for a mark opposite the condition in column 3—a pathological diagnosis notifiable condition;\n- (c) for a mark opposite the condition in column 4—a pathology request notifiable condition;\n- (d) for a mark opposite the condition in column 5—a provisional diagnosis notifiable condition;\n- (e) for a mark opposite the condition in column 6—a controlled notifiable condition. Note— See section 62 of the Act , definitions clinical diagnosis notifiable condition , pathological diagnosis notifiable condition , pathology request notifiable condition , provisional diagnosis notifiable condition and sections 63 and 64 of the Act .","sortOrder":39},{"sectionNumber":"sec.32","sectionType":"section","heading":"Requirements for notice of particular notifiable conditions— Act , ss 70 – 73","content":"### sec.32 Requirements for notice of particular notifiable conditions— Act , ss 70 – 73\n\nThis section prescribes requirements for a notice to the chief executive about any of the following—\na clinical diagnosis notifiable condition or a provisional diagnosis notifiable condition under section 70 or 71 of the Act ;\na pathological diagnosis notifiable condition under section 72 of the Act ;\na pathology request notifiable condition under section 73 of the Act .\nThe notice must be given by fax, email or other electronic means.\nAlso, the notice must be given—\nif the condition is mentioned in schedule 2 —immediately after the examination, pathological examination or receipt of the request; or\notherwise—within 48 hours after the examination, pathological examination or receipt of the request.\n(sec.32-ssec.1) This section prescribes requirements for a notice to the chief executive about any of the following— a clinical diagnosis notifiable condition or a provisional diagnosis notifiable condition under section 70 or 71 of the Act ; a pathological diagnosis notifiable condition under section 72 of the Act ; a pathology request notifiable condition under section 73 of the Act .\n(sec.32-ssec.2) The notice must be given by fax, email or other electronic means.\n(sec.32-ssec.3) Also, the notice must be given— if the condition is mentioned in schedule 2 —immediately after the examination, pathological examination or receipt of the request; or otherwise—within 48 hours after the examination, pathological examination or receipt of the request.\n- (a) a clinical diagnosis notifiable condition or a provisional diagnosis notifiable condition under section 70 or 71 of the Act ;\n- (b) a pathological diagnosis notifiable condition under section 72 of the Act ;\n- (c) a pathology request notifiable condition under section 73 of the Act .\n- (a) if the condition is mentioned in schedule 2 —immediately after the examination, pathological examination or receipt of the request; or\n- (b) otherwise—within 48 hours after the examination, pathological examination or receipt of the request.","sortOrder":40},{"sectionNumber":"sec.33","sectionType":"section","heading":"Prescribed agreements— Act , s 84","content":"### sec.33 Prescribed agreements— Act , s 84\n\nEach agreement mentioned in schedule 3 , part 1 , division 1 is prescribed for section 84 (1) (a) (i) (B) of the Act .\nEach agreement mentioned in schedule 3 , part 1 , division 2 is prescribed for section 84 (1) (b) (i) (B) of the Act .\n(sec.33-ssec.1) Each agreement mentioned in schedule 3 , part 1 , division 1 is prescribed for section 84 (1) (a) (i) (B) of the Act .\n(sec.33-ssec.2) Each agreement mentioned in schedule 3 , part 1 , division 2 is prescribed for section 84 (1) (b) (i) (B) of the Act .","sortOrder":41},{"sectionNumber":"pt.5","sectionType":"part","heading":"Infection control for health care facilities","content":"# Infection control for health care facilities","sortOrder":42},{"sectionNumber":"sec.34","sectionType":"section","heading":"ICMP not required for prescribed health care facilities— Act , ss 153 and 154","content":"### sec.34 ICMP not required for prescribed health care facilities— Act , ss 153 and 154\n\nFor section 153 (3) of the Act , the following types of health care facility are prescribed—\na health care facility owned by a local government, if the operator of the health care facility—\nperforms an immunisation service at the health care facility; and\nhas developed and implemented an occupational exposure policy and a sharps disposal policy for the health care facility;\na health care facility accredited—\nagainst the ‘Standards for general practices’ developed by the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners; and\nby an entity approved by the commission to accredit health care facilities against the standards.\nFor section 154 (3) of the Act , the following types of health care facility are prescribed—\na health care facility owned and operated by a local government, if the local government—\nperforms an immunisation service at the health care facility; and\nhas developed and implemented an occupational exposure policy and a sharps disposal policy for the health care facility;\na health care facility accredited—\nagainst the ‘Standards for general practices’ developed by the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners; and\nby an entity approved by the commission to accredit health care facilities against the standards.\nIn this section—\ncommission means the Australian Commission on Safety and Quality in Health Care established under the National Health Reform Act 2011 (Cwlth) , section 8 .\noccupational exposure policy means a document stating the minimum procedures for the immediate assessment, management and follow-up of a person exposed to bloodborne viruses or other infectious agents from blood or another bodily fluid from a work related activity.\nsharps disposal policy means a document stating the minimum procedures for disposing of objects or devices capable of inflicting a penetrating injury, known as sharps, to minimise—\nthe risk of injury to a person; and\nthe transmission of bloodborne viruses and other infectious agents to a person.\n(sec.34-ssec.1) For section 153 (3) of the Act , the following types of health care facility are prescribed— a health care facility owned by a local government, if the operator of the health care facility— performs an immunisation service at the health care facility; and has developed and implemented an occupational exposure policy and a sharps disposal policy for the health care facility; a health care facility accredited— against the ‘Standards for general practices’ developed by the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners; and by an entity approved by the commission to accredit health care facilities against the standards.\n(sec.34-ssec.2) For section 154 (3) of the Act , the following types of health care facility are prescribed— a health care facility owned and operated by a local government, if the local government— performs an immunisation service at the health care facility; and has developed and implemented an occupational exposure policy and a sharps disposal policy for the health care facility; a health care facility accredited— against the ‘Standards for general practices’ developed by the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners; and by an entity approved by the commission to accredit health care facilities against the standards.\n(sec.34-ssec.3) In this section— commission means the Australian Commission on Safety and Quality in Health Care established under the National Health Reform Act 2011 (Cwlth) , section 8 . occupational exposure policy means a document stating the minimum procedures for the immediate assessment, management and follow-up of a person exposed to bloodborne viruses or other infectious agents from blood or another bodily fluid from a work related activity. sharps disposal policy means a document stating the minimum procedures for disposing of objects or devices capable of inflicting a penetrating injury, known as sharps, to minimise— the risk of injury to a person; and the transmission of bloodborne viruses and other infectious agents to a person.\n- (a) a health care facility owned by a local government, if the operator of the health care facility— (i) performs an immunisation service at the health care facility; and (ii) has developed and implemented an occupational exposure policy and a sharps disposal policy for the health care facility;\n- (i) performs an immunisation service at the health care facility; and\n- (ii) has developed and implemented an occupational exposure policy and a sharps disposal policy for the health care facility;\n- (b) a health care facility accredited— (i) against the ‘Standards for general practices’ developed by the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners; and (ii) by an entity approved by the commission to accredit health care facilities against the standards.\n- (i) against the ‘Standards for general practices’ developed by the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners; and\n- (ii) by an entity approved by the commission to accredit health care facilities against the standards.\n- (i) performs an immunisation service at the health care facility; and\n- (ii) has developed and implemented an occupational exposure policy and a sharps disposal policy for the health care facility;\n- (i) against the ‘Standards for general practices’ developed by the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners; and\n- (ii) by an entity approved by the commission to accredit health care facilities against the standards.\n- (a) a health care facility owned and operated by a local government, if the local government— (i) performs an immunisation service at the health care facility; and (ii) has developed and implemented an occupational exposure policy and a sharps disposal policy for the health care facility;\n- (i) performs an immunisation service at the health care facility; and\n- (ii) has developed and implemented an occupational exposure policy and a sharps disposal policy for the health care facility;\n- (b) a health care facility accredited— (i) against the ‘Standards for general practices’ developed by the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners; and (ii) by an entity approved by the commission to accredit health care facilities against the standards.\n- (i) against the ‘Standards for general practices’ developed by the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners; and\n- (ii) by an entity approved by the commission to accredit health care facilities against the standards.\n- (i) performs an immunisation service at the health care facility; and\n- (ii) has developed and implemented an occupational exposure policy and a sharps disposal policy for the health care facility;\n- (i) against the ‘Standards for general practices’ developed by the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners; and\n- (ii) by an entity approved by the commission to accredit health care facilities against the standards.\n- (a) the risk of injury to a person; and\n- (b) the transmission of bloodborne viruses and other infectious agents to a person.","sortOrder":43},{"sectionNumber":"pt.6","sectionType":"part","heading":"Child health","content":"# Child health","sortOrder":44},{"sectionNumber":"pt.6-div.1","sectionType":"division","heading":"Contagious conditions and vaccine preventable conditions","content":"## Contagious conditions and vaccine preventable conditions","sortOrder":45},{"sectionNumber":"sec.35","sectionType":"section","heading":"Contagious conditions","content":"### sec.35 Contagious conditions\n\nFor section 158 of the Act , definition contagious condition , each condition mentioned in schedule 4 , part 2 , column 1 is a contagious condition.","sortOrder":46},{"sectionNumber":"sec.36","sectionType":"section","heading":"Prescribed period for a contagious condition— Act , s 160","content":"### sec.36 Prescribed period for a contagious condition— Act , s 160\n\nThe prescribed period for a contagious condition for a child suspected under chapter 5 of the Act of having the condition is the period that starts and ends as stated opposite the condition in schedule 4 , part 2 , columns 2 and 3.\nSubsection (3) states the prescribed period for a contagious condition for a child who does not have the condition but who is suspected under chapter 5 of the Act of—\nnot having been vaccinated for the condition; and\nbeing at risk of contracting the condition if the child continues to attend a school, education and care service or QEC approved service.\nThe period starts and ends as stated opposite the condition in schedule 4 , part 3 , columns 2 and 3.\n(sec.36-ssec.1) The prescribed period for a contagious condition for a child suspected under chapter 5 of the Act of having the condition is the period that starts and ends as stated opposite the condition in schedule 4 , part 2 , columns 2 and 3.\n(sec.36-ssec.2) Subsection (3) states the prescribed period for a contagious condition for a child who does not have the condition but who is suspected under chapter 5 of the Act of— not having been vaccinated for the condition; and being at risk of contracting the condition if the child continues to attend a school, education and care service or QEC approved service.\n(sec.36-ssec.3) The period starts and ends as stated opposite the condition in schedule 4 , part 3 , columns 2 and 3.\n- (a) not having been vaccinated for the condition; and\n- (b) being at risk of contracting the condition if the child continues to attend a school, education and care service or QEC approved service.","sortOrder":47},{"sectionNumber":"sec.37","sectionType":"section","heading":"Vaccine preventable conditions","content":"### sec.37 Vaccine preventable conditions\n\nFor section 158 of the Act , definition vaccine preventable condition , each condition mentioned in schedule 5 is a vaccine preventable condition.","sortOrder":48},{"sectionNumber":"sec.38","sectionType":"section","heading":"Requirements for vaccination","content":"### sec.38 Requirements for vaccination\n\nFor section 158 of the Act , definition vaccinated , the way for vaccinating a child for a vaccine preventable condition is for the child to receive all vaccinations for the condition recommended for the child’s age in the National Immunisation Program Schedule Queensland.\nIn this section—\nNational Immunisation Program Schedule Queensland means the schedule for age appropriate immunisation for vaccine preventable conditions published on the department’s website.\n(sec.38-ssec.1) For section 158 of the Act , definition vaccinated , the way for vaccinating a child for a vaccine preventable condition is for the child to receive all vaccinations for the condition recommended for the child’s age in the National Immunisation Program Schedule Queensland.\n(sec.38-ssec.2) In this section— National Immunisation Program Schedule Queensland means the schedule for age appropriate immunisation for vaccine preventable conditions published on the department’s website.","sortOrder":49},{"sectionNumber":"pt.6-div.2","sectionType":"division","heading":"Disclosure of information for school health programs","content":"## Disclosure of information for school health programs","sortOrder":50},{"sectionNumber":"sec.39","sectionType":"section","heading":"Prescribed information for school health programs— Act , s 213AD","content":"### sec.39 Prescribed information for school health programs— Act , s 213AD\n\nFor section 213AD (1) (c) of the Act , the following information about a student is prescribed—\nthe sex of the student;\nthe school’s class or group to which the student belongs;\nthe language spoken at home by the student;\nwhether the student identifies as an Aboriginal person or a Torres Strait Islander.\n- (a) the sex of the student;\n- (b) the school’s class or group to which the student belongs;\n- (c) the language spoken at home by the student;\n- (d) whether the student identifies as an Aboriginal person or a Torres Strait Islander.","sortOrder":51},{"sectionNumber":"pt.7","sectionType":"part","heading":"Performance of cosmetic procedures on children","content":"# Performance of cosmetic procedures on children","sortOrder":52},{"sectionNumber":"sec.40","sectionType":"section","heading":"Procedures that are not cosmetic procedures— Act , s 213A","content":"### sec.40 Procedures that are not cosmetic procedures— Act , s 213A\n\nFor section 213A (2) of the Act , the following procedures are not cosmetic procedures for chapter 5A of the Act —\na procedure involving the removal of a polypoid outgrowth of both epidermis and dermal fibrovascular tissue, also known as a skin tag;\na procedure involving the reshaping of the external structure of the ear, also known as otoplasty;\na procedure involving the reshaping of a hand or foot that is polydactyl or syndactyl;\na procedure involving the circumcision of the penis;\na procedure involving the correction of disfiguring scarring resulting from a medical condition, illness or trauma;\na procedure involving the removal of a naevus that is disfiguring, melanotic or interferes with the function of a part of the human body;\na procedure involving the removal of a tattoo;\na procedure that—\nis part of a plan to treat a child; and\ninvolves cranio-facial surgery, orthognathic surgery or otolaryngological surgery to correct a deformity, congenital abnormality or the physical effect of a medical condition, illness or trauma;\na procedure to correct a deformity, congenital abnormality or the physical effect of a medical condition, illness or trauma that is—\na mammaplasty; or\na genioplasty; or\na rhinoplasty.\n- (a) a procedure involving the removal of a polypoid outgrowth of both epidermis and dermal fibrovascular tissue, also known as a skin tag;\n- (b) a procedure involving the reshaping of the external structure of the ear, also known as otoplasty;\n- (c) a procedure involving the reshaping of a hand or foot that is polydactyl or syndactyl;\n- (d) a procedure involving the circumcision of the penis;\n- (e) a procedure involving the correction of disfiguring scarring resulting from a medical condition, illness or trauma;\n- (f) a procedure involving the removal of a naevus that is disfiguring, melanotic or interferes with the function of a part of the human body;\n- (g) a procedure involving the removal of a tattoo;\n- (h) a procedure that— (i) is part of a plan to treat a child; and (ii) involves cranio-facial surgery, orthognathic surgery or otolaryngological surgery to correct a deformity, congenital abnormality or the physical effect of a medical condition, illness or trauma;\n- (i) is part of a plan to treat a child; and\n- (ii) involves cranio-facial surgery, orthognathic surgery or otolaryngological surgery to correct a deformity, congenital abnormality or the physical effect of a medical condition, illness or trauma;\n- (i) a procedure to correct a deformity, congenital abnormality or the physical effect of a medical condition, illness or trauma that is— (i) a mammaplasty; or (ii) a genioplasty; or (iii) a rhinoplasty.\n- (i) a mammaplasty; or\n- (ii) a genioplasty; or\n- (iii) a rhinoplasty.\n- (i) is part of a plan to treat a child; and\n- (ii) involves cranio-facial surgery, orthognathic surgery or otolaryngological surgery to correct a deformity, congenital abnormality or the physical effect of a medical condition, illness or trauma;\n- (i) a mammaplasty; or\n- (ii) a genioplasty; or\n- (iii) a rhinoplasty.","sortOrder":53},{"sectionNumber":"pt.8","sectionType":"part","heading":"Health information management","content":"# Health information management","sortOrder":54},{"sectionNumber":"pt.8-div.1","sectionType":"division","heading":"Perinatal statistics","content":"## Perinatal statistics","sortOrder":55},{"sectionNumber":"sec.41","sectionType":"section","heading":"Prescribed time for notifying about delivery— Act , s 217","content":"### sec.41 Prescribed time for notifying about delivery— Act , s 217\n\nFor section 217 of the Act , the time is within 35 days after the day of the delivery.","sortOrder":56},{"sectionNumber":"sec.41A","sectionType":"section","heading":"Disclosure of confidential information for purposes relating to health services— Act , s 225","content":"### sec.41A Disclosure of confidential information for purposes relating to health services— Act , s 225\n\nFor section 225 (b) of the Act , an entity stated in column 1 of the table in schedule 5A is prescribed in relation to disclosure of information for a purpose stated in column 2 of the table opposite the entity.\ns 41A ins 2024 SL No. 92 s 13","sortOrder":57},{"sectionNumber":"sec.42","sectionType":"section","heading":"Prescribed agreements— Act , s 226","content":"### sec.42 Prescribed agreements— Act , s 226\n\nEach agreement mentioned in schedule 3 , part 2 is prescribed for section 226 (1) (a) (i) (B) of the Act .","sortOrder":58},{"sectionNumber":"pt.8-div.2","sectionType":"division","heading":"Maternal death statistics","content":"## Maternal death statistics","sortOrder":59},{"sectionNumber":"sec.43","sectionType":"section","heading":"Prescribed time for notifying about maternal death— Act , s 228F","content":"### sec.43 Prescribed time for notifying about maternal death— Act , s 228F\n\nFor section 228F (2) of the Act , the time is within 60 days after the health professional becomes aware of the death.","sortOrder":60},{"sectionNumber":"sec.44","sectionType":"section","heading":"Prescribed agreements— Act , s 228O","content":"### sec.44 Prescribed agreements— Act , s 228O\n\nEach agreement mentioned in schedule 3 , part 2 is prescribed for section 228O (1) (a) (i) (B) of the Act .","sortOrder":61},{"sectionNumber":"pt.8-div.3","sectionType":"division","heading":"Cancer notifications","content":"## Cancer notifications","sortOrder":62},{"sectionNumber":"sec.45","sectionType":"section","heading":"Non-notifiable types of skin cancer and non-invasive carcinoma","content":"### sec.45 Non-notifiable types of skin cancer and non-invasive carcinoma\n\nFor section 229 of the Act , definition cancer , paragraph (b) , the following types of skin cancer and non-invasive carcinoma are prescribed—\nbasal cell carcinoma of the skin without perineural or lymphovascular invasion, or metastasis;\nsquamous cell carcinoma of the skin without perineural or lymphovascular invasion, or metastasis;\nbenign neoplasm that is not a central nervous system or brain tumour.\ns 45 amd 2025 SL No. 25 s 10\n- (a) basal cell carcinoma of the skin without perineural or lymphovascular invasion, or metastasis;\n- (b) squamous cell carcinoma of the skin without perineural or lymphovascular invasion, or metastasis;\n- (c) benign neoplasm that is not a central nervous system or brain tumour.","sortOrder":63},{"sectionNumber":"sec.46","sectionType":"section","heading":"Prescribed person for keeping register— Act , s 232","content":"### sec.46 Prescribed person for keeping register— Act , s 232\n\nFor section 232 (1) of the Act , the Metro South Hospital and Health Service established and named under the Hospital and Health Boards Act 2011 , section 17 is prescribed.","sortOrder":64},{"sectionNumber":"sec.47","sectionType":"section","heading":"Prescribed periods for giving notifications related to cancer— Act , ss 234 , 234A , 234B , 234C and 234D","content":"### sec.47 Prescribed periods for giving notifications related to cancer— Act , ss 234 , 234A , 234B , 234C and 234D\n\nFor section 234 (2) of the Act , the prescribed period—\nstarts on the day the director receives a finalised report about the pathological examination; and\nends 30 days after the day mentioned in paragraph (a) .\nFor section 234A (2) of the Act , the prescribed period—\nstarts on the day the director receives a finalised report about the diagnostic imaging procedure; and\nends 30 days after the day mentioned in paragraph (a) .\nFor section 234B (2) of the Act , the prescribed period—\nstarts on the day the director becomes aware of the cancer diagnosis; and\nends 30 days after the day mentioned in paragraph (a) .\nFor section 234C (2) of the Act , the prescribed period—\nstarts on the day the cancer-related treatment is provided; and\nends 120 days after the day the cancer-related treatment is completed, discontinued or otherwise ends.\nFor section 234D (2) of the Act , the prescribed period—\nstarts on the day the director becomes aware of the death; and\nends 30 days after the day mentioned in paragraph (a) .\ns 47 sub 2025 SL No. 25 s 11\n(sec.47-ssec.1) For section 234 (2) of the Act , the prescribed period— starts on the day the director receives a finalised report about the pathological examination; and ends 30 days after the day mentioned in paragraph (a) .\n(sec.47-ssec.2) For section 234A (2) of the Act , the prescribed period— starts on the day the director receives a finalised report about the diagnostic imaging procedure; and ends 30 days after the day mentioned in paragraph (a) .\n(sec.47-ssec.3) For section 234B (2) of the Act , the prescribed period— starts on the day the director becomes aware of the cancer diagnosis; and ends 30 days after the day mentioned in paragraph (a) .\n(sec.47-ssec.4) For section 234C (2) of the Act , the prescribed period— starts on the day the cancer-related treatment is provided; and ends 120 days after the day the cancer-related treatment is completed, discontinued or otherwise ends.\n(sec.47-ssec.5) For section 234D (2) of the Act , the prescribed period— starts on the day the director becomes aware of the death; and ends 30 days after the day mentioned in paragraph (a) .\n- (a) starts on the day the director receives a finalised report about the pathological examination; and\n- (b) ends 30 days after the day mentioned in paragraph (a) .\n- (a) starts on the day the director receives a finalised report about the diagnostic imaging procedure; and\n- (b) ends 30 days after the day mentioned in paragraph (a) .\n- (a) starts on the day the director becomes aware of the cancer diagnosis; and\n- (b) ends 30 days after the day mentioned in paragraph (a) .\n- (a) starts on the day the cancer-related treatment is provided; and\n- (b) ends 120 days after the day the cancer-related treatment is completed, discontinued or otherwise ends.\n- (a) starts on the day the director becomes aware of the death; and\n- (b) ends 30 days after the day mentioned in paragraph (a) .","sortOrder":65},{"sectionNumber":"sec.48","sectionType":"section","heading":"Prescribed agreements— Act , s 244","content":"### sec.48 Prescribed agreements— Act , s 244\n\nEach agreement mentioned in schedule 3 , part 3 is prescribed for section 244 (1) (a) (i) (B) of the Act .","sortOrder":66},{"sectionNumber":"pt.8-div.4","sectionType":"division","heading":null,"content":"","sortOrder":67},{"sectionNumber":"sec.49","sectionType":"section","heading":null,"content":"### Section sec.49\n\ns 49 om 2020 Act No. 31 s 41 sch 1","sortOrder":68},{"sectionNumber":"pt.8-div.5","sectionType":"division","heading":"Notifiable occupational respiratory diseases","content":"## Notifiable occupational respiratory diseases","sortOrder":69},{"sectionNumber":"sec.49A","sectionType":"section","heading":"Prescribed medical practitioners— Act , s 279AA","content":"### sec.49A Prescribed medical practitioners— Act , s 279AA\n\nFor section 279AA of the Act , definition prescribed medical practitioner , the prescribed class of persons is medical practitioners registered under the Health Practitioner Regulation National Law as specialist health practitioners in either of the following specialties or specialty fields—\noccupational and environmental medicine;\nrespiratory and sleep medicine.\ns 49A ins 2019 SL No. 117 s 14\nsub 2025 Act No. 21 s 49\n- (a) occupational and environmental medicine;\n- (b) respiratory and sleep medicine.","sortOrder":70},{"sectionNumber":"sec.49B","sectionType":"section","heading":"Prescribed period— Act , s 279AB","content":"### sec.49B Prescribed period— Act , s 279AB\n\nFor section 279AB (2) of the Act , the period prescribed is 30 days from the day the prescribed medical practitioner diagnoses the person with the notifiable occupational respiratory disease.\ns 49B ins 2019 SL No. 117 s 14\nsub 2025 Act No. 21 s 49","sortOrder":71},{"sectionNumber":"sec.49C","sectionType":"section","heading":"Notifiable occupational respiratory diseases— Act , s 279AB","content":"### sec.49C Notifiable occupational respiratory diseases— Act , s 279AB\n\nFor section 279AB (5) of the Act , definition notifiable occupational respiratory disease , paragraph (a) , each of the following medical conditions is prescribed to the extent the condition is likely to have been caused or exacerbated, in whole or in part, by exposure to inorganic dust—\npneumoconiosis, other than silicosis;\nasbestosis, coal worker’s pneumoconiosis and mixed-dust pneumoconiosis\nSilicosis is a prescribed occupational respiratory disease under the Commonwealth Act .\ncancer;\nchronic obstructive pulmonary disease.\nchronic bronchitis and emphysema\ns 49C ins 2019 SL No. 117 s 14\nsub 2025 Act No. 21 s 49\n- (a) pneumoconiosis, other than silicosis; Examples— asbestosis, coal worker’s pneumoconiosis and mixed-dust pneumoconiosis Note— Silicosis is a prescribed occupational respiratory disease under the Commonwealth Act .\n- (b) cancer;\n- (c) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Examples— chronic bronchitis and emphysema","sortOrder":72},{"sectionNumber":"sec.49D","sectionType":"section","heading":"Prescribed agreement— Act , s 279AI","content":"### sec.49D Prescribed agreement— Act , s 279AI\n\nFor section 279AI (1) (b) of the Act , the agreement mentioned in schedule 3 , part 4 is prescribed.\ns 49D ins 2022 SL No. 87 s 12\nsub 2025 Act No. 21 s 49","sortOrder":73},{"sectionNumber":"pt.9","sectionType":"part","heading":"Water quality","content":"# Water quality","sortOrder":74},{"sectionNumber":"pt.9-div.1","sectionType":"division","heading":"Preliminary","content":"## Preliminary","sortOrder":75},{"sectionNumber":"sec.50","sectionType":"section","heading":"Definitions for part","content":"### sec.50 Definitions for part\n\nIn this part—\napproved drinking water quality management plan see the Water Supply (Safety and Reliability) Act 2008 , schedule 3 .\napproved recycled water management plan see the Water Supply (Safety and Reliability) Act 2008 , schedule 3 .\ncfu means colony forming units.\nclass , of recycled water, means recycled water that meets the standard for the quality of water of that class prescribed under division 2 .\ndrinking water service see the Water Supply (Safety and Reliability) Act 2008 , schedule 3 .\nmanagement plan , for water, means—\nthe approved drinking water quality management plan for the drinking water service under which the water is supplied; or\nthe approved recycled water management plan for the recycled water scheme under which the water is supplied.\nMPN means most probable number.\npfu means plaque forming units.\nphysical and chemical guideline table means the table that states guideline values for physical and chemical characteristics of drinking water in chapter 10 of the document called the ‘Australian Drinking Water Guidelines’ published by the NHMRC.\npreceding 1-year period , for a month, means the period of 1 year ending at the end of the previous month.\nradiological guideline table means the table that states a guideline value for the radiological quality of drinking water in chapter 10 of the document called the ‘Australian Drinking Water Guidelines’ published by the NHMRC.\nrecycled water has the meaning given by the Water Supply (Safety and Reliability) Act 2008 , schedule 3 , definition recycled water , paragraph (a) .\nrecycled water scheme see the Water Supply (Safety and Reliability) Act 2008 , schedule 3 .\nresample , of water, means a sample of water taken because an earlier sample of water was not of the quality required under the management plan for the water.\n- (a) the approved drinking water quality management plan for the drinking water service under which the water is supplied; or\n- (b) the approved recycled water management plan for the recycled water scheme under which the water is supplied.","sortOrder":76},{"sectionNumber":"pt.9-div.2","sectionType":"division","heading":"Standards for and management of water quality","content":"## Standards for and management of water quality","sortOrder":77},{"sectionNumber":"sec.51","sectionType":"section","heading":"Standards for the quality of water and management of water quality","content":"### sec.51 Standards for the quality of water and management of water quality\n\nThis division prescribes standards for the quality of water and requirements for the management of the quality of water.\nFor the Water Supply (Safety and Reliability) Act 2008 , schedule 3 , definition water quality criteria , paragraphs (a) (i) and (b)(i)—\nsection 52 (3) , (4) , (5) and (6) prescribes standards for the quality of drinking water; and\nsections 53 (2) and (3) , 56 (1) , 57 (1) and (3) , 58 (2) and 59 (2) prescribe standards for the quality of recycled water.\n(sec.51-ssec.1) This division prescribes standards for the quality of water and requirements for the management of the quality of water.\n(sec.51-ssec.2) For the Water Supply (Safety and Reliability) Act 2008 , schedule 3 , definition water quality criteria , paragraphs (a) (i) and (b)(i)— section 52 (3) , (4) , (5) and (6) prescribes standards for the quality of drinking water; and sections 53 (2) and (3) , 56 (1) , 57 (1) and (3) , 58 (2) and 59 (2) prescribe standards for the quality of recycled water.\n- (a) section 52 (3) , (4) , (5) and (6) prescribes standards for the quality of drinking water; and\n- (b) sections 53 (2) and (3) , 56 (1) , 57 (1) and (3) , 58 (2) and 59 (2) prescribe standards for the quality of recycled water.","sortOrder":78},{"sectionNumber":"sec.52","sectionType":"section","heading":"Quality standard for drinking water","content":"### sec.52 Quality standard for drinking water\n\nDrinking water in a drinking water service must be tested for the presence of—\nEscherichia coli at the frequency stated in subsection (2) ; and\neach required parameter at the frequency stated in the management plan for the water.\nFor subsection (1) (a) , the frequency is—\nif the drinking water service supplies drinking water to more than 100,000 people—\n6 samples a week; and\nfor each 10,000 people supplied by the service over 100,000 people—1 additional sample a month; or\nif the service supplies drinking water to more than 5,000 people but not more than 100,000 people—\n1 sample a week; and\nfor each 5,000 people supplied by the service over 5,000 people—1 additional sample a month; or\nif the service supplies drinking water to more than 1,000 people but not more than 5,000 people—1 sample a week; or\nif the service supplies drinking water to 1,000 people or less—1 sample a month.\nEscherichia coli must not be detected in a sample, of a minimum of 100mL, of drinking water.\nIf the quality of drinking water has been tested for Escherichia coli for at least 1 year under this section—\neach month, the samples taken to test for Escherichia coli , other than resamples, during the preceding 1-year period must be reviewed; and\nEscherichia coli must not be detected in at least 98% of the samples reviewed.\nEach sample of drinking water must not contain an amount of an ADWG parameter more than the guideline value for health for the parameter stated in the physical and chemical guideline table.\nEach sample of drinking water must comply with the guideline value for radioactivity stated in the radiological guideline table.\nSubsections (5) and (6) apply to drinking water tested for an ADWG parameter or radioactivity, whether or not the management plan for the water required the water to be tested for the parameter or radioactivity.\nIn this section—\nADWG parameter means a parameter that has a guideline value for health stated in the physical and chemical guideline table.\nrequired parameter means an ADWG parameter or radioactivity that water is required to be tested for under the management plan for the water.\n(sec.52-ssec.1) Drinking water in a drinking water service must be tested for the presence of— Escherichia coli at the frequency stated in subsection (2) ; and each required parameter at the frequency stated in the management plan for the water.\n(sec.52-ssec.2) For subsection (1) (a) , the frequency is— if the drinking water service supplies drinking water to more than 100,000 people— 6 samples a week; and for each 10,000 people supplied by the service over 100,000 people—1 additional sample a month; or if the service supplies drinking water to more than 5,000 people but not more than 100,000 people— 1 sample a week; and for each 5,000 people supplied by the service over 5,000 people—1 additional sample a month; or if the service supplies drinking water to more than 1,000 people but not more than 5,000 people—1 sample a week; or if the service supplies drinking water to 1,000 people or less—1 sample a month.\n(sec.52-ssec.3) Escherichia coli must not be detected in a sample, of a minimum of 100mL, of drinking water.\n(sec.52-ssec.4) If the quality of drinking water has been tested for Escherichia coli for at least 1 year under this section— each month, the samples taken to test for Escherichia coli , other than resamples, during the preceding 1-year period must be reviewed; and Escherichia coli must not be detected in at least 98% of the samples reviewed.\n(sec.52-ssec.5) Each sample of drinking water must not contain an amount of an ADWG parameter more than the guideline value for health for the parameter stated in the physical and chemical guideline table.\n(sec.52-ssec.6) Each sample of drinking water must comply with the guideline value for radioactivity stated in the radiological guideline table.\n(sec.52-ssec.7) Subsections (5) and (6) apply to drinking water tested for an ADWG parameter or radioactivity, whether or not the management plan for the water required the water to be tested for the parameter or radioactivity.\n(sec.52-ssec.8) In this section— ADWG parameter means a parameter that has a guideline value for health stated in the physical and chemical guideline table. required parameter means an ADWG parameter or radioactivity that water is required to be tested for under the management plan for the water.\n- (a) Escherichia coli at the frequency stated in subsection (2) ; and\n- (b) each required parameter at the frequency stated in the management plan for the water.\n- (a) if the drinking water service supplies drinking water to more than 100,000 people— (i) 6 samples a week; and (ii) for each 10,000 people supplied by the service over 100,000 people—1 additional sample a month; or\n- (i) 6 samples a week; and\n- (ii) for each 10,000 people supplied by the service over 100,000 people—1 additional sample a month; or\n- (b) if the service supplies drinking water to more than 5,000 people but not more than 100,000 people— (i) 1 sample a week; and (ii) for each 5,000 people supplied by the service over 5,000 people—1 additional sample a month; or\n- (i) 1 sample a week; and\n- (ii) for each 5,000 people supplied by the service over 5,000 people—1 additional sample a month; or\n- (c) if the service supplies drinking water to more than 1,000 people but not more than 5,000 people—1 sample a week; or\n- (d) if the service supplies drinking water to 1,000 people or less—1 sample a month.\n- (i) 6 samples a week; and\n- (ii) for each 10,000 people supplied by the service over 100,000 people—1 additional sample a month; or\n- (i) 1 sample a week; and\n- (ii) for each 5,000 people supplied by the service over 5,000 people—1 additional sample a month; or\n- (a) each month, the samples taken to test for Escherichia coli , other than resamples, during the preceding 1-year period must be reviewed; and\n- (b) Escherichia coli must not be detected in at least 98% of the samples reviewed.","sortOrder":79},{"sectionNumber":"sec.53","sectionType":"section","heading":"Quality standard for recycled water intended to augment a supply of drinking water","content":"### sec.53 Quality standard for recycled water intended to augment a supply of drinking water\n\nRecycled water that is intended to augment a supply of drinking water must be tested for the presence of each required parameter at the frequency required under the management plan for the water.\nEach sample of the water must—\nfor a microorganism stated in schedule 6 , part 1 —contain less of the microorganism than the value stated opposite the microorganism in schedule 6 , part 1 ; and\nfor a chemical parameter stated in schedule 6 , part 2 —not contain more of the parameter than the value stated opposite the parameter in schedule 6 , part 2 ; and\nfor an ADWG parameter—not contain more of the parameter than the guideline value for health for the parameter stated in the physical and chemical guideline table; and\nnot contain detectable viral, bacterial or protozoan pathogens.\nEach sample of the water must comply with the guideline value for radioactivity stated in the radiological guideline table.\nSubsections (2) and (3) apply to water tested for a microorganism, parameter or pathogen or for radioactivity, whether or not the management plan for the water required the water to be tested for the microorganism, parameter or pathogen or for radioactivity.\nIn this section—\nADWG parameter —\nmeans a parameter for which a guideline value for health is stated in the physical and chemical guideline table; but\ndoes not include a microorganism or chemical parameter stated in schedule 6 .\nrequired parameter means each parameter of the following types of parameter that the water is required to be tested for under the management plan for the water—\na microorganism;\na chemical parameter;\nan ADWG parameter;\na pathogen;\nradioactivity.\n(sec.53-ssec.1) Recycled water that is intended to augment a supply of drinking water must be tested for the presence of each required parameter at the frequency required under the management plan for the water.\n(sec.53-ssec.2) Each sample of the water must— for a microorganism stated in schedule 6 , part 1 —contain less of the microorganism than the value stated opposite the microorganism in schedule 6 , part 1 ; and for a chemical parameter stated in schedule 6 , part 2 —not contain more of the parameter than the value stated opposite the parameter in schedule 6 , part 2 ; and for an ADWG parameter—not contain more of the parameter than the guideline value for health for the parameter stated in the physical and chemical guideline table; and not contain detectable viral, bacterial or protozoan pathogens.\n(sec.53-ssec.3) Each sample of the water must comply with the guideline value for radioactivity stated in the radiological guideline table.\n(sec.53-ssec.4) Subsections (2) and (3) apply to water tested for a microorganism, parameter or pathogen or for radioactivity, whether or not the management plan for the water required the water to be tested for the microorganism, parameter or pathogen or for radioactivity.\n(sec.53-ssec.5) In this section— ADWG parameter — means a parameter for which a guideline value for health is stated in the physical and chemical guideline table; but does not include a microorganism or chemical parameter stated in schedule 6 . required parameter means each parameter of the following types of parameter that the water is required to be tested for under the management plan for the water— a microorganism; a chemical parameter; an ADWG parameter; a pathogen; radioactivity.\n- (a) for a microorganism stated in schedule 6 , part 1 —contain less of the microorganism than the value stated opposite the microorganism in schedule 6 , part 1 ; and\n- (b) for a chemical parameter stated in schedule 6 , part 2 —not contain more of the parameter than the value stated opposite the parameter in schedule 6 , part 2 ; and\n- (c) for an ADWG parameter—not contain more of the parameter than the guideline value for health for the parameter stated in the physical and chemical guideline table; and\n- (d) not contain detectable viral, bacterial or protozoan pathogens.\n- (a) means a parameter for which a guideline value for health is stated in the physical and chemical guideline table; but\n- (b) does not include a microorganism or chemical parameter stated in schedule 6 .\n- (a) a microorganism;\n- (b) a chemical parameter;\n- (c) an ADWG parameter;\n- (d) a pathogen;\n- (e) radioactivity.","sortOrder":80},{"sectionNumber":"sec.54","sectionType":"section","heading":"Standard for recycled water intended to augment a supply of drinking water—supply and storage","content":"### sec.54 Standard for recycled water intended to augment a supply of drinking water—supply and storage\n\nRecycled water intended to augment a supply of drinking water must be—\nsupplied into an aquifer, lake, watercourse or wetlands, or a dam on a watercourse; and\nstored under conditions that allow for sufficient management of any risk to the health of the public from the recycled water quality.\n- (a) supplied into an aquifer, lake, watercourse or wetlands, or a dam on a watercourse; and\n- (b) stored under conditions that allow for sufficient management of any risk to the health of the public from the recycled water quality.","sortOrder":81},{"sectionNumber":"sec.55","sectionType":"section","heading":"Management of the quality of recycled water intended to augment a supply of drinking water—assessment and reporting","content":"### sec.55 Management of the quality of recycled water intended to augment a supply of drinking water—assessment and reporting\n\nThis section applies—\nif a sample of recycled water intended to augment a supply of drinking water is tested by a provider—\nfor a microorganism, chemical parameter, ADWG parameter or pathogen mentioned in section 53 (2) and the test shows that the quality of the water does not comply with section 53 (2) ; or\nfor radioactivity and the test shows that the quality of the water does not comply with section 53 (3) ; and\nwhether or not the management plan for the water required the water to be tested for the microorganism, parameter or pathogen or for radioactivity.\nThe provider must perform an assessment of the risks to the health of the public from the quality of the water and give a report about the assessment to the chief executive within 10 business days after the result of the test is known.\nIn this section—\nprovider means—\nfor water supplied under a single-entity recycled water scheme under the Water Supply (Safety and Reliability) Act 2008 —the recycled water provider for the scheme under that Act; or\nfor water supplied under a multiple-entity recycled water scheme under the Water Supply (Safety and Reliability) Act 2008 —the scheme manager or a declared entity for the scheme under that Act.\n(sec.55-ssec.1) This section applies— if a sample of recycled water intended to augment a supply of drinking water is tested by a provider— for a microorganism, chemical parameter, ADWG parameter or pathogen mentioned in section 53 (2) and the test shows that the quality of the water does not comply with section 53 (2) ; or for radioactivity and the test shows that the quality of the water does not comply with section 53 (3) ; and whether or not the management plan for the water required the water to be tested for the microorganism, parameter or pathogen or for radioactivity.\n(sec.55-ssec.2) The provider must perform an assessment of the risks to the health of the public from the quality of the water and give a report about the assessment to the chief executive within 10 business days after the result of the test is known.\n(sec.55-ssec.3) In this section— provider means— for water supplied under a single-entity recycled water scheme under the Water Supply (Safety and Reliability) Act 2008 —the recycled water provider for the scheme under that Act; or for water supplied under a multiple-entity recycled water scheme under the Water Supply (Safety and Reliability) Act 2008 —the scheme manager or a declared entity for the scheme under that Act.\n- (a) if a sample of recycled water intended to augment a supply of drinking water is tested by a provider— (i) for a microorganism, chemical parameter, ADWG parameter or pathogen mentioned in section 53 (2) and the test shows that the quality of the water does not comply with section 53 (2) ; or (ii) for radioactivity and the test shows that the quality of the water does not comply with section 53 (3) ; and\n- (i) for a microorganism, chemical parameter, ADWG parameter or pathogen mentioned in section 53 (2) and the test shows that the quality of the water does not comply with section 53 (2) ; or\n- (ii) for radioactivity and the test shows that the quality of the water does not comply with section 53 (3) ; and\n- (b) whether or not the management plan for the water required the water to be tested for the microorganism, parameter or pathogen or for radioactivity.\n- (i) for a microorganism, chemical parameter, ADWG parameter or pathogen mentioned in section 53 (2) and the test shows that the quality of the water does not comply with section 53 (2) ; or\n- (ii) for radioactivity and the test shows that the quality of the water does not comply with section 53 (3) ; and\n- (a) for water supplied under a single-entity recycled water scheme under the Water Supply (Safety and Reliability) Act 2008 —the recycled water provider for the scheme under that Act; or\n- (b) for water supplied under a multiple-entity recycled water scheme under the Water Supply (Safety and Reliability) Act 2008 —the scheme manager or a declared entity for the scheme under that Act.","sortOrder":82},{"sectionNumber":"sec.56","sectionType":"section","heading":"Quality standard for recycled water for irrigation of minimally processed food crops","content":"### sec.56 Quality standard for recycled water for irrigation of minimally processed food crops\n\nRecycled water supplied for irrigating a minimally processed food crop mentioned in schedule 7 must be of the class stated opposite the crop and method of irrigation in schedule 7 .\nIn this section—\nminimally processed food crop means a crop for a food product that—\nmay be eaten raw; or\nwill only be minimally processed.\nwashing, cutting, peeling, packaging\n(sec.56-ssec.1) Recycled water supplied for irrigating a minimally processed food crop mentioned in schedule 7 must be of the class stated opposite the crop and method of irrigation in schedule 7 .\n(sec.56-ssec.2) In this section— minimally processed food crop means a crop for a food product that— may be eaten raw; or will only be minimally processed. washing, cutting, peeling, packaging\n- (a) may be eaten raw; or\n- (b) will only be minimally processed. Examples of minimal processing— washing, cutting, peeling, packaging","sortOrder":83},{"sectionNumber":"sec.57","sectionType":"section","heading":"Quality standard for recycled water supplied for a dual reticulation system","content":"### sec.57 Quality standard for recycled water supplied for a dual reticulation system\n\nRecycled water supplied for a dual reticulation system must be class A+ recycled water.\nAlso, recycled water supplied for a dual reticulation system must be tested to measure the turbidity of the water and the chlorine residual in the water at the frequency required under the management plan for the water.\nThe recycled water must have—\na turbidity of less than 2 NTU; and\na chlorine residual of 0.5mg/L or more.\nIn this section—\nchlorine residual means the amount of free chlorine remaining in water after the water has been treated with chlorine.\ndual reticulation system see the Water Supply (Safety and Reliability) Act 2008 , schedule 3 .\nfree chlorine means chlorine in water that is not combined with any other chemical compound.\nNTU means nephelometric turbidity units.\n(sec.57-ssec.1) Recycled water supplied for a dual reticulation system must be class A+ recycled water.\n(sec.57-ssec.2) Also, recycled water supplied for a dual reticulation system must be tested to measure the turbidity of the water and the chlorine residual in the water at the frequency required under the management plan for the water.\n(sec.57-ssec.3) The recycled water must have— a turbidity of less than 2 NTU; and a chlorine residual of 0.5mg/L or more.\n(sec.57-ssec.4) In this section— chlorine residual means the amount of free chlorine remaining in water after the water has been treated with chlorine. dual reticulation system see the Water Supply (Safety and Reliability) Act 2008 , schedule 3 . free chlorine means chlorine in water that is not combined with any other chemical compound. NTU means nephelometric turbidity units.\n- (a) a turbidity of less than 2 NTU; and\n- (b) a chlorine residual of 0.5mg/L or more.","sortOrder":84},{"sectionNumber":"sec.58","sectionType":"section","heading":"Quality standard for class A+ recycled water","content":"### sec.58 Quality standard for class A+ recycled water\n\nRecycled water that is to be supplied as class A+ recycled water must be tested for the presence of each of the following (each a class A+ parameter ) at the frequency required under the management plan for the water—\nClostridium perfringens spores;\nEscherichia coli ;\nF-specific RNA coliphages;\nsomatic coliphages.\nIf the quality of the water has been tested for a class A+ parameter for at least 1 year under the management plan for the water—\neach month, the samples of water, other than resamples, taken to test for the class A+ parameter during the preceding 1-year period must be reviewed; and\nat least 95% of the samples reviewed must contain less than the following amounts of the class A+ parameter—\nfor Clostridium perfringens spores—1 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL;\nfor Escherichia coli —1 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL;\nfor F-specific RNA coliphages—1 pfu/100mL;\nfor somatic coliphages—1 pfu/100mL.\n(sec.58-ssec.1) Recycled water that is to be supplied as class A+ recycled water must be tested for the presence of each of the following (each a class A+ parameter ) at the frequency required under the management plan for the water— Clostridium perfringens spores; Escherichia coli ; F-specific RNA coliphages; somatic coliphages.\n(sec.58-ssec.2) If the quality of the water has been tested for a class A+ parameter for at least 1 year under the management plan for the water— each month, the samples of water, other than resamples, taken to test for the class A+ parameter during the preceding 1-year period must be reviewed; and at least 95% of the samples reviewed must contain less than the following amounts of the class A+ parameter— for Clostridium perfringens spores—1 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL; for Escherichia coli —1 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL; for F-specific RNA coliphages—1 pfu/100mL; for somatic coliphages—1 pfu/100mL.\n- (a) Clostridium perfringens spores;\n- (b) Escherichia coli ;\n- (c) F-specific RNA coliphages;\n- (d) somatic coliphages.\n- (a) each month, the samples of water, other than resamples, taken to test for the class A+ parameter during the preceding 1-year period must be reviewed; and\n- (b) at least 95% of the samples reviewed must contain less than the following amounts of the class A+ parameter— (i) for Clostridium perfringens spores—1 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL; (ii) for Escherichia coli —1 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL; (iii) for F-specific RNA coliphages—1 pfu/100mL; (iv) for somatic coliphages—1 pfu/100mL.\n- (i) for Clostridium perfringens spores—1 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL;\n- (ii) for Escherichia coli —1 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL;\n- (iii) for F-specific RNA coliphages—1 pfu/100mL;\n- (iv) for somatic coliphages—1 pfu/100mL.\n- (i) for Clostridium perfringens spores—1 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL;\n- (ii) for Escherichia coli —1 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL;\n- (iii) for F-specific RNA coliphages—1 pfu/100mL;\n- (iv) for somatic coliphages—1 pfu/100mL.","sortOrder":85},{"sectionNumber":"sec.59","sectionType":"section","heading":"Quality standard for class A, B, C or D recycled water","content":"### sec.59 Quality standard for class A, B, C or D recycled water\n\nRecycled water that is to be supplied as class A, B, C or D recycled water must be tested for the presence of Escherichia coli at the frequency required under the management plan for the water.\nIf the quality of the water has been tested for Escherichia coli for at least 1 year under the management plan for the water—\neach month, the samples of water, other than resamples, taken to test for Escherichia coli during the preceding 1-year period must be reviewed; and\nat least 95% of the samples reviewed must contain less than the following amounts of Escherichia coli —\nfor class A recycled water—10 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL;\nfor class B recycled water—100 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL;\nfor class C recycled water—1,000 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL;\nfor class D recycled water—10,000 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL.\n(sec.59-ssec.1) Recycled water that is to be supplied as class A, B, C or D recycled water must be tested for the presence of Escherichia coli at the frequency required under the management plan for the water.\n(sec.59-ssec.2) If the quality of the water has been tested for Escherichia coli for at least 1 year under the management plan for the water— each month, the samples of water, other than resamples, taken to test for Escherichia coli during the preceding 1-year period must be reviewed; and at least 95% of the samples reviewed must contain less than the following amounts of Escherichia coli — for class A recycled water—10 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL; for class B recycled water—100 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL; for class C recycled water—1,000 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL; for class D recycled water—10,000 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL.\n- (a) each month, the samples of water, other than resamples, taken to test for Escherichia coli during the preceding 1-year period must be reviewed; and\n- (b) at least 95% of the samples reviewed must contain less than the following amounts of Escherichia coli — (i) for class A recycled water—10 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL; (ii) for class B recycled water—100 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL; (iii) for class C recycled water—1,000 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL; (iv) for class D recycled water—10,000 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL.\n- (i) for class A recycled water—10 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL;\n- (ii) for class B recycled water—100 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL;\n- (iii) for class C recycled water—1,000 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL;\n- (iv) for class D recycled water—10,000 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL.\n- (i) for class A recycled water—10 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL;\n- (ii) for class B recycled water—100 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL;\n- (iii) for class C recycled water—1,000 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL;\n- (iv) for class D recycled water—10,000 cfu/100mL or MPN/100mL.","sortOrder":86},{"sectionNumber":"pt.10","sectionType":"part","heading":"Miscellaneous","content":"# Miscellaneous","sortOrder":87},{"sectionNumber":"sec.60","sectionType":"section","heading":"Paint— Act , s 60","content":"### sec.60 Paint— Act , s 60\n\nFor section 60 of the Act , the prescribed standard is the current Poisons Standard, part 2 .\nIn this section—\ncurrent Poisons Standard see the Therapeutic Goods Act 1989 (Cwlth) , section 52A (1) .\ns 60 sub 2019 SL No. 117 s 15\n(sec.60-ssec.1) For section 60 of the Act , the prescribed standard is the current Poisons Standard, part 2 .\n(sec.60-ssec.2) In this section— current Poisons Standard see the Therapeutic Goods Act 1989 (Cwlth) , section 52A (1) .","sortOrder":88},{"sectionNumber":"sec.61","sectionType":"section","heading":"Emergency officers (general)— Act , s 333","content":"### sec.61 Emergency officers (general)— Act , s 333\n\nFor section 333 (1) (e) of the Act , the following persons are prescribed—\nambulance officers under the Ambulance Service Act 1991 ;\npolice officers;\nfire service officers under the Fire Services Act 1990 ;\nharbour masters under the Transport Operations (Marine Safety) Act 1994 .\ns 61 sub 2020 SL No. 37 s 5\namd 2020 SL No. 48 s 3 ; 2024 Act No. 22 s 92 sch 1\n- (a) ambulance officers under the Ambulance Service Act 1991 ;\n- (b) police officers;\n- (c) fire service officers under the Fire Services Act 1990 ;\n- (d) harbour masters under the Transport Operations (Marine Safety) Act 1994 .","sortOrder":89},{"sectionNumber":"sec.61A","sectionType":"section","heading":"Fees for quarantine during COVID-19 emergency— Act , s 362MC","content":"### sec.61A Fees for quarantine during COVID-19 emergency— Act , s 362MC\n\nFor section 362MC of the Act , this section prescribes the fees for a person’s quarantine.\nFor an adult, the fees are—\nfor accommodation, including cleaning, for each night of quarantine—$165; and\nfor meals, for each day of quarantine—$65.\nFor a child, the fees are—\nfor accommodation, including cleaning, for each night of quarantine—$165; and\nfor meals, for each day of quarantine—\nfor a child 13 years or older—$65; or\nfor a child 3 years or older, but under 13 years—$32.50; or\nfor a child under 3 years—nil.\nHowever, if 2 or more persons are required or permitted to quarantine together in shared accommodation—\nthe fee under subsection (2) (a) or (3) (a) applies for only 1 of the persons; and\nthe fee under subsection (2) (a) or (3) (a) for each additional person is nil.\ns 61A ins 2020 Act No. 19 s 144\namd 2021 SL No. 17 s 3 ; 2021 SL No. 82 s 4\n(sec.61A-ssec.1) For section 362MC of the Act , this section prescribes the fees for a person’s quarantine.\n(sec.61A-ssec.2) For an adult, the fees are— for accommodation, including cleaning, for each night of quarantine—$165; and for meals, for each day of quarantine—$65.\n(sec.61A-ssec.3) For a child, the fees are— for accommodation, including cleaning, for each night of quarantine—$165; and for meals, for each day of quarantine— for a child 13 years or older—$65; or for a child 3 years or older, but under 13 years—$32.50; or for a child under 3 years—nil.\n(sec.61A-ssec.4) However, if 2 or more persons are required or permitted to quarantine together in shared accommodation— the fee under subsection (2) (a) or (3) (a) applies for only 1 of the persons; and the fee under subsection (2) (a) or (3) (a) for each additional person is nil.\n- (a) for accommodation, including cleaning, for each night of quarantine—$165; and\n- (b) for meals, for each day of quarantine—$65.\n- (a) for accommodation, including cleaning, for each night of quarantine—$165; and\n- (b) for meals, for each day of quarantine— (i) for a child 13 years or older—$65; or (ii) for a child 3 years or older, but under 13 years—$32.50; or (iii) for a child under 3 years—nil.\n- (i) for a child 13 years or older—$65; or\n- (ii) for a child 3 years or older, but under 13 years—$32.50; or\n- (iii) for a child under 3 years—nil.\n- (i) for a child 13 years or older—$65; or\n- (ii) for a child 3 years or older, but under 13 years—$32.50; or\n- (iii) for a child under 3 years—nil.\n- (a) the fee under subsection (2) (a) or (3) (a) applies for only 1 of the persons; and\n- (b) the fee under subsection (2) (a) or (3) (a) for each additional person is nil.","sortOrder":90},{"sectionNumber":"sec.62","sectionType":"section","heading":"Prescribed training for indemnity conditions— Act , s 454G","content":"### sec.62 Prescribed training for indemnity conditions— Act , s 454G\n\nFor section 454G of the Act , training approved by the chief health officer that includes information about the following matters is prescribed—\nthe regulatory environment for controlling asbestos risks in Queensland;\nasbestos products and likely uses in domestic settings;\nthe health risks of exposure to asbestos;\nassessing the health risks and risk control measures;\napplying regulatory measures under the Act to control asbestos risk.\nFor the purpose of approving training under subsection (1) , the chief health officer may have regard to any relevant matter, including, for example—\nthe content and quality of the curriculum for the training, including its relevance to the powers and functions of an authorised person; and\nthe qualifications, knowledge and experience of the person who is to provide the training.\n(sec.62-ssec.1) For section 454G of the Act , training approved by the chief health officer that includes information about the following matters is prescribed— the regulatory environment for controlling asbestos risks in Queensland; asbestos products and likely uses in domestic settings; the health risks of exposure to asbestos; assessing the health risks and risk control measures; applying regulatory measures under the Act to control asbestos risk.\n(sec.62-ssec.2) For the purpose of approving training under subsection (1) , the chief health officer may have regard to any relevant matter, including, for example— the content and quality of the curriculum for the training, including its relevance to the powers and functions of an authorised person; and the qualifications, knowledge and experience of the person who is to provide the training.\n- (a) the regulatory environment for controlling asbestos risks in Queensland;\n- (b) asbestos products and likely uses in domestic settings;\n- (c) the health risks of exposure to asbestos;\n- (d) assessing the health risks and risk control measures;\n- (e) applying regulatory measures under the Act to control asbestos risk.\n- (a) the content and quality of the curriculum for the training, including its relevance to the powers and functions of an authorised person; and\n- (b) the qualifications, knowledge and experience of the person who is to provide the training.","sortOrder":91},{"sectionNumber":"sec.63","sectionType":"section","heading":"Human research ethics committee— Act , sch 2 , definition human research ethics committee","content":"### sec.63 Human research ethics committee— Act , sch 2 , definition human research ethics committee\n\nFor schedule 2 of the Act , definition human research ethics committee , the requirements stated in the document called ‘National Statement on Ethical Conduct in Human Research 2007’ issued by the NHMRC are prescribed.\nA copy of the document is available on the website of the NHMRC.","sortOrder":92},{"sectionNumber":"sec.63A","sectionType":"section","heading":null,"content":"### Section sec.63A\n\ns 63A ins 2022 SL No. 170 s 16\nexp 31 October 2023 on the expiry of s 142A of the Act (see s 142S of the Act )","sortOrder":93},{"sectionNumber":"pt.11","sectionType":"part","heading":"Transitional provisions","content":"# Transitional provisions","sortOrder":94},{"sectionNumber":"pt.11-div.1","sectionType":"division","heading":"Transitional provisions for SL No. 117 of 2018","content":"## Transitional provisions for SL No. 117 of 2018","sortOrder":95},{"sectionNumber":"sec.64","sectionType":"section","heading":"Definitions for part","content":"### sec.64 Definitions for part\n\nIn this part—\nclass A+ parameter see section 58.\nexisting , for an approval, certificate or arrangement under the expired regulation, means in effect immediately before the commencement.\nexpired regulation means the expired Public Health Regulation 2005 .","sortOrder":96},{"sectionNumber":"sec.65","sectionType":"section","heading":"Certificates for the removal of bonded ACM","content":"### sec.65 Certificates for the removal of bonded ACM\n\nExisting arrangements approved or established by the chief executive under section 2E of the expired regulation are taken to be arrangements approved or established by the chief executive under section 8.\nA person who holds an existing certificate under section 2E of the expired regulation is taken to hold a certificate for section 8.\n(sec.65-ssec.1) Existing arrangements approved or established by the chief executive under section 2E of the expired regulation are taken to be arrangements approved or established by the chief executive under section 8.\n(sec.65-ssec.2) A person who holds an existing certificate under section 2E of the expired regulation is taken to hold a certificate for section 8.","sortOrder":97},{"sectionNumber":"sec.66","sectionType":"section","heading":"Existing notices about reporting periods for prescribed facilities","content":"### sec.66 Existing notices about reporting periods for prescribed facilities\n\nAn existing notice given to a prescribed facility by the chief executive under section 2ZA of the expired regulation is taken to be a notice given to the prescribed facility by the chief executive under section 30.","sortOrder":98},{"sectionNumber":"sec.67","sectionType":"section","heading":"Use of drinking water samples taken under expired regulation for annual value","content":"### sec.67 Use of drinking water samples taken under expired regulation for annual value\n\nThis section applies if a sample of drinking water was taken to test for Escherichia coli under section 18AC(a) of the expired regulation during the period starting on 1 September 2017 and ending on the day before the commencement.\nSection 52(4) applies to the sample as though the sample was taken for testing as required under section 52(1).\n(sec.67-ssec.1) This section applies if a sample of drinking water was taken to test for Escherichia coli under section 18AC(a) of the expired regulation during the period starting on 1 September 2017 and ending on the day before the commencement.\n(sec.67-ssec.2) Section 52(4) applies to the sample as though the sample was taken for testing as required under section 52(1).","sortOrder":99},{"sectionNumber":"sec.68","sectionType":"section","heading":"Existing approved recycled water management plans","content":"### sec.68 Existing approved recycled water management plans\n\nThis section applies to an approved recycled water management plan—\nthat refers to taking samples of—\nrecycled water to be supplied as class A+ recycled water to test for chlorine residual, turbidity or a class A+ parameter at the frequency mentioned in schedule 3C, column 2 of the expired regulation; or\nrecycled water to be supplied as class A, B, C or D recycled water to test for Escherichia coli at the frequency mentioned in schedule 3D, column 3 of the expired regulation; and\nuntil the plan is amended and the reference to the expired regulation is omitted.\nThe reference mentioned in subsection (1)(a)(i) is taken to be a reference to taking samples at the following frequency—\nto test for chlorine residual or turbidity—daily;\nto test for a class A+ parameter—weekly.\nThe reference mentioned in subsection (1)(a)(ii) is taken to be a reference to taking samples to test for Escherichia coli weekly.\nIn this section—\napproved recycled water management plan see section 50.\nchlorine residual see section 57(4).\n(sec.68-ssec.1) This section applies to an approved recycled water management plan— that refers to taking samples of— recycled water to be supplied as class A+ recycled water to test for chlorine residual, turbidity or a class A+ parameter at the frequency mentioned in schedule 3C, column 2 of the expired regulation; or recycled water to be supplied as class A, B, C or D recycled water to test for Escherichia coli at the frequency mentioned in schedule 3D, column 3 of the expired regulation; and until the plan is amended and the reference to the expired regulation is omitted.\n(sec.68-ssec.2) The reference mentioned in subsection (1)(a)(i) is taken to be a reference to taking samples at the following frequency— to test for chlorine residual or turbidity—daily; to test for a class A+ parameter—weekly.\n(sec.68-ssec.3) The reference mentioned in subsection (1)(a)(ii) is taken to be a reference to taking samples to test for Escherichia coli weekly.\n(sec.68-ssec.4) In this section— approved recycled water management plan see section 50. chlorine residual see section 57(4).\n- (a) that refers to taking samples of— (i) recycled water to be supplied as class A+ recycled water to test for chlorine residual, turbidity or a class A+ parameter at the frequency mentioned in schedule 3C, column 2 of the expired regulation; or (ii) recycled water to be supplied as class A, B, C or D recycled water to test for Escherichia coli at the frequency mentioned in schedule 3D, column 3 of the expired regulation; and\n- (i) recycled water to be supplied as class A+ recycled water to test for chlorine residual, turbidity or a class A+ parameter at the frequency mentioned in schedule 3C, column 2 of the expired regulation; or\n- (ii) recycled water to be supplied as class A, B, C or D recycled water to test for Escherichia coli at the frequency mentioned in schedule 3D, column 3 of the expired regulation; and\n- (b) until the plan is amended and the reference to the expired regulation is omitted.\n- (i) recycled water to be supplied as class A+ recycled water to test for chlorine residual, turbidity or a class A+ parameter at the frequency mentioned in schedule 3C, column 2 of the expired regulation; or\n- (ii) recycled water to be supplied as class A, B, C or D recycled water to test for Escherichia coli at the frequency mentioned in schedule 3D, column 3 of the expired regulation; and\n- (a) to test for chlorine residual or turbidity—daily;\n- (b) to test for a class A+ parameter—weekly.","sortOrder":100},{"sectionNumber":"sec.69","sectionType":"section","heading":"Use of class A+ recycled water sample taken under expired regulation for annual value","content":"### sec.69 Use of class A+ recycled water sample taken under expired regulation for annual value\n\nThis section applies if a sample of recycled water to be supplied as class A+ recycled water was taken to test for a class A+ parameter under section 18AE(a) of the expired regulation during the period starting on 1 September 2017 and ending on the day before the commencement.\nSection 58(2) applies to the sample as though the sample was taken for testing as required under section 58(1).\n(sec.69-ssec.1) This section applies if a sample of recycled water to be supplied as class A+ recycled water was taken to test for a class A+ parameter under section 18AE(a) of the expired regulation during the period starting on 1 September 2017 and ending on the day before the commencement.\n(sec.69-ssec.2) Section 58(2) applies to the sample as though the sample was taken for testing as required under section 58(1).","sortOrder":101},{"sectionNumber":"sec.70","sectionType":"section","heading":"Use of class A, B, C or D recycled water samples taken under expired regulation for annual value","content":"### sec.70 Use of class A, B, C or D recycled water samples taken under expired regulation for annual value\n\nThis section applies if a sample of recycled water to be supplied as class A, B, C or D recycled water was taken to test for Escherichia coli under section 18AF(a) of the expired regulation during the period starting on 1 September 2017 and ending on the day before the commencement.\nSection 59(2) applies to the sample as though the sample was taken for testing as required under section 59(1).\n(sec.70-ssec.1) This section applies if a sample of recycled water to be supplied as class A, B, C or D recycled water was taken to test for Escherichia coli under section 18AF(a) of the expired regulation during the period starting on 1 September 2017 and ending on the day before the commencement.\n(sec.70-ssec.2) Section 59(2) applies to the sample as though the sample was taken for testing as required under section 59(1).","sortOrder":102},{"sectionNumber":"pt.11-div.2","sectionType":"division","heading":"Transitional provision for Public Health (COVID-19) and Other Legislation Amendment Regulation 2020","content":"## Transitional provision for Public Health (COVID-19) and Other Legislation Amendment Regulation 2020","sortOrder":103},{"sectionNumber":"sec.71","sectionType":"section","heading":"References to 2019-nCoV","content":"### sec.71 References to 2019-nCoV\n\nA reference in a document to 2019-nCoV may, if the context permits, be taken to be a reference to COVID-19.\ns 71 ins 2020 SL No. 37 s 7","sortOrder":104},{"sectionNumber":"sch.3-pt.1","sectionType":"part","heading":"Confidentiality of information relating to notifiable conditions","content":"# Confidentiality of information relating to notifiable conditions","sortOrder":105},{"sectionNumber":"sch.3-pt.1-div.1","sectionType":"division","heading":"Agreements with Commonwealth, State or entity","content":"## Agreements with Commonwealth, State or entity","sortOrder":106},{"sectionNumber":"sch.3-pt.1-div.2","sectionType":"division","heading":"Agreements with State entity","content":"## Agreements with State entity","sortOrder":107},{"sectionNumber":"sch.3-pt.2","sectionType":"part","heading":"Confidentiality of information relating to perinatal and maternal death statistics","content":"# Confidentiality of information relating to perinatal and maternal death statistics","sortOrder":108},{"sectionNumber":"sch.3-pt.3","sectionType":"part","heading":"Confidentiality of information relating to cancer notifications","content":"# Confidentiality of information relating to cancer notifications","sortOrder":109},{"sectionNumber":"sch.3-pt.4","sectionType":"part","heading":"Confidentiality of information relating to historical dust lung disease register","content":"# Confidentiality of information relating to historical dust lung disease register","sortOrder":110},{"sectionNumber":"sch.4-pt.1","sectionType":"part","heading":"Interpretation","content":"# Interpretation","sortOrder":111},{"sectionNumber":"sch.4-sec.1","sectionType":"section","heading":"Definitions for schedule","content":"### sch.4-sec.1 Definitions for schedule\n\nIn this schedule—\nconfirms means confirms in writing.\ndiagnosed , for a child with a contagious condition, means a doctor or laboratory test confirms the child has the condition.\nisolation period ...\nsch 4 s 1 def isolation period ins 2022 SL No. 170 s 17 (1)\nexp 31 October 2023 on the expiry of s 142A of the Act (see s 142S of the Act )\nquarantine period ...\nsch 4 s 1 def quarantine period ins 2022 SL No. 170 s 17 (1)\nexp 31 October 2023 on the expiry of s 142A of the Act (see s 142S of the Act )\nrelevant contact , of a child for a contagious condition, means—\nfor diphtheria—the child’s first close contact with a person (the infected person ) who is, or is suspected of being, infected with the condition during the period—\nstarting 7 days before the onset of symptoms in the infected person; and\nending when the treating doctor confirms 2 negative throat swabs have been taken from the person at the following times—\nthe first swab taken at least 24 hours after the person finishes a course of an appropriate antibiotic;\nthe second swab taken at least 24 hours after the first swab; or\nfor a contagious condition other than diphtheria—contact with a person who has been diagnosed with the condition while the person is infectious for the condition.\nrelevant public health direction ...\nsch 4 s 1 def relevant public health direction ins 2022 SL No. 170 s 17 (1)\nexp 31 October 2023 on the expiry of s 142A of the Act (see s 142S of the Act )\nsuspected means suspected under chapter 5 of the Act .\nsymptoms , for a contagious condition, means symptoms of the condition.\n- (a) for diphtheria—the child’s first close contact with a person (the infected person ) who is, or is suspected of being, infected with the condition during the period— (i) starting 7 days before the onset of symptoms in the infected person; and (ii) ending when the treating doctor confirms 2 negative throat swabs have been taken from the person at the following times— (A) the first swab taken at least 24 hours after the person finishes a course of an appropriate antibiotic; (B) the second swab taken at least 24 hours after the first swab; or\n- (i) starting 7 days before the onset of symptoms in the infected person; and\n- (ii) ending when the treating doctor confirms 2 negative throat swabs have been taken from the person at the following times— (A) the first swab taken at least 24 hours after the person finishes a course of an appropriate antibiotic; (B) the second swab taken at least 24 hours after the first swab; or\n- (A) the first swab taken at least 24 hours after the person finishes a course of an appropriate antibiotic;\n- (B) the second swab taken at least 24 hours after the first swab; or\n- (b) for a contagious condition other than diphtheria—contact with a person who has been diagnosed with the condition while the person is infectious for the condition.\n- (i) starting 7 days before the onset of symptoms in the infected person; and\n- (ii) ending when the treating doctor confirms 2 negative throat swabs have been taken from the person at the following times— (A) the first swab taken at least 24 hours after the person finishes a course of an appropriate antibiotic; (B) the second swab taken at least 24 hours after the first swab; or\n- (A) the first swab taken at least 24 hours after the person finishes a course of an appropriate antibiotic;\n- (B) the second swab taken at least 24 hours after the first swab; or\n- (A) the first swab taken at least 24 hours after the person finishes a course of an appropriate antibiotic;\n- (B) the second swab taken at least 24 hours after the first swab; or","sortOrder":112},{"sectionNumber":"sch.4-sec.2","sectionType":"section","heading":"Low risk of transmitting or contracting contagious condition","content":"### sch.4-sec.2 Low risk of transmitting or contracting contagious condition\n\nFor this schedule, in deciding whether the risk of the child transmitting or contracting a contagious condition is low, the chief executive must consider—\nthe way the contagious condition is transmitted; and\nthe nature of the environment at the child’s school, education and care service or QEC approved service.\n- (a) the way the contagious condition is transmitted; and\n- (b) the nature of the environment at the child’s school, education and care service or QEC approved service.","sortOrder":113},{"sectionNumber":"sch.4-pt.2","sectionType":"part","heading":"Prescribed period for contagious condition for child suspected of having condition","content":"# Prescribed period for contagious condition for child suspected of having condition","sortOrder":114},{"sectionNumber":"sch.4-pt.3","sectionType":"part","heading":"Prescribed period for contagious condition for child suspected of not being vaccinated and at risk","content":"# Prescribed period for contagious condition for child suspected of not being vaccinated and at risk","sortOrder":115},{"sectionNumber":"sch.6-pt.1","sectionType":"part","heading":"Microorganisms","content":"# Microorganisms","sortOrder":116},{"sectionNumber":"sch.6-pt.2","sectionType":"part","heading":"Chemical parameters","content":"# Chemical parameters","sortOrder":117}],"analysis":{"kimi_summary":{"_metrics":{"provider":"moonshot","completionTokens":3192},"content_quality":"ok","complexity_score":7,"scope_assessment":{"changed":true,"description":"The regulation has expanded significantly beyond its original 2018 scope. While initially focused on traditional environmental health risks (asbestos, mosquitoes, rats, and water quality), subsequent amendments have added distinct new domains: COVID-19 quarantine fees (emergency public health powers), contamination from illegal drug laboratories, occupational respiratory disease reporting (silicosis/asbestosis), and restrictions on cosmetic procedures performed on children. These additions represent a shift from purely environmental and infectious disease control toward broader population health surveillance and consumer protection."},"complexity_factors":["Extensive cross-referencing to primary legislation (Public Health Act 2008) and at least five other Queensland and Commonwealth Acts (e.g., Work Health and Safety Act 2011, Water Supply (Safety and Reliability) Act 2008)","Incorporation by reference of external technical standards (Australian Drinking Water Guidelines, AS/NZS 60335.2.69, ISO/IEC 17025) requiring specialist knowledge to interpret","Eight schedules containing detailed lists (notifiable conditions, contagious diseases, water quality parameters, fees) that are essential to understanding the operative provisions","Granular conditional thresholds and tiered compliance (e.g., 10m² threshold for bonded asbestos certification; population-based sampling frequencies for water testing ranging from weekly to monthly)","Nested exceptions and defence provisions (e.g., 'reasonable steps' defences for pest control offences; maintenance exceptions for tampering with mosquito screens)","Technical terminology spanning medical, engineering, and scientific fields (colony forming units, turbidity, nephelometric units, pathological diagnoses, orthognathic surgery)"],"plain_english_summary":"**What this regulation does**\n\nThis regulation sets out practical, detailed rules under Queensland’s *Public Health Act 2008* to protect community health and safety. It converts broad legal powers into specific requirements that individuals, businesses, and local councils must follow.\n\n**Who it affects**\n- **Homeowners and tradespersons**: Anyone handling asbestos in residential settings (outside workplaces).\n- **Property owners and occupiers**: People responsible for preventing mosquito breeding and rat infestations.\n- **Water providers**: Entities supplying drinking water or recycled water (including sewage treatment plants).\n- **Health professionals**: Doctors, nurses, and pathologists who must report certain diseases.\n- **Schools and childcare providers**: Those managing children with contagious diseases.\n- **Health care facilities**: Hospitals and clinics with infection control obligations.\n\n**Key rules explained**\n\n**Asbestos safety (homes only)**\n- **Friable asbestos** (can be crushed by hand): Only licensed removalists may remove it.\n- **Bonded asbestos** (solid, like cement sheets): You need a certificate to remove more than 10 square metres. You must seal broken pieces, wet surfaces to stop dust, package waste in double plastic with warning labels, and dispose of it at approved sites within 5 business days.\n- **Banned tools**: No power tools, high-pressure water cleaners, or compressed air on asbestos.\n\n**Pest control**\n- **Mosquitoes**: Property owners must prevent water from pooling in tanks, tyres, or gutters where mosquitoes breed. Water tanks must have 1mm mesh screens or flap valves.\n- **Rats and mice**: Building owners must block holes and gaps to stop entry. Property owners must ensure land around homes does not harbour rats.\n\n**Water quality**\n- **Drinking water**: Must be tested regularly for *E. coli* and other contaminants. No *E. coli* is allowed in any sample, and over a year, 98% of samples must be clean.\n- **Recycled water**: Different classes (A+, A, B, C, D) have different bacterial limits. Water used for drinking water supplies or food crop irrigation must meet strict pathogen and chemical standards.\n\n**Disease tracking**\n- Doctors must immediately report dangerous diseases (like diphtheria or COVID-19) listed in the schedules within 24–48 hours via fax or email.\n\n**Child health**\n- Children with contagious diseases (listed in schedules) must be excluded from school for set periods.\n- Vaccination must follow the National Immunisation Program Schedule.\n- **Cosmetic surgery on children**: Generally restricted, but exceptions exist for medical corrections (e.g., fixing birth defects, removing dangerous moles, circumcision).\n\n**Health data collection**\n- Cancer diagnoses, maternal deaths, and perinatal (birth) statistics must be reported to specific health authorities for monitoring.\n- **Occupational lung diseases**: Specialists must report diseases like asbestosis or black lung within 30 days.\n\n**Other important provisions**\n- **Drug lab contamination**: Properties used to manufacture illegal drugs (e.g., methamphetamine) are flagged as public health risks managed by local councils.\n- **COVID-19 quarantine fees**: Prescribes accommodation and meal costs for quarantine (though these provisions are temporary).\n\n**Why it matters**\nThis regulation puts teeth into public health law. It creates offences (with fines up to 100 penalty units) for unsafe asbestos removal, failure to report diseases, or contaminated water. It balances individual responsibility (fixing your rainwater tank) with government oversight (testing water supplies)."},"flash_summary_failed":{"failed":true,"reason":"A positive credit balance is required for all requests, including BYOK, so fallback providers remain available. Add credits at https://vercel.com/d?to=%2F%5Bteam%5D%2F%7E%2Fai%3Fmodal%3Dtop-up to continue.","source":"analysis-cron"},"summary":{"complexity_score":8,"scope_assessment":{"changed":true,"description":"The regulation's scope has grown beyond what a standard public health regulation might originally cover. In addition to core public health risks (disease notification, infection control, water quality), it now includes rules about drug lab contamination of premises (s.27A, inserted 2019), cosmetic procedures on children (Part 7), detailed perinatal and maternal death statistics reporting, occupational respiratory disease notification (inserted 2019, substantially revised 2025), and cancer registry obligations. These additions — particularly drug lab premises and cosmetic surgery on children — represent a significant expansion into areas that go beyond the traditional scope of a public health regulation focused on communicable disease and environmental hazards."},"complexity_factors":["Covers at least 10 distinct subject matter areas (asbestos, mosquitoes, rodents, water quality, disease reporting, cancer registries, occupational lung disease, child health, cosmetic procedures, infection control)","Extensive cross-referencing to multiple other Acts (Public Health Act 2005, Work Health and Safety Act 2011, Work Health and Safety Regulation 2011, Water Supply (Safety and Reliability) Act 2008, Drugs Misuse Act 1986, Police Powers and Responsibilities Act 2000, Hospital and Health Boards Act 2011, Therapeutic Goods Act 1989 (Cwlth), and others)","Highly technical water quality standards with multiple measurement units (cfu, MPN, pfu, NTU, mg/L) and tiered classification systems (Classes A+, A, B, C, D recycled water)","Detailed technical standards for asbestos removal including licensing tiers, area thresholds, packaging specifications (minimum 0.2mm plastic, specific bag dimensions) and disposal requirements","Multiple schedules not reproduced in this excerpt that are essential to understanding the regulation's full operation (Schedules 1–8, including lists of notifiable conditions, recycled water standards, food crop irrigation classes)","Interplay between State and local government enforcement responsibilities, which varies by subject matter and requires careful reading","Tiered offence and duty structures — different obligations fall on owners, occupiers, operators, licensed practitioners, and the general public depending on context","Multiple mandatory reporting timeframes for health professionals across different disease categories, with immediate reporting required for some","References to external technical standards (AS/NZS 60335.2.69, ISO/IEC 17025, Australian Drinking Water Guidelines, RACGP Standards) that must be read alongside the regulation","Amendments and insertions across multiple years (2019, 2020, 2022, 2024, 2025) creating a complex legislative history that requires tracking of current operative text"],"plain_english_summary":"## What is this law?\n\nThe **Public Health Regulation 2018** is a Queensland regulation that sets out detailed rules for managing a wide range of public health risks. Think of it as the practical rulebook that sits underneath the *Public Health Act 2005* — it fills in the specifics that the Act leaves open.\n\n## Who does it affect?\n\nThis law touches almost everyone in Queensland, in different ways:\n\n- **Homeowners and DIYers** dealing with asbestos-containing materials (ACM — building products like old fibro cement sheeting that contain asbestos fibres)\n- **Property owners and occupiers** who must prevent mosquito breeding and keep rats/mice out of their buildings\n- **Water suppliers** who must meet strict testing standards for drinking water and recycled water\n- **Doctors, pathologists and laboratories** who must report certain diseases to the government\n- **Health care facilities** (like GP clinics) regarding infection control policies\n- **Parents and schools** regarding children's contagious conditions and vaccination requirements\n- **Cancer specialists and pathology labs** who must report cancer diagnoses\n- **Workers in dusty industries** exposed to risks of occupational lung disease\n\n## What are the key rules?\n\n### 🏠 Asbestos at home\n- You **cannot remove friable (crumbly) asbestos** — the dangerous kind that can be crushed by hand — unless you hold a specialist Class A licence\n- You **cannot remove more than 10 square metres** of bonded asbestos (the less dangerous kind, like old fibro sheets) without completing approved training and holding a current certificate\n- You **cannot** use power tools, high-pressure water blasters, or compressed air on asbestos-containing materials\n- You **must seal** any broken asbestos surface you are not removing (e.g., paint over it)\n- Asbestos waste **must be double-wrapped or double-bagged** in thick plastic, labelled with health warnings, and disposed of at a council-approved site within 5 business days\n- You **cannot sell or give away** asbestos-containing materials you have removed\n- **Penalties**: Up to 100 penalty units (approximately $14,375 in Queensland)\n\n### 🦟 Mosquitoes\n- Property **owners and occupiers** must ensure their property does not become a mosquito breeding ground (any standing water counts — whether in a pot plant tray, tyre, or pond)\n- **Water tanks** (like rainwater tanks) must be fitted with fine metal mesh screens (no holes bigger than 1mm) or flap valves at every opening to stop mosquitoes getting in\n- You **cannot damage** those screens — unless you are doing maintenance and replace them immediately\n- **Penalties**: Up to 40 penalty units (approximately $5,750)\n\n### 🐀 Rats and mice\n- **Building owners** must take reasonable steps to stop rats and mice getting in — seal holes, cover gaps, fit drain covers\n- **Home occupiers** must ensure their property does not harbour or breed rats or mice\n- Pet rats or mice (including lab animals and feeder animals) must be kept in an **escape-proof enclosure**\n- **Penalties**: Up to 40 penalty units\n\n### 💧 Water quality\n- **Drinking water suppliers** must test regularly for E. coli (a bacteria indicating contamination) and other harmful substances. E. coli must not appear in samples, and must be absent from at least 98% of samples over any 12-month period\n- **Recycled water** (treated wastewater reused for irrigation or other purposes) must meet specific quality classes depending on its intended use — stricter standards apply if it is used to top up drinking water supplies\n- **Legionella testing** (the bacteria that causes Legionnaires' disease — a serious lung infection) must be done by accredited laboratories using approved methods\n\n### 🏥 Disease reporting\n- **Doctors and pathologists** must report certain diseases (listed in schedules to the regulation) to the Chief Health Officer — some must be reported **immediately**, others within **48 hours**\n- **Cancer diagnoses** must be reported to a central registry within set timeframes (generally 30 days)\n- Lung diseases caused by **workplace dust exposure** (like asbestosis or coal dust disease) must be reported by specialist doctors within 30 days of diagnosis\n\n### 👶 Children's health\n- Children with certain **contagious conditions** (like measles or whooping cough) may be excluded from school or childcare for set periods\n- Children must be vaccinated according to the **National Immunisation Program Schedule** to be considered vaccinated under the law\n\n### 🔪 Cosmetic procedures on children\n- Certain medical procedures on children are **excluded** from the definition of \"cosmetic procedures\" — meaning they can be performed without the special restrictions that apply to purely cosmetic surgery. These include medically necessary reconstructive surgeries, circumcision, and tattoo removal\n\n## Who enforces it?\n- Most of the day-to-day rules (asbestos at home, mosquitoes, rats) are enforced by **local councils**\n- Disease reporting, invasive medical procedures, and drug lab contamination rules involve **Queensland Health (the State)**\n\n## Why does it matter?\nThis regulation directly affects what you can and can't do in your own home (especially with older fibro houses), what your local council can require of you, and how health professionals track and respond to disease outbreaks. Breaking many of these rules carries significant fines."},"issue_detection":{"absurdities":[{"type":"impossible_compliance","section":"sec.5 / sec.9","severity":"medium","reasoning":"Prescribed work includes cleaning ACM. Section 9 bans power tools, high pressure water, and compressed air cleaning. Section 11 requires taking reasonable measures. No method of cleaning is positively prescribed, only prohibited methods are listed. Manual wet-cloth cleaning is implied by s.11(2)(d) but this creates an implicit obligation from a non-exhaustive list, not a clear permission, leaving compliance uncertain for practical cleaning scenarios.","confidence":0.65,"description":"The definition of 'prescribed work' in sec.5 includes 'cleaning' ACM, but sec.9 prohibits specific cleaning methods (power tools, high pressure water, compressed air). The interaction creates a situation where a person must perform 'prescribed work' (cleaning) but the regulation fails to specify any affirmatively permitted cleaning method, only prohibited ones. A person obligated to clean ACM under sec.11 (duty to take reasonable measures) may find all practical mechanical cleaning methods prohibited."},{"type":"impossible_compliance","section":"sec.8(2)","severity":"high","reasoning":"The word 'may' in sec.8(2) is discretionary. The criminal prohibition in sec.8(1) depends entirely on the chief executive's discretionary act of establishing certification arrangements. If those arrangements do not exist, no person can lawfully remove bonded ACM >10m² regardless of their competence, creating an impossible compliance scenario.","confidence":0.72,"description":"The chief executive 'may' establish or approve arrangements for certificates, but sec.8(1) makes it a criminal offence (100 penalty units) to remove bonded ACM >10m² without a 'current certificate under this section'. If the chief executive chooses not to establish any arrangements, it becomes impossible for any person to obtain a certificate, making compliance with sec.8(1) structurally impossible."},{"type":"other","section":"sec.12(1)","severity":"low","reasoning":"The obligation in sec.12 falls on 'a person who carries out prescribed work', but licensed removalists under the WHS Regulation (required for friable ACM by sec.7) are operating under a separate legislative framework. The regulation imposes waste disposal obligations on persons carrying out 'prescribed work' without clearly accounting for the division between the WHS-licensed persons (required by sec.7) and the persons subject to this regulation's obligations.","confidence":0.5,"description":"Section 12 requires associated asbestos waste to be packaged and disposed of 'as soon as practicable, but within 5 business days' after carrying out the work. However, the definition of 'associated asbestos waste' in sec.5 requires ACM to have been 'removed' before the waste is classified as 'associated asbestos waste'. The disposal obligation therefore only arises after removal is complete, but sec.7 and sec.8 restrict who can perform the removal. This creates a sequencing issue where the person who lawfully removes the ACM (licensed under WHS Regulation for friable) may not be the same person obligated under sec.12."},{"type":"self_contradicting","section":"sec.47(4)","severity":"medium","reasoning":"The prescribed period has a start trigger (day treatment is provided) and an end trigger (120 days after treatment is completed/discontinued). For a single-day treatment these coincide, but for ongoing treatments the period starts immediately but its end is indeterminate until treatment concludes. It is unclear what notification obligation, if any, exists during the treatment period itself, and the 'starts on the day treatment is provided' language may mean the notification obligation commences immediately even though the period end cannot be calculated until treatment concludes.","confidence":0.7,"description":"Section 47(4) prescribes a period for cancer-related treatment notifications that 'starts on the day the cancer-related treatment is provided' and 'ends 120 days after the day the cancer-related treatment is completed, discontinued or otherwise ends.' This creates a logical impossibility: the period starts on the first day of treatment but ends 120 days after treatment ends. For ongoing or lengthy treatments, the period could ostensibly be open-ended or the start and end dates could be unclear, since treatment could both be 'provided' and not yet 'completed' simultaneously."},{"type":"self_contradicting","section":"sec.34(1) vs sec.34(2)","severity":"medium","reasoning":"The deliberate or inadvertent distinction between 'owned by' (s.153 exemption) and 'owned and operated by' (s.154 exemption) for local government health care facilities creates asymmetric exemptions. A facility that is owned but not operated by a local government would be exempt from s.153 requirements but not s.154 requirements. Whether this is intentional policy distinction or drafting error is unclear, but it creates a logical inconsistency in the treatment of similar facilities.","confidence":0.78,"description":"Section 34(1) prescribes health care facilities exempt from ICMP requirements under s.153 of the Act as facilities 'owned by a local government' where the operator performs immunisation. Section 34(2) prescribes facilities exempt under s.154 of the Act as facilities 'owned and operated by a local government'. The difference in ownership/operation criteria is internally inconsistent: a facility could be owned by a local government but operated by a contracted third party, satisfying sec.34(1) but not sec.34(2), creating differential exemption treatment under the two parent Act sections for what appears to be the same type of facility."},{"type":"impossible_compliance","section":"sec.17","severity":"medium","reasoning":"The definition of 'breeding ground' is reactive (eggs/larvae/pupae must be present), but the obligation is prospective (ensure it is not a breeding ground). A relevant person cannot inspect every drop of accumulated water for microscopic larvae in real time. The defence in sec.17(3) (reasonable steps) partially addresses this, but the primary obligation as drafted is literally impossible to guarantee compliance with in advance.","confidence":0.68,"description":"Section 17(1) requires a 'relevant person' to ensure accumulated water 'is not a breeding ground for mosquitoes', defined in sec.17(4) as 'a place where mosquito eggs, larvae or pupae are present'. This creates a strict liability offence that is retrospectively activated: the relevant person can only know a breeding ground exists after mosquitoes have already bred there. The obligation to 'ensure' a place is not a breeding ground, when detection of breeding is only possible after the fact, makes prospective compliance impossible to guarantee."},{"type":"impossible_compliance","section":"sec.9(2)","severity":"low","reasoning":"The 650rpm threshold is operationally meaningless as a compliance standard because drill speed fluctuates continuously and cannot be reliably maintained below a threshold during actual use. The provision creates a theoretical compliance window that cannot be practically exploited.","confidence":0.6,"description":"The definition of 'power tool' in sec.9(2) excludes 'a battery powered drill that is operating at less than 650rpm'. This creates an absurd compliance obligation: the RPM of a drill varies continuously during use. A person using a battery-powered drill to clean or cut ACM would technically be compliant when the drill is spinning below 650rpm (e.g. when starting up or slowing down) but non-compliant when it exceeds 650rpm during normal operation. Compliance becomes a function of instantaneous drill speed, which is unmonitorable in practice."},{"type":"self_contradicting","section":"sec.52(3) and sec.52(4)","severity":"high","reasoning":"The coexistence of an absolute prohibition on E. coli detection (s.52(3)) and a 98% compliance rate standard (s.52(4)) creates a direct logical contradiction. The 98% standard implicitly acknowledges that some detections will occur, which is irreconcilable with an absolute prohibition. Both subsections are stated as mandatory standards, creating an unresolvable tension.","confidence":0.88,"description":"Section 52(3) provides an absolute standard: E. coli must not be detected in any sample. Section 52(4) provides a rolling review standard: E. coli must not be detected in at least 98% of samples over the preceding year. These two standards are structurally inconsistent: the absolute standard in sec.52(3) is breached by any single positive detection, but sec.52(4) implicitly tolerates up to 2% positive detections over the year. A supplier who has 2% positive samples complies with sec.52(4) but is in continuing breach of sec.52(3)."},{"type":"other","section":"sec.58(2) and sec.52(3)/(4)","severity":"low","reasoning":"The differential E. coli standards (absolute zero for drinking water; 95% compliance for Class A+ recycled water) reflect legitimate policy distinctions based on intended use, but the 5% tolerance for Class A+ introduces systemic risk in dual reticulation systems where cross-contamination between recycled and drinking water systems is a recognised hazard. This is an analytical observation rather than a strict legal contradiction.","confidence":0.45,"description":"Class A+ recycled water (sec.58) requires only 95% of samples to contain less than 1 cfu/100mL of E. coli, yet drinking water (sec.52(3)) requires absolute non-detection of E. coli. Recycled water intended to augment a drinking water supply (sec.53(2)(d)) must contain no detectable pathogens. Class A+ water is required for dual reticulation systems (sec.57), which supply water for uses including toilet flushing in residential premises, while drinking water must meet a stricter standard. However, the asymmetry between the 95% standard for Class A+ and the absolute standard for drinking water could create public health risks if the classification and use boundaries are not clearly maintained."}],"contradictions":[{"severity":"high","section_a":"sec.52(3)","section_b":"sec.52(4)","confidence":0.88,"description":"Section 52(3) imposes an absolute prohibition on E. coli detection in any sample of drinking water. Section 52(4) prescribes a rolling 12-month review standard requiring non-detection in at least 98% of samples. These standards directly contradict each other: sec.52(4) implicitly permits up to 2% of samples to contain detectable E. coli, while sec.52(3) prohibits any detection. A water supplier with 2% positive samples complies with sec.52(4) but simultaneously breaches sec.52(3) at every positive sample event."},{"severity":"medium","section_a":"sec.7","section_b":"sec.6","confidence":0.75,"description":"Section 6 provides that the asbestos division is to be administered and enforced by local governments only. Section 7 requires persons removing friable ACM in a non-workplace area to hold a class A asbestos removal licence under the Work Health and Safety Regulation 2011, which is a State-administered licence. The enforcement of sec.7 (by local governments only per sec.6) requires local governments to verify compliance with a State licensing regime they do not administer, creating an enforcement gap where the enforcing body (local government) has no jurisdiction over the licensing framework that underpins the offence."},{"severity":"medium","section_a":"sec.34(1)(a)","section_b":"sec.34(2)(a)","confidence":0.78,"description":"For the s.153 Act exemption (sec.34(1)(a)), a health care facility need only be 'owned by a local government' with the 'operator' having implemented the required policies. For the s.154 Act exemption (sec.34(2)(a)), the facility must be 'owned and operated by a local government'. This creates contradictory exemption criteria for what appears to be the same category of facility under two related but distinct provisions of the parent Act, meaning a facility owned-but-not-operated by a local government is exempt from one set of ICMP requirements but not the other."},{"severity":"high","section_a":"sec.11(2)(b)","section_b":"sec.9(1)(a)","confidence":0.82,"description":"Section 11(2)(b) lists as a 'reasonable measure' for minimising asbestos fibre release: 'using vacuum cleaning equipment that complies with AS/NZS 60335.2.69 to collect asbestos fibres'. AS/NZS 60335.2.69 covers electric and pneumatic vacuum cleaners. Section 9(1)(a) prohibits using 'a power tool, or a device attached to a power tool' to clean ACM, and 'power tool' is defined to include electric and pneumatic powered tools. A vacuum cleaner complying with AS/NZS 60335.2.69 is an electric or pneumatic powered tool. Using such a vacuum cleaner to clean ACM could therefore simultaneously constitute a 'reasonable measure' under sec.11 and an offence under sec.9."},{"severity":"low","section_a":"sec.5 (definition of 'prescribed work')","section_b":"sec.13","confidence":0.5,"description":"Section 13 prohibits selling or giving away ACM removed from a non-workplace area. The definition of 'prescribed work' in sec.5 includes 'storing' and 'using' ACM located in a non-workplace area, and 'remove' is defined to include moving ACM from its installed position. Section 13 creates an absolute prohibition on selling or giving away removed ACM, but does not address what a person is to do with ACM they have lawfully removed (under sec.8 certificate) but cannot sell, give away, or (given sec.12's disposal requirements) retain indefinitely. The only lawful path is disposal at an approved site, but sec.12 only requires disposal of 'associated asbestos waste', not all removed ACM. Removed but intact bonded ACM is not clearly 'associated asbestos waste' until it has been removed in a non-workplace area, creating uncertainty about the disposal pathway for intact removed ACM."}]},"flash_summary":{"complexity_score":6,"scope_assessment":{"changed":false,"description":"Based on the text supplied, the regulation preserves and continues prior operational arrangements in key areas through transitional provisions (pt.11, ss.65–70) and defines detailed technical standards across multiple subject areas. The instrument principally translates the Act’s public-health powers into prescriptive operational requirements (for asbestos, vector control, rodent control, water-quality testing and reporting, notifiable conditions, infection-control exemptions and quarantine fees) without textual indication that the Act’s broad policy scope is expanded beyond those delegated technical rules. It does, however, allocate administration and enforcement responsibilities between local governments and the State for particular risks (e.g. asbestos, mosquitoes, rats — local governments (ss.6,16,22); invasive-procedure-related risks — State (s.27)), and it introduces chief-executive discretion for approving training, accrediting laboratories and setting reporting periods (ss.8, 28, 30). These are operational changes in implementation and administrative control rather than an indicated change in the Act’s substantive scope."},"complexity_factors":["Multiple subject areas covered (asbestos, vectors, rodents, water quality, notifiable conditions, child health, infection control, quarantine fees) increasing cross-domain technical detail (throughout, e.g. ss.4–13, ss.50–59, s.61A).","Numerous prescriptive technical requirements (sampling frequencies, laboratory accreditation standard ISO/IEC 17025, mesh size for screens, packaging thickness and labelling for asbestos) requiring specialised compliance actions (ss.8, 12, 18, 28, 52–59).","Layered enforcement and administration: different parts are to be enforced by local government, others by the State, creating variable compliance pathways (ss.6, 16, 22, 27).","Cross-references to other Acts, national standards and schedules (Work Health and Safety Regulation, Water Supply (Safety and Reliability) Act, Australian Drinking Water Guidelines, Poisons Standard), requiring users to consult external instruments (s.7, s.28, s.50, s.60, ss.52–59).","Discretion vested in the chief executive for approvals, training recognition and reporting period notices, introducing administrative variability (ss.8, 28, 30).","Prescribed penalties varying by subject matter (40 vs 100 penalty units) and offence type, requiring careful legal-administrative interpretation (ss.7–13, ss.17–25).","Transitional provisions that preserve prior approvals, certificates and sampling records add complexity to compliance during changeover periods (pt.11, ss.65–70)."],"plain_english_summary":"Overview\n\nThis regulation sets out detailed, operational public-health rules across several topics: asbestos handling in non-workplace settings; mosquito control and mosquito-proofing of water tanks; control of rats and mice; specified infection risks (including certain invasive procedures and places used for illegal drug manufacture); requirements for water-risk management and detailed water-quality standards for drinking and recycled water; notifiable medical conditions and reporting requirements; infection-control exemptions for some health facilities; child health rules about contagious and vaccine-preventable conditions; permitted disclosures of school health information; a list of procedures that are not treated as “cosmetic” when performed on children; quarantine fees during the COVID-19 emergency; prescribed training and other technical standards; and transitional provisions carrying over earlier approvals and samples. (See, for example, asbestos provisions ss.4–13; mosquito provisions ss.14–19; rats and mice ss.20–26; water quality ss.50–59; notifiable conditions ss.31–33; quarantine fees s.61A; transitional provisions pt.11.)\n\nWhat the instrument does, mechanically\n\n- Asbestos (non-workplace areas): Prohibits removal of friable asbestos without a class A removal licence (maximum penalty 100 penalty units) and restricts removal of larger amounts (>10 m2) of bonded asbestos to people holding a chief-executive-issued “certificate.” It bans use of power tools, high-pressure water, or compressed air on asbestos in non-workplace areas and requires sealing broken bonded ACM surfaces, taking measures to minimise fibre release, and specified packaging and disposal of asbestos waste (ss.4–13). The chief executive can set and approve training and interactive courses that issue the certificates (s.8). Administration and enforcement are by local governments (s.6). (Key penalties: ss.7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13.)\n\n- Mosquitoes: Occupiers/owners must prevent water accumulating so it is not a mosquito-breeding ground (max penalty 40 penalty units), tanks must be mosquito-proofed with specified screens or flap valves, and it is an offence to damage those fittings except briefly for maintenance (ss.14–19). Local governments administer and enforce these rules (s.16).\n\n- Rats and mice: Owners of defined structures must take reasonable steps to stop rodents entering (examples given) and must ensure land around dwellings is not harbouring or breeding rodents; keeping rats or mice for certain purposes must be in escape-proof enclosures. Offences attract up to 40 penalty units. Local governments administer these provisions (ss.20–26, 22). \n\n- Other public-health risks: An activity connected to an invasive medical procedure that may expose a person to infection is prescribed and enforced by the State (s.27). Places used for unlawful production of dangerous drugs or from which police have seized relevant equipment are prescribed places for public-health action; enforcement for those places is by local governments (s.27A).\n\n- Water risk management and water quality: Laboratories accredited to ISO/IEC 17025 must carry out Legionella testing (s.28). Water risk management plans for prescribed facilities must identify a responsible person by job title (s.29) and report at the shorter of a quarter or a chief-executive-stated period (s.30). Drinking water must be tested for Escherichia coli at frequencies tied to service population, must show no E. coli in samples, and meet Australian Drinking Water Guidelines for chemical and radiological limits (s.52). Recycled water intended to augment drinking supplies must meet specified microbiological, chemical and pathogen limits and reporting obligations when tests fail (ss.53–55). Detailed classes (A+, A–D) of recycled water have defined test parameters and review thresholds (ss.56–59; schedules and tables cited throughout). \n\n- Notifiable conditions and reporting: Medical conditions listed in schedule 1 are notifiable; types of notifiable diagnosis are defined by marks in the schedule (s.31). Notices to the chief executive must be given electronically and within set times (immediately for schedule 2 items, otherwise within 48 hours) (s.32). Schedule-based confidentiality and prescribed agreements are identified (ss.33 and schedules).\n\n- Health-care facility infection control: Certain facilities are exempt from preparing an Infection Control Management Plan if they meet specified conditions (for example, local-government-owned facilities delivering immunisation with occupational exposure and sharps policies; accredited general practices) (s.34).\n\n- Child health and school programs: Lists contagious and vaccine-preventable conditions and defines prescribed exclusion/isolation periods (ss.35–38). Specifies limited student data that may be disclosed for school health programs (s.39).\n\n- Cosmetic procedures on children: Lists procedures that are not treated as cosmetic for the purposes of related Act provisions (s.40).\n\n- Quarantine fees (COVID-19): Prescribes per-night accommodation and per-day meal fees for quarantine (with special rates for children and shared accommodation rules) (s.61A).\n\nWho pays, who decides, and what changes behaviour\n\n- Who pays: Individuals and entities doing asbestos removal in non-workplace areas (penalties apply for non-compliance) and providers of drinking or recycled water bear direct compliance costs (testing, sampling, treatment, reporting). Persons required to quarantine may be charged specified fees (s.61A). Owners/occupiers must maintain tanks and premises to avoid breeding mosquitoes or rodent harbourage (ss.17–18, 23–25).\n\n- Who decides / has discretion: The chief executive has powers to approve training, certify statements of attainment, establish accredited arrangements and to issue notices on reporting periods (s.8, s.28, s.30). Local governments are the primary enforcement agencies for many divisions (s.6, s.16, s.22). Laboratories must be accredited as defined (s.28). Management plans determine some testing frequencies and responsibilities (ss.50, 52, 53).\n\n- Behavioural changes required: People must avoid certain methods when handling asbestos, obtain licences or certificates to remove asbestos above thresholds, package and dispose of asbestos in specified ways, mosquito-proof and maintain tanks, sample and test water per schedule, report notifiable conditions electronically within specified timeframes, and operators of specified water schemes must assess and report failures promptly.\n\nCompliance burden, costs and incentives (source-grounded)\n\n- Administrative / compliance costs: training and certification for bonded ACM removal (s.8); licensing for friable ACM (s.7); equipment and testing costs to meet water sampling frequencies and laboratory accreditation requirements (ss.28, 52–59); packaging, labelling and approved-site disposal costs for asbestos waste (s.12); ongoing maintenance and fitting of mosquito-proof screens or valves (ss.18–19); recordkeeping and reporting obligations in water-risk management plans (ss.29–30) and notifiable-condition reporting (s.32).\n\n- Incentives / who benefits: The regulation concentrates regulatory obligations on those who handle hazardous materials, supply water services, or occupy land with vector/rodent risk. Entities that provide accredited training or testing services (e.g. accredited laboratories, registered training organisations approved by the chief executive) are the suppliers of compliance inputs (s.8, s.28). The text itself does not quantify economic benefits but sets technical standards intended to reduce public-health risks.\n\nTrade-offs, risks and practical implementation points\n\n- Trade-offs: Detailed prescriptive standards (e.g. sampling frequencies, packaging specifications, mesh sizes) reduce ambiguity but impose fixed compliance costs and equipment choices on regulated parties (s.12, s.18, ss.52–59).\n\n- Discretion and implementation risk: The chief executive’s powers to approve training, adopt accreditation entities and issue reporting-period notices create points of administrative discretion affecting who can certify removers of bonded ACM and how facilities report (s.8, s.28, s.30). Local governments are given primary enforcement responsibility in many areas (s.6, s.16, s.22), which means compliance and enforcement outcomes may vary by local capacity.\n\n- Substitution and unintended consequences: The regulation prohibits certain removal methods and tools (s.9), which will push people toward approved techniques and certified contractors; it also prescribes specific waste-handling routes (s.12), possibly concentrating disposal demand at approved sites.\n\nPenalties and enforcement\n\n- Many asbestos-related offences carry a maximum penalty of 100 penalty units (e.g. removal, use of prohibited tools, packaging requirements) (ss.7–13). Mosquito and rodent provisions commonly carry penalties up to 40 penalty units (ss.17–25). Notices and reporting obligations have statutory timeframes and electronic notice requirements (s.32). Local governments and the State have designated enforcement roles depending on the division (see s.6, s.16, s.22, s.27).\n\nTransitional continuity\n\n- The regulation contains transitional provisions that treat earlier chief-executive arrangements and certificates under the expired regulation as continuing (pt.11, ss.65–70), preserving existing approvals, sampling records and plan references pending amendment.\n\nWhy it matters\n\nMechanically, the regulation translates high-level public-health powers in the Act into detailed technical obligations and enforcement arrangements. It assigns who enforces which parts (local government or State), specifies measurable thresholds and testing frequencies (notably for drinking and recycled water), prescribes training/certification routes (chief executive approvals and accredited labs), and sets concrete penalties. The practical effects are to shift costs and operational choices onto property owners, water providers and persons handling asbestos or controlling vectors, while creating specific administrative roles (chief executive approvals, local government enforcement) and market demand for accredited training, testing and disposal services. (Key sections cited in text: asbestos ss.4–13; mosquitoes ss.14–19; rats and mice ss.20–26; water quality ss.50–59; notifiable conditions ss.31–33; quarantine fees s.61A; training s.62; transitional provisions pt.11.)"}},"importantCases":[],"_links":{"self":"/api/acts/public-health-regulation-2018","history":"/api/acts/public-health-regulation-2018/history","analysis":"/api/acts/public-health-regulation-2018/analysis","conflicts":"/api/acts/public-health-regulation-2018/conflicts","importantCases":"/api/acts/public-health-regulation-2018/important-cases","documents":"/api/acts/public-health-regulation-2018/documents"}}