{"id":"F2025L00735","name":"Australian Security Intelligence Organisation (Statement of Procedures) Instrument 2025","slug":"australian-security-intelligence-organisation-statement-of-procedures-instrument-2025","collection":"legislative_instrument","jurisdiction":"commonwealth","status":"in_force","isInForce":true,"actNumber":null,"makingDate":null,"administeringDepartment":null,"currentVersion":{"id":442867,"registerId":"F2025L00735-fast-fetch-1775957794521","compilationNumber":null,"startDate":"2026-04-12","status":"InForce","reasons":null,"registeredAt":null},"sections":[{"sectionNumber":"1","sectionType":"section","heading":"Australian Security Intelligence Organisation (Statement of Procedures) Instrument 2025","content":"---\nmeta-content-style-type: text/css\nmeta-content-type: application/xhtml+xml; charset=utf-8\n---\n\n![Commonwealth Coat of Arms of Australia](image.001.jpeg)\n\n \n\nAustralian Security Intelligence Organisation (Statement of Procedures) Instrument 2025\n\nI, MARK DREYFUS KC MP, Attorney-General, approve the following instrument.\n\nDated 3 March 2025   \n\nMARK DREYFUS KC MP\n\nAttorney-General\n\n \n\n \n\n \n\nContents\n\n1  Name\n\n2  Commencement, Revocation and Replacement\n\n3  Authority\n\n4  Definitions\n\n5  Application of Minister’s Guidelines\n\n6 Questioning warrant requests\n\n7  Arrangements for liaison\n\n8  Written record in relation to a questioning warrant\n\n8A  Written record of any breach\n\n9  Conduct of questioning et cetera\n\n10  Where apprehension is authorised\n\n11  Conduct of ordinary or frisk searches and screening\n\n12  Use of force\n\n12A  Dual involvement of police\n\n13  Health and welfare\n\n14  Video recordings\n\n15  Complaints made by the subject while appearing for questioning\n\n16  Review\n\n \n\n \n\n1  Name\n\n  This instrument is the Australian Security Intelligence Organisation (Statement of Procedures) Instrument 2025.\n\n2  Commencement, Revocation and Replacement\n\n (1) This instrument commences the day on which the instrument is approved.\n\n (2) This instrument revokes and replaces the Australian Security Intelligence Organisation (Statement of Procedures) Instrument 2020.\n\n3  Authority\n\n  This instrument is made under section 34AF of the Australian Security Intelligence Organisation Act 1979.\n\n4  Definitions \n\nNote: A number of expressions used in this instrument are defined in the Act, including the following:\n\n1.       adult questioning warrant;\n2.       communication device;\n3.       Director-General;\n4.       law enforcement agency;\n5.       lawyer;\n6.        minor questioning warrant;\n7.       minor’s representative;\n8.       Organisation;\n9.        police officer;\n10.        prescribed authority;\n11.       questioning warrant;\n12.        subject.\n\n\n  In this instrument:\n\nAct means the Australian Security Intelligence Organisation Act 1979.\n\nmaster version means the original version of a video recording made in accordance with subsection 34DP(1) of the Act.\n\nmedical practitioner means an individual registered or licensed as a medical practitioner under a State or Territory law.\n\npsychologist means an individual registered or licensed as a psychologist under a State or Territory law.\n\n5  Application of Minister’s Guidelines\n\n (1) The Organisation must observe any guidelines given by the Minister to the Director-General under subsection 8A(1) or 8A(2) of the Act to the extent it is relevant to a questioning warrant including in relation to proportionality of ASIO’s activities.\n\n6 Questioning warrant requests\n\n  Additional requirements\n\n (1) In addition to the things in subsection 34B(4) of the Act, a request for a questioning warrant must include:\n\n (a) a statement of:\n\n1.      warrants (other than questioning warrants) under which the Organisation is, or has been within the past 6 months, authorised to do things in relation to the subject; and\n2.    why the Director-General considers it necessary that the warrant should be issued; and\n\n\n (b) a statement of the particulars of any known risks involved in questioning the subject under a questioning warrant; and\n\n (c)  a statement of the particulars of any known vulnerabilities (including a physical, sensory, intellectual or psychiatric disability, or medical condition) or sensitivities (including religious beliefs or cultural identities) in relation to the subject, to the extent they are relevant to the questioning; or\n\n                         (d) if the request is for a minor questioning warrant, all information known to the Director-General about the matters mentioned in subsection 34BB(3) of the Act (best interests of the person), including the special protections that should be considered in relation to the best interests of a person who is at least 14 years old but less than 18 years old, taking into account the person’s individual circumstances and needs (including their developmental status, any disabilities they may have, and whether the person belongs to any minority groups, as well as the other matters listed in subsection 34BB(3) of the Act).\n\n  Oral requests for warrants and variations\n\n (2) Without limiting the circumstances in which a questioning warrant or a variation of a questioning warrant may be requested orally, the Director-General may request a warrant or variation orally if he or she reasonably believes the delay caused by making a written request may be prejudicial to security because:\n\n (a) there may be an imminent threat to a person’s safety; or\n\n (b) an act of politically motivated violence, espionage or foreign interference may be imminent.\n\n7  Arrangements for liaison\n\n (1) The Director-General must cause the Inspector-General of Intelligence and Security to be notified of any request for a questioning warrant:\n\n (a) if it is practicable to do so – before the request is made; or\n\n (b) otherwise – as soon as practicable after the request is made.\n\n (2)  As soon as practicable after a questioning warrant is issued (or in the case of sub-paragraph (c) as soon as practicable after a variation to a questioning warrant is made), the Director-General must cause the Inspector-General of Intelligence and Security, a prescribed authority, and the Commissioner of the Australian Federal Police or the relevant police force or police service, to be informed of:\n\n1.      details of the warrant;\n2.      the proposed arrangements for the execution of the warrant; and\n3.     details of any variations to the warrant.\n\n\n \n\n8  Written record in relation to a questioning warrant\n\n (1) The Director-General must cause the maintenance of a written record of the following in relation to a questioning warrant:\n\n (a) the identity of the subject; and\n\n (b) the authority for the questioning and apprehension (if any) of the subject; and\n\n (c) the place, day and time of questioning under the warrant and the details of any time disregarded under section 34DL of the Act; and\n\n (d) the place, day, time and duration of any apprehension of the subject.\n\n (2) The Director-General must cause this record to be included in the report under section 34HA of the Act.\n\n8A  Written record of any breach\n\n (1) The Organisation must keep a written record of any breach of this instrument.\n\n9  Conduct of questioning et cetera\n\n  Manner\n\n (1) In addition to the requirements under subsection 34AG (2) of the Act, all persons present during questioning under a questioning warrant or any period of apprehension must interact with the subject in a manner that is both humane and courteous, and must not speak to the subject in a demeaning manner.\n\n (2) In addition to the requirements under subsection 34AG(2) of the Act, the subject must not be questioned in a manner that is unfair or oppressive in the circumstances.\n\n (3) For the purpose of exercising a power or performing a function or duty as an IGIS official, an IGIS official may be present at the questioning or apprehension of the subject.\n\n  Understanding questioning\n\n (4) Information given to the subject or a minor’s representative, including the written notice provided to the subject under section 34BH of the Act, must:\n\n  (a) in relation to the subject – have regard to the subject’s age, and to the extent practicable and relevant, any known vulnerabilities (including a physical, sensory, intellectual or psychiatric disability, or medical condition) in relation to the subject; and\n\n (b) in relation to both the subject and minor’s representative – be given in a language the person can understand.\n\n (5) An interpreter must be provided for the subject under section 34DN or 34DO of the Act if the prescribed authority believes on reasonable grounds that the subject is unable to communicate with reasonable fluency in the English language because:\n\n (a) of inadequate knowledge of that language; or\n\n (b) they are physically unable to communicate in that language.\n\nNote: For example, the subject may be physically unable to communicate in the English language because they have a speech or hearing disability.             \n\n (6) An interpreter must be provided for the minor’s representative if the prescribed authority believes on reasonable grounds that the minor’s representative is unable to communicate with reasonable fluency in the English language because:\n\n (a) of inadequate knowledge of that language; or\n\n (b) they are physically unable to communicate in that language.\n\nNote: For example, the minor’s representative may be physically unable to communicate in the English language because they have a speech or hearing disability.             \n\n  Explanation of certain matters\n\n (7) In addition to the requirements of sections 34DC and 34DD of the Act, when the subject first appears before a prescribed authority for questioning under a questioning warrant, the prescribed authority must:\n\n (a) cause the subject to be given a copy of this instrument; and\n\n (b) inform the subject that their right to make a complaint of the kind referred to in paragraph 34DC(1)(i) of the Act includes a right to make a complaint in relation to any contravention of this instrument; and\n\n (c) inform the subject of the use which may be made of any information given, or record or other thing produced, by the subject, including any derivative use for the purpose of criminal investigations; and\n\n  (d)  at least 30 minutes before questioning commences, provide to the subject and their legal representative, a written document in English, and if the subject does not understand English, a copy translated into a language the subject can understand, summarising the matters described in section 34DC and, if relevant, section 34DD of the Act and paragraphs (7)(b) and (c) above.             \n\n (8) The prescribed authority must satisfy themselves that the subject has understood the explanations given to the subject under sections 34DC and 34DD of the Act, and subsection (7).\n\n (9) If the subject has a known vulnerability (including a physical, sensory, intellectual or psychiatric disability, or medical condition) which may be relevant to their understanding of the explanations referred to in subsection (8), the prescribed authority may at any time obtain advice from an appropriate medical practitioner or psychologist to satisfy themselves that the subject will understand, or has understood, the explanations.\n\n  Conditions of questioning\n\n (10) The subject and, if applicable, a minor’s representative for the subject must have access to fresh drinking water and clean toilet and sanitary facilities at all times during questioning and the subject and minor’s representative must be permitted to use the toilet and sanitary facilities in private as required.\n\n (11) If food is provided to the subject or a minor’s representative, the food must meet dietary requirements of the subject or minor’s representative.\n\n (12) Where the subject of a minor questioning warrant or adult questioning warrant has been questioned for at least 4 hours in total, they, and where applicable a minor’s representative, are to be provided with food.              \n\n (13)  The subject of an adult questioning warrant must not be questioned continuously for more than 4 hours without being offered a break.\n\nNote: In accordance with paragraph 34BD(2)(b) of the Act, the subject of a minor questioning warrant can only be questioned for continuous periods of 2 hours or less without a break.             \n\n (14) A break as required by subsection (13) or paragraph 34BD(2)(b) of the Act must be at least 30 minutes in duration.\n\n (15) Despite subsections (13) and (14) and (15A), the subject may, at any time:\n\n (a) in the case of an adult questioning warrant – elect to forego a break; or\n\n (b) in the case of an adult questioning warrant or minor questioning warrant – elect to take a break shorter than 30 minutes;\n\n  provided the prescribed authority is satisfied that this election is entirely voluntary.\n\n (15A)  In addition to subsection (13) and (14), the prescribed authority may, at any time they determine appropriate:\n\n1.     offer the subject of an adult questioning warrant breaks at intervals shorter than every four hours; and\n2.     where a break is offered at an interval shorter than four hours, reduce the break time to a minimum of 15 minutes.\n\n\n (16)  The subject of an adult questioning warrant or minor questioning warrant must be given a break of sufficient duration in any 24 hour period of questioning to ensure they have an opportunity for an appropriate amount of continuous and undisturbed sleep, having regard to the subject’s age.\n\n (17)  The amount of continuous and undisturbed sleep referred to in subsection (16) must be at least 8 hours. For minors this period of sleep must be at least 10 hours.\n\n (18) During a break in questioning directed by the prescribed authority, the subject is not required to be at the place where they are appearing for questioning under a questioning warrant. Depending on the circumstances, the subject and a minor’s representative (where applicable) may be afforded transport, food, nearby accommodation or other assistance as required.\n\n (19)   The prescribed authority may warn a lawyer that they may be removed from questioning for unduly disrupting the questioning of the subject, prior to the prescribed authority directing the lawyer to be removed under subsection 34FF(6) of the Act.\n\n(20)   The prescribed authority may warn a minor’s representative that the minor’s representative may be removed from questioning for unduly disrupting the questioning of the subject, prior to the prescribed authority directing the minor’s representative to be removed under subsection 34FG(2) of the Act.\n\n10  Where apprehension is authorised\n\n (1) This section applies if a police officer is authorised to apprehend the subject under a questioning warrant or section 34C of the Act.\n\n (2) A police officer must make the arrangements for the apprehension, and undertake the apprehension.\n\n (3) Before the subject is apprehended, the Organisation must take all reasonable steps to ensure the following persons will be present when the subject arrives at the place where they are appearing for questioning under a questioning warrant:\n\n (a) the prescribed authority; and\n\n (b) a police officer; and\n\n (c) the persons who will be questioning the subject on behalf of the Organisation; and\n\n (d) if the prescribed authority has appointed a specified person as the lawyer for the subject – that person; and\n\n (e) if the Organisation is satisfied that the prescribed authority is likely to appoint one or more specified persons as the lawyer for the subject – one such person; and\n\n (f) if an interpreter is required an interpreter; and\n\n (g) if the Organisation is satisfied that an interpreter is likely to be required – an interpreter.\n\n (4)  The arrangements for apprehension must be consistent with applicable police practices and procedures in relation to apprehension, and in accordance with any applicable legislation.\n\n (5) The transportation to bring the subject before a prescribed authority for questioning under the warrant must be undertaken in a way which would not expose the subject to unnecessary physical hardship.               \n\n (6) A minor’s representative for the subject of a minor questioning warrant is permitted to be present at any time while the subject is apprehended.\n\n (7) If the subject wishes to contact a person under section 34CB of the Act while apprehended the subject must be given facilities to enable the contact to be made which may, without limiting paragraph 34CB(2)(c) of the Act, include:\n\n1.     a device as referred to in paragraph (a) of the definition of communication device; and\n2.     contact details for any person the subject is permitted to contact; and\n3.     an interpreter.\n\n\n Note: Under section 34CB of the Act, the subject while apprehended, may contact any of the following:\n\n(a) a lawyer;\n\n(b) if the warrant is a minor questioning warrant – a minor’s representative;\n\n(c) any person the questioning warrant or a direction given by the prescribed authority under paragraph  34DE(1)(b) permits;\n\n(d) the Inspector-General of Intelligence and Security;\n\n(e) the Ombudsman;\n\n(f) the Commissioner of the Australian Federal Police;\n\n(g) a complaints agency relating to the police force or police service of the State or Territory (if applicable).             \n\n11  Conduct of ordinary or frisk searches and screening\n\n (1) An ordinary or frisk search of the subject under subsection 34CC(2) or 34D(2)(c) of the Act must be conducted with appropriate sensitivity.\n\n (1A)  Subject to subsection 11(1), a minor’s representative is permitted to be present during an ordinary or frisk search of the minor under subsection 34CC(2) or 34D(2)(c) of the Act.\n\n               (2)  If records or other things are seized by a police officer under subsection 34CC(4) or (5) of the Act, or given to a police officer under subsection 34D(5) of the Act, a police officer or person exercising authority of the warrant must cause:\n\n (a) the record or things to be itemised in an inventory which must be signed by the subject, or if the subject is a minor, the minor’s representative, if he or she is able and willing to do so; and\n\n (b) the subject, and if the subject is a minor, the minor’s representative, to be given a copy of the inventory referred to in paragraph (a); and\n\n (c) the subject, and if the subject is a minor, the minor’s representative to be given a written notice informing them of:\n\n1.      the procedure for requesting the return of the records or things; and\n2.    the subject’s right to make a complaint of the kind referred to in paragraph 34DC(1)(i) of the Act in relation to the records or things; and\n\n\n (d) the records or things to be retained in safe custody; and\n\n (e)   the subject, or if the subject is a minor, the minor’s representative, to be asked to sign a receipt on returning the record or things to the subject.             \n\n12  Use of force\n\n (1) This section applies if a police officer is authorised to use force under section 34CA or 34CD of the Act.\n\n (2) A police officer may only use the minimum force reasonably necessary in the circumstances.\n\n12A  Dual involvement of police\n\n             (1)  The Organisation will inform, by written notice, the Australian Federal Police or relevant State or Territory police service that a police officer who has provided support under sections 10, 11 or 12 must not have any involvement in any current or future investigation, or prosecution involving the subject, other than a role as outlined under sections 10, 11 or 12 of this instrument, where that investigation or prosecution arises from or in connection to  information obtained during questioning.\n\n13  Health and welfare\n\n  Questioning place\n\n (1) The place where the subject is appearing for questioning under a questioning warrant:\n\n (a) must have adequate fresh air and ventilation, floor space, and heating and cooling appropriate to the climatic conditions; and\n\n (b) must have sufficient natural or artificial light to permit reading; and\n\n (c) need not be the same throughout the period of the warrant; and\n\n                        (d)  must be appropriately furnished.\n\n    Health care\n\n (2) The subject must be provided with necessary medical or other health care.\n\n (3) Arrangements must be made for any recommendation made or treatment prescribed by a medical or health professional to be given effect.\n\n  Religion\n\n (4) Subject to subsection (5), the subject must be permitted to engage in religious practices in accordance with the subject’s religion.\n\n (5) The prescribed authority and persons exercising authority under the warrant may limit any religious practices under subsection (4) in accordance with the requirements of safety or security, or under the Act.\n\n  Subject of a minor questioning warrant\n\n (6) The subject of a minor questioning warrant may only be apprehended, searched or questioned under conditions that take account of the subject’s particular needs and any special requirements having regard to the subject’s age and any known vulnerabilities (including a physical, sensory, intellectual or psychiatric disability, or medical condition). The Organisation must seek expert advice in assessing a minor’s particular needs and special requirements.\n\n  Other vulnerable persons\n\n (7)  The subject of a questioning warrant may only be apprehended, searched and questioned under conditions that take account of any known vulnerabilities (including a physical, sensory, intellectual or psychiatric disability or medical condition) or sensitivities (including religious beliefs or cultural identities) in relation to the subject. The Organisation may seek expert advice in assessing the particular needs and requirements of a vulnerable person.\n\n14  Video recordings\n\n  Facilities for recording\n\n (1) The Organisation is responsible for ensuring that there are facilities available for the making of video recordings in accordance with subsection 34DP(1) of the Act.\n\n (2) The Organisation must ensure that the video recording facilities:  \n\n (a) make a clear visual recording of the subject’s appearance before a prescribed authority for the duration of questioning; and\n\n (b) make a clear audio recording of all questions, answers, and statements made during questioning, including statements made by the prescribed authority in accordance with section 34DC of the Act.             \n\n(3)  The prescribed authority must be notified if the video recording facilities fail to record as intended, or if the recording has to be suspended for whatever reason, to enable the prescribed authority to direct that questioning be deferred until recording can resume.\n\n  Notification to the subject\n\n (4) Upon the commencement or resumption of any video recording of questioning in accordance with subsection 34DP(1) of the Act, the prescribed authority must inform the subject that the questioning is being recorded, and must state the time and day of the questioning.\n\n  Security of recordings\n\n (5) The Organisation must ensure that a master version is retained of any video recording of the subject’s appearance before a prescribed authority for questioning.\n\n (6) The master version must be kept in a secure system where the content cannot be subject to modification.\n\n (7) A record must be kept of any persons that access the master version.\n\n (8) The master version must be made available to the Inspector-General of Intelligence and Security on request.\n\n (9) The Organisation is responsible for ensuring that any copies of master versions, held by the Organisation are kept in a secure system and a record is kept of any persons that access such copies.\n\n (10) If the Director-General is satisfied that any video recordings of a subject’s appearance before a prescribed authority are not required for the purposes of the performance of functions or exercise of powers under the Act, the recordings must be destroyed.\n\n15  Complaints made by the subject while appearing for questioning\n\n (1) This section applies if:\n\n (a) the subject is appearing before a prescribed authority for questioning under a questioning warrant; and\n\n (b) the subject, and where the subject is a minor, the minor’s representative, informs the prescribed authority that they want to make a complaint of the kind referred to in paragraph 34DC(1)(i) of the Act or give information of the kind referred to in paragraph 34DC(1)(j) of the Act; and\n\n (c)  the prescribed authority gives a direction deferring questioning for the purpose of allowing the subject or the minor’s representative to make the complaint or give the information.\n\n (2) The subject, and where applicable the minor’s representative must be provided with such facilities as are, in the view of the prescribed authority, appropriate to make the complaint or give the information.\n\n (3) The subject, and where applicable the minor’s representative, must be permitted to make the complaint or give the information outside of the hearing of persons present for the purposes of executing or supervising the execution of the warrant.  \n\n16  Review\n\nThe operation and continued suitability of this instrument will be reviewed in consultation with relevant stakeholders and ministers as appropriate, on a recurring basis to coincide with the review of the Minister’s Guidelines as detailed in paragraph 1.14 of the Guidelines.              \n","sortOrder":0}],"analysis":{"flash_summary_failed":{"failed":true,"reason":"A positive credit balance is required for all requests, including BYOK, so fallback providers remain available. Add credits at https://vercel.com/d?to=%2F%5Bteam%5D%2F%7E%2Fai%3Fmodal%3Dtop-up to continue.","source":"analysis-cron"},"kimi_summary":{"content_quality":"ok","complexity_score":6,"scope_assessment":{"changed":false,"description":"The instrument remains tightly focused on its original purpose: operational procedures for ASIO questioning warrants. While the 2025 version adds new protections (section 8A on breach recording, expanded minor protections in section 6, dual police involvement restrictions in section 12A, and enhanced break flexibility), these are refinements and strengthenings within the existing framework rather than expansion into new substantive areas. The scope has not crept beyond procedural safeguards for warrant execution."},"complexity_factors":["Heavy cross-referencing to the ASIO Act 1979 (sections 34B, 34BB, 34AG, 34CA, 34CB, 34CC, 34CD, 34DC, 34DD, 34DE, 34DL, 34DP, 34FF, 34FG, 34HA, 8A, etc.) — understanding this instrument requires familiarity with the parent Act","Nested conditional logic: multiple 'if/then' scenarios for minors vs adults, vulnerable persons vs standard subjects, oral vs written warrant requests, breaks that can be shortened or waived under specific conditions","Dual regimes running in parallel: distinct rules for 'minor questioning warrants' (ages 14-17) and 'adult questioning warrants' with different break periods, sleep requirements, and representative rights","Multiple overlapping oversight bodies referenced: Inspector-General of Intelligence and Security (IGIS), prescribed authorities, Minister, Ombudsman, various police complaints agencies — each with different notification and access rights","Defined terms section references external definitions in the Act (12 expressions) plus 3 internal definitions, creating a split glossary","Exception to exception structure in break provisions: standard 4-hour rule, subject can elect to waive/shorten, prescribed authority can offer earlier breaks with reduced duration (15-30 minutes), but all subject to voluntariness requirements","Procedural safeguards with cascading requirements: section 9(7) requires written summaries of explanations, which themselves reference sections 34DC and 34DD of the Act, plus additional matters in paragraphs (b) and (c)"],"plain_english_summary":"This instrument sets the rules ASIO must follow when questioning people under special national‑security questioning warrants, updating the 2020 regime. It affects subjects (including 14–17‑year‑olds), their representatives, police, lawyers, interpreters and independent supervisors.\n\nIt matters because these warrants compel answers and restrict contact; the instrument imposes humane treatment, tailored protections for children and vulnerable people, recording and oversight, and limits on police use to reduce risks of abuse."},"flash_summary":{"complexity_score":6,"scope_assessment":{"changed":false,"description":"The instrument revokes and replaces the 2020 Statement of Procedures but does not alter ASIO's statutory powers under the Act; it prescribes internal procedures and safeguards under section 34AF. It changes procedural detail (recording, liaison, welfare, vulnerabilities, police involvement and oversight mechanisms) without expanding or contracting the underlying legal scope of ASIO's authority as set out in the ASIO Act."},"complexity_factors":["Cross-references to multiple provisions of the ASIO Act (eg. ss.34B, 34BB, 34BH, 34DP, 34HA, 34CC) create interpretive dependence on primary legislation (see instrument header and ss.6, 8, 14).","Multiple decision-makers with discretion: Director‑General (warrant requests, destruction of recordings), prescribed authorities (conduct of questioning, breaks, removal of lawyers/representatives), and police (apprehension and force) increase coordination needs (see ss.6, 9, 10, 12).","Detailed vulnerability and minor protections require case-by-case assessment and potential medical/psychologist input, increasing procedural complexity and expert‑dependency (ss.6(c),(d), 9(9), 13(6)).","Urgent oral warrant requests permitted where delay is prejudicial to security, creating parallel fast-track procedures and evidentiary burdens (s.6(2)).","Extensive record‑keeping and reporting obligations (written records, breach logs, inventories, master video retention and access records) add administrative and IT‑security demands (ss.8, 8A, 11(2), 14(5)–(9)).","Operational coordination with external entities (IGIS, AFP/state police, prescribed authorities) and notification duties raise inter-agency compliance and timing constraints (ss.7, 10, 12A).","Detailed procedural safeguards (break lengths, sleep minima, food/water, interpreter rules) create multiple conditional rules to monitor and enforce during questioning (ss.9(10)–(19), 9(16)–(17)).","Video recording security and destruction rules require secure storage systems with access logs and a destruction threshold tied to Director‑General satisfaction, raising evidentiary and governance questions (s.14).","Complaint handling and ability to defer questioning for complaints or information demand additional procedural workflows and privacy considerations (s.15).","Recurring review requirement tied to Minister’s Guidelines adds periodic governance and possible change management burdens (ss.5, 16)."],"plain_english_summary":"Sets procedures for ASIO questioning warrants. Requires extra detail in requests (risks, vulnerabilities, minors’ best‑interests), sets liaison and notification duties, prescribes conduct during questioning (breaks, language access, health care), mandates video recording and records, defines police roles and limits, and establishes complaint/review steps.\n\nAffects ASIO, the Director‑General, police, IGIS, prescribed authorities, subjects (including minors) and lawyers. ASIO and police bear compliance costs; subjects may face detention and limits on liberty. Operational discretion remains with ASIO and prescribed authorities, while the instrument increases record‑keeping and oversight obligations (ss.6–16)."}},"importantCases":[],"_links":{"self":"/api/acts/australian-security-intelligence-organisation-statement-of-procedures-instrument-2025","history":"/api/acts/australian-security-intelligence-organisation-statement-of-procedures-instrument-2025/history","analysis":"/api/acts/australian-security-intelligence-organisation-statement-of-procedures-instrument-2025/analysis","conflicts":"/api/acts/australian-security-intelligence-organisation-statement-of-procedures-instrument-2025/conflicts","importantCases":"/api/acts/australian-security-intelligence-organisation-statement-of-procedures-instrument-2025/important-cases","documents":"/api/acts/australian-security-intelligence-organisation-statement-of-procedures-instrument-2025/documents"}}